E LBP B Mcoq Mod 15.3

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YOUR ASSESSMENT PAPER

EASA MODULE 15 (15/3)

B1.1 B1.3

JET ENGINES
To be completed after studying the appropriate parts of
module 15 Jet Engines

It is recommended that you take this paper as if it is


an actual CAA examination. After-all, it is a learning
tool and the more you get used to doing multi
choice papers the more comfortable you will feel
when doing the actual CAA exam.

Set your time limit (1.3 minutes per question),


complete the paper then check your answers with
those given at the back. Check that you understand
the correct answer for those questions that you
made an incorrect response to.
Licence by Post EASA 66 15/3

MODULE 15 – ASSESSMENT 3 - GAS TURBINE ENGINE ISSUE 2


MULTIPLE CHOICE PAPER

ENGINE MAINTENANCE

1. A Basic engine plus components suitable for a particular position but less
jet pipe, starter, hydraulic pump and alternator would be called:

(a) A power plant.


(b) A neutral quick engine change (QEC).
(c) An engine change unit (ECU).

2. On an engine fitted with trunnion mountings, one would be floating, this


is to:

(a) Absorb vibration.


(b) Allow for radial expansion of casing.
(c) Allow for ease of removal.

3. The rear mounting of a modern podded installation is designed to


transmit:

(a) Thrust, vertical and side loads.


(b) Axial, vertical and radial loads.
(c) Torsional, vertical and side loads.

4. An engine which utilises modular construction facilitates:

(a) Individual life progression of components.


(b) Rapid component change after balancing.
(c) Total interchangeability of modules.

5. Long term storage for an installed engine is:

(a) 6 months to 1 year.


(b) Up to 6 months.
(c) Up to 1 month.

6. Fuel systems inhibiting oil is a light grade:

(a) Mineral oil.


(b) Anti-freeze oil.
(c) Oil and fuel mix.

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7. The pressure rig method of inhibiting is used on:

(a) Uninstalled engines which can be turned by their starter.


(b) Installed engines which can be turned by their starter.
(c) Either installed or uninstalled engines which cannot be turned by a
starter motor.
8. When subject to moisture vapour the humidity indicator in a water vapour
resistant (WVR) bag:

(a) Stays the same colour.


(b) Turns pink.
(c) Turns blue.

9. The formula for determining the correct weight of desiccant to be used in a


WVR bag is:

(a) 35 x A + R x M
1000
(b) 35 + A x R x M
1000
(c) 35 x A x R x M
1000

10. Rubber components are stored away from direct sunlight at:

(a) 10°C to 20°C.


(b) 0°C to 15°C.
(c) 15°C to 20°C.

11. During engine starting, self sustaining speed is the rpm at which:

(a) Light-up occurs.


(b) Steady idling is attained.
(c) The starter can be disengaged.

12. The air starter overspeed switch:

(a) Restricts fuel flow in the fuel flow regulator (FFR).


(b) Closes the starter air supply valve.
(c) Operates the air starter sprag clutch.

13. When an engine surges jpt:

(a) Decreases rapidly.


(b) Increases rapidly.
(c) Remains constant.

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14. In the event of an engine surge:

(a) Open throttle.


(b) Close throttle.
(c) Close lp cock.
15. On a ground run, following a FFR change, the engine suffers a wet start,
carry out a dry run and:

(a) Attempt another start.


(b) Clean the ignitor plug and attempt another start.
(c) Bleed the FFR and attempt another start.

16. On a ground-run carried out in high ambient temperatures, thrust would


be:

(a) High.
(b) Normal.
(c) Low.

17. Compressor bleed valves control the amount of air passing through the:

(a) Compressor exit annulus.


(b) Compressor inlet annulus.
(c) Anti-icing annulus.

18. After running at high rpm's, close the throttle:

(a) Rapidly to obtain quick shutdown.


(b) Slowly to minimise thermal stress.
(c) Slowly to prevent surge.

19. Engine shut down can be carried out after running engine at:

(a) Idle for two minutes then closing HP cock.


(b) Cruise for two minutes then closing HP cock.
(c) Any rpm and closing HP cock.

20. After shutdown, the run down time was found to be too short, this would
indicate that the:

(a) Turbine tip clearances too large.


(b) Labyrinth seal clearances too large.
(c) Turbine tip clearance too small.

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FIRE

21. Methyl Bromide is:

(a) Toxic.
(b) Semi toxic.
(c) Non toxic.

22. Which extinguishants are found in fixed engine bay fire systems?
(a) Water, BCF, BTM.
(b) Methyl bromide, BCF, chemical dry power.
(c) Methyl bromide, BCF, BTM.

23. A "two shot" engine fire extinguishing system:

(a) Must have two fire bottles per fire zone.


(b) Must be capable of two attempts at the same fire.
(c) Is usually a "mixed system".

24. The electrical supply to the fire bottle cartridges is:

(a) ac from the essential bus bar.


(b) dc from the essential bus bar.
(c) dc from the normal bus bar.

25. The weight stamped on a fire bottle is its full weight::

(a) Without cartridge units.


(b) With cartridge units.
(c) With or without cartridge units depending on the manual.

26. The reason that a safety ohmmeter is used when checking the continuity
of a fire bottle detonator is:

(a) It limits the value of the applied voltage.


(b) It limits the amount of current.
(c) It prevents detonation by overvolting.

27. The differential expansion type of fire detector is:

(a) Operated by gas pressure.


(b) Not re-settable.
(c) Re-settable.

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28. The titanium hydride in the gas operated fire wire (Systron Donner)
system is used to:

(a) Prevent excessive pressure build up.


(b) Allow the fire wire to be cut and still operate.
(c) Allow the fire wire to detect small intense flames.

29. With an increase in heat the resistance in the resistive fire wire detector:

(a) Increases.
(b) Decreases.
(c) Operates as a dielectric.
30. The "press to test" system of the electrical fire wire detector will only work
if:

(a) All electrical supplies are ON.


(b) Any two electrical supplies are ON.
(c) Any one plus an emergency supply is ON.

31. A thermo-couple works on the principle of:

(a) Converting light energy to electrical energy.


(b) Producing a pd across two dissimilar metals.
(c) Bending under the action of differential expansion.

32. Electrical fire wire is supported in rubber lined clips to:

(a) Provide insulation.


(b) Prevent continuity contact between the metal clip and the fire wire.
(c) Reduce vibration and chaffing.

INSTRUMENTATION

33. A moving coil instrument stops moving when:

(a) The torque between the spring and torque produced by the current
balance.
(b) The torques produced by the opposing currents balance.
(c) The damping coil produces enough friction.

34. Where power failure occurs on the dc ratiometer:

(a) The needle is pulled off scale by a weak spring.


(b) Both torques go to zero and the instrument remains where it is.
(c) The needle is pulled off-scale by a weak magnet.

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35. A dc ratiometer can be used to measure:

(a) Pressure only.


(b) Pressure and temperature.
(c) Temperature only.

36. The Desynn indicator system uses:

(a) ac.
(b) dc or ac.
(c) dc.

37. The indicator of the tacho generator rpm indicator system responds to:

(a) Voltage.
(b) Current.
(c) Frequency.

38. If the supply signal to the indicator open circuits on the tacho generator
rpm indicator system, the pointer will:

(a) Remain at its present position.


(b) Return to zero under the influence of a spring.
(c) Return to zero under the influence of a weak magnet.

39. The tacho probe rpm indicator system requires:

(a) ac power.
(b) No power.
(c) dc power.

40. A basic thermocouple produces (under constant heat):

(a) dc voltage.
(b) ac voltage.
(c) Either ac or dc voltage depending on the materials used.

41. On a simple small aircraft, the thermocouple system requires:

(a) dc power.
(b) No power.
(c) ac power.

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42. The engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicator system uses:

(a) A positive feed back system.


(b) No feed back.
(c) A negative feed back system.

43. EPR is the ratio between:

(a) P1 and P2.


(b) P1 and P7.
(c) P1 and P3.

44. Torque is used as a measure of power on:

(a) All jet engines.


(b) Engines driving propellers and rotor heads.
(c) Engines without an EPR system.
45. The thermo-couple type of exhaust gas temperature measuring system is
one of two types, these are:

(a) Stagnation and quick response.


(b) Slow response and quick response.
(c) Stagnation and slow response.

46. A double element thermo-couple system is for:

(a) Temperature sensing for an indicator and an engine temperature


control system.
(b) Temperature sensing for an indicator and a warning system for a
combustion fault.
(c) An engine temperature control system and a warning system for a
combustion fault.

47. The indicator of an ac ratiometer instrument contains two shaded pole


motors, these consist of:

(a) Two coils and two soft iron cores.


(b) Two cam discs and two soft iron cores.
(c) Two cam discs and two coils.

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48. In a desynn system, if there was a power failure, the pointer on the
indicator would:

(a) Remain in the present condition.


(b) Be pulled off scale by a magnet.
(c) Be pulled off scale by a spring.

49. The inputs to a CRT type flight deck indicator are:

(a) dc power.
(b) ac power.
(c) Electrical power and signals.

50. With a CRT type of flight deck indicator system:

(a) The transducer signal is first converted to a digital signal.


(b) The transducer signal is sent to the symbol generator.
(c) The transducer signal, either analogue or digital, is sent to the CRT.
”””””””””

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Licence By Post EASA 66 15/3

MULTI CHOICE ANSWER PAPER ISSUE 2

Name ………………………………… Student number ………… Date …………

Subject Gas turbine engine

Assessment number 3 of 3

A B C A B C A B C A B C A B C
1 21 41 61 81

2 22 42 62 82

3 23 43 63 83

4 24 44 64 84

5 25 45 65 85

6 26 46 66 86

7 27 47 67 87

8 28 48 68 88

9 29 49 69 89

10 30 50 70 90

11 31 51 71 91

12 32 52 72 92

13 33 53 73 93

14 34 54 74 94

15 35 55 75 95

16 36 56 76 96

17 37 57 77 97

18 38 58 78 98

19 39 59 79 99

20 40 60 80 100
LBP Multiple choice answers (answers should be checked)

Module 15/3 – Gas Turbine Engine


Q1 c
Q2 b
Q3 c
Q4 c
Q5 b
Q6 a
Q7 c
Q8 b
Q9 c
Q10 a
Q11 c
Q12 b
Q13 b
Q14 b
Q15 a
Q16 c
Q17 b
Q18 b
Q19 a
Q20 c
Q21 a
Q22 c
Q23 b
Q24 b
Q25 c
Q26 b
Q27 c
Q28 c
Q29 b
Q30 a
Q31 b
Q32 c
Q33 a
Q34 c
Q35 b
Q36 b
Q37 c
Q38 b
Q39 b
Q40 a
Q41 b
Q42 c
Q43 b
Q44 b
Q45 a
Q46 a
Q47 c
Q48 c
Q49 c
Q50 b

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