Stella M1

MODULE 1: GENERAL, INORGANIC, ORGANIC, AND QUALITATIVE
PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY
By Stella Gustilo, RPh
Do not replicate or distribute without prior consent and permission on succeeding reviews
QUESTION ANSWER
1. Treatment for iron deficiency anemia B.
A. Elemental iron
B. Ferrous sulfate
C. Ferric sulfate
D. Ferric & ferrous sulfate
2. Element used for the surgical repair of bones; Metal unaffected by C.

body fluids, used in surgical repair of bones, nerves and muscles
A. Titanium
B. Thalium
C. Tantalum
D. Tellurium
3. Components of universal antidote B.

I. Activated charcoal
II. Tannic acid
III. Magnesium oxide
IV. Magnesium hydroxide
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
4. 6% hydrogen peroxide B.
A. 10 vol
B. 20 vol
C. 30 vol
D. 40 vol
5. Most electronegative element D.

A. Chlorine
B. Helium
C. Neon
D. Fluorine
6. Glucose tolerance factor C.

A. Zinc
B. Lithium
C. Chromium
D. Copper
7. Element found in chlorophyll B.

A. Calcium
B. Magnesium
C. Barium
D. Iron
8. Components of artificial air for the alleviation of respiration difficulty A.

A. 20% oxygen + 80% helium
B. 30% oxygen + 70% helium
C. 40% oxygen + 60% helium
D. 50% oxygen + 50% helium
9. Water fit for drinking D.

A. Tap water
B. Bacteriostatic water
C. Sparkling water
D. Potable water
10. Formula for ester D.

A. R-OH
B. R-CHO
C. R-O-R
D. R-COOR
E. R-COOH
11. Element with antidiarrheal property C.

A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Aluminum
D. Phosphorus
12. Volatile metals easily purified via distillation since they have low D.
boiling points
I. Hg
II. Zn
III. Cd
IV. As
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV
13. For scabies B.

A. Benzoic acid
B. Benzyl benzoate
C. Benzyl alcohol
D. Benzaldehyde
14. Glass components and their functions which are correctly paired B.
I. Manganese dioxide – masks red color of iron in silica
II. Borate – improves coefficient of expansion
III. Potassium – renders light resistance property
IV. Lead – decreases refractive index
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV
15. Most abundant and essential element in humans and widely used in A.
the medical field
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Sodium
D. Potassium
16. Talc C.
A. Native hydrated aluminum silicate
B. Colloidal aluminum silicate
C. Hydrated magnesium silicate
D. Amorphous aluminum silicate
17. Alkali metal used in psychiatry B.

A. Technetium
B. Lithium
C. Aluminum
D. Selenium
E. Potassium
18. Formula for ketone D.

A. R-COOR
B. R-CHO
C. R-O-R
D. R-COR
E. R-COOH
19. Used to disinfect water C.

A. Fluorine
B. Iodine
C. Chlorine
D. Bromine
20. Compound of sodium used for cyanide poisoning and also in A.

photography
A. Sodium thiosulfate
B. Sodium nitrite
C. Sodium nitrate
D. Sodium chloride
21. This quantum number determines the position of electron orbital B.

relative to other energy levels and determines the overall size of the
orbital
A. Magnetic quantum number (m)

B. Principal quantum number (n)
C. Spin quantum number (s)
D. Angular momentum quantum number (l)
22. Which element belongs to the first triad? D.
A. Palladium
B. Platinum
C. Osmium
D. Cobalt
23. Most insoluble compound of calcium which is found in kidney stones C.

A. Calcium hydroxide
B. Calcium oxide
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Calcium gluconate
24. Electronegativity measures an atom's tendency to attract and form C.

bonds with electrons. Electron affinity refers to the ability of an atom
to accept an electron and is a quantitative measurement of the
energy change that occurs when an electron is added to a neutral gas
atom.
A. Only the first statement is true

B. Only the second statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false
25. A solution which can resist pH change upon addition of an acid or B.

base and able to neutralize small amounts of added acid or base to
maintain the pH of a solution.
A. Reducing agent
B. Buffer solution
C. Oxidizing agent
D. Catalyst
26. Constantan C.
A. Copper-zinc alloy
B. Copper-tin alloy
C. Copper-nickel alloy
D. Copper-silver alloy
27. SI unit for radioactivity A.

A. Becquerel
B. Curie
C. Gray
D. Roentgen Equivalent Man
28. Insulin stabilizer A.

A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Chromium
D. Phosphorus
29. Brass C.
A. Copper + Iron
B. Copper + Tin
C. Copper + Zinc
D. Copper + Silver
30. Glycerin is classified as A.

A. Alcohol
B. Ester
C. Ether
D. Carboxylic acid
31. Sunshine vitamin B.

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
32. Reducing agent B.

A. Potassium permanganate
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Halogens
33. It states that when stress is applied to a system in equilibrium, the C.

equilibrium shifts to relieve the stress.
A. Aufbau principle
B. Law of Mass Action
C. Le Chatelier’s principle
D. Heisenberg principle
34. Major intracellular anion A.

A. Phosphate
B. Chloride
C. Sulfate
D. Bicarbonate
35. Major extracellular cation B.

A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium
36. Chalcogen except D.

A. Oxygen
B. Sulfur
C. Selenium
D. Technetium
37. Group IA are also known as A.

A. Alkali metals
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Noble gases
D. Pnictogens
38. Which of the following hydroxides is not amphoteric? B.
A. Aluminum
B. Magnesium
C. Zinc
D. Bismuth
39. Atomic radius increases from top to bottom within a group. Ionization C.
energy increases from left to right across a period of elements.
A. Only the first statement is true
B. Only the second statement is true
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false
40. Most toxic vitamin C.

A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Retinoic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
41. Least stable vitamin A.

A. Cevitamic acid
B. Tocopherol
C. Folic acid
D. Cholecalciferol
42. Which belongs to the soluble group of cations? B.

A. Mn
B. Mg
C. Sr
D. Ag
43. Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet D.
precipitate with this pink dye
A. Carbol fuchsin
B. Dimethylglyoxime
C. Aluminon
D. Rhodamine B
44. Most susceptible to hydrolysis A.

A. Ester
B. Amide
C. Carboxylic acid
D. None of the above
45. Wood alcohol D.

A. Ethanol
B. Isopropanol
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Methanol
46. Element always present in Grignard reagent C.

A. Mn
B. Cu
C. Mg
D. Ni
47. Primarily underdoes ketone reduction A.

A. Prednisone
B. Chloral hydrate
C. Acetylcholine
D. Amitriptyline
48. First mammalian metabolite isolated as a product of glycine D.

conjugation of benzoic acid
A. Acetic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Hippuric acid
49. Also known as diacetylmorphine B.

A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Buprenorphine
D. Methadone
50. Enantiomer of thalidomide responsible for phocomelia B.

A. R
B. S
C. Both A & B
D. None of the choices
51. Present in all steroid drugs C.

A. Indole ring
B. Beta-lactam ring
C. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene ring
D. Imidazole ring
52. Laughing gas used as inhalational general anesthetic B.

A. Nitric oxide
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Nitrogen gas
D. Silver nitrate
53. Phosphoryl-containing ACE inhibitor D.

A. Enalapril
B. Quinapril
C. Captopril
D. Fosinopril
54. Which among the following antihistamines have greater lipophilicity D.

enabling passage through the BBB and causing drowsiness to the
patient
A. Cetirizine
B. Desloratadine
C. Fexonadine
D. Diphenhydramine
55. Activated charcoal exhibits what time of antagonism? D.

A. Physiologic antagonism
B. Pharmacologic antagonism
C. Chemical antagonism
D. Physical antagonism
56. Active form of insulin B.
A. Dimer
B. Monomer
C. Hexamer
D. Pentamer
57. Antibiotic class with broadest spectrum of activity A.

A. Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Macrolides
D. Beta-lactam antibiotics
58. Composed of two amino sugars linked together in glycosidic linkage B.

to a central hexose
A. Tetracyclines
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Macrolides
D. Beta-lactam antibiotics
59. Metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial D.
property
A. Sulfamethoxazole
B. Sulfacetamide
C. Sulfisoxazole
D. Sulfanilamide
60. Prototypical quinolone C.

A. Ofloxacin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Moxifloxacin
61. Substitution on phenol ring which enhances antimicrobial property B.

A. Ortho position
B. Para position
C. Meta position
D. Beta position
62. Bisurea derivative containing six sulfonic acid groups which is used for A.
African sleeping sickness
A. Suramin
B. Stibogluconate
C. Eflornithine
D. Melarsoprol
63. Pharmaceutical preservative with carcinogenic properties B.

A. Citric acid
B. BHA
C. Lecithin
D. EDTA
64. Most potent inhalational anesthetic C.

A. Halothane
B. Sevoflurane
C. Methoxyflurane
D. Isoflurane
65. Baclofen, a GABA derivative, is indicated for: A.

A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Alzheimer’s disease
D. Insomnia
66. Potassium flame test result D.

A. Crimson red
B. Brick red
C. Persistent yellow
D. Fleeting lavender
67. Thiabendazole, a benzimidazole derivative, is used as B.

A. Antifungal agent
B. Anthelmintic agent
C. Antibacterial agent
D. Antiprotozoal agent
68. True about Zidovudine A.

I. also known as Azidothymidine
II. Active against retroviral infections
III. Used in the treatment of cytomegalovirus
IV. Indicated for viral influenza
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. I, IV
D. I, II, IV
69. Rancidity is caused by B.

A. Reduction of double bonds in lipids
B. Oxidation of double bonds in lipids
C. Saponification
D. Hydrogenation
70. 1,3,7-trimethylxanthine C.
A. Aminophylline
B. Theobromine
C. Caffeine
D. Theophylline
71. Non-ionic surfactant polymer in povidone-iodine enhancing solubility D.

and diminishing volatility and irritant property of iodine
A. Pyridine
B. Pyrrolidine
C. Pyrrole
D. Polyvinylpyrrolidone
72. Antidote for accidental ingestion of silver nitrate B.

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Normal saline solution
C. Acetic acid solution
D. Potassium permanganate solution
73. Used to detect trace amounts of metallic contaminants A.

A. Atomic absorption spectroscopy
B. Mass spectroscopy
C. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectrophotometry
D. UV-Vis spectrophotometry
74. Official water used for the extemporaneous compounding of C.

parenterals for IV or IM injection
A. WFI
B. BWFI
C. SWFI
D. Purified water
75. Pharmaceutic aid commonly used to displace air to increase shelf-life D.

of oxidizable products especially in parenteral solutions
A. Argon
B. Helium
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
76. Water containing iron characterized by ferruginous taste C.

A. Siliceous water
B. Lithia water
C. Chalybeate water
D. Saline water
77. A system wherein two opposing reactions proceed at the same rate C.
A. Catalyst
B. Chemical kinetics
C. Chemical equilibrium
D. Chemical constant
78. Exsiccated calcium sulfate B.

A. Gypsum
B. Plaster of Paris
C. Chalk
D. Quicklime
79. Ion giving Turnbull’s blue precipitate with potassium ferricyanide C.
A. Cupric ion
B. Cuprous ion
C. Ferrous ion
D. Ferric ion
80. Calamine component rendering the pink coloration A.

A. Ferric oxide
B. Zinc oxide
C. Magnesium silicate
D. Aluminium silicate
81. Used to detect the presence of reducing sugars D.

A. Fehling’s reagent
B. Barfoed’s reagent
C. Benedict’s reagent
D. All of the above
82. Saltpeter C.
A. KNO2
B. NaNO2
C. KNO3
D. NaNO3
83. Itai-itai disease is associated with which heavy metal toxicity? D.
A. Pb
B. Hg
C. Al
D. Cd
84. Lugol’s solution C.
A. 2% I2 + NaI + H2O
B. 2% I2 + NaI + alcohol
C. 5% I2 + KI + H2O
D. 5% I2 + KI + H2O2
85. Responsible for salmon pink colored sulfide B.

A. CdS
B. MnS
C. ZnS
D. Sb2S3
86. Babbitt metal: A.

A. 80% Sn + 20% Sb
B. 70% Ce + 30% Fe
C. 50% Bi + 25% Sn + 25% Pb
D. 50% Sn + 50% Pb
87. Reacts with cobalt to form Rinmann’s green A.
A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. Nickel
88. Purpose of Denige’s Test D.

A. Differentiate aldose from ketos
B. Differentiate amino acids from peptides
C. Distinguish DNA from RNA
D. Distinguish citric acid from tartaric acid
89. Which of the following is not used in HPLC? C.
A. Internal standard
B. Column
C. Nitrogen gas
D. Pump
90. Which of the following renders resistance against catalytic B.

breakdown by MAO in catecholamines?
A. Altering the hydroxyl groups in the catechol ring
B. Adding bulky groups to the ethylamine side chain
C. Adding methyl group to the alpha carbon
D. All of the above
91. Which is not a phase II biotransformation reaction? B.
A. Glucuronidation
B. N-hydroxylation
C. Sulfation
D. Acetylation
92. What is the major degradation product of epinephrine? D.
A. Choline
B. 5-hydroxytryptamine
C. Homovanillic acid
D. Vanillyl mandelic acid
93. Antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity: C.
A. Aspirin
B. Naproxen
C. Acetaminophen
D. Mefenamic acid
94. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom renders which effect to the D.

duration of action of the drug molecule
A. Long-acting
B. Intermediate-acting
C. Short-acting
D. Ultra-short acting
95. Proton pump inhibitors are chemically known as B.
A. Catecholamines
B. Benzimidazoles
C. Choline esters
D. Aryloxypropanolamines
96. Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as D.
A. Astringent
B. Rubefacient
C. Refrigerant
D. All of the above
97. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillin: B.
A. Penicilloic acid
B. Penicillenic acid
C. Penicillic acid
D. Penicilloate hydrochloride
98. Which of the following is not used for topical application? D.

A. Silver sulfadiazine
B. Mafenide
C. Sodium sulfacetamide
99. DOC for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria and erythrocytic C.
Plasmodium falciparum malaria
A. Primaquine
B. Amodiaquine
C. Chloroquine
D. Mefloquine
100. Artemisinin derivative that is more lipophilic and the least A.

stable but most effective for malaria
A. Artemether
B. Artesunate
C. Dihydroartemisinin
D. Chloroquine
MODULE 2: PHARMACOGNOSY & BIOCHEMISTRY
QUESTION ANSWER
1. Vitamin P is composed of ____________ & ______________ B.
I. Rutin
II. Quercetin
III. Hesperidin
IV. Hesperitin
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. I, IV
D. III, IV
2. Which glycoside classification does Bearberry belong to? D.

A. Anthraquinone
B. Lactone
C. Cyanophore
D. Phenol
3. Which glycoside classification does Vanilla belong to? D.

A. Saponin
B. Flavonol
C. Cardiac
D. Aldehyde
4. True about the cyanogenic glycoside laetrile C.

I. Also known as Vitamin B15
II. Also known as Vitamin B17
III. A semi-synthetic form of amygdalin
IV. Has been used as anti-cancer agent
A. I, IV
B. II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, III, IV
5. In the tests for fixed oils, which are correctly paired? B.

I. Millon Test – Coconut oil
II. Baudouin test – Sesame oil
III. Halphen Bevan test – Cottonseed oil
IV. Serger test – Olive oil
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. III, IV
D. II, III, IV
6. The following are classified as waxes, except: D.

A. Spermaceti
B. Jojoba oil
C. Carnauba wax
D. Lanolin
7. Which of the following are pyrimidine bases? C.

I. Guanine
II. Adenine
III. Cytosine
IV. Uracil
V. Thymine
A. I, II
B. I, II, III, V
C. III, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV
8. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. TCA cycle occurs in the C.

mitochondria.
A. Only the first statement is true.
B. Only the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
9. Which is classified under phenolic ether volatile oils? A.

A. Nutmeg
B. Myrcia
C. Camphor
D. Peppermint
10. Eugenol is a volatile oil component of _________. D.

A. Gaultheria
B. Caraway
C. Thyme
D. Clove
11. Wormwood A.
A. Artemisia absinthium
B. Foeniculum vulgare
C. Cymbopogon citratus
D. Lavandula angustifolia
12. Oleo-gum-resin B.
A. Eriodictyon
B. Asafetida
C. Storax
D. Mandrake
13. A type of mutation wherein a purine base is replaced by another D.

purine base
A. Nonsense
B. Missense
C. Transversion
D. Transition
14. Alkaloid classification of pilocarpine C.

A. Indole
B. Tropane
C. Imidazole
D. Pyridine-piperidine
15. Morphine alkaloidal classification B.

A. Quinoline
B. Isoquinoline
C. Alkaloidal amine
D. Indole
16. Correctly paired tests for glycosides: A.

I. Borntrager’s test - anthraquinones
II. Schiff’s test - aldehydes
III. Guignard’s test - phenols
IV. Millon’s test - cyanophores
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV
17. Anti-acne agent that is produced from the ozonolysis of castor oil C.
A. Undecylenic acid
B. Ricin
C. Azelaic acid
D. Ricinoleic acid
18. Burning feet syndrome is associated with which vitamin B deficiency? D.

A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B5
19. Menaquinone B.
A. Vitamin K1
B. Vitamin K2
C. Vitamin K3
D. Vitamin D2
20. Amino acids with aromatic side chains except C.

A. Tyrosine
B. Tryptophan
C. Cysteine
D. Phenylalanine
21. Ring structure found in histidine A.

A. Imidazole ring
B. Indole ring
C. Phenol
D. Benzene ring
22. Amino acids with positively charge side chains except C.

A. Lysine
B. Arginine
C. Glutamate
D. Histidine
23. Enzyme group responsible for the nonhydrolytic removal of a group B.

or addition of a group to a substrate
A. Ligase
B. Lyases
C. Isomerase
D. Oxidoreductase
24. Kinases belongs to which enzyme classification? D.

A. Hydrolases
B. Oxidoreductases
C. Synthetases
D. Transferases
25. A general test for carbohydrates where sample is reacted with C.

concentrated sulfuric acid and furfural or furfural derivates react
further with -naphthol to form a purple ring at the junction of two
layers
A. Seliwanoff’s test
B. Benedict’s test
C. Molisch’s test
D. Osazone test
26. Test which distinguishes between aldose and ketose sugars wherein A.
upon treatment with a concentrated acid, ketoses are dehydrated
more rapidly forming furfural derivatives which react with resorcinol
to give a cherry red complex
A. Seliwanoff’s test
B. Benedict’s test
C. Molisch’s test
D. Osazone test
27. Used to determine the presence of pentoses using resorcinol, HCl, B.

and ferric chloride. Pentose sugars become dehydrated to form
furfural and the solution turns bluish with precipitate formation.
A. Moore’s test
B. Bial’s test
C. Tollen’s test
D. Barfoed’s test
28. Used for distinguishing monosaccharides from reducing disaccharides D.

based on the reduction of cupric (II) acetate to cuprous (I) oxide
(Cu2O), which forms a brick-red precipitate. Disaccharides may react,
but the reaction is much slower because they have to get hydrolyzed
first and then react with the reagent cupric acetate to produce
cuprous oxide.
A. Moore’s test
B. Bial’s test
C. Tollen’s test
D. Barfoed’s test
29. C-2 epimer of glucose B.
A. Galactose
B. Mannose
C. Fructose
D. Sucrose
30. Nucleophilic addition reaction of an alcohol to an aldehyde forms a A.

A. Hemiacetal
B. Hemiketal
C. Ester
D. Ether
31. Biosynthetic pathway that produces aromatic amino acids C.

A. Citric acid cycle
B. Pentose phosphate pathway
C. Shikimate pathway
D. Urea cycle
32. Starting point or precursors of shikimic acid pathway A.

I. Erythrose-4-phosphate
II. Phosphoenolpyruvate
III. Shikimic acid
IV. Chorismate
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV
33. Correct about ampalaya as a aDOH-approved herbal medicine B.

I. For diabetes
II. Peperomia pellucida
III. For gout
IV. Momordica charantia
A. I, II
B. I, IV
C. II, III
D. III, IV
34. Correct about bayabas as a DOH-approved herbal medicine B.
I. Scientific name is Blumea balsamifera
II. Scientific name is Psidium guajava
III. Anti-urolithiasis
IV. Antiseptic
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. I, IV
D. II, III
35. Tsaang gubat D.
I. Vitex negundo
II. Cough remedy
III. Antidiarrheal
IV. Carmona retusa
A. I, III
B. I, II
C. II, IV
D. III, IV
36. Niyog-niyogan B.
I. Used as anthelmintic
II. Cassia alata
III. Quisqualis indica
IV. Antifungal
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. III, IV
37. Family in which plant source of coffee is found B.

A. Asteraceae
B. Rubiaceae
C. Solanaceae
D. Rosaceae
38. Family in which Atropa belladonna belongs to C.

A. Asteraceae
B. Rubiaceae
C. Solanaceae
D. Rosaceae
39. The number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide necessary to C.

neutralize the free acids and to saponify the esters present in 1 g of
the substance.
A. Acid value
B. Ester value
C. Saponification value
D. Acetyl value
40. High molecular weight polysaccharide synthesized from sucrose by D.

beneficial lactic acid bacteria such as Leuconostoc mesenteroides
therapeutically used as a plasma expander in cases of hypovolemia
from surgery, trauma, or injury.
A. Xanthan gum
B. Inulin
C. Hydroxyethyl starch
D. Dextran
41. True about the cell membrane D.

I. The semipermeable barrier that surrounds the cytoplasm of a cell
II. Described by the fluid mosaic model to be composed of
phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins, and carbohydrates
III. Amphiphilic single-layer lipid sphere
IV. Regulates the transportation of molecules across the membrane
and communicate with other cells via protein receptors
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, IV
42. Cocoa butter D.

I. Also known as theobroma oil
II. Source of cocaine
III. Suppository base
IV. From the Malvaceae family
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. I, IV
D. I, III, IV
43. Liquid separated from the coagulum containing lactose and inorganic C.
salts
A. Skimmed milk
B. Buttermilk
C. Whey
D. Cream
44. True about hydrolyzable tannins except D.

I. Also known as pyrogallol-type
II. Blue-black color with ferric chloride
III. Negative in bromine test
IV. Green-black color with ferric chloride
V. Also known as phlobatannins
A. I, III
B. II, IV
C. III, V
D. IV, V
45. Correct regarding non-hydrolyzable tannins except C.

A. Also known as condensed tannins
B. Type of leather is known as tanner’s red
C. Type of leather is known as bloom
D. Yields phlobaphenes
46. Type A blood type means that A-antigens are present on the A.
erythrocytes and B-antibodies (Anti-B) are present in the plasma.
During blood transfusion, compatible blood types for a blood type A
patient are blood type B and O.
47. Blood type AB is known as the universal recipient. Blood type O is C.

known as the universal donor.
48. Alkaloidal reagent consisting of iodine in potassium iodide solution B.

A. Mayer’s reagent
B. Wagner’s reagent
C. Hager’s reagent
D. Dragendorff’s reagent
49. Test for glycerol with a positive result of acrid odor A.

A. Acrolein test
B. Liebermann Burchard test
C. Salkowski’s test
D. Ninhydrin test
50. Specific test for tryptophan C.

A. Sakaguchi test
B. Millon’s test
C. Hopkins cole test
D. Mucic acid test
51. Partial or incomplete antigen which could be a small molecule that D.

can elicit an immune response only when attached to a larger carrier
such as a protein
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Epitope
C. Antibody
D. Hapten
52. Stereoptenes are solid oxidized hydrocarbon components of volatile B.

oils. Which of the following is not a stereoptene?
A. Menthol
B. Eugenol
C. Anethole
D. Thymol
53. Process by which volatile oils from flower petals are placed on the fat A.
spread on glass plates for a few hours and repeated until fat absorbs
as much fragrance as possible then the oil is extracted with alcohol
A. Enfleurage
B. Ecuelle method
C. Extraction
D. Distillation
54. Also known as eserine D.

A. Hyoscine
B. Reserpine
C. Strychnine
D. Phytostigmine
55. Number of isoprene units in sesquiterpene B.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
56. Pathologic product formed in the stomach of spermwhale when it A.
feeds on squid or cuttlefish
A. Ambergris
B. Spermaceti
C. Musk
D. Civet
57. True about ethiodized oil, except C.

A. Iodine addition product of the ethyl ester of the fatty acids of
Poppy seed
B. Radiopaque/diagnostic aid to examine the lymph/uterus
C. Comes from Gossypium hirsutum
D. Classified as a fixed oil
58. Drying oils with iodine value range of greater than 120 B.
I. Olive oil
II. Linseed oil
III. Cod liver oil
IV. Cottonseed oil
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. II, IV
D. II, III, IV
59. Excrescence obtained from the young twigs of Quercus infectoria, D.
Fagaceae when a hymenopterous insect (Cynips tinctoria) punctures it
to deposit its eggs
A. Kumyss
B. Myrrh
C. Japanese gall
D. Nutgall
60. Used for repigmentation in vitiligo and control of psoriasis A.

A. Methoxsalen
B. Uroshiol
C. Cantharidin
D. Arbutin
61. Supplement with hepatoprotective properties B.

A. Ginkgo
B. Milk thistle
C. Ginseng
D. Valerian root
62. Chikusetsusaponin is most likely found in D.

A. Zingiber officinale
B. Capsicum frutescence
C. Glycyrrhiza glabra
D. Panax quinquefolius
63. Gum from red algae C.

A. Algin
B. agar
C. Carrageenan
D. Ghatti
64. Aslo known as D-glucitol B.

A. Mannitol
B. Sorbitol
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Methanol
65. Correct sequence of the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology and B.

Genetics
A. Replication Translation Transcription
B. Replication Transcription Translation
C. Translation Replication Transcription
D. Transcription Replication Translation
66. The only anthraquinone glycoside that is NOT used as a cathartic C.

because it is very irritating and used as a keratolytic instead
A. Senna
B. Rhubarb
C. Chrysarobin
D. Cascara sagrada
67. Test for deoxysugars or cardiac glycosides wherein the positive result B.
is a reddish brown color which will later form and turn bluish green
after standing
A. Shinoda test
B. Keller killani test
C. Kedde test
D. Froth test
68. A few fragments of magnesium ribbon and concentrated hydrochloric A.

acid added to ethanolic extract wherein the appearance of red to pink
color after few minutes indicates the presence of flavonoids
A. Shinoda test
C. Kedde test
D. Froth test
69. Test for saponins D.

A. Shinoda test
C. Kedde test
D. Froth test
70. Squill belongs to C.

A. Isothiocyanate glycosides
B. Antraquinone glycosides
C. Cardiac glycosides
D. Phenol glycosides
71. Separation of animal fats from tissues with steam with or without B.
pressure then decanted
A. Expression
B. Rendering
C. Solvent extraction
D. Ecuelle method
72. Olive oil extracted with hot water B.

A. Second grade
B. Technical grade
C. Tournant grade
D. Sulfur grade
73. True about woolfat except C.

A. Also known as anhydrous lanolin
B. Used as water absorbable ointment base
C. From Capra hircus
D. Purified fat-like substance obtained from wool
74. True about cod liver oil except E.
A. from Gadus morrhua
B. sclerosing agent to obliterate varicose veins
C. source of vitamin A and D
D. Source of omega-3
E. None of the above
75. Correlated with esophageal cancer A.

A. Areca catechu
B. Camellia sinensi
C. Chicorium intybus
D. Rheum officinale
76. Polyfructan of fructofuranose used to improve digestion, evaluate C.

renal function, and as an ingredient in culture media
A. Sodium starch glycollate
B. Methylcellulose
C. Inulin
D. Chitin
77. Formed by the action of nitric and sulfuric acid on cotton and used in D.
the preparation of collodions
A. Pregelatinized starch
B. Pyroxylin
C. Soluble guncotton
D. Both B and C
78. Extract of the inner portion of the rind of citrus fruits and apple B.
pomace used as a suspending agent and antidiarrheal
A. Chitosan
B. Pectin
C. Tannin
D. Gum arabic
79. Source of tragacanth which is used as an emulsifying or suspending A.

agent
A. Astragalus gummifer
B. Acacia senegal
C. Anogeissus latifolia
D. Sterculia urens
80. Not a reducing sugar C.
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Trehalose
D. Lactose
E. Maltose
81. Carbohydrates with 5-membered ring consisting of four carbons and B.

one oxygen
A. Pyranose
B. Furanose
C. Acetal
D. Ketal
82. What enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting and committed step in A.

glycolysis?
A. Phosphofructokinase
B. Hexokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
83. Sphingosine + fatty acid C.

A. Cerebroside
B. Ganglioside
C. Ceramide
D. Sphingomyelin
84. Disease state deficient in β-Hexosaminidase A D.

A. Fabry
B. Gaucher
C. Krabbe
D. Tay-Sachs
85. Bad cholesterol since it transfers cholesterol (via endocytosis) to B.

extrahepatic tissues, the liver, and to macrophages, which turn them
into foam cells that participate in the formation of atherosclerotic
plaques
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. IDL
D. VLDL
86. Synthesized from arachidonic acid and mediates various tissue A.
response such as cytoprotection, inflammation, bronchoconstriction,
and blood coagulation
A. Eicosanoids
B. Serotonin
C. Cholesterol
D. Histamine
87. Glycogen storage disease resulting from a defect in the debranching D.

enzyme
A. Andersen
B. Pompe
C. von Gierke
D. Cori
88. A defect in phenylalanine metabolism due to deficiency in B.

phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to phenylalanine buildup and
results in CNS defects if left untreated
A. Alkaptonuria
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Maple syrup disease
D. Albinism
89. A defect in phenylalanine and tyrosine metabolism due to the A.

deficiency in homogentisic acid oxidase, leading to accumulation of
homogentisic acid which results in urine becoming black after
exposure to light
A. Alkaptonuria
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Maple syrup disease
D. Albinism
90. What is the Enzyme Commission (EC) number of hexokinase? E.

A. 5.4.2.2
B. 3.1.1.7
C. 1.14.11.2
D. 4.1.1.1
E. 2.7.1.1
91. Enzymes that catalyze cleavage of bonds by addition of water D.

A. Oxidoreductase
B. Lyase
C. Ligase
D. Hydrolase
E. Isomerase
92. This form of DNA is thought to be the principal form that occurs in D.
nature.
A. Z-DNA
B. A-DNA
C. X-DNA
D. B-DNA
93. Antineoplastic drug which inhibits thymidylate synthase C.

A. Bleomycin
B. Methotrexate
C. 5-fluorouracil
D. Daunorobicin
94. Who coined the term “Pharmacognosy” in Analecta B.

Pharmacognostica?
A. Serturner
B. Seydler
C. Schmidt
D. Pelletier & Caventou
95. Substitute for chocolate B.

A. St. John’s wort
B. St. John’s bread
C. Xanthan gum
D. Gum arabic
96. Mucic acid test is for the determination of B.

A. Ribulose
B. Galactose
C. Fructose
D. Sucrose
97. From Arctostaphylos uva-ursi which has a hydroquinone aglycone A.

responsible for its whitening property.
A. Arbutin
B. Umbelliferone
C. Aniline
D. Kojic acid
98. Pseudotannins are low-molecular weight substances that precipitate C.

gelatin similar to true tannins. They do not give a positive result in the
goldbeater’s skin test.

99. Which plant family stores its volatile oils in oil tubes or vittae? A.
A. Apiaceae
B. Piperaceae
C. Lamiaceae
D. Pinaceae
100. Has anxiolytic properties C.

A. Jalap
B. Podophyllum
C. Kava-kava
D. Colophony
MODULE 3: DISPENSING/CLINICAL/HOSPITAL PHARMACY/PHARMACEUTICAL CALCULATIONS
By: Stella Gustilo, RPh
QUESTION ANSWER
1. Components of Oral Rehydration Salts A
A. Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, Citrate, and Glucose

B. Sodium, Potassium, Chloride
C. Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, Citrate
D. Sodium, Potassium, Glucose
2. In line with the COVID19 pandemic, the Philippine FDA list of vaccines that D
are under Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) include the following, except
I. Pfizer-BioNTech
II. Oxford-AstraZeneca
III. CoronaVac (Sinovac)
IV. Gamaleya Sputnik V
V. J&J Janssen
VI. Bharat Biotech Covaxin
VII. Moderna
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, III, IV, V
C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
D. I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII
3. Storage requirement of Pfizer-BioNTech Vaccine is -80 to -60 degrees C

Celsius. Pfizer-BioNTech vaccine efficacy is 95% and two doses must be
administered 21 days apart.
A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect
4. Saxagliptin drug classification and indication B
A. Thiazolidinediones:Type 2 Diabetes
B. Dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DPP4) inhibitor:Type 2 Diabetes
C. Alpha-adrenergic blocker:Hypertension
D. Calcium channel blocker:Hypertension
5. Metabolic acidosis A
A. Decreased bicarbonate concentrations in the blood

B. Increased arterial carbon dioxide
C. Decreased hydrogen ions in the blood
D. Higher blood pH than normal
6. ADHD
C
A. Autistic Deficit Hyperactivity Disease
B. Attention Deficiency Hyperactive Disorder
C. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
D. Augmented Deficiency Hyperactive Disorder
7. D5W D
A. Lactated Ringer’s Solusion

B. Normal Saline Solution
C. Sterile Water for Injection
D. Dextrose 5% in Water
8. Use/s of Magnesium sulfate D
I. Cathartic
II. Electrolyte replenisher
III. Antiarrhythmic
IV. Prevent seizures in severe pre-eclampsia and eclampsia
A. I, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
9. An abnormal narrowing or constriction of a blood vessel or other tubular A
organ or structure
A. Stenosis
B. Sclerosis
C. Thrombosis
D. Pyosis
10. The following are correctly paired, except: C
I. Superscription – Rx symbol
II. Inscription – Instruction to the pharmacist
III. Signa – Instruction to the patient
IV. Subscription – Medication, dosage strength, and dosage form
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. II, IV
D. II, III, IV
11. Type of prescription error when generic name does not correspond to the B
brand name
A. Erroneous prescription
B. Impossible prescription
C. Violative prescription
D. Yellow prescription
12. The direct, responsible provision of medication-related care for the A
purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve a patient’s quality of life.
A. Pharmaceutical care
B. Pharmacotherapeutics
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Pharmacodynamics
13. Standard validity of PRC license/ID card C
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
14. Where do you apply for a license to operate (LTO) for a drug establishment D
A. DTI
B. DOH
C. PPhA
D. FDA
15. In health economics, this method integrates patient preference and health- B
related quality of life wherein the cost is measured in monetary units and the
therapeutic outcome is measured in patient-weighted utilities such as quality
of life.
A. Cost-effectiveness analysis
B. Cost-utility analysis
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Cost-minimization analysis
16. An approach or specialized medical care that focuses on providing relief B
from pain and symptoms of serious diseases and aims to improve the quality
of life of patients and their families who are facing problems associated with
the life-threatening illness. It prevents and relieves suffering through the early
identification, correct assessment and treatment of pain and other problems,
whether physical, psychosocial or spiritual.
A. Pharmaceutical care
B. Palliative care
C. Pharmacotherapeutics
D. Alternative medicine
17. Epoetin alfa is used for A
A. Anemia caused by CKD, cancer chemotherapy, or HIV-therapy
B. Coronary Artery Disease
C. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disorder
D. Diabetes Mellitus
18. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, or its B
precursor, but not necessarily in the same amount or dosage form, or the
same salt or ester (e.g., tetracycline hydrochloride, 250mg capsules vs.
tetracycline phosphate complex, 250mg capsules; quinidine sulfate, 200mg
tablets vs. quinidine sulfate, 200mg capsules)
A. Pharmaceutical equivalents
B. Pharmaceutical alternatives
C. Therapeutic equivalents
D. Generic drugs
19. Excess uric acid in the blood D
A. Polyuria
B. Glycosuria
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyperuricemia
20. Elements of unit dose drug distribution D
I. Medications are contained in single unit packages
II. Medications are dispensed in ready-to-administer form as much as possible
III. Not more than a 24-hour supply of doses
IV. Improved overall drug control and drug use monitoring with reduced
incidence of medication errors
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
21. Primary hyperthyroidism A
A. Low TSH, high T3 & T4
B. High TSH, high T3 & T4
C. High TSH, Low T3 & T4
D. High PTH, High Calcium, Low Phosphate
22. Biomarkers for MI (myocardial infarction) D
I. AST
II. ALT
III. Troponin I
IV. LDH 1
V. CK-MB
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. III, V
D. I, III, IV, V
23. Biomarkers for liver disease/toxicity B
I. AST
II. ALT
III. BUN
IV. LDH 1
V. CK-MM
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. III, V
D. I, III, IV, V
24. Hospitals may be classified according to D
I. Length of stay
II. Bed capacity
III. Type of service
IV. Ownership
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
25. Contains the conditions wherein the use of a drug product is known to be C
associated with an unacceptable risk and it should not be used in such
situation because the risk is much greater than the possible benefit
A. Precaution
B. Indication
C. Contraindication
D. Warning
26. Components of TPN D
I. Carbohydrates
II. Amino acids
III. Lipids
IV. Electrolytes
V. Vitamins
A. I, II, IV
B. II, IV, V
C. II, III, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV, V
27. Drug which has an evidence of risk on the fetus however its potential C
benefit outweighs the potential risk
A. Category B
B. Category C
C. Category D
D. Category X
28. The narrative that describes the current medical problem A
A. History of present illness (HP!)
B. Chief complaint (CC)
C. Review of systems (ROS)
D. Family history (FH)
29. Co-amoxiclav exhibits B
A. Addition
B. Potentiation
C. Antagonism
D. Synergism
30. An act of failing to do the right thing which leads to undesirable outcomes C
such as failure to counsel the patient refers to error of omission. An error of
commission is the act of doing something wrong that causes an undesirable
outcome such as dispensing the incorrect medication, dosage strength or
dosage form.

31. If drug A is acidic, in order to promote its excretion, the patient must be B
given a urinary acidifying agent like ammonium chloride. Excretion is
promoted when the drug is converted to hydrophilic, ionized, or polar form.

32. If drug B is basic, in order to promote its excretion, the patient must be B
given a urinary alkalinizing agent such as sodium bicarbonate. Reabsorption of
the drug will be promoted when the drug is in its lipophilic, unionized, and
nonpolar form.

33. The heart of the drug supply system D
A. Cost
B. Standard Operating Procedures
C. Warehousing
D. Inventory management
34. Push logistic system is where a peripheral facility determines the drug C
quantities to be requisitioned from the procurement unit or warehouse. Pull
logistic system is where the procurement unit or warehouse determines what
drug quantities are to be issued to the peripheral facilities.

35. The Cockroft & Gault equation is used to estimate C
A. Albumin
B. BUN
C. Creatinine Clearance
D. Creatine Clearance
36. Center of pharmaceutical care D
A. Pharmacist
B. Physician
C. Nurse
D. Patient
37. Gold standard for MI diagnosis A
A. Troponin I
B. CK-MB
C. LDH 1 & 2
D. HbA1c
38. What is an important reminder when it comes to patient counseling for the B
better absorption of griseofulvin?
A. Take with high-fiber meal
B. Take with lipid-rich meal
C. Do not take with alcohol
D. Do not take with milk
39. TPN is also known as C
A. Hyperparenteronutrition
B. Hyperalligation
C. Hyperalimentation
D. Hyperaugmentation
40. Solvent to be used during the extemporaneous preparation of parenterals D
A. WFI
B. Distilled water
C. Bacteriostatic water for injection
D. SWFI
41. Which vitamin enhances iron absorption? C
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
42. Coomb’s test B
A. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
B. Diagnosis of hemolytic anemia
C. Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
D. Diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism
43. Method used in compounding for the incorporation of small amount of A
potent drugs with large amount of diluent
A. Geometric dilution
B. Trituration
C. Block and divide
D. Granulation
44. Sudden withdrawal of steroids after long term use A
A. Addison’s disease
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Cushing’s disease
D. Graves’ disease
45. Extemporaneous manual preparation of capsules B
A. Alligation method
B. Punch method
C. Geometric dilution
D. Molding method
46. A 35-year old patient has CHF. He was initially prescribed with enalapril but C
he developed and complained about intolerable dry cough after a few weeks.
What could be a common alternative for this case?
A. Lisinopril
B. Digoxin
C. Losartan
D. Methyldopa
47. Patient with amoxicillin allergy can be given which alternative antibiotic D
with the least cross-reactivity instead
A. Cephalexin
B. Piperacillin-tazobactam
C. Co-amoxiclav
D. Erythromycin
48. True about study designs except C
A. Case control is also known as retrospective study design
B. Cross-sectional study is also known as prevalence study design
C. Cohort is also known as crossover study design
D. Randomized controlled clinical trials are the gold standard experimental
study design
49. Medication error category wherein it led to prolonged hospitalization C
A. Category D
B. Category E
C. Category F
D. Category G
50. Medication error category wherein it led to patient death D
A. Category F
B. Category G
C. Category H
D. Category I
51. Proper interpretation of: “1 tab t.i.d. pc” D
A. Take one tablet twice a day before meals
B. Take one tablet twice a day after meals
C. Take one tablet thrice a day before meals
D. Take one tablet thrice a day after meals
52. Pregnancy category wherein there are no risks of teratogenicity in animal A
studies however there are no adequate well-controlled human studies
conducted
A. Category B
B. Category C
C. Category D
D. Category X
53. Aplasia cutis is the teratogenic effect of C
A. Lithium
B. Retinoids
C. Methimazole
D. Valproic acid
54. Enzyme inhibitors D
I. Rifampicin
II. Carbamazepine
III. Cimetidine
IV. Ketoconazole
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. III, IV
55. Enzyme inducers A
I. Rifampicin
II. Carbamazepine
III. Cimetidine
IV. Ketoconazole
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. III, IV
56. Barbiturates are common CYP450 enzyme inducers. What will happen to C
the serum concentration of the substrate drugs when co-administered with
barbiturates?
I. Metabolism and excretion of substrate drug will slow down
II. Metabolism and excretion of drug will be faster
III. Concentration of the substrate drug will be less in the bloodstream
IV. Concentration of the substrate drug will be higher than normal in the
bloodstream
A. I, III
B. I, IV
C. II, III
D. II, IV
57. Grapefruit juice contains psoralens and is a common CYP450 enzyme A
inhibitor. What will happen to the serum concentration of the substrate drugs
when taken with grapefruit juice?
I. Metabolism and excretion of substrate drug will slow down
II. Metabolism and excretion of drug will be faster
III. Decreased substrate drug serum concentration
IV. Elevation of substrate drug serum concentration
A. I, III
B. I, IV
C. II, III
D. II, IV
58. Sodium nitroprusside recommended route of administration during A
hypertensive emergencies
A. IV infusion
B. IV bolus
C. IM
D. SQ
59. Substances that absorb moisture but do not dissolve B
A. Hydroscopic
B. Hygroscopic
C. Efflorescent
D. Deliquescent
60. Passive immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a C
disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system.
An example of passive immunity is when a newborn baby acquires antibodies
from its mother through the placenta.

61. Active immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the C
immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Exposure to the disease
organism can occur through infection with the actual disease, resulting in
natural active immunity.

62. Introduction of a killed or weakened form of the disease organism through B
vaccination (vaccine-induced immunity) renders passive immunity. Active
immunity is longer lasting than passive immunity.

63. Sinovac renders active artificial immunity. Immunoglobulins render passive C
artificial immunity.

64. Which are proper tall man lettering according to the FDA in the following A
examples?
A. DOPamine and DOBUTamine

B. dopAMINE and dobutAMINE
C. DOpamine and DObutamine
D. doPAmine and doBUTAmine
65. Chronic smoking leads to A
A. Enzyme induction
B. Enzyme inhibition
C. No effect on CYP450 enzymes
66. A reversible cholestatic jaundice is an adverse effect of Erythromycin C
particularly with which form?
A. Ethylsuccinate
B. Palmitate
C. Estolate
D. Lactobionate
67. Water-soluble vitamins C
I. Cevitamic acid
II. Cyanocobalamin
III. Folic acid
IV. Tocopherol
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, III only
D. I, II, III, IV
68. Therapeutic index measures the relative safety of a drug. The higher the A
therapeutic index, the more toxic (less safe) the drug.
69. Narrow therapeutic index drugs except D
A. Digoxin
B. Warfarin
C. Theophylline
D. Beta-blockers
70. Senolytic drugs B
A. Anti-flatulent
B. Anti-aging
C. Anti-cancer
D. Anti-parkinson’s
71. Which electrolyte imbalance increases Digoxin toxicity? C
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
72. Most common storage temperature for biologicals B
A. 8-15 degrees Celsius
B. 2-8 degrees Celsius
C. Ambient room temperature
D. Freezing temperature
73. Toxic metabolite of cyclophosphamide that causes hemorrhagic cystitis A
A. Acrolein
B. NAPQI
C. Mercaptoethane sulfonate (Mesna)
D. Epoxide
74. Immunoglobulin class or the only antibody class that significantly crosses D
the human placenta
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
75. A true non-sedating 2nd generation antihistamine ideal for patients who A
need to maintain wakefulness or alertness during the treatment of their
allergic rhinitis
A. Loratadine
B. Meclizine
C. Cetirizine
D. Diphenhydramine
76. True about floor stock system D
A. Less responsibility/workload for the pharmacist
B. Higher risk for expiration of drugs and pilferage
C. Drugs readily available in the nursing station or patient care area
D. All of the above
77. NPO B
A. Non-parenteral order
B. Nothing by mouth
C. Neonatal parenteral order
D. No pharmacist on-duty
78. Weakly acidic drugs bind to which serum protein? C
A. Alpha 1-acid glycoprotein
B. Transferin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen
79. Responsible for creating hospital formulary C
A. PSHP
B. PPhA
C. PTC
D. FDA
80. Which metallic ion is required in blood coagulation? D
A. Sodium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
81. Genetic disorder producing abnormal hemoglobin form B
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Pernicious anemia
E. Iron deficiency anemia
82. Anemia due to malabsorption or inadequate intake of Vitamin B12 and D
folate
A. Aplastic anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
83. Anemia due to bone marrow suppression or damage commonly induced by A
chemotherapy
A. Aplastic anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
84. Antidiuretic hormone B
A. Oxytocin
B. Vasopressin
C. Somatostatin
D. Luteinizing hormone
85. Emergency room preferred first line therapy for asthma attack B
A. Corticosteroid
B. Short-acting Beta-2 agonists
C. Epinephrine
D. Antihistamines
86. Diabetes mellitus complications D
A. Retinopathy
B. Nephropathy
C. Gangrene of extremities
D. All of the above
87. Schilling test A
A. Diagnosis of Vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Diagnosis of Vitamin C deficiency
C. Diagnosis of Parkinson’s Disease
D. Diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis
88. Anticoagulant action of heparin is monitored by B
A. prothrombin time
B. activated partial thromboplastin time
C. CBC
D. serum concentration
89. Tetracyclines form complexes with metal ions that are poorly absorbed. A
Tetracyclines can have better absorption when taken with milk.

90. Drug displacement occurs when two drugs compete for binding on the C
same plasma protein. The displaced drug is also known as the unbound or free
drug which can exert more pharmacologic effects and subjected to
metabolism.

91. Ranitidine (Zantac) is effective in treating duodenal ulcers since it B
A. inhibits the proton pump (hydrogen-potassium ATPase)

B. blocks histamine 2 receptor stimulation which inhibits gastric acid secretion
C. directly neutralizes hydrochloric acid
D. Diminishes gastrointestinal motility
92. Why is acetaminophen not ideal for rheumatoid arthritis? D
A. Highly gastric irritant and may induce bleeding
B. Highly nephrotoxic and hepatotoxic
C. Has no analgesic effects
D. It lacks anti-inflammatory properties
93. Infection acquired in the hospital A
A. Nosocomial infection
B. Primary infection
C. Secondary Infection
D. Institutional infection
94. Test that assesses cerebellar function C
A. Snellen’s test
B. Doll’s test
C. Romberg’s test
D. Weber’s test
95. Infant B
A. 1 day – 1 month old
B. 1 month – 1 year old
C. 1 year – 12 years old
D. Born before 32 weeks
96. REM in radiopharmacy stands for B
A. Radiation Exposure per Minute

B. Roentgen Equivalent Man
C. Radiologic Exposition Meter
D. Radiologic Exposure per Millisecond
97. Protein-bound drugs are C
A. Subjected to metabolism immediately

B. Biologically active
C. Biologically inactive
D. Automatically excreted
98. Correct about expressions of concentration C
I. %w/w = grams solute in 100 g solution

II. % w/v = mg solute in 100 mL solution
III. %v/v = mL solute in 100 mL solution
IV. ppm = mg/L
V. Molarity = number of moles of solute in 1 L solution
A. I, III, V
B. II, III, IV, V
C. I, III, IV, V
99. Calculate the sodium chloride equivalent (E-value) of ephedrine sulfate A

given the Liso value = 5.8 and molecular weight = 428.54.
A. 0.23 E = L/MW X
B. 0.01 17
C. 73.89
D. 2485.53
100. The New York Heart Association functional limitation class where heart D
failure symptoms occur even at rest
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV
* NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
DIAGNOSTIC EXAM: MODULE 4

BIOPHARMACEUTICS, PHARMACOKINETICS, PHARMACOLOGY,
TOXICILOGY, DRUG INCOMPATIBILITIES, AND ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONS
Prepared by: Stella Rowse Gustilo, RPh
June 2021 Licensure Examination Review
Name: Date: Score: /100

QUESTION ANSWER
1. Which of the following are parasympathetic effects? E.
I. Mydriasis
II. Peristalsis
III. Bradycardia
IV. Bronchodilation
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. I, III
D. II, IV
E. II, III
2. Which of the following are sympathetic effects? A.
I. Urinary retention
II. Constipation
III. Bronchoconstriction
IV. Miosis
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. III, IV
D. I, II, III
3. What drug inhibits the storage of catecholamines in presynaptic B.
vesicles through the inhibition of the vesicular monoamine
transporter?
A. Metyrosine
B. Reserpine
C. Vesamicol
D. Hemicholinium
4. Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors is used in the diagnosis C.
of myasthenia gravis?
A. Echothiophate
B. Parathion
C. Edrophonium
D. Neostigmine
5. Ipratropium is indicated for COPD. Scopolamine is used for vertigo. C.

6. Which of the following are non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking C.
agents? I. Vecuronium
II. Cisatracurium
III. Succinylcholine
IV. Tubocurarine
A. I, II
B. III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
7. Irreversible non-selective alpha blocker D.
A. Phentolamine
B. Prazosin
C. Phentermine
D. Phenoxybenzamine
8. Ultra-short acting beta-blocker with a half-life of approximately 10 A.

minutes due to rapid metabolism of its ester linkage
A. Esmolol
B. Sotalol
C. Nebivolol
D. Metoprolol
9. Drug of choice for absence seizure C.
A. Valproic acid
B. Carbamazepine
C. Ethosuximide
D. Lamotrigine
10. Demeclocycline is used to manage: C.
A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Malaria
C. SIADH
D. MDR tuberculosis
11. First line drug for the management of ADHD B.
A. Amphetamine
B. Methylphenidate
C. Aripiprazole
D. Lithium bicarbonate
12. Which of the following is not a 2nd generation antihistamine? D.
A. Fexofenadine
B. Desloratadine
C. Cetirizine
D. Promethazine
13. Bisacodyl A.
A. Irritant laxative
B. Bulk-forming laxative
C. Emollient laxative
D. Saline laxative
14. Which of the following has been associated with cholestatic jaundice? B.
A. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
B. Erythromycin estolate
C. Erythromycin stearate
D. Erythromycin gluceptate
15. Used when coagulation is needed during pregnancy C.
A. Enoxaparin
B. Ticlopidine
C. Regular heparin
D. Warfarin
16. First line drug for hypertriglyceridemia D.
A. Ezetimibe
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Rosuvastatin
D. Fenofibrate
17. Inhalational anesthetic used in asthmatic patients D.
A. Methoxyflurane
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Halothane
D. Enflurane
18. It is the first line drug for cardiogenic shock D.
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Dobutamine
19. Produces first-dose hypotension or postural hypotension through the A.
blockade of alpha-1 receptors
A. Prazosin
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Pindolol
D. Verapamil
20. Which could precipitate rebound hypertension due to abrupt C.
cessation?
A. Diltiazem
B. Enalapril
C. Clonidine
D. Losartan
21. Calcium channel blocker which suppresses atrial tachyarrhythmias B.
A. Amlodipine
B. Verapamil
C. Nicardipine
D. Felodipine
22. Which would lower the glucose levels of a patient with type 2 DM in A.
the fastest manner?
A. Insulin aspart
B. Insulin glargine
C. NPH insulin
D. Insulin detemir
23. Intermediate acting barbiturates except C.
A. Amobarbital
B. Alobarbital
C. Methohexital
D. Butabarbital
24. SNRIs except A.
A. Fluoxetine
B. Duloxetine
C. Venlafaxine
D. Desvenlafaxine
25. Which of the following is a penicillinase-resistant antibiotic? A.
A. Oxacillin
B. Pen V
C. Carbenicillin
D. Ampicillin
26. Co-amoxiclav exhibits B
A. Addition
B. Potentiation
C. Synergism
D. Antagonism
27. Proton pump Inhibitor C.
A. Albendazole
B. Fluconazole
C. Omeprazole
D. Co-trimoxazole
28. Oral direct factor Xa inhibitor A.
A. Rivaroxaban
B. Bivalirudin
C. Argatroban
D. Dabigatran
29. Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator D.
A. Streptokinase
B. Tirofiban
C. Dipyridamole
D. Reteplase
30. Synthetic analog of amino acid lysine with antifibrinolytic activity B.
used to prevent bleeding
A. Urokinase
B. Tranexamic acid
C. Eptifibatide
D. Phytonadione
31. Clinical application for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors A.
A. Acute mountain sickness

B. Lung cancer
C. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
D. COPD
32. Diuretic acting on epithelial sodium channels D.
A. Indapamide
B. Eplerenone
C. Spironolactone
D. Amiloride
33. Drug of choice for the prompt treatment or relief of asthma A.
A. Salbutamol
B. Prednisone
C. Tiotropium
D. Cromolyn
34. Vasopressin-2 selective antagonist for the management of SIADH B.
A. Demeclocyline
B. Tolvaptan
C. Desmopressin
D. Cilostazol
35. Preferred for pregnant patients with hyperthyroidism B.
A. Levothyroxine
B. PTU
C. Methimazole
D. Iodine-131
36. Used to manage acute migraine headache D
I. Naratriptan
II. Propranolol
III. Methysergide
IV. Ergotamine
A. I, III
B. I, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
37. Used to manage serotonin syndrome A.
A. Cyproheptadine
B. Buspirone
C. Cisapride
D. Diphenhydramine
38. Diuretic of choice for alcoholic patience with hepatic cirrhosis C.
A. Mannitol
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. HCTZ
39. Describes the clinical applications, contraindications, and drug A.
interactions useful for the diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of
diseases
A. Pharmacotherapeutics
B. Biopharmaceutics
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Pharmacodynamics
40. CCB that dilates cerebral blood vessels useful in the management of D.
subarachnoid hemorrhage
A. Verapamil
B. Lacidipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Nimodipine
41. Buspirone is classified as an ____________ agent. B
A. Antipsychotic
B. Anxiolytic
C. Anticonvulsant
D. Anticancer
42. Antimycotic drugs are used for C
A. Helminth infestation
B. TB
C. Fungal infections
D. Protozoal infections
43. Most potent H2 blocker B.
A. Ranitidine
B. Famotidine
C. Cimetidine
D. Nizatidine
44. Dissociative anesthetic C.
A. Halothane
B. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
D. Droperidol
45. Xanthine oxidase inhibitor A.
A. Febuxostat
B. Celecoxib
C. Methotrexate
D. Selegiline
46. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor with longest duration of action since it A.
has the longest half-life and usually taken only once a day
A. Rosuvastatin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Simvastatin
D. Pravastatin
47. Targets fungal squalene epoxidase B
A. Amphotericin B
B. Terbinafine
C. Clotrimazole
D. Nystatin
48. Diuretic that acts on the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) C.
A. Mannitol
B. Furosemide
C. HCTZ
D. Acetazolamide
49. Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor used for A.
parkinsonism
A. Entacapone
B. Rasagiline
C. Bromocriptine
D. Carbidopa
50. Antifungal drug class that blocks beta-glucan synthase to prevent C.
synthesis of fungal cell wall
A. Azoles
B. Polyenes
C. Echinocandins
D. Allylamines
51. Anti-influenza agent neuraminidase inhibitor and analog of sialic acid D.
A. Lamivudine
B. Raltegravir
C. Enfuvirtide
D. Oseltamivir
52. Which is an amide anesthetic? C.
A. Benzocaine
B. Procaine
C. Mepivacaine
D. Tetracaine
53. Fomepizole inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents the C.
conversion of methanol and ethylene glycol into toxic metabolites.
Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase resulting to aldehyde
accumulation used as alcohol deterrent for patients with chronic
alcoholism.

54. Prostaglandin E1 analog with abortifacient property B.
A. Epoprostenol
B. Misoprostol
C. Dinoprostone
D. Carboprost
55. Inhibits sodium/glucose co-transporter (SGLT2) to prevent glucose C.
reabsorption and therefore lowers serum glucose concentrations as it
reduces sodium ion reabsorption causing mild diuresis particularly
used in diabetes mellitus
A. Rosiglitazone
B. Glibenclamide
C. Canagliflozin
D. Metformin
56. Biguanide oral hypoglycemic agent D.
A. Rosiglitazone
B. Glibenclamide
C. Canagliflozin
D. Metformin
57. Antiarrhythmic agents that belong to Class 1 are: A.
A. Sodium channel blockers

B. Beta-blockers
C. Potassium channel blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
58. Lidocaine has a low incidence of toxicity while having a high degree of B.
effectiveness in arrhythmias associated with acute myocardial
infarction. It is classified under which Class 1 subcategory?
A. Class Ia
B. Class Ib
C. Class Ic
D. Class Is
59. 2nd generation cephalosporin D.
A. Cephalexin
B. Cefixime
C. Cephradine
D. Cefuroxime
60. Cholinesterase inhibitors are drugs used for cholinomimetic effect. C.
Carbamates are intermediate-acting cholinesterase inhibitors.

61. Old generation antipsychotic drugs primarily block serotonin B.

receptors. Neuroleptic blockade of dopamine receptors leads to
extrapyramidal dysfunction such as akathisia, dystonia, and tardive
dyskinesia.

62. Drugs with anti-androgenic properties E.
A. Finasteride
B. Dutasteride
C. Spironolactone
D. Ketoconazole
E. All of the choices
63. Fansidar is used as treatment for chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum C.
infection. It is composed of:
A. Artesunate-artemether
B. Primaquine-halofantrine
C. Sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine
D. Atovaquone-proguanil
64. Etoposide targets topoisomerase II while irinotecan targets C.
topoisomerase I. Antimetabolite anticancer agents such as
5fluorouracil (5-FU) targets the S phase.

65. Steroids target G-protein coupled receptors. Insulin targets D.

intracellular receptors.

66. A substrate is a cofactor that binds tightly to enzymes. Holoenzyme is B.

the active form of the enzyme wherein the apoenzyme has combined
with its cofactor.

67. Biopharmaceutics is the branch of science which deals with the D.

processes a drug undergoes as it reaches and leaves the biological site
of action. Pharmacokinetics is the science that examines the

interrelationship of the physicochemical properties of the drug,
dosage form, and route of administration on the rate and extent of
systemic drug absorption.

68. Particle size and surface area are directly proportional. The smaller D.
the surface area, the faster the dissolution.

69. What type of antagonism does protamine and heparin exhibit? C.

A. Pharmacologic antagonism
B. Irreversible antagonism C. Chemical
antagonism
D. Physiologic antagonism
70. Looking at the graph A.
below, which drug is
the most potent?
A. DRUG A
B. DRUG B
C. DRUG C
D. DRUG D
71. Looking at the graph below, which drug is the most efficacious? C.
A. DRUG A
B. DRUG B
C. DRUG C
D. DRUG D
72. Cmax is the most variable bioavailability parameter. Tmax is the most A.
important bioavailability parameter.

73. Warfarin is highly protein bound to albumin. When another highly A.

protein bound drug is taken and displaces warfarin, there could be
risk of coagulation.

74. Route of administration with 100% bioavailability is via IM. Buccal B.

route avoids 1st pass effect.

75. Weak acids are better absorbed in alkaline environment. Weak bases D.
are better absorbed in acidic environment.

76. If Vd is high, drug is well-distributed into different tissue C.

compartments. If Vd is low, drug concentration in the plasma is high.

77. Clearance by the kidneys is called renal clearance, and that by all C.
other organs is referred to as nonrenal clearance. The latter most
often represents clearance by the liver.

78. Generic dispensing involves substitution of generic therapeutic A.

equivalents. Switching a prescribed medication with a therapeutic
alternative is a function of a pharmacist.

79. The presence of a partial agonist will cause antagonistic effects C.
toward a full agonist. Partial agonist does not reach maximum
achievable response due to intermediate affinity for both the active
and inactive receptors.

80. The higher the concentration gradient, the faster the drug diffusion. A.
The larger the surface area, the slower the drug diffusion.

81. Phase 1 metabolism is also known as the conjugation phase. Phase 2 D.

metabolism involves functionalization reactions.

82. Constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time and rate of drug B.
elimination is independent of drug plasma concentration
A. PRIMARY ORDER KINETICS

B. ZERO ORDER KINETICS
C. SECOND ORDER KINETICS
D. FIRST ORDER KINETICS
83. The binding site other than the endogenous ligand binding site B.
A. ORTHOSTERIC SITE
B. ALLOSTERIC SITE
C. PROSTHETIC SITE
D. BIOPHASIC SITE
84. Hydralazine toxicity is higher among C.
A. FILIPINOS
B. ESKIMOS
C. AMERICANS
D. ASIANS
85. Movement of molecules from low to high concentration utilizing ATP A.
A. ACTIVE TRANSPORT
B. PASSIVE DIFFUSION
C. OSMOSIS
D. CONVECTIVE TRANSPORT
86. Factors that delay absorption except D.
A. HIGH FAT MEALS
B. GASTRIC ULCERS
C. ANTICHOLINERGIC DRUGS
D. LYING ON THE RIGHT SIDE
87. Primary site for drug metabolism B.
A. SMALL INTESTINES
B. LIVER
C. STOMACH
D. LUNGS
88. Administration of Drug B shifted the dose response curve to the right C.
without changing the height of the curve as shown in the graph
below. Drug B is a:
A. NON-COMPETITIVE ANTAGONIST
B. INVERSE AGONIST
C. COMPETITIVE ANTAGONIST
D. PARTIAL AGONIST
89. Which is relatively the safest? D.

A. Drug A with therapeutic index of 0.5
B. Drug B with therapeutic index of 1
C. Drug C with therapeutic index of 10
D. Drug D with therapeutic index of 20
90. AMLODIPINE BEYSLATE (10 mg Tablet) & AMLODIPINE OROTATE (10 A.

mg Tablet)
A. Pharmaceutical alternatives
B. Pharmaceutical equivalents
C. Therapeutic alternatives
D. Therapeutic equivalents
91. Type of bioavailability where a non-IV drug is compared to and IV B.

counterpart
A. RELATIVE BIOAVAILABILITY
B. ABSOLUTE BIOAVAILABILITY
C. ALTERNATIVE BIOAVAILABILITY
D. EQUIVALENT BIOAVAILABILITY
92. Which among the following is an enzyme inducer? D.
A. ERYTHROMYCIN
B. KETOCONAZOLE
C. CIMETIDINE
D. CHRONIC ALCOHOLISM
93. Phenytoin + Prodrug C.

A. Inhibit conversion into active metabolite
B. Neutralize anticonvulsant activity
C. Promote conversion into active form
D. Induce phenytoin excretion
94. DETERMINES PRESENCE OR ABSENCE OF PHARMACOLOGIC EFFECT A.
(ALL OR NONE BIOACTIVITY OR TOXICITY AMONG STUDY
POPULATION)
A. QUANTAL DOSE RESPONSE CURVE
B. GRADED DOSE RESPONSE CURVE
C. MIDSLOPE
D. POTENCY
95. Drug X (IV drug) has a half-life of 12 hours. What % in the body would C.
it be after 36 hours?
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 12.5%
D. 6.25%
96. Drug that causes rhinitis medicamentosa B.
A. ENOXAPARIN
B. PHENYLEPHRINE
C. SIROLIMUS
D. IOTHALAMATE
97. Drug of choice for neuroleptic malignant syndrome D.
A. DIAZEPAM
B. ARIPIPRAZOLE
C. CLOZAPINE
D. DANTROLENE
98. ANTIDOTE FOR ACETAMINOPHEN POISONING: B.
A. HYDROXOCOBALAMIN
B. N-ACETYLCYSTEINE
C. SODIUM THIOSULFATE
D. DIMERCAPROL
99. To promote the excretion of acetylsalicylic acid in cases of overdose B.
or toxicity, which agent would be best used?
A. Ammonium chloride
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Ascorbic acid
100. Type of Adverse Drug Reaction when Stevens-Johnson B.
Syndrome (SJS), a rare and serious skin condition, occurs due to drugs
such as allopurinol, phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenobarbital,
and sulfa antibiotics
A. TYPE A ADR
B. TYPE B ADR
C. TYPE C ADR
D. TYPE D ADR
E. TYPE E ADR
MODULE 5: PHARMACEUTICS, MANUFACTURING PHARMACY, DOSAGE FORMS, PHYSICAL
PHARMACY, AND PHARMACEUTICAL JURISPRUDENCE & ETHICS
QUESTION ANSWER
1. Philippine Pharmacy Act D.
A. R.A. 9165
B. R.A. 9502
C. R.A. 9711
D. R.A. 10918
E. R.A. 6675
2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Act of 2009 C.

A. R.A. 9165
B. R.A. 9502
C. R.A. 9711
D. R.A. 10918
E. R.A. 6675
3. Universally. Accessible Cheaper and Quality Medicines Act of 2008 B.
A. R.A. 9165
B. R.A. 9502
C. R.A. 9711
D. R.A. 10918
E. R.A. 6675
4. Generics Act of 1988 E.

A. R.A. 9165
B. R.A. 9502
C. R.A. 9711
D. R.A. 10918
E. R.A. 6675
5. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 A.

A. R.A. 9165
B. R.A. 9502
C. R.A. 9711
D. R.A. 10918
E. R.A. 6675
6. This order prescribes the conditions and requirements for good B.
manufacturing practice applied to premises, equipment, personnel,
product and warehousing (cGMP).
A. A.O. 56 s. 1989
B. A.O. 220 s. 1974
C. A.O. 62 s. 1989
D. A.O. 63 s. 1989
7. Revised Regulations for the Licensing of Drug Establishments and A.

Outlets
A. A.O. 56 s. 1989
B. A.O. 220 s. 1974
C. A.O. 62 s. 1989
D. A.O. 63 s. 1989
8. Rules and regulations to implement prescribing requirements under C.

the Generics Act of 1988
A. A.O. 56 s. 1989
B. A.O. 220 s. 1974
C. A.O. 62 s. 1989
D. A.O. 63 s. 1989
9. Rules and regulations to implement dispensing requirements under D.

the Generics Act of 1988
A. A.O. 56 s. 1989
B. A.O. 220 s. 1974
C. A.O. 62 s. 1989
D. A.O. 63 s. 1989
10. Entities licensed by appropriate government agencies, and which are C.

involved in the manufacture, importation, exportation, repacking and
distribution of pharmaceutical products
A. Pharmaceutical manufacturers
B. Pharmaceutical outlets
C. Pharmaceutical establishments
D. Pharmaceutical traders
11. Minimum degree of independence or decision making and may have A.

supervised interaction with patients
A. Pharmacy assistant
B. Pharmacy technician
C. Pharmacy aide
D. Pharmacist
12. Assist in compounding and dispensing of medicines under supervision B.

of the pharmacist
A. Pharmacy assistant
B. Pharmacy technician
C. Pharmacy aide
D. Pharmacist
13. AEFI D.
A. Accredited establishment for immunization
B. Adult and early family immunization
C. Administration of effective and free immunization
D. Adverse event following immunization
14. Number of CPD units required for renewal of license for pharmacists C.
A. 25
B. 30
C. 45
D. 50
15. A drugstore, pharmacy or botica is required to have at least A.

__________ in floor area with concrete, tile or wooden flooring
A. 15 sq. m.
B. 15 sq. ft.
C. 25 sq. m.
D. 25 sq. ft.
16. According to RA 6675, government prescriptions, unlike prescriptions A.

from private establishments, may not include brand names.
Erroneous prescriptions include those wherein the brand name and
generic name do not match or coincide.
A. Only the first statement is correct.
B. Only the second statement is correct.
C. Both statements are correct.
D. Both statements are incorrect.
17. Meaning of MDRP according to EO 821 s 2009 B.

A. Multi-Drug Resistant Pathogen
B. Maximum Drug Retail Price
C. Minimum Drug Regulatory Price
D. Marketed Drug Rebate Program
18. The pharmacist denied Lolo Vicks, a 77 year old patient, the grant of C.
twenty percent discount and exemption from the value-added tax.
This violates _____________.
A. R.A. 6675
B. R.A. 9502
C. R.A. 9994
D. R.A. 3720
19. Correctly paired S licenses for dangerous drugs, except: D.

A. S2 - prescribers
B. S3- retailers
C. S4 - wholesalers
D. S5 - researchers
20. Correctly paired street names, except: E.

A. Morphine - Emma
B. Mescaline - Cactus
C. Cocaine - Crack
D. Synthetic cannabinoids – Scooby snax
E. Methamphetamine – Angel dust
21. Comminution technique using mortar and pestle to grind substances C.

B. Titration
C. Trituration
D. Spatulation
E. Levigation
22. A pharmaceutical process that thoroughly mixes a small amount of a A.

potent drug with an appropriate amount of a diluent, an inert
substance that thins or binds the drug.
B. Titration
C. Trituration
D. Spatulation
E. Levigation
23. Decreasing particle size using non-soluble liquids on a flat E.

compounding surface such as a glass tray with a metal spatula
wherein mineral oil or lanolin or petroleum jelly may be added to the
powder
B. Titration
C. Trituration
D. Spatulation
E. Levigation
24. Type A gelatin is obtained from acid processing. Type B gelatin is C.

obtained from alkali processing.
25. Container of choice for ointments D.

A. JAR
B. CANNISTER
C. BLISTER PACK
D. COLLAPSIBLE TUBE
E. WIDE-MOUTH BOTTLE
26. Oleaginous bases with emollient effect A.

A. HYDROCARBON OINTMENT BASE
B. ABSORPTION OINTMENT BASE
C. WATER-REMOVABLE OINTMENT BASE
D. WATER-SOLUBLE OINTMENT BASE
27. O/W emulsions resembling creams and have the ability to absorb C.
serous discharges
A. HYDROCARBON OINTMENT BASE
B. ABSORPTION OINTMENT BASE
C. WATER-REMOVABLE OINTMENT BASE
D. WATER-SOLUBLE OINTMENT BASE
28. Tablet film defect also called blooming which occurs when too high a B.
processing temperature is used for a particular formulation
A. Blistering
B. Hazing
C. Orange peel
D. Cracking
29. Tablet defect wherein there is removal of tablet’s surface by a punch D.

A. Mottling
B. Capping
C. Sticking
D. Picking
E. Lamination
30. Partial or complete separation of the top and bottom crowns of a B.

tablet from the main body of the tablet
A. Mottling
B. Capping
C. Sticking
D. Picking
E. Lamination
31. These are liquid preparations of vegetable drugs containing alcohol as C.
solvent or as a preservative, that each mL contains 1 g of the standard
drug it represents
A. Tincture
B. Elixir
C. Fluidextract
D. Extract
E. Excrescence
32. Apparatus used to determine sedimentation rate C.

A. Coulter counter
B. Hiac Royco
C. Andreasen apparatus
D. Roche apparatus
33. Most accurate method of determining particle size of powders A.

A. Optical microscopy
B. Sieve analysis
C. Carr’s index
D. Automated particle counter
34. Triclinic crystals B.

A. Sodium chloride
B. Boric acid
C. Sucrose
D. Iodoform
E. Urea
35. Which of the following is incorrect regarding transdermal patches? D.

A. Contain medications that are lipophilic enough to be absorbed
through skin layers
B. May be used during showering
C. Must be applied on areas with minimal hair
D. Can be cut into smaller pieces for multiple uses
36. TDDS wherein the patch controls the amount of drug delivered to the D.
skin is known as matrix typed. TDDS wherein drug delivered is
proportional to the size of the patch and allows the skin to control the
amount delivered is known as reservoir type.
37. Pharmaceutical dosage forms that bypass the first pass metabolism of E.
the liver
A. SL
B. Buccal
C. Rectal
D. IV
E. All of the above
38. Lactose is a common excipient used as a ___________ C.

A. Disintegrant
B. Suspending agent
C. Diluent
D. Surfactant
39. Colloidal silicon dioxide is used as a ____________ A.

A. Glidant
B. Flocculating agent
C. Humectant
D. Bulking agent
40. Measure of randomness or disorder in a system B.

A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Heat capacity
D. Gibb’s free energy
41. Bingham bodies exhibit what type of non-Newtonian flow? D.

A. Pseudoplastic
B. Thixotropic
C. Dilatant
D. Plastic
42. Quarantine label C.

A. Green
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Blue
43. Type I glass is highly resistant borosilicate glass which is best used for C.
aqueous parenteral solutions. Type III (soda lime glass) is used for
powders for parenteral solution.
44. Container closure system designed for use with a single patient as a A.
single injection/infusion
A. Single dose container
B. Unit dose container
C. Single unit container
D. Mono dosage container
45. Pertains to gels taking up water without measurable increase in B.

volume
A. Swelling
B. Imbibition
C. Syneresis
D. Thixotropy
46. Process used to prepare cascara sagrada fluidextract wherein boiling D.

water is used as menstruum
A. Process A
B. Process C
C. Process E
D. Process D
47. Uses of starch as an excipient, except: D.

A. Diluent
B. Binder
C. Disintegrant
D. Surfactant
48. Diluent that cannot be used in the production of Tetracycline tablets C.
A. Avicel
B. Lactose
C. Dibasic calcium phosphate
D. Starch
49. Filling method for highly viscous liquids A.

A. Gravimetric filling
B. Volumetric filling
C. Barometric filling
D. Constant level filling
50. Metal most widely used for aerosols B.

A. Aluminum
B. Tin
C. Stainless steel
D. Brass
51. A suppository which does not melt at body temperature is an D.

example of what defect?
A. Major defect
B. Critical defect
C. Ocular defect
D. Performance defect
52. If citric acid is used alone in effervescent granules, the mixture C.

becomes sticky. A crumbling mixture results from effervescent
granules formulated using tartaric acid alone.
53. The Hixson Crowell Equation is a cube root law used to describe the A.
dissolution of __________.
A. Powders
B. Tablets
C. Capsules
D. Enteric coated tablets
54. Urethral suppositories B.

A. Bolus
B. Bougies
C. Enema
D. Pessaries
55. LTO provider D.

A. DOH
B. DOLE
C. BIR
D. FDA
56. Test animal used for ophthalmic preparations B.
A. Albino mouse
B. Albino rabbit
C. Albino rat
D. Pigeon
57. Components of the absorption base Aquaphor or Hydrophilic C.

Petrolatum
I. White petrolatum
II. Beeswax
III. Cholesterol
IV. Stearyl alcohol
V. Polyethylene glycol
A. I, II, IV
B. I, II, V
C. I, II, III, IV
58. True about bulk powders B.

I. Insufflation are dilutions of potent powders with 10% active
pharmaceutical ingredient
II. Dusting powders are locally applied non-toxic powders with no
systemic action
III. Dentifrice contains a mild abrasive and anti-cariogenic agent.
IV. Douche powders are blown into a body cavity.
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. III, IV
D. I, II, III
59. True about divided powders D.
I. Prepared using block-and-divide method
II. Also known as chartulae
III. Use of glassine paper protects powder against moisture
IV. Waxed paper is suitable for hygroscopic and deliquescent
powdered drugs
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
60. Enteric-coated tablets are delayed-release dosage forms that remain C.

intact in the stomach but disintegrate in the small intestines.
Extended-release dosage forms provides prompt desired effect
followed by gradual release of remaining amount of the drug.

61. Clear or slightly opalescent viscous liquid prepared by dissolving 4% A.

nitrocellulose in a 3:1 mixture of ether and alcohol
A. Collodion
B. Poultice
C. Cataplasm
D. Plaster
E. Tincture
62. Correct about important manufacturing documents: D.
I. Master record – contains formulation, specifications, manufacturing

procedures, quality assurance requirements and labeling of a finished
product
II. Batch manufacturing record – contains all information about a
specific batch
III. Manufacturing order – gives instructions to the production
department to produce a product
IV. SOP – step-by-step instructions for performing operational tasks
A. I, II, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
63. Correct statement about granulation methods B.

I. The objective of granulation is to improve flowability and
compressibility.
II. Dry granulation is the method that will produce tablets of the best
quality.
III. Slugging is a dry granulation method.
IV. Fluid bed granulation is where powders are placed in a conical
equipment and vigorously dispersed while a liquid binder is sprayed
on them and dried forming granules
A. I, II, III
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
64. Document issued by the FDA for the purpose of marketing, use, and C.
free distribution of a product in the country
A. Batch certification
B. LTO
C. CPR
D. cGMP
65. Emulsification theory described as the tendency of an emulsifying A.

agent to orient itself about and within a liquid base on its solubility in
that liquid
A. Oriental wedge theory
B. Viscosity theory
C. Surface Tension theory
D. Interfacial film theory
66. Method used in making emulsions with volatile oils as components B.

A. English
B. Forbes
C. Continental
D. Nascent soap
67. Component of a film coat that enhances spreadability of the coat D.

upon application
A. Polyethylene glycol
B. Titanium dioxide
C. Cellulose acetate phthalate
D. Tweens
68. Packaging impervious to air C.

A. Tamper-resistant
B. Child-resistant
C. Hermetic
D. Tight
69. True about simple syrup C.

I. Also known as Syrup NF
II. 85% w/w
III. Specific gravity of 1.313
IV. Self-preserving
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
70. Avicel is also known as C.

A. Butylated hydroxytoluene
B. Croscarmellose
C. Microcrystalline cellulose
D. Sodium starch glycollate
71. Intermolecular force of attraction exhibiting inductive effect D.

A. London dispersion
B. Keesom
C. H-bonding
D. Debye
72. Stalagmometer is used to determine _________________. B.

A. Molecular weight of a substance
B. Surface tension
C. Particle size
D. Tablet hardness
73. Dye used in leakers test for ampules A.

A. Methylene blue
B. Crystal violet
C. Hydroxynaphthol blue
D. Methyl red
74. Gas used in sterilization of plastics C.

A. Nitrous oxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Ethylene oxide
D. Argon
75. Solution prepared in a cold environment D.

A. Burrow’s solution
B. Hydrogen peroxide solution
C. Lugol’s solution
D. Calcium hydroxide topical solution
76. States that under the same condition of temperature and pressure, A.
the speed of diffusion of two different gases are inversely
proportional to the square root of their densities.
A. Graham’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Charles’ law
D. Hess law
77. Angle of complete wetting A.

A. 0o
B. 45o
C. 90o
D. 180o
78. Protective property of colloids is expressed as D.

A. Acid value
B. Buffer capacity
C. Schulze-Hardy Rule
D. Gold number
79. A physician needs 60 mL of isotonic solution of 2% Tetracaine HCl. D.

How many grams of NaCl should be included in the formula?
(E Tetracaine HCl = 0.18)
A. 1.2 g
B. 0.216 g
C. 0.54 g
D. 0.324 g
80. Colligative properties except D.

A. Boiling point elevation
B. Freezing point depression
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Vapor pressure elevation
81. Amount of NaCl theoretically equivalent to one gram of specified B.
chemical or drug
A. Salt coefficient
B. E-value
C. Salt value
D. Saline coefficient
82. How much NaCl is needed to adjust the prescription below to obtain A.
an isotonic solution? (ECocaine HCl = 0.16)
Rx
Cocaine HCl 2%
NaCl q.s. 30 mL
A. 174 mg
B. 48 mg
C. 96 mg
D. 222 mg
83. A solution that contains more solute than it can ordinary dissolve at C.
room temperature
A. Saturated
B. Unsaturated
C. Supersaturated
D. Concentrated
84. The biological half-life of a drug eliminated by first order is B.

mathematically represented by ____________
A. log k
B. 0.693/k
C. 2.303/k
D. 1/k
85. Flavorants in antibiotic formulations except C.

A. Cherry
B. Raspberry
C. Anise
D. Vanilla-caramel
86. Leaching happens when there is a movement of component of

container into the contents. Sorption is when the contents adhere to
the container.
87. Components of glycerogelatin except D.

A. Glycerin
B. Water
C. Active pharmaceutical ingredient
D. PEG
E. Gelatin
88. USP limit for content uniformity C.
A. 85%-100%
B. 85%-110%
C. 85%-115%
D. 80%-100%
89. Basic parts of transdermal drug delivery system D.

I. Occlusive backing film
II. Adhesive layer
III. Drug reservoir
IV. Release liner
A. I, II, III
B. I, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
90. True antioxidants except C.

A. Vitamin E
B. Alkyl gallates
C. Vitamin C
D. BHT
91. Anionic emulsifying agent A.

A. Sodium lauryl sulfate
B. Benzalkonium chloride
C. Betaine
D. Magnesium trisilicate
92. Oven settings for the destruction of pyrogens: B.

I. 180 degrees Celsius for 2 hours
II. 250 degrees Celsius for 45 minutes
III. 650 degrees Celsius for 1 minute
IV. 550 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes
A. I, II
B. II, III
C. I, II, III
D. I, III
93. True regarding dry heat sterilization, except B.

A. Mechanism involved is oxidation
B. Mechanism involved is protein coagulation
C. Biological indicator is Bacillus subtilis
D. Oven setting of 160-170 degrees Celsius for 2-4 hours
94. Used as plasticizers in film coating solution, except D.

A. Castor oil
B. Glycerin
C. Phthalate esters
D. Methacrylate
95. Cam tracks of a tableting machine are responsible for the size and B.
shape of the tablet. Punches compress the materials into tablets.
96. Solid to gaseous state C.

A. Condensation
B. Vaporization
C. Sublimation
D. Deionization
97. 30-100 parts of solvent needed to dissolve 1 part of solute C.

A. Freely soluble
B. Soluble
C. Sparingly soluble
D. Slightly soluble
98. Emulsion instability wherein there is fusing of the agglomerates into a A.
larger drop
A. Coalescence
B. Creaming
C. Phase inversion
D. Flocculation
99. If oleic acid has an HLB value of 1.6, it would be functioning as A.

___________________.
A. Anti-foaming agent
B. W/O emulsifying agent
C. Detergent
D. Solubilizing agent
100. Law that governs the relationship between pressure, volume, D.

and temperature of gases which is expressed as PV = nRT
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’ law
C. Gay-Lussac’s law
D. Ideal Gas Law
* NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *
DIAGNOSTIC EXAM: MODULE 6

PHARMACEUTICAL MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY, PUBLIC
HEALTH, AND QUALITY CONTROL WITH DRUG TESTING, ASSAYING,
AND INSTRUMENTATION
Prepared by: Stella Rowse Gustilo, RPh
June 2021 Licensure Examination Review
Name: Date: Score: /100

QUESTION ANSWER
1. River blindness is a parasitic infestation of _____________________. C.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Trichuris trichiura
E. Enterobius vermicularis
2. _______________is a fish tapeworm that is acquired from ingesting B.

raw or insufficiently cooked freshwater fish.
A. Dipylidium caninum
B. Diphyllobotrium latum
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Taenia saginata
E. Taenia solium
3. Oriental lung fluke A. Schistosoma D.

japonicum
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Chlonorchis sinensis
D. Paragonimus westermani
E. Schistosoma hematobium
4. Causative agent of syphilis is Borrelia burgdorferi. First line antibiotic B.

for syphilis is penicillin G.
Parenterally
A. Only the first statement is true. administered
B. Only the second statement is true. penicillin G is
C. Both statements are true. considered
D. Both statements are false. first-line
therapy for
all stages of
syphilis.
Alternative
regimens for
non-
pregnant
patients with
no evidence
of central
nervous
system
involvement
include
doxycycline,
tetracycline,
ceftriaxone, and
azithromycin.
5. Tetanus toxoid confers what type of immunity? A.
A. Artificial active This type of immunity is

B. Artificial passive generated when a dead or
C. Natural active weakened version of the
D. Natural passive disease enters the body,
causing an immune
response which includes
the production of
antibodies.
6. Virulence is the ability of a microbe to cause a disease C.
by overcoming the host defense system.
Pathogenicity is the capacity of microorganisms to
produce toxins.

7. Examples of Probiotics: B.
I. Bifidobacteria
II. Bacillus fumidus The most commonly used
III. Lactobacillus probiotic microorganisms
against these pathogens
A. I only are: Lactobacillus
B. I & III acidophilus, Lactobacillus
rhamnosus GG,
C. II & III
Saccharomyces boulardii,
D. I, II, III
Bifidobacterium bifidum
and Bacillus coagulans.
8. Babies get their first antibodies from C.
a. Vaccines
b. Artificial Immunoglobulins
c. Colostrum
d. Toxoid
9. A “lichen” is a/an C.
a. Fungi and Paramecium
b. Fungi and Amoeba
c. Fungi and Algae

d. Algae and Amoeba
10. Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a rare and potentially B.

life-threatening illness that is thought to be caused
by infection with certain types of bacteria. Women
who are menstruating are most at risk of getting TSS,
as it is thought to be associated with tampon use.
The causative agent of TSS is
_____________________. a. Staphylococcus
epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
11. Functional group of Pyridoxine A.

a. Alcohol
b. Aldehyde
c. Ketone
d. Carboxylic acid
12. Treatment for PUD: D.

I. Amoxicillin
II. Clarithromycin
III. Metronidazole
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. II, III
d. I, II, III
13. A man owning a pig farm with a well as his source of B.

water is prone to which infection?
a. Amoebiasis
b. Balantidiasis
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Giardiasis
14. The number of cases of Filipinos with AIDS has C.
increased tremendously over the past few years.
This is described as: a. Epidemic
b. Acute
c. Pandemic
d. Endemic
15. Toxoplasma gondii is transmitted to humans via A.
a. Ingestion of resistant oocyst

b. Bite of vector insect
c. Ingestion of infected snails
d. Parasitic helminths
16. The following are used as cryoprotectant: D.

I. Methanol
II. Glycerol
III. Dimethylsulfoxide
a. I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I, II, III
17. An outbreak of sepsis due to S. aureus occurred in the A.

nursery. Normal flora Staphylococcus aureus are
located where?
a. Anterior nares
b. Small intestines
c. Colon
d. Ears
18. Sterilization of choice for ophthalmic solutions: C.
a. Autoclave
b. Radiation
c. Filtration
d. Pasteurization
19. The Four O’Clock Habit promoted by the DOH is for B.

the prevention of the spread of?
a. Malaria
b. Dengue
c. Sleeping Sickness
d. TB
20. Which of the following is an example of a protease D.
inhibitor?
a. Enfuvirtide
b. Acyclovir
c. Zidovudine
d. Saquinavir
21. Chemoprophylaxis against malaria if the patient B.

is pregnant A. Chloroquine
B. Mefloquine
C. Primaquine
D. Doxycycline
22. Xylose-Lysine Deoxycholate (XLD) is the specific C.

media for what microorganism/s?
I. Neisseria
II. Pseudomonas
III. Salmonella
IV. Shigella
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. III and IV
d. II and IV
23. Polyene antifungal that bore holes on the fungal cell B.

membrane to cause leakage of intracellular
contents and finally lysis of the fungal cell a.
Fluconazole
b. Amphotericin B
c. Flucytosine
d. Terbinafine
24. Notorious for causing pseudomembranous colitis C.
a. Penicillin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Clindamycin
d. Ciprofloxacin
25. The only single stranded DNA virus D.
a. Adenovirus
b. Pox virus
c. Herpes Simplex Virus
d. Parvovirus
26. DOC for Filiariasis A.
a. Diethylcarbamazine
b. Praziquantel
c. Mebendazole
d. Ivermectin
27. DOC for Hansen’s disease/Leprosy A.
a. Dapsone
b. Rifampicin
c. Clofazimine
d. Ethambutol
28. Which antifungal inhibits squalene epoxidase? A.
a. Terbinafine
b. Ketoconazole
c. Nystatin
d. Griseofulvin
29. Example of beta-lactamase resistant penicillin C.
a. Amoxicillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Oxacillin
d. Piperacillin
30. This antibiotic is reserved for highly resistant bacterial B.

strain of MRSA or MRSE and is known to cause Red
Man’s Syndrome
a. Imipenem
b. Vancomycin
c. Bacitracin
d. Chloramphenicol
31. Which anti-TB drug is mismatched with its side effect? D.
a. Isoniazid – Peripheral neuropathy

b. Rifampicin – Red-Orange Urine
c. Pyrazinamide - Hepatotoxicity
d. Ethambutol – Red-Blue Color Blindness
32. Neuraminidase inhibitor and DOC for influenza A.
a. Oseltamivir
b. Amantadine
c. Gancyclovir
d. Didanosine
33. Co-Artem is the DOC for malaria in the Philippines due A.

to resistant plasmodium strains. It is composed of:
a. Artemether + Lumefantrine
b. Artemisinin + Halofantrine
c. Artesunate + Lumefantrine
d. Artemether + Halofantrine
34. A monobactam that is referred to as the “silver bullet” A.

for gram negative infection
a. Aztreonam
b. Bacitracin
c. Moxalactam
d. Loracarbef
35. What is the unsaponifiable matter in animal fat? B.
a. Wax
b. Cholesterol
c. Stigmasterol
d. Lard
36. The assay of ascorbic acid makes use of iodimetry. Its A.

function is:
a. Reducing agent
b. Oxidizing agent
c. Acid
d. Base
37. All sulfides are black with a few exceptions. Which D.
sulfides are correctly paired with their color?
I. Manganese sulfide – Salmon Pink

II. Zinc sulfide - White
III. Cadmium sulfide- Yellow
IV. Antimony sulfide - Orange
a. I, II
b. I, III
c. I, II, III
d. I, II, III, IV
38. The bisulfite method for the assay of volatile oils A.
makes use of the cassia flask to determine:
a. Aldehyde Content
b. Ester Content
c. Phenol Content
d. Acid Content
39. Kjeldahl method is used to assay C.
a. Oxygen
b. Fluorine
c. Nitrogen
d. Lipids
40. Fluorescence is determined at what region? A.
a. UV Region
b. Visible Region
c. IR Region
d. Any of the above
41. Equation for Refractive Index D.
a. Sin i + Sin r
b. Sin i – Sin r
c. Sin r / Sin i
d. Sin i / Sin r
42. Bioassay of PTH involves what experimental animal D.
subject?
a. Rats
b. Rabbits
c. Cats
d. Dogs
43. Glass stopcock is used for A.
a. Strong acids
b. Strong bases
c. Plastic
d. Oxidizing agent
44. cGMP stands for: C.
a. current Good Manufacturing Properties

b. current Good Manufacturing Procedures
c. current Good Manufacturing Practices
d. current Good Manufacturing Protocol
45. The presence of cotton fiber in a liquid preparation is D.

an example of:
a. Critical Defect
b. Variable Defect
c. Internal Defect
d. Ocular Defect
46. This test measures the efficiency of membrane filters: C.
a. Dioctylphthalate Test
b. Laminar Air Flow
c. Bubble Point Test
d. Leaker’s Test
47. Indicator for Disodium Edetate VS direct titration of B.

Calcium Carbonate
a. Thymol Blue
b. Hydroxynaphthol Blue
c. Methylene Blue
d. Methyl Red
48. The law related to spectrometry wherein the power of C.
transmitted light decreases exponentially as the
thickness of the solution increases arithmetically is:
a. Charles’ Law
b. Beer’s Law
c. Lambert’s Law
d. Henry’s Law
49. In normal phase chromatography: C.
a. Stationary phase and mobile phase are both

polar
b. Stationary phase is nonpolar and mobile phase
is polar
c. Stationary phase is polar and mobile phase is
nonpolar
d. Stationary phase and mobile phase are both
nonpolar
50. Thiamine and riboflavin are assayed via: D.
a. Refractometry
b. Potentiometery
c. Colorimetry
d. Fluorometry
51. Unit of wavelength in spectrometry, except: D.
a. Angstrom
b. Nanometer
c. Micrometer
d. Millimeter
52. Adsorption indicators such as Eosin TS, DCF TS, and C.

TEE TS are used in:
a. Complexometry
b. Acidimetry
c. Precipitimetry
d. Alkalimetry
53. Trace minerals in a multivitamin preparations can be C.
assayed faster via:
a. HPLC
b. UV-Vis Spectrophotometer
c. Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer
d. Gas-Liquid Chromatography
54. Acceptable tablet hardness for chewable tablets B.

A. 2-5 kg
B. 2-3 kg
C. 5-8 kg
D. 4-10 kg
For numbers 55– 59.
A chromatogram shows:
Standard P – Rf of 0.50
Standard H – Rf of 0.81
Standard A – Rf of 0.20
Distance travelled by the spot:

Substance R – 0.62
Substance M – 0.75
Substance C – 0.98 Substance
S – 0.24
Substance T – 0.37
Solvent Front/Distance travelled by the solvent = 1.20

cm
55. What is the Rf value of Substance S? A.
a. 0.20
b. 0.31
c. 0.29
d. 0.96
56. What is the probable identity of Substance S? C.
a. Standard P
b. Standard H
c. Standard A
d. NOTA
57. What compound has the same identity as Standard H? C.
a. Substance R
b. Substance M
c. Substance C
d. Substance T
58. What is the probable identity of Substance M? D.
a. Standard P
b. Standard H
c. Standard A
d. NOTA
59. What is the Rf value of Substance T? A.
a. 0.31
b. 0.83
c. 0.63
d. 0.52
60. Opportunistic mycosis found in pigeon droppings D.
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Cryptococcus neoformans
61. Dengue virus vector A.
A. Aedes aegypti B.
Anopheles mosquito
C. Plasmodium spp.
D. Toxoplasma gondii
62. Gram positive rods with tumbling motility B.
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Clostridium botulinum
63. Bacterial gene transfer using bacteriophage B.
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Transposition
D. Conjugation
64. Primary stain for capsule staining C.
A. Crystal violet
B. Methylene blue
C. Malachite green
D. Methyl red
65. Stage of infectious disease wherein the symptoms D.
subside
A. Incubation
B. Prodromal
C. Peak
D. Convalescence
66. Orthophenantroline TS is used as indicator in B.

A. Permanganometry
B. Cerimetry
C. Iodometry
D. Iodimetry
67. The minimum time period covered by the data for B.

long term stability studies
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 9 months
68. Disintegration time for buccal tablets C.

A. 2 – 3 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 4 hours
D. 1 hour
69. Animal used in the assay of oxytocin C.

A. Rat
B. Sheep
C. Rooster
D. Dog
70. The type of defect that may endanger life and renders D.
the product useless:
A. Ocular
B. Minor
C. Major
D. Critical
71. Document contains the actual results of all tests D.
conducted
A. Specifications
B. Monograph
C. BMR
D. Certificate of Analysis
72. The masking agent used in the assay of Mg with A.

Sodium EDTA in the presence of Al is:
A. Triethanolamine
B. Thioglycol
C. Potassium cyanide
D. Ammonium fluoride
73. Approximate temperature of dull red heat: B.
A. 500 - 550°C
B. 550 - 700°C
C. 800 - 1000°C
D. 1000 - 1200°C
74. The type of chromatography where the cellulose of C.
the filter paper is used as absorbent:
A. Column chromatography
B. Gas chromatography
C. Paper chromatography
D. Thin layer chromatography
75. The theoretical point in which equivalent amount of B.

analyte and titrant have reacted.
A. Endpoint
B. Equivalence point
C. Reaction point D.
Indicator
76. It is the closeness to the true value A.
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Robustness
D. Sensitivity
77. The iodine value of oils is a quantitative measure of: D.

A. Phenol content
B. Saturation
C. Unsaponifiable matter
D. Unsaturation
78. A neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis B.
A. Tetanus toxin
B. Botulinum toxin
C. Tetrodotoxin
D. Latrotoxin
79. Used for structure determination C.

A. Mass spectrometry
B. Gas chromatography
C. NMR spectroscopy
D. UV-Vis spectroscopy
80. Storage for TPN A. B.

Room temperature
B. 2-8 degrees Celsius
C. 10-15 degrees Celsius
D. -15 – 0 degrees Celsius
81. Drug of choice for amoebiasis D.

A. Miconazole
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Pentamidine
D. Metronidazole
82. Koplik spots are tiny white spots inside the mouth D.
indicating early phase of __________.
A. Measles
B. Rubeola
C. Mumps
D. A & B
83. The term given to the functional group of an organic A.

molecule that absorbs maximum radiation in UV or IR
region is:
A. Chromophore
B. Moiety
C. Pharmacophore
D. Fingerprint
84. All of the following are used in determination of D.

specific gravity, except:
A. Hydrometer
B. Pycnometer
C. Mohr-Westphal Balance
D. Abbe
85. Tablet hardness tester that uses motorized anvil to C.
measure tablet hardness when put horizontally:
A. Stokes Monsanto
B. Erwekka
C. Schleuniger
D. Strong cobb
86. The apparatus used to keep samples free from B.

moisture is:
A. Oven
B. Desiccator
C. Furnace
D. Dryer
87.
A.
B.
C.
D.
88. The mechanism of action in which 1% Silver nitrate B.

will prevent Ophthalmia neonatorum
A. Neutralization
B. Oligodynamic action
C. Protein coagulation
D. Alkylation
89. Which of the following chemicals are used to fix the C.

color of crystal violet in gram staining?
A. Alcohol
B. Safranin
C. Iodine
D. Malachite green
90. Fried Rice Syndrome is a food borne disease due to B.
food intoxication by ______________________, a
Gram-positive, rod-shaped, aerobic, and facultative
anaerobic, motile, beta hemolytic bacterium
commonly found in soil and food. The incubation
period of diarrheal form is 6-24 hours and it is
associated with ingestion of proteinaceous foods; the
shorter incubation period of emetic form is 1-6 hours,
and is associated with consumption of farinaceous
foods such as cooked rice. This is associated with
cooked rice usually from Chinese restaurants and
`take-away’ shops.
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Bacillus stearothermophilus
91. The following protein synthesis inhibitors are C.

bacteriostatic agents except:
A. Doxycycline
B. Azithromycin
C. Neomycin
D. Chloramphenicol
92. The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically C.

discovered is:
A. Sulfonamide
B. Penicillin
C. Salvarsan
D. Cefalexin
93. This is the drug of choice for all forms of Leishmaniasis B.
A. Primaquine
B. Stibogluconate
C. Pentamidine
D. Suramin
94. Nosocomial infections are:
A. Infections developed while the patient is in the a.
hospital.
B. Infections of the nasal area
C. Infections affecting the lungs
D. Infections among animals
95. The bacterium used in Ames test to assess potential A.
carcinogenic effects of chemicals
A. Salmonella typhimurium
B. E. coli
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
96. Infection of this microorganism may result to A.
inhalation of droplets containing the bacterium found
in grocery mist machines and air conditioning systems
or cooling towers.
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Pnemocystis carinii
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
97. An Anti-Parkinsonian drug used as a treatment in C.

managing Influenza infection:
A. Oseltamivir
B. Saquinavir
C. Amantadine
D. Methenamine
98. The period of stability of a preparation is the time A.

from the date of manufacture of the formulation until
its chemical or biological activity is not less than ____
of labeled potency.
A. 90%
B. 95%
C. 99%
D. 85%
99. Ceric Sulfate is used as: A.

A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Acidulant
D. Antioxidant
100. Calculate the normality of a 22.15 mL sulfuric C.

acid solution using 20.75 mL of NaOH
(NNaOH=1.1055 N)
A. 1.1801 N
B. 1.4157 N
C. 1.0356 N
D. 1.3881 N

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MODULE 1: GENERAL, INORGANIC, ORGANIC, AND QUALITATIVE

By Stella Gustilo, RPh

2. Element used for the surgical repair of bones; Metal unaffected by C.

3. Components of universal antidote B.

5. Most electronegative element D.

6. Glucose tolerance factor C.

7. Element found in chlorophyll B.

8. Components of artificial air for the alleviation of respiration difficulty A.

9. Water fit for drinking D.

10. Formula for ester D.

11. Element with antidiarrheal property C.

13. For scabies B.

17. Alkali metal used in psychiatry B.

18. Formula for ketone D.

19. Used to disinfect water C.

20. Compound of sodium used for cyanide poisoning and also in A.

21. This quantum number determines the position of electron orbital B.

A. Magnetic quantum number (m)

22. Which element belongs to the first triad? D.

23. Most insoluble compound of calcium which is found in kidney stones C.

24. Electronegativity measures an atom's tendency to attract and form C.

A. Only the first statement is true

25. A solution which can resist pH change upon addition of an acid or B.

27. SI unit for radioactivity A.

28. Insulin stabilizer A.

30. Glycerin is classified as A.

31. Sunshine vitamin B.

32. Reducing agent B.

33. It states that when stress is applied to a system in equilibrium, the C.

34. Major intracellular anion A.

35. Major extracellular cation B.

36. Chalcogen except D.

37. Group IA are also known as A.

38. Which of the following hydroxides is not amphoteric? B.

40. Most toxic vitamin C.

41. Least stable vitamin A.

42. Which belongs to the soluble group of cations? B.

44. Most susceptible to hydrolysis A.

45. Wood alcohol D.

46. Element always present in Grignard reagent C.

47. Primarily underdoes ketone reduction A.

48. First mammalian metabolite isolated as a product of glycine D.

49. Also known as diacetylmorphine B.

50. Enantiomer of thalidomide responsible for phocomelia B.

51. Present in all steroid drugs C.

52. Laughing gas used as inhalational general anesthetic B.

53. Phosphoryl-containing ACE inhibitor D.

54. Which among the following antihistamines have greater lipophilicity D.

55. Activated charcoal exhibits what time of antagonism? D.

57. Antibiotic class with broadest spectrum of activity A.

58. Composed of two amino sugars linked together in glycosidic linkage B.

60. Prototypical quinolone C.

61. Substitution on phenol ring which enhances antimicrobial property B.

63. Pharmaceutical preservative with carcinogenic properties B.

64. Most potent inhalational anesthetic C.

65. Baclofen, a GABA derivative, is indicated for: A.

66. Potassium flame test result D.

67. Thiabendazole, a benzimidazole derivative, is used as B.

68. True about Zidovudine A.

69. Rancidity is caused by B.

71. Non-ionic surfactant polymer in povidone-iodine enhancing solubility D.

72. Antidote for accidental ingestion of silver nitrate B.

73. Used to detect trace amounts of metallic contaminants A.