ACT ENGLISH TEST 6

45 Minutes—75 Questions
You will also find questions about a section of the pas-
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the one
that best expresses the idea, makes the statement For each question, choose the alternative you consider
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage document. Read each passage through once before you
as a whole. If you think the original version is best, begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in many of the questions, you must read several sentences
the right-hand column a question about the underlined beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question. that you have read far enough ahead each time you
chose an alternative.

PASSAGE I
My Internship at Fritanga del Barrio
[1]
My grandmother is one of my best friends and an

inspiration to both I and my mother. Forty years ago, when 1. A. NO CHANGE

1 B. my mother and I
she was 23, she brought her infant daughter (my mother) from C. my mother and me
D. my mother and myself

Nicaragua to the United States and has settled in Miami. 2. F. NO CHANGE

2 G. had
Grandmother now lives three doors down from us and, ever H. have
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
since I can remember, she has hosted Sunday dinners at her

house for family and friends. Her home-cooked meals are

incredible delicious, and because of them, I have become 3. A. NO CHANGE

3 B. incredible, delicious, and
passionate about cooking. My dream is to someday become C. incredibly delicious, and
D. incredibly delicious, but
a chef who brings the flavors of Grandmother’s kitchen to

the world.

[2]
Well aware of my enthusiasm for food, Grand-

mother contacted a friend that arranged an internship at 4. F. NO CHANGE

4 G. who
a successful downtown restaurant called Fritanga del H. who then
J. whom then

Barrio. 5 Fritanga is the word for a restaurant that 5. Upon reviewing the preceding sentence the author decides to
add the phrase “for me” to the sentence. Where is the best
serves home-cooked Nicaraguan food, and Barrio means place to insert the phrase?

neighborhood. A. Before the word Grandmother

B. After the word Grandmother
C. After the word contacted
D. After the word internship
 [3]
I met with Randy, the restaurant’s owner, about two

weeks before my internship started. He lead me through the 6. F. NO CHANGE

6 G. lead me threw
dining area and kitchen to his office near the back of the H. led me threw
J. led me through

building. He explained to me that, since I would not be 7. A. NO CHANGE

7 B. while
paid much, I would be expected to work very hard. He added C. because
D. DELETE the underlined portion.

that the most valuable part of the internship would be the 8. F. NO CHANGE
8 G. more valuable
opportunity to observe the many aspects of a functioning H. valuablest
J. mostly valuable
restaurant.

[4]
Perhaps I should have found his words more

daunting, but I didn’t because I guess my dreams clouded 9. A. NO CHANGE

9 B. but I didn’t, I guess it was because
my thinking. I envisioned myself in a corner of his kitchen, C. but I didn’t; I guess
D. but because

replicating Grandmother’s specialty dishes with care. I 10. The writer would like to convey the satisfaction and honor
10 she would feel cooking her grandmother’s dishes at Fritanga
pictured customers feasting on my creations and praising my del Barrio. The use of which of the following words would
best accomplish the writer’s goal?

F. NO CHANGE
G. pride
H. total excitement
efforts at the meal’s end. I saw myself barking orders to prep J. skill

chefs who were not working fast enough to keep and maintain 11. A. NO CHANGE
11 B. maintaining pace
pace. I saw Randy at summer’s end begging me to work full- C. pacing
11 D. pace
time at a high salary.

[5]
[1] The reality of those two very, very long intern-

ship months were not aligned with my imaginings. [2] Day 12. F. NO CHANGE
12 G. were aligned
H. was not aligned
after day, I came home exhausted from washing dishes, setting J. was aligned

and clearing tables, and from the fulfillment of many of the 13. A. NO CHANGE
13 B. with the fulfillment of
boring tasks that are required to make a restaurant operate C. from fulfilling
D. fulfilling
smoothly. [3] I am eager to someday put that kind of hard

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

work into my own dream of using Grandmother’s recipes to

create wonderful dining experiences for others.
14 14. Upon reviewing Paragraph 5 and realizing some
information has been left out, the writer composes the
following sentence:
Randy was right, though: the opportunity to learn
about the restaurant business was priceless.
The most logical placement for this sentence would be:

F. before sentence 1.
G. after sentence 1.
H. after sentence 2.
J. after sentence 3.

Question 15 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.

15. The writer is considering deleting the first sentence from

paragraph 3. If the writer removed this sentence, the
essay would primarily lose information regarding:

A. when the writer’s internship began.

B. who Grandmother contacted to set up the internship.
C. who the “Randy” mentioned in the fourth paragraph is.
D. the length of the internship.

PASSAGE II

The World’s Fair

For over 150 years, the World’s Fair, World Fair,

World Exposition, or Universal Expo, has showcased techno-

logical achievement, and provided entertainment on a grand 16. F. NO CHANGE

16 G. achievement, but provided
H. achievement, but has provided
J. achievement and provided

scale. Held at wacked-out intervals, this event has publicized 17. A. NO CHANGE
17 B. irregular
inventions, presented revolutionary ideas to the general C. sporadically irregular
D. way off-beat
public, and exhibited noteworthy objects for wider viewing.

The first World’s Fair took place in London in 1851.

They were organized by Prince Albert of England, who 18. F. NO CHANGE

18 G. They had been
wished to celebrate a period of relative peace in Europe and H. It is
J. It was

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demonstrate England’s industrial prowess. Visitors to the 19. A. NO CHANGE
19 B. for the first World Exposition
first World Exposition were astonished by what is called C. to the first World’s Fair
19 D. DELETE the underlined portion.
“the Crystal Palace,” a glass and iron structure that

encompassed nearly one million square feet and encased

over 14,000 smaller exhibits.

There was a notable World’s Fair was held in 20. Which of the following provides the best transition from the
20 previous paragraph?
Philadelphia in 1876 to honor the 100th anniversary of the
F. NO CHANGE
signing of the Declaration of Independence. Organizers G. Another notable
H. Thereafter, a notable
J. In addition, a notable

highlighted the technological might of the United States. 21. A. NO CHANGE

21 B. United States; powering
Powering nearly every exhibit with a massive 1500 horse- C. United States by powering
21 D. United States after powering
power steam engine called “the Centennial Engine.”

Alexander Graham Bell’s telephone was first displayed at

this World Exposition, as was the first typewriter and a 22. F. NO CHANGE
22 G. Expo as was
prototype segment of cable that the Roebling Brothers H. Fair, as was
J. Exposition, as were
would later use to construct the Brooklyn Bridge.

Thirteen years later, Paris hosted a memorable 23. A. NO CHANGE

23 B. later, in 1889 Paris
Universal Expo that featured a brand new iron lattice tower C. later Paris
D. later in 1889: Paris
at the center of the fairgrounds. Designed by Gustave

Eiffel, many visitors considered the structure an eyesore, 24. F. NO CHANGE

24
but it was the tallest building in the world at the time.
Today, what is called “the Eiffel Tower” endures as an iconic
G. many visitors thought the structure was an
eyesore
H. it was an eyesore according to many visitors who
got to see the structure at the time
J. the structure was considered an eyesore by
many visitors

symbol of the most famous city in France, Paris. 25. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
25 portion is LEAST acceptable?
New York City hosted the World’s Fair in 1939.
A. Paris, France.
The fairgrounds in Queens included an 18-story solid white B. France: Paris.
C. France—Paris.
sphere called “the Perisphere.” This World Fair was notable D. France.

for introducing television technology to a broad audience.

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United States President Franklin D. Roosevelt delivered the
Fair’s opening address, it was broadcast on small black-and-
26
white television sets located throughout the fairgrounds
and around the city. Many viewers who watched the broad-
27
cast believed they were the subjects of a prank. They had
clearly never seen a television before.
The World’s Fair continues to draw pumped-up
28
crowds in destinations including Australia, Japan, Bulgaria,
and South Korea. The 2010 Expo in Shanghai garnered record
attendance with over 73 million visitors over a six-month
period and a one-day record of over 1 million visitors. 29
attendance with 73 million visitors over a six-month period
a one-day record of over 1 million visitors.
26. F. NO CHANGE
G. address, which was
H. address, that was
J. address: it was
27. The writer is considering deleting the underlined phrase,
placing the period after the word fairgrounds. Should the
writer make this deletion?
A. Yes, because the phrase contains detail that is not
required to understand the sentence or the paragraph.
B. Yes, because the phrase contains detail that is not
consistent with the tone or style of the essay.
C. No, because the phrase contains detail that is neces-
sary to establish Roosevelt as a popular leader.
D. No, because the phrase contains detail relevant to
understanding the scope of the television network that
broadcast the address.
28. F. NO CHANGE
G. amped-up
H. enthusiastic
J. crazy big
29. Upon reviewing this paragraph, the writer decides that a
conclusory sentence is necessary. Which of the following
would make the best final sentence of the essay?
A. Given its long record of success, the World’s Fair is a
tradition that is likely to endure well into the future.
B. We can only hope that the next Universal Expo will
top those numbers.
C. Shanghai was delighted to have so many visitors.
D. The next Universal Expo will be in Milan in 2015;
can’t wait!
Question 30 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
30. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write a brief essay
focusing on the frequency of World Fair expositions.
Would this essay successfully fulfill that goal?
F. Yes, because the essay chronicals several, but not all,
World Fair expositions.
G. Yes, because the writer captures the excitement of a
World Fair.
H. No, because the essay does not provide enough
anecdotal evidence to determine frequency.
J. No, because the essay merely highlights a few notable
World Fairs.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
PASSAGE III

What is a Planet?

In 2006 the International Astronomical Union (IAU), 31. A. NO CHANGE

31 B. In 2006; the
the most influential association of astronomers in the world, C. In 2006: The
D. In 2006, the
held an important meeting in Prague. The meeting focused on

Pluto, which at the time was commonly known to be the ninth 32. F. NO CHANGE
32 G. commonly known as
H. common know as
J. common known to be

planet in the Solar System. Since Pluto was discovered in 33. A. NO CHANGE
33 B. In addition,
1930, astronomers calculated the new planet’s mass to be C. When
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
roughly that of Earth. However, several subsequent calcula-

tions and discoveries led them to determine that Pluto was 34. F. NO CHANGE
34 G. has been
actually smaller than Earth’s moon. This new information H. had been
J. is
caused members of the IAU to ask an interesting question:

Is Pluto a planet at all?

[1] To make a decision about Pluto, the IAU decided

to write a definition of a planet. [2] Because planets are 35. The writer would like to convey the idea that writing a
35 definition for the word planet is not as easy as some people
discovered so infrequently, astronomers had never before may think. Which of the follow best accomplishes this
specific goal?
delineated the defining features of a planet. [3] After spirited
A. NO CHANGE
B. draft
C. ink
D. construct

debate between their many members, the IAU settled on three 36. F. NO CHANGE
36 G. between its
conditions that any celestial body must meet before it can be H. between they’re
J. among its
properly called a planet. [4] First, it must orbit the Sun.

[5] Second, it must be spherical in shape. [6] Pluto satisfies

these first two conditions.
37 37. Upon reviewing the preceeding paragraph, the writer
realizes that the following sentence has been left out:
That’s right; astronomers had not yet reached con-
sensus on a definition for the word planet!
The most logical placement for this sentence would be:
A. after sentence 1.
B. after sentence 2.
C. after sentence 4.
D. after sentence 5.

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 The third condition, however, is the one where 38. F. NO CHANGE
38 G. where Pluto fails.
Pluto falls short. This condition states that a planet must H. Pluto fails to satisfy.
38
J. Pluto failed to satisfy.
have no other celestial bodies in its orbital path around

the Sun. Since Pluto’s orbital path intersects with the one 39. A. NO CHANGE
39 B. the orbital path of
of Neptune, astronomers determined that Pluto does not C. that of
39 D. DELETE the underlined portion.
possess the dominant gravity required of a planet. Thus,

the IAU officially reclassified Pluto as a “dwarf planet.” 40. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion
40 is LEAST acceptable?

F. spontaneously
G. formally
H. properly
J. correctly

The decision to reclassify Pluto was not without 41. Which of the following best transitions the reader from the
41 preceding paragraph to the current paragraph?
controversy, however. Some astronomers reasoned that
A. NO CHANGE
Pluto was a unique case in that it had been called a B. It was
C. They were
“planet” for decades. They contended that the new D. The IAU was

standards should not apply for Pluto. Additionally, a 42. F. NO CHANGE

42 G. with
faction of the IAU proposed that any celestial body H. from
J. to

under consideration for planet status should of at 43. A. NO CHANGE

43 B. must of
least one moon. Since Pluto has five known moons, C. should have
D. should of had
the faction argued that a body displaying such gravita-

tional pull must be a planet. The IAUs definition of the 44. F. NO CHANGE
44 G. IAU’s definition
word planet did not include the notion of moons, H. IAUs’ definition
J. definition of the IAU
however, so it appears that Pluto is destined to remain

a dwarf planet. Question 45 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.

45. Suppose the writer had intended to write a brief essay that
discusses the planet status of Pluto. Would this essay
successfully fulfill the writer’s goal?

A. Yes, because the essay includes information on the

definition of a planet.
B. Yes, because the essay discusses Pluto, the definition of
a planet, and the final determination of the IAU.
C. No, because the essay does not explain why Neptune is
considered a planet, while Pluto is not.
D. No, because the essay does not quote an authority on the
issue of Pluto’s planet status.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

PASSAGE IV

The Boulanger Sisters – Musical Pioneers

Ernest Boulanger was no ordinary musician. As the

winner of the 1835 Prix de Rome, one of the most prestigious

music composition competitions in the world. Ernest is in 46. F. NO CHANGE

46 G. world; Ernest is
high demand as an instructor all across Europe. His travels H. world, Ernest was
J. world; Ernest had been
took him to Saint Petersburg where he taught and later

married a Russian princess named Raissa Mychetsky in 1877. 47. The writer wants to make it clear that Ernest first traveled
47 to Saint Petersburg in 1877. To accomplish this goal, the
phrase in 1877 would be best placed:

A. where it is now.
B. after the word Petersburg.
C. after the word taught.
In 1880, Ernest and Raissa moved to Paris where they raised D. after the word married.
two daughters who, later in life, would rank among the 48. F. NO CHANGE
48 G. in
greatest female musicians ever. H. around
J. about

The first of these daughters, Nadia Boulanger was 49. A. NO CHANGE

49 B. daughters Nadia Boulanger, was
born in 1887. Despite her father’s background, Nadia showed C. daughters, Nadia Boulanger, was
D. daughters Nadia Boulanger was
no interest in music for the first six years of her life. However,

when Nadia’s sister, Lili, was born in 1893, she began taking 50. F. NO CHANGE
50 G. Lili
H. Boulanger
J. Nadia

piano lessons. Lili would sit quiet in the corner of the room 51. A. NO CHANGE
51 B. quieter
during Nadia’s lessons, and to the delight of her parents, she C. quietly
D. quietlier
displayed perfect pitch at the age of two.

Both Nadia and Lili studied music intensively into 52. Given that all of the choices are true, which one provides
52 information that is most relevant to the focus of the
young adulthood. Nadia demonstrated remarkable talent on paragraph?
52
the piano and organ yet she won numerous awards for F. NO CHANGE
G. The sisters became good friends as they grew.
composition and performance at the Paris Conservatory. H. The girls lived a privileged life in Paris.
J. Like most sisters, Nadia and Lili would argue
occasionally.

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Lili emulated her father, she became the first woman 53. A. NO CHANGE
53 B. father becoming
composer to win the Prix de Rome in 1913 at the tender C. father, becoming
D. dad, Lili became
age of twenty. She was proficient as a pianist, violinist,

harpist, and vocalist. She was also a terrific swimmer

who competed at a high level. 54 54. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sentence.
Should the writer make the deletion?

F. Yes, because the information is not related to the focus of

the paragraph.
G. Yes, because the sentence does not include any specific
accomplishments.
H. No, because the information is necessary to understand
the paragraph as a whole.
J. No, because it is important to highlight that Lili was a
better swimmer than her sister, Nadia.

[1] When World War I begun, Lili set aside 55. A. NO CHANGE
55 B. had begun
her promising musical career to serve her country in a C. began
D. had began
unique way. [2] Unfortunately, the strenuous demands

of the work caused Lili’s health to falter, and she died

in 1918 at the age of twenty-five. [3] With Nadia’s

help, Lili created a charity that offered food, clothing, 56. F. NO CHANGE
56 G. clothes, as well as money
as well as money to French soldiers who had been H. clothes, in addition to money
56 J. clothing, and money

musicians before the war. 57 57. For the sake of the logic and coherence of this paragraph,
which of the following is the best ordering of the three
numbered sentences?

A. NO CHANGE
B. 2, 1, then 3
C. 1, 3, then 2
D. 2, 3, then 1

Liking her father, Nadia became a well-respected 58. F. NO CHANGE

58 G. Like her father
teacher. In this role, she was able to influence several H. Likening her father
J. Like her father’s

gifted musicians. Her classical musical students included the 59. A. NO CHANGE
59 B. music
American composer Aaron Copland and Academy- C. musically
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
Award-winning composer Philip Glass. Nadia also taught

Jazz giants Errol Morris and Donald Byrd and renowned pop

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

songwriter Burt Bacharach. Nadia was a trailblazer,

demonstrating the impact female musicians could have

in the twentieth century, while exemplifying her families 60. F. NO CHANGE

60 G. familys
extraordinary musical gifts. H. families’
J. family’s

PASSAGE V

Whaam! It’s a Painting.

In the early 1960s, museums and art galleries, began 61. A. NO CHANGE
61 B. museums, and art galleries, began
to enthusiastically present the paintings of Roy Lichenstein. C. museums, and art galleries began
D. museums and art galleries began

Many critics celebrated these paintings and were hailing 62. F. NO CHANGE
62 G. hailed
Lichenstein’s bold inventiveness. General audiences, more H. was hailing
J. did hail
accustomed to carefully rendered protraits and painstakingly

realistic landscapes, lamented the childishly juvenile and 63. A. NO CHANGE

63 B. childlike and juvenile
seemingly inaccessible direction that Lichenstein seemed to C. childish
D. childishly
be taking.

Why did Lichenstein’s work draw such disparate

reactions? The answer lies on his subject matter: Lichenstien’s 64. F. NO CHANGE
64 G. around
H. in
J. over

paintings intentionally mimicked comic book illustrators. 65. A. NO CHANGE

65 B. the comic book illustrator
When Lichenstein began painting in this new style, cultural C. comic book illustrations
D. the comic book illustration
observers regarded comic books as an intellectually empty

form of entertainment. Lichenstein felt invigorated by the 66. Given that all of the choices are true, which one provides
66 information that is most relevant to the focus of the
challenge of creating art inspired by a medium that was paragraph?
66
scorned by so-called intellectuals. F. NO CHANGE
66 G. Lichenstein enjoyed reading comic books as a child.
H. Lichenstein felt invigorated by painting.
J. Lichenstein disagreed with intellectuals regarding their
assessment of comic-book illustrations.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

 Like actual 1960s comic book illustrations,

Lichenstein used “Ben-Day” dots to form his paintings. 67. A. NO CHANGE

67 B. Lichenstein’s paintings were formed from “Ben-Day”
(Ben-Day dots are the pixel-like dots used by comic book dots.
C. Lichenstein used “Ben-Day” dots.
printers to produce varying shades of color.) However, D. “Ben-Day” dots were used by Lichenstein to form his
paintings.

Lichenstein executed his works on canvases rather than 68. At this point, the writer would like to indicate that the
68 canvases used by Lichenstein were much larger than comic
comic book panels. In fact, many of his canvases measured book panels. Which of the following best accomplishes the
writers goal?

F. NO CHANGE
G. on blank canvases rather
H. on canvases much bigger
dozens of square feet in area. To match these enormous J. grandly on canvases rather

canvases, Lichenstein used enlarged Ben-Day dots, giving 69. A. NO CHANGE

69 B. dots giving
his paintings a comic-book-like appearance. C. dots. Giving
D. dots: giving
Whaam! is the name of one of Lichenstein’s most

well-known and popular comic-book-style paintings. Modeled 70. F. NO CHANGE

70 G. but popular
on an actual comic book illustration found in All-American H. and popularly
J. DELETE the underlined portion.

Men of War by DC Comics, Whaam! consisted of two joined 71. A. NO CHANGE

71 B. will consist
panels that measure nearly six feet in height and over fourteen C. consists
D. had consisted
feet in total width. The panel on the left depicts a fighter

plane that has fired rockets at another fighter plane, which is

shown exploding in the right panel. Of the two panels, the

one on the left is the most graphic. The title of the painting 72. F. NO CHANGE
72 G. most graphical
appears in large yellow letters above the flaming plane. H. more graphic
J. graphicest
Many viewers vigorously contend that Whaam! is

not art, it is a childish cartoon at best or plagiarism at worst. 73. A. NO CHANGE

73 B. its
C. but
D. and

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Critics counter that Whaam! shares an important character-

istic with more traditional masterpieces: the ability to provoke

many interpretations. 74 Whatever a viewer’s interpre- 74. At this point, the writer would like to add a sentence to
illustrate how different people have interpreted Whaam!
tation, Lichenstein has clearly challenged the definition of art Given that all are true, which of the following sentences best
accomplishes the writers goal?
through his unorthodox style and subject matter.
F. Some posit that the painting trivializes war violence,
while others believe the explosive right panel serves to
honor war heroes.
G. Some really like the painting and some really dislike it.
H. Some viewer’s enjoy the Ben-Day dots, while other
viewers wish Lichenstein had instead blended colors to
create color variations.
J. Some people feel like they can look at Whaam! for
hours, while others can’t stand Lichenstein’s use of
primary colors.

Question 75 asks about the preceding passage

as a whole.

75. Suppose the writer had intended to write a brief essay that
dicussess how Ben-Day dots are used to create color
variations. Would this essay successfully fulfill the writer’s
goal?

A. Yes, because the essay includes a description of Ben-

Day dots.
B. Yes, because the essay discusses how Lichenstein used
large Ben-Day dots to create his provocative paintings.
C. No, because the essay simply never explains how Ben-
Day dots are used to create color variations.
D. No, because the essay does not cover the practical
aspects of comic book printing.

END OF TEST
 ACT MATHEMATICS TEST 6
60 Minutes—60 Questions
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct but some of the problems may be best done without using
answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your a calculator.
answer sheet. Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
Do not linger over problems that take too much time. be assumed:
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in the 1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
time you have left for this test. 2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You 3. The word line indicates a straight line.
may use your calculator for any problems you choose, 4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
b

1. A motorcycle was purchased 5 years ago for $16,200. DO FIGURING HERE

The current value of the motorcycle is $10,600. By how
much did the motorcycle decrease in value per year, on
average, over the five-year period?

A. $5,600
B. $2,720
C. $1,350
D. $1,120
E. $1,080

2. For what value of x is 2x + 3 = 6x – 17 true?

F. 5
5
G.
2
7
H.
2
J. – 2
K. – 5

3. Which of the following numbers is NOT a factor of 204?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 17
E. 18

4. A jar contains only nickels ($0.05) and dimes ($0.10).

The value of the 107 coins in the jar is $8.95. Which of
the following systems of equations, if properly solved,
would result in the correct number of nickels in the jar,
n, and the correct number of dimes in the jar, d ?

F. n + d = 107 and 5n + 10d = 8.95

G. n + d = 107 and 5n + 10d = 895
H. n + d = 107 and 0.05n + 0.10d = 895
J. n + d = 8.95 and 0.05n + 0.10d = 107
K. n + d = 895 and 0.05n + 0.10d = 107
GO ON TO NEXT PAGE
 5. Which of the following properly orders the three DO FIGURING HERE
fractions from least to greatest?
4 9 28
A.
5
, 10 , 30
4 28 9
B.
5
, 30 , 10
9 4 28
C.
10
, 5 , 30
28 9 4
D.
30
, 10 , 5
9 28 4
E. , ,
10 30 5

6. Which of the following properly expresses the verbal

statement “The square root of a number, n, is 6 less than
the product of 3 and the number” ?

F. √𝑛 = 6 – 3n

G. √𝑛 = 3n – 6
H. n2 – 6 = 3n
J. n2 = 3n – 6

K. n2 – 6 = 3 + n

7. If |2𝑥 − 3| = 12, then 𝑥 could be equal to which of the

following?

A. 4.5 only
B. 7.5 only
C. 4.5 or 7.5
D. –4.5 or –7.5
E. –4.5 or 7.5

8. In the standard (x, y) coordinate plane, what is the

distance between the points (2, –3) and (5, 8) ?

F. 14
G. 5√13
H. √130
J. √14
K. 8
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 9. The Venn diagram below shows the number of students DO FIGURING HERE
at Central High School who own desktop computers,
laptop computers, and/or tablet devices. Of the 500
students at Central High School, what percent own both
a laptop computer and a tablet device?

A. 4%
Desktop 20 Laptop
B. 8% 70 85
C. 10% 30
25 40
D. 14%
160
E. 57% 70 Tablet

10. For which of the following values of x is the expression

𝑥+3
undefined?
𝑥 2 −16

F. –3 only
G. 4 only
H. –3 and 4 only
J. –4 and 4 only
K. –3, –4, and 4

11. In the number 23,456.78, the digit 5 is in the:

A. hundreds place.
B. tenths place.
C. hundredths place.
D. ones/units place.
E. tens place.

12. When deciding on an outfit, Alex can choose from 3

pairs of shoes, 3 pairs of pants, and 6 shirts. How many
different outfits are possible, if Alex chooses exactly 1
pair of shoes, 1 pair of pants, and 1 shirt?

F. 136
G. 54
H. 36
J. 15
K. 12

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 13. 1.2 × 104 + 2.4 × 104 = DO FIGURING HERE
A. 3.6 × 104
B. 3.6 × 108
C. 3.6 × 1016
D. 2.88 × 104
E. 2.88 × 1016

14. In the figure below, line p is parallel to line q. Given

that the m 1 = 35°, what is the m 2 ?

F. 135°
2
G. 145° p
H. 155°
J. 165° q
1
K. 175°

15. A square and an equiangular triangle have the same

perimeter. If the area of the square is 144 cm2, what is
the length of one side of the triangle?

A. 24 cm
B. 16 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 8 cm
E. 4 cm

16. Let a and b be different prime numbers. Which of the

following must be a factor of both a and b ?

F. ab
G. a
H. b
J. 0
K. 1

2 6
17. If x= , then x = ?
7 11

3
A. 4
4
B. 3
11
C.
21
21
D.
11
7
E.
11
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 18. Which of the following algebraic inequalities is DO FIGURING HERE
represented by the graph below?

–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 x

F. –3≤ x ≤ 3
G. –2< x ≤ 3
H. –3< x ≤ 3
J. –2≤ x < 3
K. –3≤ x < 3

19. The function f (x) is a parabola in the standard (x, y)

coordinate plane. Which of the following transformed
functions shifts f (x) over 2 units to the right and down 4
units?

A. f (x + 2) – 4
B. f (x + 2) + 4
C. f (x – 2) – 4
D. f (x – 4) + 2
E. f (x + 4) – 2

20. If 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑐 A = 2 and 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑐 B = 5, then 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑐 AB3 = ?

F. 100
G. 49
H. 30
J. 25
K. 17

21. Which of the following points is located in Quadrant I of

the standard (x, y) coordinate plane below?
y
A. (–13, 2)
B. (2, 6)
C. (0, –3)
D. (–7, –3) x
E. (15, –11)

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 22. If Calvin scored a total 2,178 points in 11 games of DO FIGURING HERE
bowling, what is Calvin’s average per game?

F. 197
G. 198
H. 199
J. 200
K. It cannot be determined based on the given
information.

23. Given the right triangle with sides as labeled below,

what is the value of sin θ ?
3
A.
5
3
B.
4
10
4 6
C.
3

D.
5 θ
3

5 8
E.
4

24. The table below contains information regarding jackets

manufactured last year by Company ABC. Given that a
jacket is red, what is the probability that it also has a
hood?

Hood No Hood Totals

Red 60 70 130
Black 40 80 120
Totals 100 150 250

1
F. 3
2
G. 5
6
H.
13
7
J.
13
6
K. 7

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 25. Lines p and q, which lie in the standard (x, y) coordinate DO FIGURING HERE
plane, are perpendicular. Given that line p intersects the
y-axis at –4 and the x-axis at –3, what is the slope
of line q ?

4
A. 3
3
B. 4
C. 0
3
D. – 4
4
E. – 3

26. In triangle ABC below, D is the midpoint of AB and E is

the midpoint of BC. If AB = 10 and DE = EC = 6.5, what
is the perimeter of quadrilateral ADEC ?
B
F. 26.5
G. 28
D E
H. 28.5
J. 29.5
K. 31 A C

27. The expression 3x3 (x – 2)2 is equivalent to:

A. 3x5 – 18x3
B. 3x5 + 12x3
C. 3x5 – 12x4 + 12x3
D. 9x5 + 6x4 – 9x3
E. 9x5 +12x4 + 9x3

28. The radius of Circle A is r and the radius of Circle B is

4r. What is the ratio of the area of Circle A to the area
of Circle B?

F. 1:4
G. 1:8
H. 1:16
J. 8:1
K. 4:1

29. (2 + 3i)(5 – 4i) = ?

A. 10 – i
B. 7 – 7i
C. 10 – 12i
D. 22 + 7i
E. 10 + 12i
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 30. What is the sum of the median and mode of the set of DO FIGURING HERE
numbers below?

7, 3, 4, 3, 8, 1, 1, 6, 2, 3, 5, 5, 9

F. 3
G. 4
H. 7
J. 12
K. 14

31. Set A consists of all odd integers between 0 and 10. Set
B consists of all prime numbers less than 16. How many
numbers do Set A and Set B have in common?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
E. 0

32. For the triangle shown below, which of the following is

equal to the length of side a ?

F. 2
60°
G. √3
a
H. 2√2
J. 3√2 3
K. 2√3

33. Which of the following properly lists the amplitude, A,

and period, P, of the function f (x) = 5 sin (2x + 2π) ?

A. A = 5; P = 2π
B. A = 10; P = 4π
C. A = –5; P = 4π
D. A = 10; P= π
E. A = 5; P= π

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 34. Kira wants to carpet the floor of a rectangular room that DO FIGURING HERE
is 18 feet by 30 feet. Assuming no waste and that she
covers the entire floor, how many square yards of carpet
will Kira need to purchase in order to complete the job?

F. 540
G. 270
H. 180
J. 60
K. 30

35. John took a job that paid him $100 per week. After
arriving for work late on several occasions, John’s
weekly salary was reduced by 10%. Then, after several
weeks of timely arrivals and hard work, John’s weekly
salary was increased by 20%. Since the increase, John’s
weekly salary has remained unchanged. What is John’s
current weekly salary?

A. $108
B. $109
C. $110
D. $118
E. $120

36. Barb plans to flip a two-sided coin three times. What is

the probability that the coin will land heads up on the
first flip, tails up on the second flip, and heads up on the
third flip?

F. 0.125
G. 0.250
H. 0.375
J. 0.500
K. 0.625

37. The figure below consists of a square and two semi-

circles, with dimensions as shown. What is the total
area, in square inches, of the square and the two semi-
circles?
4
A. 8 + 4π
B. 12 + 4π 4
C. 12 + 8π
D. 16 + 2π
E. 16 + 4π

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 38. Which of the following is the equation of a circle in the DO FIGURING HERE
standard (x, y) coordinate plane that has a diameter of 8
and its center at (–2, 4) ?

F. (x + 2)2 + (y – 4)2 = 16
G. (x – 2)2 + (y + 4)2 = 16
H. (x + 2)2 + (y + 4)2 = 16
J. (x + 2)2 + (y – 4)2 = 64
K. (x – 2)2 + (y + 4)2 = 64

39. The area of a triangle with base, b, and height, h, is A. A

new triangle is formed by increasing the base of the
original triangle by 40% and by decreasing the height of
the original triangle by 40%. In terms of A, what is the
area of the new triangle?

A. 0.16 A
B. 0.64 A
C. 0.84 A
D. 1.00 A
E. 1.16 A

40. The figure below is a square that has been divided into
three separate regions. One of the regions is shaded and
the other two are unshaded as shown. What is the ratio
of the shaded area to the total unshaded area?
F. 3:1
G. 2:1
H. 1:1
J. 1:2
K. 1:3

41. AB lies in the standard (x, y) coordinate plane. If the

coordinate of endpoint A is (5, 4) and the coordinate of
the midpoint of AB is (–3, 2), what is the coordinate of
endpoint B ?

A. (1, 3)
B. (2, 6)
C. (8, 2)
D. (–11, 0)
E. (–11, 3)

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 42. If �4 – 2𝑥� ≥ 10, then which of the following properly DO FIGURING HERE
expresses the solution set of 𝑥 ?

F. 𝑥 ≤ – 3 or 𝑥 ≥ 7
G. 𝑥 ≥ 7
H. – 3 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 7
J. 𝑥 ≤ 7
K. 𝑥 ≤ – 7 or 𝑥 ≥ 3

43. In the circle shown below, BD and CE are diameters and

BC is a chord. If the m DBC = 28°, what is the degree
measure of minor arc BE?

B
28° C
A

E
D

A. 28°
B. 44°
C. 56°
D. 62°
E. Cannot be determined from the given information

44. Points A, B, C, and D lie on AD ���� as shown below. Given

���� is 27 units long, BD
that AC ���� is 18 units long, and ����
BC is
����
15 units long, what is the unit length of AD?

A B C D

F. 27
G. 28
H. 29
J. 30
K. 31

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 DO FIGURING HERE
Use the following information to answer
questions 45-47.

The circle graph below shows the distribution

of actors, by age, who are members of a certain
professional organization. Actors are randomly chosen
from the organization to appear in commercials.

Distribution of Actors by Age

20%
30% 20-24
25-29
30-34
22% 35-39
40-44
18%

45. What are the odds (in the age range:not in the age range)
that, in a given year, the first actor chosen to appear in a
commercial is in the 25-29 age range?

A. 7:10
B. 3:10
C. 3:7
D. 11:39
E. 15:7

46. What is the arc length, in degrees, of the wedge in the

circle graph that represents the 20-24 age range?

F. 10
G. 18
H. 20
J. 24
K. 36

47. What is the probability that an actor will be chosen who

is NOT older than 34?

A. 0.6
B. 0.5
C. 0.4
D. 0.3
E. 0.2
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 48. For which of the following equations are there no real DO FIGURING HERE
solutions for x when y = 0 ?

F. y = –2x2 + 4
G. y = 2x2 + 4
H. y = 2x2 – 4
J. y = 2x2
K. y = –2x2

49. The figure below could be the graph of which of the

following equations?
y

–2π –π π 2π x

–1

π
A. y = sin (x + )
2
π
B. y = sin (x – )
2
C. y = – cos x
D. y = cos (2x)
E. y = tan x

50. The average of 6 positive even integers is 60. What is

the greatest value of one of the 6 integers?

F. 360
G. 350
H. 240
J. 80
K. 66

51. If i2 = –1, then (2 – 5i)2 + 2i = ?

A. – 21 + 2i
B. – 21 – 18i
C. 29 – 2i
D. 29 – 6i
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 Use the following information to answer DO FIGURING HERE
questions 52-54.

f(𝑥) = 2𝑥 + 7

4𝑥 2
g(𝑥) =
3
h(𝑥) = 6 – 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥

52. h(–3) = ?
F. 12
G. 9
H. 0
J. –6
K. –9

53. f(g(–3)) = ?

A. 31
B. 23
C. 17
D. 3
4
E.
3

54. g(f(𝑥)) = ?

16𝑥 2 + 196
F.
3
16𝑥 2 + 112𝑥 + 196
G.
3
8𝑥 2 + 32𝑥 + 53
H.
3
8𝑥 2 + 21
J.
3
8𝑥 2 + 7
K.
3

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 55. Phil wants to ride his bike 100 miles at a constant rate of DO FIGURING HERE
16 miles per hour. If Phil starts biking at 10:00 am, what
time will it be when he finishes his 100-mile trip?

A. 3:25 pm
B. 3:15 pm
C. 4:25 pm
D. 4:15 pm
E. 5:25 pm

√3
56. If the value of cos θ = – 2
, which of the following could
be true?
π
F. – ≤ 𝜃 < 0
4
π
G. 0 ≤ 𝜃 <
4

π π
H. ≤ 𝜃 <
4 2
π 3π
J. ≤ 𝜃 <
2 4
3π
K. ≤ 𝜃 < π
4

57. Hailey has worked after school at a grocery store for the
past five years. The table below displays Hailey’s
hourly pay for each of the five years of her employment.
Which of the following is equal to the sum of the median
and the average of the five hourly-pay values in the table
below?

Year(s) Hourly Pay

1 and 2 $6.25
3 $6.50
4 $7.00
5 $7.50

A. $11.95
B. $12.20
C. $13.20
D. $13.45
E. $13.75

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 58. Triangle ABD and triangle BCD in the figure below DO FIGURING HERE
share side BD. Given the angle measures in the figure,
which of the following sides is longest?
B
F. AD
G. BD 60° 61°
H. BC A 61° 59° C
J. CD
59° 60°
K. AB
D

1
59. Amber, Bart, and Cam shared an apple pie. Amber ate
3
1 1
of the pie. Bart then ate of the pie. Finally, Cam ate
4 2

of what remained. What is the ratio of Amber’s share of

the pie, to Bart’s share, to Cam’s share?

A. 8:6:5
B. 4:3:5
C. 4:3:6
D. 3:4:5
E. 3:2:1

𝑐𝑜𝑠2 θ+ 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 θ
60. For all θ, =?
𝑡𝑎𝑛 θ

F. sin θ
G. cos θ
H. tan θ
J. csc θ
K. cot θ

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 ACT READING TEST 6
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are four passages in this test. Each
passage is followed by several questions. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in
the corresponding oval on your answer document. You
may refer to the passages as often as necessary

Passage I immaculately groomed, crisp advertisements for an attention

PROSE FICTION: The following passage is adapted from a
short story about a man in a city.
Waiting for the subway was, like everything else
during my first week in the city, an experience that overloaded
my senses and drained me of energy. In those early days, I
Line had yet to find the level of comfort I now enjoy, and this was
5 especially so while on the platform, surrounded by a mass of
strangers. I avoided their faces and tried to focus on the job
interview ahead of me.
As I stood waiting, I detected many external echoes
of the inner turmoil created by my unfamiliar surroundings.
10 The saxophonist at the foot of the stairs blew a torrent of notes
that seemed to reproduce the sensory bombardment I had
endured over the previous few days. Despite my best efforts
to concentrate, I could not place his melody. His accompanist,
a bongo-drum player, pounded away just like my heart seemed
15 to beat within my chest—steady one moment, staccato the
next. An express train thundered by on the inner tracks,
creating a dull ache in my sternum that was not unlike the slow
churning in my stomach. I looked down from the platform to
observe the tracks, all in a hue of deep rust, wind into a black
20 void just several yards away.
Finally, the Number 1 train arrived to take me to my
midtown appointment. There were no available seats in the
car that stopped in front of me, so I was forced to stand,
holding the metal bar that extended from the floor to the
25 ceiling of the car. I was in the front of the car, facing the front
of the train. I marveled momentarily at just how clean this
shining vertical bar was; it heartened me that something so
polished could exist underground. Then, I thought of all the
bare hands (like mine) that had gripped it, and I instantly
30 realized that it was very likely not so clean after all. Just as I
loosened my grip in “germophobic” moment (I think the
proper term is “mysophobic”), the train started with a lurch
that nearly sent me sprawling backward to the floor. After
regaining my footing, I turned toward the back and gazed at a
35 wall blankly as if nothing had happened, all the while feeling
disoriented and a little claustrophobic among the crowd of
strangers.
45 to detail that I knew I would never possess. Both wore white
dress shirts with black pants, and had short hair that was gelled
to stiff peaks over the centers of their foreheads. They were
discussing the distinguishing characteristics of fine leather
shoes. Surrounding the feet of these young men was an
50 outcrop of boxy paper bags with string-like handles, all
bearing the names of fine designers or fancy department
stores. I envied these young men and women; their preoc-
cupations, shallow though they might have been, would have
been as welcome a luxury to me as anything in those shopping
55 bags. After all, they seemed to have the luxury of shopping
for the things that they wanted as I was en route to an
interview for a job that I needed.
To my right were only two seats, both taken up by
one very large, homeless looking person who was a complete
60 mystery. Whether a man or a woman, I could not tell because
he or she was huddled over, head in hands. The mystery rider
remained in this position for the twelve minutes of my trip,
rocking slightly with the bends and bursts of the subway car.
The olive green, worn-looking coat, the grey sweatpants, and
65 the black, very worn-looking, combat-style boots offered no
hints to the gender of this city dweller; they merely told the
story of a person who seemed to lack opportunity.
Then it struck me. I was literally positioned between
symbols of two of the extremes that the city offered: wealth
70 and good fortune to my left; poverty and despair to my right. I
felt like the spectrum of personal outcomes stood (and sat) on
either side of me. I again felt the weight of the job interview
that loomed. How much control did I have over the outcome?
This question did nothing to quell my anxiety.
75 Suddenly, the train screeched to a halt. Without
thinking, I became part of the flow of riders exiting the
subway car. I glanced back to see whether mystery rider
would look up to offer me a clue. No luck. The flow led me
up the stairs and into the bright sunlight. I took a deep breath
80 and resolved myself to control my destiny.
1. The point of view from which the passage is told is best
described as that of:

My eyes occasionally darted to my sides as I
surveyed my fellow riders. The four passengers seated to my
40 left were, in my best estimation, young twenty-something-
year-olds: two women and two men. The women were posi-
tioned too acutely for me to see them fully, though I could
hear them commenting about photos on a phone. The men were
A. an omniscient narrator, who knows the thoughts of each
referenced character.
B. an unnamed narrator who describes an adult city dweller.
C. an adult who recently moved to an urban location.
D. a train conductor who is vigilant and very observant.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2. The passage establishes all of the following about the main
character EXCEPT that he:
F. is traveling to a job interview.
G. eventually became comfortable with city life.
H. interviewed well and got the job.
J. felt like he needed a paying job.
3. The main purpose of the second paragraph (lines 8-20) is to:
A. foreshadow the turmoil the main character would
experience during the job interview.
B. further describe the main character’s mental and emo-
tional state.
C. draw a contrast between the main character’s emotions
and those of the musicians at the foot of the stairs.
D. characterize the main character as an anxious mysophobe
who is also claustrophobic.
4. The use of the word “Finally” at the beginning of the third
paragraph (line 21) suggests that:
F. the main character was relieved when train Number 1
arrived.
G. the main character had taken the wrong train earlier that
morning.
H. train Number 1 was routinely crowded and behind
schedule.
J. the conclusion of the main character’s story is imminent.
5. Which of the following best explains why the main character
“turned toward the back and gazed at a wall blankly as if
nothing had happened” (lines 34-35)?
A. He was attempting to regain his footing.
B. He was attempting to read the subway map that was
mounted on the back wall.
C. He was conserving his energy for the job interview.
D. He was embarrassed about nearly falling to the floor.
6. Which of the following statements best characterizes the
relationship among the four twenty-something-year-olds
(lines 40-41) in the subway car?
F. They grew up in the city and had been best friends since
high school.
G. They were strangers who decided to engage in polite
conversation during a crowded subway ride.
H. They were friends who were wealthy enough to enjoy
shopping for luxury items.
J. They were well-dressed tourists visiting the city from
Italy.
7. Which of the following lists the events in the correct order
from first to occur to last to occur?
A. The main character noticed mystery rider, heard music,
almost fell backwards, and marveled at shiny vertical
bar.
B. The main character marveled at shiny vertical bar, heard
music, almost fell backwards, and noticed mystery rider.
C. The main character heard music, marveled at shiny
vertical bar, almost fell backwards, and noticed mystery
rider.
D. The main character heard music, marveled at shiny
vertical bar, noticed mystery rider, and almost fell
backwards.
8. What caused the main character to envy the young men and
women he encountered in the subway car (line 52)?
F. They wore fine leather shoes.
G. They could apparently afford expensive things.
H. They had wealthy parents.
J. They got two of the remaining seats on the subway car.
9. The parenthetical in line 71 was most likely included by the
author in order to:
A. acknowledge that not all of the “symbols” (line 69) were
actually standing.
B. highlight that “wealth and good fortune” (lines 69-70)
stood, while “poverty and despair” (line 70) sat.
C. suggest that the job interviewer was sitting in his office
while waiting for the main character.
D. indicate that the “mystery rider” (line 61) had been
sitting in the same position on the subway all morning.
10. The first paragraph (lines 1-7) and the last paragraph (lines
75-80) combine to suggest that the main character:
F. decided not to go to the job interview.
G. did not get the job for which he interviewed.
H. got a job and remained in the city.
J. left the city to avoid poverty and despair.
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 Passage II
SOCIAL SCIENCE: Passage A is adapted from the essay
"The Evolution of Realism on Television." Passage B is
adapted from the essay "Superman, America, and Hope."
Passage A
During television's first "golden age," which lasted from
the late 1940s through the late 1950s, viewers escaped into
alternate realities grounded in realism. One true-to-life
Line program that was instrumental in luring increasing numbers of
5 people to the small screen was Dragnet, a police drama that
debuted in 1951. Dragnet's seminal influence is evident in
nearly every subsequent series within the law enforcement
genre.
The show's true-to-life realism was a top priority for
10 Dragnet’s creator, Jack Webb, who wrote each episode and
portrayed its main character, Sergeant Joe Friday. Webb
consulted regularly with Los Angeles Police Department
agents, often accompanying them on patrol. These experiences
helped Webb to deliver a realistic glimpse into the daily
15 realities of life in law enforcement, which he viewed as a
combination of tedium and moments of intense action and
drama. Accordingly, Friday endures stretches of drudgery and
boredom. He spends many a scene engaged in idle, terse
chatter with his partner in settings that include a smoke-filled
20 office and a parked car during a stakeout. Progress in solving
cases is often slow and fitful. Interrogations often lack drama,
and phone calls to witnesses sometimes lead to dead ends.
For 1950s viewers, Dragnet conveyed an appealing
message: in the midst of the monotony and challenges that life
25 brings, there are at least some individuals who persist in trying
to do good for their fellow citizens. Moreover, the efforts of
these good men often meet with success.
Since the dawn of the 21st century, television realism has
been much different. Few offerings have captured the
30 imagination of critics and audiences more than The Sopranos,
which aired on cable television from 1999 to 2007. In The
Sopranos, the realism that Webb aimed for in 1951 is present,
but it comes from a less hopeful place: the vantage point of a
criminal, not a crime stopper. Tony Soprano, the show’s main
35 character, is an organized crime boss who attempts to maintain
a semblance of family life while navigating the complexities
of his illegal, and at times ruthless, dealings. The difficulties
Tony Soprano faces are relentless, and he deals with the
agonizing stress by regularly visiting a therapist.
40 The final episode of the series ends with Tony Soprano
eating at a restaurant while being watched by a host of
unfamiliar, suspicious characters. At a moment of almost
unbearable suspense, the screen goes black and the show ends,
leaving the viewer to ponder Tony Soprano's fate. Whatever it
45 might be, the options are grim.
Passage B
Assuming that popular culture offers a window into the
American psyche, two storylines taken straight from comic
books show how optimism has virtually disappeared over the
last few decades. Superman, born in 1938, offered
50 Depression-era Americans the chance to escape from their
troubles into a world where the prospect of justice and peace
was hovering just overhead in a red cape and blue tights.
America's promise of better times in a better world was
embodied in the Man of Steel.
55 Superman's symbolic value rose during World War II,
when American citizens looked for hope amidst the dark days
of a worldwide struggle. Issue 23 of Superman from 1943
offers a feel-good patriotic sense of purpose. In the story,
American troops at the fictional base of Camp Towne are
60 divided into two teams, Red and Blue, that will compete in
military exercises. Superman pays a morale-boosting visit to
Camp Towne and, at the behest of the generals at the base,
joins the Blue team. He leads the Blue team to victory in the
initial stages of the conflict, using his super abilities to tunnel
65 into the Red team's headquarters.
Once the Blue team infiltrates, Superman recuses himself
while the two teams engage in a mock battle. Though the odds
are against them, the Red team overcomes the disadvantage of
the surprise attack through sheer determination, defeating the
70 blue team. At the battle's end, Superman says, "This is the
proudest moment of my life! ... I hope the whole world hears
of this and of our nation's real secret weapon—the unflagging
courage of her men, no matter what the odds, and their
indomitable will to win!"
75 Today, that positivity has been extinguished. A recent
issue of Superman introduces a character named Ulysses, a
human being who has lived his life in a different dimension
but comes to Earth endowed with powers superior to those of
Superman. Ulysses surveys Earth and, on live television,
80 declares it unsalvageable. One of the illustrations shows an
unnamed figure in the Oval Office who appears to be President
Barack Obama, watching Ulysses' broadcast. Superman
objects to Ulysses' bleak assessment and their disagreement
erupts into a battle on the dark, rain-swept streets of
85 Metropolis, the fictional city Superman regularly patrols. In
the issue's last panel, a victorious Ulysses stands over
Superman's battered body, having symbolically and decisively
vanquished hope.
Questions 11-15 ask about Passage A.
11. According to Passage A, the realism that Jack Webb tried
to recreate centered around:
A. police interrogations.
B. the golden age.
C. police work generally.
D. crime during the 1950s.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
12. Passage A indicates that its author believes that life in the
1950s:
F. lacked drama completely.
G. was boring and tiresome at times.
H. was plagued by organized crime.
J. seemed slow and fitful most of the time.
13. When the author of Passage A states that “Since the dawn
of the 21st century, television realism has been much
different,” the author is most likely focusing on:
A. the switch from public television to cable television.
B. the shift in the reality of police work.
C. the viewpoint of the realism portrayed on television.
D. the dramatic change in viewer demographics.
14. Based on Passage A, it is reasonable to conclude that
Tony Soprano’s therapy sessions were most likely:
F. action packed and unusually tense because of the
disturbing nature of the subject matter.
G. humorously entertaining despite gruesome accounts
of crimes committed.
H. typical, other than, perhaps, some of the subject
matter being discussed.
J. unusually animated and wildly entertaining because
of the personal nature of the subject matter.
15. Based on the final paragraph of Passage A (lines 40-45), it
is reasonable to conclude that:
A. the therapy sessions did not help Tony Soprano or his
family.
B. Tony Soprano was about to be arrested at the end of
the final episode.
C. the unusual characters in the final episode were
undercover police officers.
D. while Tony Soprano’s fate is not revealed with
certainty, the final episode suggests that there would
not be a happy ending for the main character.
Questions 16 and17 ask about Passage B.
16. Based on Passage B, it is reasonable to conclude that:
F. the first Superman comic book was published in 1938.
G. Superman storylines always involved war scenes.
H. the “S” logo on Superman’s chest was not introduced
until 1943.
J. Superman rescues himself from a mock battle in one
storyline.
17. The primary function of the first sentence of the last
paragraph of Passage B (line 75) is to:
A. prove that the loss of optimism in America was
caused by Superman storylines.
B. introduce a secondary conflict that is resolved at the
end of the paragraph.
C. signal the conclusion of the essay and the waning
popularity of comic books in America.
D. transition the essay from a discussion of American
optimism to a discussion of a lack thereof.
Questions 18-20 ask about both passages.
18. Both Passage A and Passage B address the relationship
between:
F. life realities and themes in entertainment.
G. television programming and comic book storylines.
H. mass entertainment and individual optimism.
J. realism in television programing and optimism in
comic book storylines.
19. If Jack Webb, as described in Passage A, had created a
comic-book storyline with the creator of Superman, as
Superman was described in Passage B, such storyline
would most likely include which of the following?
A. A self-made millionaire who donates large sums of
money to those less fortunate
B. A public servant who inspires optimism through
heroic acts, but who must also endure the tedious
realities of life
C. A physical therapist who remains anonymous while
committing crimes without the help of superpowers
D. A firefighter who heroically saves lives, but who
secretly ignites many of the fires himself
20. Elsewhere in the essay from which Passage B was
adapted, the author of Passage B writes:
In another issue, which lacks high drama, a dejected
Superman is featured alone at home hand-washing his
blue tights and cape, which were soiled during a long
and tedious day saving birds and other wildlife from a
devastating oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico.
Based on Passage A and Passage B, which of the
following individuals would most appreciate the realism
of this Superman issue?
F. Tony Soprano
G. Jack Webb
H. A comic-book collector of the 1940s
J. A modern television viewer
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
 Passage III
HUMANITIES: This passage discusses artist Thomas Cole
and the Hudson River School.
Historians typically depict the 1820s in the United
States as an optimistic and vibrant period in the nation’s
history. Many factors contributed to this assessment. The
Line security of the nation had withstood the challenge of the War
5 of 1812, and America appeared completely competent in
matters of self-defense. The presidency of James Monroe,
which began in 1817, ushered in the “Era of Good Feelings,” a
harmony atypical of the political party system. Perhaps most
importantly, Lewis and Clark’s expedition some fifteen years
10 earlier had unveiled a land of vast promise for those willing to
strike out on a westward odyssey—exploration and economic
expansion were beckoning.
The Hudson River School, an art movement with
distinctly American qualities, arose in this environment of
15 possibility and optimism. The artist who started this
movement was Thomas Cole. Cole was born in 1801 in
England, but moved with his family to Ohio when he was
sixteen. In Ohio, he became interested in painting. Trying
portraiture first, Cole failed to produce anything that met his
20 own rigorous standards, so he began painting landscapes.
American landscapes captured one of the major
reasons for the positivity of the country’s mood: the surplus of
pristine and beautiful land that begged to be explored. Writers
like James Fenimore Cooper and Washington Irving were
25 already finding inspiration in the largely undisturbed and
possibility-filled terrain. Cole was soon to lead a similar
celebration among painters.
Cole moved to New York in 1825, and his skills
blossomed while he was immersed in the surroundings of the
30 Catskill Mountains and the Hudson River. His detailed and
precise representations of towering, misty waterfalls, lazy
stretches of river, and robust, leafy forests conveyed the sense
of promise and adventure innate in these regions. He began to
produce at a prolific pace, traveling beyond New York and
35 depicting places like the Connecticut River and the White
Mountains of New Hampshire.
Though inspired by the burgeoning potential of
America, Cole recognized that Europe still set the standard in
fine arts around the world. So in the late 1820s, he sailed back
40 across the Atlantic to further his artistic education. While in
Europe, he studied the works of his English contemporaries in
landscape painting, including Joseph Turner. He also toured
the remains of several ancient buildings and castles. His
experiences in Europe prompted him to undertake a series of
45 paintings in 1834 called The Course of Empire, widely
considered his master work.
In the group of five paintings, which took him two
years to complete, Cole created a fictional empire, tracing its
appearance in landscapes from its early pastoral days, to its
50 overpopulated and overdeveloped height, and, finally, to its
ruinous decay. The first canvas, The Savage State, depicts
tepees near a mist-shrouded peak at dawn. Dark green
dominates the work, suggesting the awesome fecundity of
Nature. The next canvas, The Arcadian State, pictures a
55 verdant, yet tamed, landscape. Green still predominates, but it
is the medium green of grass and fields—not the deeper hues
of the preceding canvas. Native tepees have given way to a
single columned structure of angular white marble. Similarly,
deer have been replaced by sheep, suggesting the progressive
60 husbandry of the land. The third work, The Consummation of
Empire, depicts a scene so different from its predecessors that
it is almost unrecognizable. Bare cliffs jut out on either side of
the canvas, but they are peripheral to the seeming splendor of
man-made works: sailboats, statues, colonnades, and fountains
65 testify to the precision and genius of the city’s inhabitants.
Nature, apparently, has been thwarted. This triumph, however,
is short-lived. The next canvas, Destruction, depicts the city
sacked and raided, its man-made splendors ruined and
crumbling. Invaders surge amid a scourge of smoke, blood,
70 and weaponry. The pristine white of the prior canvas has been
tainted to an ashen gray. A cliff, sidelined in the prior canvas,
creeps back toward the center, reaffirming its central stature
amid man-made trifles. The final work, Desolation, completes
the cycle. The moon rises on the deserted ruins of a people-
75 less city. A single column rises massively in the foreground,
askew to the left, no longer a testimonial to precise
engineering. Deep green ivy creeps up its side, while visible
cracks mar its veneer. Instead of towering buildings, useless
colonnades remain in the background, their heights a riot of
80 mismatched verticals.
Cole used this five-painting sequence to convey two
messages to the American republic: beware the fate that has
befallen other advanced civilizations and protect the precious
treasure of the land. Ultimately, these messages and the
85 popularity of the Hudson River School yielded to a shift in
taste, as figure painting and portraiture gained currency over
landscapes. With the rise of the railroad, the Industrial
Revolution, and the Civil War, American viewers no longer
indulged the sense of optimism and possibility that existed
90 roughly half a century earlier.
21. The primary purpose of the first paragraph (lines 1-12) is
to:
A. introduce Thomas Cole.
B. introduce Lewis and Clark.
C. provide historical perspective.
D. foreshadow the changing art tastes of Americans.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
22. Without the second paragraph (lines 13-20), it might NOT 27. The primary function of the sixth paragraph (lines 47-80)
be clear to a reader that: is to:

F. the Hudson River School was an art high school
founded by Thomas Cole in Ohio.
G. Thomas Cole was an artist who painted landscapes.
H. the Hudson River School was an art movement, rather
than an actual school.
J. the early 1800s marked a time of optimism in the
United States.
A. prove that The Course of Empire was Cole’s greatest
work.
B. suggest that Cole used various shades of green to
depict changing moods.
C. briefly describe the five canvases of The Course of
Empire in chronological order.
D. suggest that Cole had nihilistic views with regard to
civilization.

23. According to the passage, why did Cole begin painting

landscapes? 28. The phrase “precision and genius” (line 65) is most likely
intended to describe which inhabitants of Cole’s fictional
A. He failed to master portraiture. empire?
B. He grew tired of painting portraits.
C. Painting landscapes provided young artists more F. The painters
travel opportunities than did painting portraits. G. The engineers
D. His high school in Ohio offered a class in landscape H. The sailors
painting. J. The philosophers

24. The word begged in line 23 has which of the following 29. According to the passage, through The Course of Empire,
literary effects? Cole expressed his belief that:

F. It personifies the American landscape. A. nature is not hospitable toward humans.

G. It foreshadows the hard times that would accompany B. nature is more enduring than human civilization.
the Civil War. C. nature cannot be thwarted by human ingenuity.
H. It highlights the eagerness with which Cole and D. invaders always ruin the splendor of over-peopled
others painted. civilizations.
J. It casts doubt on the level of optimism associated
with the “Era of Good Feelings.”
30. The first sentence of the final paragraph (lines 81-84)
suggests that Cole believed that:
25. The fourth paragraph (lines 28-36) suggests all of the
following EXCEPT: F. he was ready to revisit the notion of painting
portraits.
A. in painting landscapes, Cole began meeting his own G. he could keep American pioneers from exploring the
rigorous standards. West.
B. Cole produced many paintings while traveling H. he could communicate with Americans through his
throughout the Northeast. paintings.
C. Cole enjoyed painting landscapes with detail and J. his career as a landscape artist would soon come to an
precision. end.
D. Cole painted while canoeing on lazy rivers like the
Hudson River and the Connecticut River.

26. The word prompted in line 44 most nearly means:

F. forced.
G. inspired.
H. heeded.
J. asked.

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

 Passage IV
NATURAL SCIENCE: This passage discusses the scientific
study of spider webs.
Our culture ascribes special significance to spider
webs. For example, in one of the most beloved children’s
books ever written, Charlotte’s Web by E.B. White, webs that
Line spell descriptive words are central to the story. Webs also
5 serve as both a mode of transportation and a criminal-catching
device for a certain box-office-conquering super hero named
Spider-Man. Impressive as those make-believe webs are, real
spider webs may actually be more incredible than their
imaginary counterparts. Scientists are just beginning to
10 understand the unique construction and properties of spider
silk and spider webs, and further research may yield real-world
applications with stunning utility.
For roughly the last decade, spider silk strands have
fascinated segments of the scientific community. Tests have
15 revealed that the tensile strength (the amount of force a
material can withstand before it tears) of spider silk is five
times that of steel. A material as lightweight, strong, and
flexible as spider silk would have thousands of applications.
For example, the elasticity of interwoven silk strands could
20 create a high-functioning artificial knee or elbow tendon. Also,
with a strength measured at three times that of the synthetic
fabric Kevlar, spider silk could be woven into flexible body
armor for military use. Manufacturers have waxed enthusiastic
about the possibilities, suggesting parachutes, airbags, and
25 even tires as possible spider-silk-based products.
Recent studies of the properties of spider silk reveal
that it is a biological polymer similar to, but far more complex
than, collagen, a substance integral to human skin and bones.
Scientists are working to create artificial versions of spider silk
30 and are looking for ways to produce the silk naturally through
genetic manipulation. “Farming” silk is not feasible because
spiders are extremely territorial and would end up destroying
each other in a colony-like setting and because solitary spiders
do not produce silk in great quantities. Thus, geneticists are
35 trying to implant the spider’s silk gene into various plants and
animals, including goats, tomato plants, and silkworms in the
hopes that the spider silk can be biologically produced on a
large scale.
Some scientists have closely examined the structural
40 integrity of spider webs. A recent study analyzed the behavior
under stress of both the radial threads of a web (the strands
that extend out from the center of a web like the spokes of a
bicycle wheel) and the spiral threads (the strands that connect
the radial threads in concentric fashion from the web’s center).
45 This study determined that radial and spiral strands respond to
a compromising force in a four-step sequence. A strand
initially stiffens when first subjected to stress. If the stress
continues, the strand will begin to stretch in order to absorb
the stress. If the pressure on the web continues, a third
50 response occurs: the thread stiffens again, but much more
sharply than during the first response. When this step happens,
the stress is transferred structurally throughout the rest of the
web. Additional pressure at this juncture triggers a fourth
process: crystalline structures present in the strand’s protein
55 ultimately bear the brunt of the force, causing a local fracture
but leaving the larger web intact. Scientists tested the web’s
overall strength at the conclusion of the fourth response to
stress and determined that the total load capacity had actually
increased by between three and ten percent, even though the
60 web had broken.
This seemingly impossible structural characteristic is
essential to a spider’s livelihood, as it allows a spider to collect
large amounts of food without having to perform extensive
repair work. Some believe that this structural characteristic
65 may also prove to be a life-saving technology for humans. For
example, automobile makers believe spider web research
might one day allow them to build a car that can fully absorb
the force of a collision at the point of impact, leaving the rest
of a car, and its passengers, intact.
70 Spider webs also have properties that interest the
medical community. Recent research has revealed that spider
webs have antibiotic properties and contain vitamin K, a blood
clotting agent. This finding validates folk medicine that had
long touted the healing properties of spider webs. A line from
75 Shakespeare’s A Midsummer Night’s Dream, in fact, refers to
a cobweb as a cure for a cut finger. The web of the golden-silk
orb-weaver, a specific species of spider, has shown promise in
helping to regenerate damaged neurons in the retina of the
human eye. The web is applied directly to the eye and leaves
80 no scarring, an important concern when dealing with delicate
optical tissues. Finally, some scientists are seeking to apply the
web design to the structure of bandages. These scientists
believe that a web-shaped bandage can brace traumatized areas
delicately yet forcefully. They are also confident that the
85 bandage strands can be manufactured to hold medicine that
can aid the healing process, in the same manner that the
strands of an actual web contain healing agents.
31. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The Amazing Spider-Man
B. The Science of Spider Webs
C. Charlotte’s Web: America’s Fascination with Spiders
D. Spider Silk Farming and Medical Research
32. The word stunning in line 12 most nearly means:
F. outrageous.
G. beautiful.
H. surprising.
J. electrifying.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
33. If performed in a high school laboratory, the “Tests” 37. The author most likely included the parenthetical in lines
referred to in line 14 would likely include all of the 41-43 in order to help the reader understand:
following EXCEPT:
A. the tensile strength of a spider web’s radial threads.
A. strands of spider silk. B. the number of radial threads present in a typical
B. a digital tension meter. spider web.
C. thin strands of steel. C. the physical positioning of radial threads in a spider
D. a digital stopwatch. web.
D. how spider silk may one day be used to manufacturer
bicycles.

34. The primary purpose of the second paragraph (lines 13-

25) is to:
38. According to the passage, if a golf ball were thrown
F. chronicle the events that have excited the scientific through a spider web, it would be reasonable to conclude
community and manufacturers. that the ball would:
G. prove that spider silk is stronger than the steel used in
many construction projects. F. destroy the spider web completely.
H. suggest that spider silk is more flexible than the G. destroy more spiral threads than radial threads.
synthetic fabric Kevlar. H. simply tear a hole in the spider web.
J. describe some of the important physical character- J. simply repair itself while the spider collected food.
istics of spider silk.

39. Which of the following properly orders, from first to

35. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by the occur to last to occur, the four responses of spider-web
passage? strands to a compromising force?

A. Is spider silk weak, heavy, and rigid? A. Stiffen, stretch, stiffen, fracture
B. How would implanting a spider’s silk gene in a goat B. Stiffen, stiffen, stretch, fracture
help the goat produce spider silk? C. Stiffen, stiffen, fracture, stretch
C. How do radial and spiral spider-web strands respond D. Stretch, stiffen, stiffen, fracture
to incoming forces?
D. Do some professionals believe that spider-web
research may have medical applications?
40. The statement “A line from Shakespeare’s A Midsummer
Night’s Dream, in fact, refers to a cobweb as a cure for a
cut finger” (lines 74-76) functions primarily to:
36. The author likely put the word “Farming” (line 31) in
quotation marks in order to acknowledge: F. extend a metaphor.
G. transition from one argument to another.
F. the nontraditional use of the word. H. support an assertion.
G. the agricultural applications of spider silk. J. provide a counterexample.
H. the technical nature of the term.
J. a change in the tone and style of the passage.

END OF TEST.
 ACT SCIENCE TEST 6
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are seven passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.

Passage I Figure 1
Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical 10
9
element. While all isotopes of a given chemical
8
element have the same number of protons, each Ni-63

An (1,000 atoms)
7
isotope has a different number of neutrons in its 6
nucleus. When the nucleus of a radioactive isotope 5
undergoes a specific type of decay, the atom loses 4
one or more neutrons, thereby changing form from 3
one isotope to another. An isotope’s half-life is the 2 Sr-90
time it takes for half of any given number of atoms 1
Zn-65
to undergo nuclear decay. An isotope’s exponential 0
decay constant, λ (lambda), depends on the 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200
isotope’s rate of nuclear decay. Table 1 contains Time (years)
the value of λ, in yr‒1, for 6 isotopes of different
chemical elements.
Figure 2
10
Table 1 9
Chemical λ 8
(yr‒1)
An (1,000 atoms)

Element Isotope 7
Na-22
6
Nickel Ni-63 0.007 5
Strontium Sr-90 0.023 4
3
Zinc Zn-65 0.055 2 Fe-59
Sodium Na-22 2.8 1
Ba-133
0
Iron Fe-59 5.7 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200
Barium Ba-133 17.9 Time (days)

Figures 1 and 2 show, for each of the 6

isotopes included in Table 1, the change over time 1. According to Figure 1, the half-life of Zn-65 is
in the number of atoms that have NOT yet approximately:
undergone nuclear decay, A n , in a sample A. 13 years.
containing 10,000 atoms of the isotope. B. 30 years.
C. 85 years.
(Note: In Figure 1, the unit of time is years, while in D. 100 years.
Figure 2, the unit of time is days.)

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2. The decay constant, λ, of P-32, an isotope of 5. The data in Figure 2 for time = 80 days are best
phosphorus, is 18 yr‒1. Based on Table 1 and shown by which of the following graphs?
Figure 2, if a sample initially contains 10,000
atoms of P-32, the number of P-32 remaining in A. C.
the sample 50 days later will most likely be:
An An
F. less than 1,000. at at
G. between 1,000 and 5,000. 80 80
H. between 5,000 and 7,000. da da
J. greater than 7,000.
Ba-133 Fe-59 Na-22 Ba-133 Fe-59 Na-22

B. D.

3. According to Figure 2, for which isotope, Fe-59 An An

or Na-22, will the average rate of decay be at at
80 80
greater over the first 100 days?
da da
A. Fe-59, because at any given time between 0
Ba-133 Fe-59 Na-22 Ba-133 Fe-59 Na-22
and 100 days, Fe-59 will have the lower A n .
B. Fe-59, because at any given time between 0
and 100 days, Fe-59 will have the higher A n .
C. Na-22, because at any given time between 0
and 100 days, Na-22 will have the lower A n .
D. Na-22, because at any given time between 0
and 100 days, Na-22 will have the higher A n .

4. Based on Figure 1, if a sample contains 30,000

atoms of Sr-90 at time = 0, at approximately
what time will the A n of the sample be 12,000 ?
F. 20 years
G. 40 years
H. 80 years
J. 160 years

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Passage II 8. In completing Trials 7-9, what was the
independent variable and what was the
When a sphere falls, it is subject to a drag dependent variable?
force, F d , that is caused by air resistance. F d independent dependent
depends on the sphere’s circumference, C; its F. S F
surface, S; its speed, V; and the atmospheric G. F V
pressure at the time the sphere falls. H. V F
J. C S
The table below gives F d , in newtons (N),
on a sphere falling through air on a warm, dry day,
for various combinations of C, in centimeters (cm); 9. As an object like a sphere falls through the air to
S, with M = smooth, R = rough, and VR = very the ground as described in the passage, a
rough; and V, in meters per second (m/sec). On the transformation of energy takes place involving
day the measurements for each trial were taken, the the object’s kinetic energy (KE), its potential
air pressure remained constant at 1 atmosphere. energy (PE), and mechanical energy in the form
of sound (ME). Which of the following state-
C S V Fd ments best describes this transformation of
Trial (cm) (M, R, VR) (m/sec) (N) energy?
1 10 M 15 4.8 A. Both KE and ME are converted to PE.
2 20 R 15 20.2 B. Both ME and PE are converted to KE.
3 30 VR 15 43.2 C. KE is converted to PE and ME.
4 30 M 15 10.8 D. PE is converted to KE and ME.
5 30 R 15 29.0
6 30 VR 15 43.2
10. Based on Trials 1-3, the relationship between C
7 30 M 10 8.8
and F d is best represented by which of the
8 30 M 15 10.8
following graphs?
9 30 M 20 35.5
F. H.
6. According to Trials 4-6, as the roughness of the 50 Fd 50
sphere’s surface increases from smooth to rough Fd (N)
to very rough, F d : (N)
25 25

F. increases only.
0 0
G. decreases only. 0 10 20 30 0 10 20 30
H. increases, then decreases. C (cm) C (cm)

J. remains constant.
G. J.
7. Based on the data in the table, F d will be the Fd 50 Fd 50
greatest for which of the following C-S-V (N) (N)
combinations?
25 25

C S V
A. 10 M 15 0
0 10 20 30
0
0 10 20 30
B. 30 R 15 C (cm) C (cm)
C. 30 VR 15
D. 30 M 20
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
Passage III
A physics student tested various sheets of
glass for their ability to reflect ultraviolet rays (UV-
rays) at various energy levels. Any UV-ray that
was not reflected by the glass passed through the
sheet and struck a detector (see Figure 1), which
then registered a detection, or count.
Figure 1
sheet of glass
UV-ray source
thickness, d
Each sheet was made of Glass 1, Glass 2, or
Glass 3. The thickness, d, of each sheet (or pane) of
glass was uniform, but sheets of the same type of
glass had different thicknesses.
C o represents the number of counts per
second (cps) with no sheet of glass between the
UV-ray source and the detector, and C represents
the cps with a single sheet of glass between the
source and the detector.
Experiment 2
The physics student repeated the procedures
from Experiment 1 with UV-rays at various energy
levels. For each combination of glass and UV-ray
energy level, the student recorded, but did not
graph, information regarding C and d. From the
recorded information, the student then determined
the one-third-thickness value, d t , for each combi-
nation of glass and UV-ray energy level. (The one-
third-thickness value is the value at which the sheet
detector of a given type of glass was able to reflect one-third
of the UV-rays emitted from the UV-ray source at a
given UV-ray energy level. For example, Figure 2
shows that Glass 2 was able to reflect 250, or one-
third of the 750, UV-rays at 3 eV when d was equal
to 1 cm.) Lastly, the physics student graphed d t
versus UV-ray energy level for each of the three
types of glass. (See Figure 3.)
Figure 3
10
9
8 Glass 1
7
6
dt (cm)

5
Glass 2
Experiment 1 4
3
First, the physics student determined that C o 2 Glass 3
equals 750 cps, when the UV-ray source emitted 1
UV-rays having an energy level of 3 electron volts 0
(eV). Next, with the UV-ray source continuing to 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
emit UV-rays at 3 eV, the student measured C for UV-ray energy level (eV)
various sheets of Glass 1, each having a different
11. Based on the results of Experiment 1, the cps for
thickness. Then, the student graphed C versus d, in
Glass 2 at d = 5 cm was approximately:
centimeters (cm), for Glass 1. Finally, on the same
set of axes, the student graphed C versus d for Glass A. 1.
2 and Glass 3. (See Figure 2.) B. 2.2.
Figure 2 C. 100.
D. 220.
C (100 cps) for 3 eV UV-rays

10
9
8 12. Based on the results of Experiment 2, for a
7 given glass, as the UV-ray energy level
6 Glass 1
5 increased, d t :
4 Glass 2
3 Glass 3 F. increased only.
2 G. decreased only.
1 H. increased, then decreased.
0
0.0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0 7.0 8.0 9.0 10.0 J. remained constant.
d (cm)
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13. Based on Experiment 1, which of the following
combinations of glass and thickness had the
highest cps?
A. Glass 1 at d = 3 cm
B. Glass 2 at d = 2 cm
C. Glass 2 at d = 6 cm
D. Glass 3 at d = 1 cm
14. Based on the results of Experiment 2, to reflect
a given number of UV-rays at a given energy
level, which sheet of glass had to be thicker, a
sheet of Glass 2 or a sheet of Glass 3 ?
F. A sheet of Glass 2, because at every energy
level included in Figure 3, d t for Glass 2
was greater than d t for Glass 3.
G. A sheet of Glass 2, because at every energy
level included in Figure 3, d t for Glass 2
was less than d t for Glass 3.
H. A sheet of Glass 3, because at every energy
level included in Figure 3, d t for Glass 3
was greater than d t for Glass 2.
J. A sheet of Glass 3, because at every energy
level included in Figure 3, d t for Glass 3
was less than d t for Glass 2.
15. For a third experiment, the physics student must
use a sheet of glass that will yield a detection
rate of 400 cps when the sheet is struck by UV-
rays at 3 eV, as in Experiment 1. The sheet can
be no thicker than 2 cm. Based on the results of
Experiment 1, the physics student can satisfy
these requirements with a sheet of glass of
which of the following types?
A. Glass 2 or Glass 3 only.
B. Glass 2 only.
C. Glass 1 only.
D. Glass 1, Glass 2, or Glass 3.
16. Based on Experiment 1 and Experiment 2, for
UV-rays at a given energy level, as the ability of
the glass to reflect UV-rays decreased, did C
decrease or increase, and why?
F. Decrease, because the number of UV-rays
reaching the detector per second decreased.
G. Decrease, because the number of UV-rays
reaching the detector per second increased.
H. Increase, because the number of UV-rays
reaching the detector per second decreased.
J. Increase, because the number of UV-rays
reaching the detector per second increased.
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Passage IV
element
Information regarding an element and its U Pa Th Ac Ra Fr Rn At Po Bi Pb Tl
235
atomic nucleus can be represented in the following 233
symbolic form Key
231
= alpha decay
A
Z X 229
227 = beta decay
where X is the symbol of the element, Z is its atomic
225
number, and A is its mass number. (For an atom of
a given element, the atomic number, Z, is the 223
number of protons in the atom’s nucleus and the A 221
mass number, A, is the sum of the number of protons 219
and the number of neutrons in the atom’s nucleus.) 217
For example, 48 22 Ti represents an atom of titanium 215
(Ti) that has 22 protons in its nucleus and a total 48
213
protons and neutrons in its nucleus. Note: the
atomic number of a given element is always the 211
same, but the mass number may vary depending on 209
the number of neutrons in its nucleus. For example, 207
46
22 Ti represents a different isotope (type or version) 92 91 90 89 88 87 86 85 84 83 82 81
of titanium that has 22 protons, and 46 protons and Z
neutrons, in its nucleus. Figure 1
Nuclear decay is a process that often
involves changes in the number of protons and
neutrons in the nucleus of an unstable atom. Alpha 17. How many neutrons, if any, are in the nucleus
decay and beta decay are two types of nuclear of the isotope of lead represented by 211
82 Pb ?
decay. Table 1 shows the net change in the number
of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an A. 0
unstable atom that undergoes 1 of 2 types of alpha B. 82
decay or beta decay. Figure 1 shows a sequence of C. 129
nuclear decays, called the actinium series, that D. 211
begins with 235
92 U.

Table 1 18. Which of the following symbols properly

represents the isotope of radon that is included
Type of Nuclear Net Change in Protons and in the actinium series plotted in Figure 1?
Decay Neutrons in Atomic Nucleus
221
F. 86 Rn
alpha ‒ 2 protons and ‒ 2 neutrons
219
G. 86 Rn
or
219
‒ 3 protons and ‒ 1 neutron H. 85 Rn
217
J. 85 Rn
beta + 1 proton and ‒ 1 neutron

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19. Based on Figure 1, if a bismuth nucleus 21. Based on the passage, if a given chemical
represented by 21183 Bi underwent a beta decay, isotope underwent an alpha decay, a beta decay,
which of the following would properly represent and another alpha decay, which of the following
the atomic nucleus that could result? could NOT properly represent the net change in
protons and neutrons in the nucleus of the
215
A. 82 Pb isotope?
213
B. 83 Bi A. ‒ 3 protons; ‒ 5 neutrons
C. 219
86 Rn B. ‒ 4 protons; ‒ 2 neutrons
211 C. ‒ 4 protons; ‒ 4 neutrons
D. Po
84 D. ‒ 5 protons; ‒ 3 neutrons

20. A mixture of chemical isotopes contains only

207 203
82 Pb and 80 Hg. Based on Table 1 and Figure
1, if one of the isotopes in the mixture was
produced by the nuclear decay of the other,
which of the following best explains the decay?
F. Hg underwent alpha decay, producing Pb.
G. Hg underwent beta decay, producing Pb.
H. Pb underwent alpha decay, producing Hg.
J. Pb underwent beta decay, producing Hg.

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Passage V
Introduction
Most astronomers rely on the Giant Impact
Theory to explain the formation of the Moon. This
theory states that, 4.5 billion years ago, a celestial
body of undetermined but substantial mass collided
with Earth, creating a large disk of debris around
Earth that condensed over millions of years,
eventually forming the Moon. The Giant Impact
Theory accounts for the similarity of material found
on Earth and the Moon; both contain a combination
of substances from the impacting body and pre-
impact Earth.
The theory also explains why there is no
water on the moon. While pre-impact Earth did
contain water, the heat produced from the collision
evaporated all of the water in the jettisoned debris,
but only an insignificant fraction of the vast amount
of water on Earth.
Two scientists discuss the Giant Impact
Theory.
Scientist 1
The mass of the body that impacted Earth
was comparable to that of Mars, which is about 10
percent of Earth’s mass. Before impact, Earth was
spinning on its axis so fast that a day only lasted 2
to 3 hours. The eventual collision, combined with
Earth’s speed of rotation, sent a massive amount of
material into space that eventually reconfigured into
the moon. The collision also accelerated Earth’s
rotational speed.
Over billions of years, however, the
interplay of gravitational forces resulting from
Earth’s orbit around the Sun and the Moon’s orbit
around Earth slowed Earth’s rotation speed to its
current rate of 24 hours per rotation.
Scientist 2
The Giant Impact sent Earth spinning on its
axis more rapidly than it had spun prior to the
collision. However, Earth could not have been
spinning at a rate of 2 to 3 hours per rotation prior
to impact, as some scientists believe, because that
speed is dangerously close to the speed at which
any planet the size of Earth would have come apart.
In other words, if Earth had really been spinning,
pre-collision, at a rate of anywhere near even 3
hours per rotation, the collision would have
accelerated Earth’s rotational speed to a destructive
level.
The Giant Impact occurred between Earth
and a celestial body of equal size. The collision
occurred with such force that two moons were
actually created: one large and one small.
Eventually, however, the smaller, less stable moon
was pulled toward the larger moon and the two
moons collided, shattering the smaller. This lunar
collision explains why the hemispheres of the moon
look so different from one another.
22. Reference to which of the following was NOT
included in the discussion of Scientist 1 or the
discussion of Scientist 2 ?
F. rotation
G. water
H. years
J. impact
23. According to the discussion of Scientist 1, a
“day” is generally defined as:
A. a 24-hour period.
B. a 2-hour to 3-hour period.
C. the time it takes Earth to complete one full
rotation about its axis.
D. the time it takes the Moon to complete one
full orbit around Earth.
24. According to the discussion of Scientist 2, a
planet similar in size to Earth would most likely
come apart, if its rotational speed were:
F. greater than 24 hours per rotation.
G. between 3 and 24 hours per rotation.
H. between 2 and 3 hours per rotation.
J. less than 2 hours per rotation.
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25. According to the passage, which of the 27. Reference to which of the following was
following is most like one of the “scientists” included in the discussion of Scientist 2, but not
referred to by Scientist 2 in the second sentence in the discussion of Scientist 1?
of his/her discussion?
A. The planet Mars
A. Scientist 1 only. B. The current rotational speed of Earth
B. Scientist 2 only. C. A disc of space debris
C. Scientist 1 or 2. D. The hemispheres of the Moon
D. Scientists 1 and 2.

28. According to the passage, with which of the

26. According to the passage, with which of the
following statements would both Scientist 1 and
Scientist 2 AGREE?
F. An impact event led to the formation of the
Moon.
G. An impact event 4.5 billion years ago
changed the direction of Earth’s rotation.
H. The Moon rotates about its axis every 30
days.
J. The impact event that created the Moon
caused the extinction of dinosaurs on Earth.
following statements would both Scientist 1 and
Scientist 2 DISAGREE?
F. The size of the celestial body that impacted
Earth 4.5 billion years ago.
G. The current rate of rotation of Earth.
H. The size of Mars compared to the size of
Earth.
J. The trigger event that ultimately led to the
creation of the Moon.

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 Passage VI
Students in a high school physics class
studied forces by using 2 identical hanging scales,
Scale H and Scale L, as shown in Figure 1.
Experiment 2
The students mounted both scales, after
renaming them Scale L and Scale R, 1 meter apart
and attached a hook to each of them. Then, the
students positioned a thin steel rod on the hooks as
shown in Figure 3.

secure 0
ceiling Scale H 0 0
mount Scale L Scale R

connector ring connector ring steel rod

0
Scale L 1 meter
Figure 3
hook After mounting the scales, attaching the hooks, and
Figure 1 positioning the steel rod, the students calibrated both
scales to zero.
The ceiling mount was secured to a beam in the
ceiling of the physics lab. The weight of the two The students then performed three trials,
connector rings and the hook were insignificant, but Trials 4, 5, and 6, hanging a 20 N weight from the
the weight of Scale L was not. When a force is steel rod, three distances from the hook on Scale L.
measured by a hanging scale like the ones used by (See Figure 4, which shows the three configurations
the physics students, the arrow rotates in a clockwise and the actual dial readings.)
direction away from the zero on the dial, with the
amount of rotation being directly proportional to the Trial 4
magnitude of the measured force.
0 0
0.33 meter
Experiment 1 Scale L Scale R
Prior to mounting Scale H and connecting
Scale L to Scale H, both scales were calibrated to 20 N
zero. In the first of 3 trials, Trial 1, no weight was
attached to the hook; in Trial 2, a 10 newton (N)
Trial 5
weight was attached to the hook; and, in Trial 3, a 20
N weight was attached to the hook. (See Figure 2, 0 0
which shows the three configurations and the actual Scale L 0.50 meter Scale R
dial readings.)
Trial 1 Trial 2 Trial 3
20 N

0 0 0
Scale H Trial 6
0 0
0 0 0 Scale L 0.67 meter Scale R
Scale L

20 N
Weight 10 N 20 N

Figure 2 Figure 4
29. In which of the trials in Experiment 2 was the 33. In Experiment 2, as the distance between the 20
force of the 20 N weight equally shared by N weight and the hook on Scale L increased, the
Scale L and Scale R ? amount of force exerted on Scale L:
A. Trial 4 only. A. remained the same.
B. Trial 5 only. B. increased only.
C. Trial 6 only. C. decreased only.
D. Trials 4 and 6 only. D. varied, but with no measurable trend.

30. Based on the information in the passage, each of 34. According to Experiment 1, the students
the scales used in the experiments weighed: calibrated both Scale H and Scale L to zero
before mounting Scale H and attaching Scale L
F. 2.5 N. to Scale H. Assuming the students properly
G. 5.0 N. calibrated the scales, which of the following
H. 7.5 N. statements best explains why the Scale H dial
J. 10.0 N. reading in Trial 1 was not zero?
F. Scale H was properly calibrated, but not
31. In Experiment 1, the dial reading on Scale L for properly mounted.
Trial 3 was how much greater than the dial G. The weight of the connector rings and the
reading on Scale L for Trial 2 ? hook was neglected by the students.
H. Scale H supported the weight of Scale L in
A. 5 N Trial 1.
B. 10 N J. The 10 N weight caused the dial reading of
C. 15 N Scale H to increase.
D. 20 N

32. Assume that whenever a weight was attached to

the hook in Trials 1-3, a spring inside the scale
was stretched. Assume also that the greater the
weight hung, the greater the distance the spring
was stretched. Was the amount of potential
energy stored in Scale H’s spring greater for
Trial 2 or Trial 3 ?
F. Trial 2, because the weight attached to the
hook was greater in Trial 2 than in Trial 3.
G. Trial 3, because the weight attached to the
hook was greater in Trial 3 than in Trial 2.
H. Trial 2, because the weight attached to the
hook was less in Trial 2 than in Trial 3.
J. Trial 3, because the weight attached to the
hook was less in Trial 3 than in Trial 2.

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Passage VII Study 2
In each of several trials, a large, circular,
Two studies examined how crude oil fires, petri-like dish with radius 100 cm and height 6 cm
sparked by lightning strikes, would have burned was half filled with SH Oil or NH Oil. Each sample
during the late Cenozoic era, when oxygen was then warmed to achieve the desired water
composed 25% of Earth’s atmosphere by volume. content by weight. The amount of O 2 , by volume,
inside the chamber was maintained during each trial.
Crude oil pumped from two petroleum To simulate a lightning strike, each sample was ig-
reservoirs, one in the southern hemisphere and one nited with an electric pulse at the center of the dish.
in the northern hemisphere, were used in the studies For trials in which the sample burned
because scientists had determined that the oil from completely, the flame spread rate (the linear speed
such reservoirs closely resembled, in chemical at which the flame spread as measured along a
composition, oil that bubbled to the Earth’s surface radius from the center of the dish to a point on the
during the Cenozoic era. circumference), was measured and recorded. For
trials in which burning ceased before the sample
Study 1 burned completely, FB (“failed burn”) was
A 100 g sample of crude oil pumped from recorded. (See Table 1 for the results of the Study 2
the reservoir in the southern hemisphere (SH Oil) trials.)
was warmed with a heat lamp at a rate of 10ºC/hr in
an atmosphere containing 25% oxygen by volume. Table 1
The sample was heated so that some of the water it Flame spread rate (cm/sec) in an
contained would evaporate, much like the water atmosphere containing:
found in crude oil from the Cenozoic era evaporated Water
when it bubbled to the surface and was warmed by content of: 25% O 2 30% O 2 35% O 2 40% O 2
the Sun. The mass of the sample was measured 11% FB FB FB FB
every 30 minutes during the heating process. This SH 8% FB FB 1.4 1.6
procedure was repeated in a second trial in an Oil 5% 3.2 3.5 3.8 4.1
atmosphere that contained 40% oxygen by volume. 2% 6.7 7.1 7.5 7.9
Each of the 2 trials was then repeated using a 100 g 11% FB FB FB FB
sample of crude oil pumped from the reservoir in NH 8% FB FB FB 0.9
the northern hemisphere (NH Oil). (See Figure 1 Oil 5% FB 2.2 2.4 2.7
for the results of the 4 trials.) The rate of mass loss 2% 4.7 5.0 5.3 5.6
was directly proportional to the rate of combustion. Note: % O 2 is by volume, while % H 2 O is by
weight.

100 Key
SH Oil NH Oil
percemt of original mass

95 25% O2 25% O2
of sample remaining

90 40% O2 40% O2

85

80

75

70
20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90
temperature of sample (ºC)
Figure 1
35. According to the results of Study 1, the sample 39. Suppose that in an additional trial in Study 2, a
of SH Oil heated in an atmosphere of 40% O 2 sample of SH Oil with H 2 O content of 5% had
lost mass through the evaporation of water most been ignited in an atmosphere containing 33%
rapidly over which of the following temperature O 2 . Based on the results of Study 2, the flame
ranges? spread rate for such additional trial would most
likely have been:
A. 20ºC to 30ºC
B. 40ºC to 50ºC A. 7.3 cm/sec.
C. 50ºC to 60ºC B. 5.2 cm/sec.
D. 80ºC to 90ºC C. 3.7 cm/sec.
D. 2.3 cm/sec.

36. According to the results of Study 2, as O 2

content decreased from 40% to 25%, the flame 40. Based on the results of Study 1, the sample of
spread rate for NH Oil having a 2% water NH Oil heated in an atmosphere of 25% O 2 lost
content: approximately 15% of its original mass by the
time the temperature reached:
F. increased only.
G. decreased only. F. 70ºC.
H. remained constant. G. 60ºC.
J. increased, then decreased. H. 50ºC.
J. 40ºC.

37. Based on Figure 1, if the sample of SH Oil had

been heated to a temperature of 100ºC in an
atmosphere of 25% O 2 , the percent of mass
remaining in the original 100g sample would
most likely have been:
A. 70.
B. 74.
C. 77.
D. 80.

38. Suppose that back in the Cenozoic era, lightning

struck a pool of crude oil that closely resembled,
in chemical composition, NH Oil having water
content of 13%. Based on Study 2, would an oil
pool of that type have burned completely in an
atmosphere containing 35% O 2 and in an
atmosphere containing 40% O 2 , respectively?
35% O 2 40% O 2
F. No Yes
G. No No
H. Yes Yes
J. Yes No END OF TEST