Family law I

MCQ

1. The Parsi Marriage is also regarded as a contract through a religious

ceremony of…..............is necessary for its validity.
a. Hom
b. Ashirvad
c. Kirtan
d. Saptpadi
2. Suits for dissolution of marriage under Parsi law is filed, if a husband or
wife have been absent from each other for a space of …... years.
a. 7
b. 5
c. 4
d. 2
3. What is the relief in the ground of Non-consumption of marriage under Parsi
Marriage and Divorce Act.
a. Void
b. Divorce
c. No relief
d. All of the above
4. Muta under Mohammedan law means …………
a. a temporary marriage
b. a permanent marriage
c. a joint venture marriage
d. an illegal marriage.
5. Islam in Arabic means……………
a. submission to the will of God
b. deliberate adoption of a new faith.
c. adoption of the faith of Islam.
d. all the above.
6. In India, if one of the parents is a Muslim, the child is to be treated
as……………..
a. belonging to the religion of the mother
b. belonging to the religion of the father
 c. belonging to the religion mutually agreed by the parents
d. a Muslim.
7. Marriage in Islam is………………
a. a contract
b. a sacrament
c. a contract as well as a sacrament
d. either a contract or a sacrament.
8. Islamic law provides for…………………….
a. Monogamy
b. unlimited polygamy
c. controlled polygamy
d. bigamy.
9. Essential requirements of Muslim marriage are……………
a. Ijab
b. Qabul
c. both ijab and qabul
d. eitherijab or qabul.
10.Option of puberty means…………….
a. a Muslim minor girl married during minority by a guardian has a right to
repudiate such marriage on attaining puberty
b. a Muslim minor girl married during minority by a guardian has no right
to repudiate such marriage on attaining puberty.
c. a Muslim minor girl married during minority by a guardian has a right to
repudiate such marriage on attaining puberty only with the permission of
the court.
d. a Muslim minor girl married during minority by a guardian can repudiate
such marriage with the consent of her husband.
11.'The option of puberty' can be exercised by the female before attaining the
age of……….
a. 21 years
b. 18 years
c. 15 years
d. either (a) or (b) or (c).
12.A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding……………
a. Four
 b. Three
c. Two
d. one.
13.A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four. If a Sunni
Muslim marries a fifth wife, such a marriage shall be……………
a. Valid
b. Irregular
c. Void
d. either (a) or (c).
14.Offsprings of a Muslim woman marrying second husband shall
be…………..
a. Legitimate
b. illegitimate but can be legitimised by subsequent acknowledgement
c. illegitimate and cannot be legitimised by any subsequent
acknowledgement
d. either (a) or (b).
15.'Kitabi' and 'Kitabiyya' refer to……………
a. a man and a woman respectively
b. a woman and a man respectively
c. a woman
d. a man.
16.Requisites to validity of Parsi marriages………..
a. the contracting parties are not related to each other in any of the degrees
of consanguinity or affinity
b. such marriage must solemnize according to the Parsi form of ceremony
called “Ashirvad” by a priest.
c. in the presence of two Parsi witnesses
d. All of these
17.Marriage register is a …...................under Parsi Law
a. private document
b. public document
c. confidential document
d. none of these
18.Under the PARSI MARRIAGE AND DIVORCE ACT….. Section covers
consent divorce
 a. 32A
b. 32B
c. 32C
d. 32D
19.The expression “conjugal rights” means …...................
a. the right of husband and wife, which they have of each other’s society
b. marital intercourse
c. option a) & b) both
d. none of these
20.The term “pendente lite” means….................
a. pending the litigation
b. urgent and immediate relief.
c. ad interim relief
d. all of these
21.In making order for custody of children etc. the court takes into account
under The Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act.
a. Welfare of the Child
b. Wishes of Parents
c. Wishes of Child
d. all of these
22.PROBATE means ….............
a. A mere certificate
b. Probate means the Certificate of Court + Will.
c. ONLY WILL
d. None of these
23.REMARRIAGE cover by …............ Under The Parsi Marriage and Divorce
Act
a. Section 48
b. Section 47
c. Section 52
d. Section 3
a. none of these
24.Section 10 of the Act provides that a Christian marriage can be solemnized
only between…......... To …..............
a. 6am and 7pm
 b. 10 am to 7 pm
c. 11 am to 8 pm
d. 11 am to 9 pm

25.Under Sunni Sect of Muslims , mother is entitled to the custody of the male
child till he attains
a) seven years
b) two years
c) five years
d) puberty
26.Who can appoint a testamentary guardian for a minor, Under Muslim Law?
a) only father
b) only father or grand father
c) only court
d) only father or mother
27.When the amount of dower is not fixed by parties to the marriage, it is called
as
a) Maher- E- Musamma
b) Maher- E- Muajjal
c) Maher- E- Muuvajjal
d) Maher-Ul-Misl
28.Totality of commandments of Allah is called as
a) Shariat
b) Fiqh
c) Furu
d) Farz
29.Under Muslim Law, marriage with maternal uncle is
a) Sahih marriage
b) Batil Maarriage
c) Fasid Marriage
d) Halal Marriage
30.Iddat period in case of death of the husband is
a) Four months
b) three months
c) Four months and ten day
d) Six months
31.Who was the first Imam of Fiqh?
a) Abu Hanifa
b) Ignaz Goldzihar
c) Justice Mehmood
d) Imam Zaidi

32.Marriage during lifetime of the spouse is-------------- under Parsi Law.

a) Valid
b) Void
c) Voidable
d) Irregular

33.Suit for nullity of marriage can be filed under Parsi Law

a) only on the ground that consummation is not possible due to natural
causes
b) only on grounds that consummation is not possible due to natural causes
or the party was of unsound mind at the time of marriage
c) only on the ground of premarital pregnancy
d) only on grounds that the party was of unsound mind at the time of
marriage
34.A Parsi delegate is appointed for a term of
a) Five Yeas
b) Ten Years
c) Twenty Years
d) Three Years
35.The grounds of divorce exclusively available to a wife under Christian law
are
a) adultery or sodomy
b) rape, sodomy or bestiality
c) rape or sodomy
d) rape or adultery
36.For a valid marriage under Christian Law,
a) Both the parties to the marriage should be Christians.
b) Either party to the marriage should be a Christian.
c) Neither party to the marriage need to be a Christian.
 d) Neither party to the marriage need to be a Christian but marriage
ceremony should be performed in a church.
37.According to The Divorce Act, Court means,
a) The Family Court
b) The District Court or the Family Court, as the case may be
c) The High Court or the District Court, as the case may be
d) The High Court or the Family Court, as the case may be
38.John a Christian died intestate leaving his wife Martha and uncle Max. What
will be the share of Martha in John’s property?
a) 2/3 (Two third)
b) 1/2 (Half)
c) 1/3 (One third)
d) 3/4 (Three quarters)
39.Under Parsi Law of Inheritance, share of a parent of the deceased is
a) half of children’s share in the property of the deceased
b) equal to children’s share in the property of the deceased
c) one third of children’s share in the property of the deceased
d) two third of children’s share in the property of the deceased
40.Indian Succession Act defines
a) Privileged will, Unprivileged Will and Will
b) only Privileged will and Will
c) Privileged will, Unprivileged Will and Holograph
d) only Privileged Will and Unprivileged Will
41.A sum of Rs. 5,000/- is bequeathed to X in a will, in the same will again Rs.
5,000 /- is bequeathed to X. How much money X is entitled to get?
a) Rs. 10, 000/-
b) Rs.5, 000/-
c) Rs. 55, 000/-
d) X is entitled to get nothing.
42.A having share in (X), a prosperous joint stock company and shares in (Y) a
joint stock company in difficulties, in respect of which shares heavy calls are
expected to be made, bequeaths to B, all his shares in joint stock companies;
B refuses to accept share in (Y).
a) B can get shares in (X) as it is residuary legacy
b) B cannot get shares in (X) as it is residuary legacy
c) B cannot get shares in (X) as it is onerous bequest
d) B can get shares in (X) as it is onerous bequest
43.………… is granted to the executor for execution of the will by the Court.
a) Letter of Administration
b) Letter of Execution
c) Probate
d) Codicil
44.An illegitimate child acquires domicile of his
a) Father
b) Mother
c) Guardian
d) Father or Mother
45.PROBATE means ….............
e. A mere certificate
f. Probate means the Certificate of Court + Will.
g. ONLY WILL
h. Any document
46.REMARRIAGE cover by …............ Under The Parsi Marriage and Divorce
Act
e. Section 48
f. Section 47
g. Section 52
h. Section 3

FAMILY LAW-I DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

1. State two ground on which a Parsi woman can seek Divorce?
2. What is proper dower?
3. Who are penalized if Parsi Marriage is not registered?
4. Name the SECTS which divide Muslims into two.
5. Define Codicil.
6. Can entire property be given in will under the Indian Succession Act?
7. Can Marriage be solemnization outside church under Indian Christian
Marriage Act?
8. What is the place and time for solemnization of a Christian Marriage?
9. Can non-Christian marriage to Christian Seek Divorce under Indian Divorce
Act?
10.What is Permanent Alimony?
11.What is restitution of conjugal rights under Parsi Law?
 12.Define Will?
13.What is an Escheat?
14.What is the place for solemnization of a Christian Marriage?
15.Can 18 year old Parsi Man Marry under the Parsi Marriage and Divorce
Act?
16.Who is an Executor under the Indian Succession Act?
17.What is differed Mahar?
18.What is the penalty for Parsi Priest under Section of Parsi Marriage and
Divorce Act?
19.Who is Sunni under Muslim Law?
20.What is Ijma?
21.Define “Supplementary Will”
22.What is the legal status of the child born to a Parsi couple when marriage is
void?
23.Define types of ‘Dower’.
24.Name two sects which divide Muslims.
25.What is the place and time for solemnization of a Christian marriage?
26.State two grounds on which Christian woman can seek divorce?
27.What is the Domicile of an illegitimate child under Indian Succession Act?
28.Define “Ashirwad Ceremony” in Parsi Law.
29.Define ‘ijma’ under Muslim Law.
30.Which property can be given in will under Indian Succession Act

CONSTITUTIONAL LAW QUESTION BANK

1. The Constitution of India came into force on –

I. 26th January, 1947

II. 15th August,1947
III. 23rd January, 1950
IV. 26th January, 1950
2. Which of the following elections are not controlled by the Election Commission
of India
I. President
II. Parliament
III. Vice President
IV. Panchayats.

3. A member of Union Public Service Commission may be removed from office

by

I. Judiciary
II. Chairman of Public Service Commission
III. President
IV. President after inquiry and approval of Supreme Court

4. Which of the following is described as the ‘heart and soul of the

Constitution’?

I. Art. 32
II. Art. 26
III. Art. 21
IV. Art. 14

5. Under the Indian federal structure, residuary powers are vested with:
 I. Judiciary
II. President
III. Centre
IV. State

6. The 73rd Constitution Amendment contains provisions on:

I. National Commission for Women
II. National Commission for Minorities
III. Panchayat Raj System
IV. Election Commission of India

7. By which amendment were the words "Socialist" and "Secular" inserted to the
Preamble to the Constitution?
I. 42nd Amendment
II. 44th Amendment
III. 43rd Amendment
IV. 45th Amendment

8 . Which of the following can a court issue for enforcement of Fundamental

Rights ?

I. Decree
II. Writ
III. Order
IV. Notification
9. Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article
352?
I. Chief Minister
II. Prime Minister
III. Council of Ministers
IV. Cabinet

10. Who certifies a bill as a money bill when it goes to other house or for
President's assent?
I. Finance Minister
II. President
III. Speaker of Lok Sabha
IV. CJI

11. Which part of the Indian Constitution expressly declares that India is a
Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.

I. Fundamental Rights
II. Fundamental Duties
III. Directive Principles of State Policy
IV. Preamble

12. The Ordinance passed by President remains in force for how long after the
Parliament is reconvened?
I. Six months
II. Six Weeks
III. Sixty Days
 IV. Six Days

13. Which provisions of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to ensure
that the Government of every State is carrying on in accordance with the
provisions of he Constitution?
I. Art. 352
II. Art. 355
III. Art. 356
IV. Art. 360

14. Which of the following hold office at the pleasure of the President?

I. CAG
II. Speaker of Lok Sabha
III. Civil Servants of Union
IV. Chairman of UPSC

15. Which of the following method is adopted for the election of the President of
India?
I. General Election
II. Direct election
 III. proportional representation by single transferrable vote
IV. Indirect proportional representation

16. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain

persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following
provision is incorrect:
I. he or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in
India
II. such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948.
III. such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been
registered as a citizen
IV. Such person has got married in India.

17. Against which of the following writs cannot be issued for the enforcement of
fundamental rights:
I. High Court
II. Income Tax Tribunal
III. Port Trust
IV. BMC
 18. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that an
amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning
of Article 13

I. Golaknath v. State of Punjab

II. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
III. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
IV. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala

19. Article 15 (3) of the Constitution of India empowers the State to make
special provisions for
I. Reservation in employment for freedom fighters
II. Reservation in employment for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes
III. Women and Children
IV. reservation in employment for physically handicapped persons

20. Under which Constitutional Article, Special leave to appeal lies with the
Supreme Court—
I. Art.136
II. Art. 137
III. Art.138
IV. Art.139
 21. Which of the following is also known as the Habeas Corpus case?
I. Maneka Gandhi v. UOI
II. ADM Jabalpur v Shivkant Shukla
III. Minerva Mills v Union of India
IV. Waman Raov. UOI

22. On whose advice, President of India appoints Regional Election

Commissioner
I. Prime Minister
II. Chief Justice of High Court
III. Chief Election Commissioner
IV. Governor

23. In the Indian Constitution, which is the intermediate level organization in

Panchayat Raj?

I. Gram Sabha
II. Zilla Parishad
III. Panchayat Samiti
IV. Gram Pramukh

24. Which of the following is a landmark case on the Parliamentary Privileges?

I. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

II. Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
III. Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
 IV. P.V Narsimha Rao v. UOI

25. President's Rule in state under Art. 356 can be extended for a maximum of
------ with the approval of the Parliament done every 6 months
I. 6 months
II. 1 year
III. 2 Years
IV. 3 years

26. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble
is not a part of the Constitution?

I. A.K.Gopalan Case
II. Re Berubari Case
III. Balaji Case
IV. Council of Ministers

27. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by

I. The President of India

II. The Union Council of Ministers
 III. The Parliament by resolution
IV. The Parliament by Law.

28. Who nominates 12 members in the Council of State

I. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

II. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
III. President of India
IV. Prime Minister of India

29. After how many years, one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire

I. 6 years
II. 3 years
III. 5 years
IV. 2 years
31. Which law officer shall have the right to speak in both the Houses of
Parliament
I. Solicitor General
II. Advocate General
III. Attorney General
IV. Legal Advisor

32. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India

I. Judiciary
II. Executive
III. Legislative
IV. Parliament

33. Which Supreme Court judgement described the basic structure of the
Constitution of India for the first time
I. Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
II. Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
III. Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
IV. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
34. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid
down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the
operation of emergency
I. 44th Amendment Act
II. 46th Amendment Act
III. 45th Amendment Act
IV. 48th Amendment Act

35. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction
given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has
arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the
provision in the Constitution

I. President
II. Prime Minister
III. Home Minister
IV. Supreme Court

36. Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India is concerned with?

I. Languages
II. Partition of powers between Union and states
III. Judicial areas of the states
IV. Panchayati Raj

37. Under the writ of Mandamus, the Court can

I. Ask the person to be produced
II. Order to transfer the case from one court
III. Ask to let a person free for a temporary period
IV. Direct the public body to do or not to do a thing

38. Fundamental Duties were added in the Constitution after the recommendation
of which committee?

I. Kalelkar committee
II. Ketkar committee
III. Chavan committee
IV. Swaran Singh committee

39. In the Indian Constitution, Fundamental Duties are given in which article?
I. Article 12 to 35
II. Article 51A
III. Article 36 to 50
IV. Article 19
40. In which Supreme Court Judgement it has been pronounced that ‘the Union
Government cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government on the sole ground
that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of
the Lok Sabha

I. S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India

II. IR Coelho vs. State of Tamil Nadu
III. Waman Rao vs UOI
IV. Balaji v State of Mysore

41. Under Constitutional Article 243U, what is the maximum duration of

Municipalities—?

I. 4 years
II. 6 years
III. 5 years
IV. 3 years
42. Whose satisfaction is required under Constitutional Article 347 regarding
special provision for creating language spoken by a section of the population of a
state?

I. Parliament
II. Judiciary
III. President
IV. Prime Minister

43. Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal detention
of a person?
I. Habeas Corpus
II. Mandamus
III. Quo Warranto
IV. Prohibition

44. Under the Indian federal structure, residuary powers are vested with:
I. Union
II. State
III. Panchayat
IV. Municipalties

45. The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by

I. Collegium System
 II. National Judicial Appointment Commission
III. Chief Justice
IV. Union Council of Ministers

46. Constitutional safeguards to Civil Servants are ensured by

I. Art. 310
II. Art 311
III. Art. 312
IV. Art 19(1)(g)

47. Impeachment proceedings against the President may be initiated in

I. Lok Sabha
II. Rajya Sabha
III. Either House of Parliament
IV. Either House of state legislature

48. The duty of Finance Commission is not to recommend upon

I. Distribution of taxes between the Union and States
II. Determination of principles which should govern the grants in-aid from the
Centre to the State
III. Consideration of new items of revenue to be allocated to States
IV. Any other matter especially referred to the Commission

49. Town Area Committee is constituted and governed by

I. District Board
II. State Legislature
III. Governor
IV. Municipal Council

50. A new All India Service can be created by—

I. An amendment of the constitution

II. An executive order
III. A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
IV. A statute

SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. What is the Basic Structure Doctrine?

2. State the salient features of Indian Constitution
3. Fundamental Rights strive to balance liberty with reasonable restrictions.
Comment.
4. Write a note on Civil Rights Act, 1955
5. State the effects of National Emergency
6. Elaborate on the privileges of legislature
7. Write a brief note on the religious freedoms granted under Constitution
8. What is the Doctrine of Repugnancy?
9. Discuss in brief the writ of Habeas Corpus with case law
10.Elaborate on the procedure of appointment of Supreme Court Judges
11.State the provisions on Citizenship as given in the Constitution of India
12.Write a note on Fundamental Duties
13.State the importance Minerva Mill Judgment
14.What are the privileges given to Governor under Art. 361?
15.Write a note on the Comptroller and Auditor - General of India
16.Write a short note on Special Leave to Appeal
17.What is the Doctrine of Pith and Substance?
18.Explain the meaning of "State " as provided under Art. 12 of Constitution
19.Explain Judicial Activism with case laws
20.Write a note on Preamble
21.What are the Constitutional safeguards against arbitrary arrest and
detention?
22.Discuss the protection given to civil servants under the constitution of India
under Art. 311
23.Short note on Money Bill
24.What is meant by reasonable classification with reference to the
Fundamental Right to equality?
25.Short note on the relation between Procedure established by law and due
process of law as provided by Indian Judiciary
26.Who is the Comptroller and Auditor General of India? What is the CAG's
role and responsibility?
27.Article 21 of the Constitution of India is an ever-expanding article. Elaborate
upon this statement with reference to at least 2 landmark cases.
28.Is the Supreme Court bound by its own decisions? Explain with case law.
29. What is meant by Special Leave Petition?
30.What is an ordinance? Who can issue it?
 ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS QUESTION BANK
MCQ

1. The World Charter on Nature came in –

a. 1982
b. 1983
c. 1990
d. 1992
Ans: A
2. Power of the Central Government to take measures to protect and improve environment
doesn’t include –
a. Laying own procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances
b. Establish or recognition of environmental laboratories
c. Laying down standards for the emission of discharge of environmental pollutants
d. Funding the industries to take precautions before taking up any activity that might
strike environment.
Ans: D
3. “In order to ensure that there is neither damage to the environment nor to the ecology and
at the same time ensuring sustainable development it can refer scientific and technical
aspects for investigating and opinion to statutory expert bodies having a combination of
both judicial technical expertise in such matter”, this was held in –
a. A.P. Pollution Control Board v M.V. Nayudu
b. Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum V Union of India
c. M.C. Mehta V Kamal Nath
d. Narmada Bachao Andolan v Union of India
Ans: A
4. Montreal Protocol was signed in –
a. 1981
b. 1983
c. 1988
d. 1987
Ans: D
5. Which among the following principle of The Declaration of the Human Environment
recognizes, ‘the need and importance of both development as well as environment’?
a. Principle 6
b. Principle 14
c. Principle 8
d. Principle 16
Ans: B
6. Which among the following is false about ‘the polluter pays principle’?
a. It finds its mention in Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration
b. It provides that producers of goods or other items should bear the financial and
practical responsibility of preventing or remedying any pollution caused by their
activity
c. It exposes the polluter to two fold liability, namely compensation to the victim of
pollution and ecological restoration
d. This principle was to conceal the trade secrets of the manufacturing unit
Ans: D
7. Under which provision of the Wildlife Protection Act was hunting prohibited?
a. Section 7
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
Ans: B
8. Principle 17 of the Declaration of Human Environment talks about –
a. Resources should be made available to preserve and improve the Environment.
b. Appropriate national institutions must be entrusted with the task of planning,
managing or controlling the environment resources of States with the view of
enhancing environmental quality.
c. The Capacity of the earth to produce vital renewable resources must be
maintained and whenever feasible, restored.
 d. The non-renewable resources on the earth must be employed in a manner such as
to guard danger of their future exhaustion and to ensure that the benefit from such
kind of employment are shared by all mankind.
Ans: B
9. Environment has been defined as_________under the Environment Protection Act, 1986
–
a. ‘Environment’ includes water, air, land and the inter-relationship that exists
between water, air and land and other human beings, other living beings, plants,
micro-organisms and property
b. ‘Environment’ includes water, air and land and the inter-relationship which exists
between water, air and land and other human beings.
c. ‘Environment’ includes water, air and land and the inter-relationship with one
another
d. ‘Environment’ includes water, air and land and human beings, other living
creatures, plants, micro-organisms and property.
Ans: A
10. In which of the following did the court accept the precautionary principle along with the
polluter pays principle as part of the legal system.
a. Vellore Citizens welfare forum vs Union of India
b. M.C.Mehta Vs Kamal Nath
c. Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs Union of India
d. Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action Vs Union of India
Ans: D
11. Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with Environmental
Protection?
a. Article 51 A
b. Article 40
c. Article 42
d. Article 45
Ans: A
12. ‘Occupier’ _____ under the Air Act.
 a. means the Central Board or a State Board;
b. means a member of the Central Board or a State Board, as the case may be, and
includes the Chairman thereof
c. in relation to any factory or premises, means the person who has control over the
affairs of the factory or the premises, and includes, in relation to any substance,
the person in possession of the substance
d. means prescribed by rules made under this Act by the Central Government or, as
the case may be, the State Government
Ans :C
13. Under the Wildlife Protection Act, a ‘trophy’ is –
a. means the whole or any part of any captive animal or wild animal, other than
vermin, which has been kept or preserved by any means, whether artificial or
natural, and includes— rugs, skins and specimens of such animal mounted in
whole or in part through a process of taxidermy, and antler, bone, carapace, shell,
horn, rhinoceros horn, hair, feather, nail, tooth, tusk, musk, eggs, nests and
honeycomb
b. means the whole or any part of any captive animal or wild animal, other than
vermin, which has not undergone a process of taxidermy, and includes a 9[freshly
killed wild animal, ambergris, musk and other animal products
c. means any conveyance used for movement on land, water or air and includes
buffalo, bull, bullock, camel, donkey, elephant, horse and mule
d. includes ammunition, bows and arrows, explosives, firearms, hooks’ knives, nets
poison, snares and traps and any instrument or apparatus capable of
anaesthetizing, decoying, destroying, injuring or killing an animal;
Ans A
14. What is the 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution called –
a. Two Fold Provision
b. Three fold provision
c. Two Fold Policy
d. Three fold Policy
Ans A
 15. The provision of appeal is defined under which provision of the Water Act?
a. Section 26
b. Section 27
c. Section 28
d. Section 29
Ans C
16. What is the “principle that implies that the party responsible for producing pollution is
responsible for paying for the damage done to the natural environment.”
a. Precautionary Principle
b. Vicarious Liability Principle
c. Polluter Pays Principle
d. Doctrine of Public Trust
Ans C
17. Sustainable Development is –
a. An event constituting a new stage in a changing situation.
b. is a complex human society, usually made up of different cities, with certain
characteristics of cultural and technological development. In many parts of the
world, early civilizations formed when people began coming together in urban
settlements.
c. Sustainable development is the idea that human societies must live and meet their
needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own
needs.
d. the process of adapting something to modern needs or habits
Ans D
18. Environment Impact Assessment is –
a. is a type of evaluation intended to identify environmental compliance and
management system implementation gaps, along with related corrective actions
b. is the deterioration of the environment through depletion of resources such as air,
water and soil; the destruction of ecosystems; habitat destruction; the extinction of
wildlife; and pollution
 c. is the practice of protecting the natural environment by individuals, organizations
and governments. Its objectives are to conserve natural resources and the existing
natural environment and, where possible, to repair damage and reverse trends
d. the assessment of the environmental consequences of a plan, policy, program, or
actual projects prior to the decision to move forward with the proposed action.
Ans D
19. Ratlam Municipality Case includes –
a. The Precautionary Principle
b. the Supreme Court espoused the cause of protection of national heritages such as
the Taj Mahal from deterioration and damage due to atmospheric and
environmental pollution
c. obligations to its people including the provision of sanitary facilities and the
prevention of street contamination from a nearby alcohol plant.
d. a writ petition in the Supreme Court charging that, despite the strides made in the
legal code, government authorities had not taken effective steps to prevent
environmental pollution
Ans D
20. Offences by the companies under the Air Act are defined under –
a. Section 42
b. Section 40
c. Section 39
d. Section 30
Ans B
21. Hunting' is defined as _________ under The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972
a. means any property referred to in section 39
b. includes land, water or vegetation which is the natural home of any wild animal
c. killing or poisoning of any wild animal or captive animal and every attempt to do
so; capturing, coursing, snaring, trapping, driving or baiting any wild or captive
animal and every attempt to do so; injuring or destroying or taking any part of the
body of any such animal or, in the case of wild birds or reptiles, damaging the
 eggs of such birds or reptiles, or disturbing the eggs or nests of such birds or
reptiles
d. means farm animals and includes buffaloes, bulls, bullocks, camels, cows,
donkeys, goats, sheep, horses, mules, yaks, pigs, ducks, geese, poultry and their
young
Ans C

22. Authorization under the Bio-Medical waste Rules means –

a. means permission granted by the prescribed authority for the generation,
collection, reception, storage, transportation, treatment, disposal and/or any other
form of handling of bio-medical waste in accordance with these rules and any
guidelines issued by the Central Government.
b. means any preparation made from organisms or micro-organisms or product of
metabolism and biochemical reactions intended for use in the diagnosis,
immunisation or the treatment of human beings or animals or in research activities
pertaining thereto
c. which includes a hospital, nursing home, clinic dispensary, veterinary institution,
animal house, pathological laboratory, blood bank by whatever name called,
means a person who has control over that institution and/or its premises
d. person who owns or controls or operates a facility for the collection, reception,
storage, transport, treatment, disposal or any other form of handling of
bio-medical waste
Ans: A
23. Timing of the ‘Day and Night’ under Noise Pollution Rules –
a. There shall be no designate Day and Night times.
b. Day time shall mean from 5.00 a.m. to 11.00 p.m. and Night time shall mean from
11.00 p.m. to 5.00 a.m.
c. Day time shall mean from 4.00 a.m. to 10.00 p.m. and Night time shall mean from
10.00 p.m. to 4.00 a.m.
d. Day time shall mean from 6.00 a.m. to 10.00 p.m. and Night time shall mean from
10.00 p.m. to 6.00 a.m.
Ans: D
24. Convention on Global Warming –
a. Montreal Protocol
b. The Brundtland Commission
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. There is no Convention for Global Warming
Ans: C
25. A news came in one of the newspapers stating that one ‘Mangal Nursing Home’ is
discarding its Biomedical wastes in the nearby public dustbin on the road maintained by
Corporation thereby causing health hazards to the surrounding residents. In this case –
a. The Pollution Control Board cannot take suo moto action against the Nursing
home
b. The Pollution Control Board can take suo moto action against the Nursing home.
c. The Nursing home has not committed any offence and hence no action can be
taken against them
d. The Nursing Home has committed an offence, but the Pollution Control Board
does not have the authority to take action against them.
Ans: B
26. World Environmental day is celebrated on –
e. December 01
f. June 5
g. November 14
h. August 15
Ans: B
27. As per Sec. 2 (a) of The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 Environment refers to:
a. water, air and land;
b. the inter- relationship which exists among and between water, air and land, and
human beings,
c. other living creatures, plants, micro-organism and property;
d. Animals & plants
Ans:B
 28. Sustainable Development was defined for the first time in the:
a. Bruntland Report
b. Johannesburg Declaration
c. Rio-Declaration
d. Kyoto Protocol
Ans: B
29. Power of the Central Government to take measures to protect and improve environment
doesn’t include –
a. Laying own procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances.
b. Establish or recognition of environmental laboratories
c. Laying down standards for the emission of discharge of environmental pollutants
d. Funding the industries to take precautions before taking up any activity that might
strike environment.
Ans: D

30. “In order to ensure that there is neither damage to the environment nor to the ecology and
at the same time ensuring sustainable development it can refer scientific and technical
aspects for investigating and opinion to statutory expert bodies having a combination of
both judicial technical expertise in such matter”, this was held in –
a. A.P. Pollution Control Board v M.V. Nayudu
b. Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum V Union of India
c. M.C. Mehta V Kamal Nath
d. Narmada Bachao Andolan v Union of India
Ans: A
31. Which among the following is false about ‘the polluter pays principle’?
a. It finds its mention in Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration
b. It provides that producers of goods or other items should bear the financial and
practical responsibility of preventing or remedying any pollution caused by their
activity.
c. It exposes the polluter to two-fold liability, namely compensation to the victim of
pollution and ecological restoration.
 d. This principle was to conceal the trade secrets of the manufacturing unit.
Ans: D
32. Under which provision of the Wildlife Protection Act was hunting prohibited?
a. Section 7
b. Section 9
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
Ans: B
33. In which of the following did the court accept the precautionary principle along with the
polluter pays principle as part of the legal system.
a. Vellore Citizens welfare forum vs Union of India
b. M.C.Mehta Vs Kamal Nath
c. Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs Union of India
d. Indian Council for Enviro-legal Action Vs Union of India
Ans:D
34. The Conference convened in the 20th anniversary of stockholm Conference is called:
a. Hclenski Conference
b. Kyoto Conference
c. Rio-de-Janeiro Conference
d. Montreal Protocol
Ans: C
35. Which of the following statements is not correct:
a. Central Board is bound by the written directions of the Central Government
b. In the case of inconsistency between the direction of State Government and of
Central Board, the State Board shall be bound by the directions of the State
Government
c. State Board is bound by the written directions of Central Board and State
Government
Ans: B
36. Sustainable Development was defined for the first time in the:
a. Brunt Land Report
 b. Johannesburg Declaration
c. Rio-Declaration
d. Kyoto Protocol
Ans: B
37. The most harmful types of environment pollutants are-
a. Human organic wastes\
b. Waste from faecal
c. Non-biodegradable chemicals
d. Natural nutrients present in excess
Ans: C
38. Ozone day is observed on-
a. January 30
b. April 29
c. September 16
d. December 25
Ans: C
39. Noise was recognized as an air pollutant through the amendment of –
a. Environment Protection Act
b. Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act
c. Noise Control and Pollution Act
d. Factories Act
Ans: B
40. The decision given in M.C. Mehta v. U.O.I-
a. Vicarious liability
b. Absolute liability
c. Strict liability
d. Simple liability
Ans: B
41. The document is known as “Magna Carta” for efforts taken in form of conference on
international level :
a. The Stockholm conference
 b. The Rio conference
c. The Johanesburg conference
d. United Nations Millennium
Ans: A

42. The Central Government has issued the BioMedical Waste Rules in the year :
a. 2000
b. 1998
c. 2003
d. 2007
Ans: A
43. The Ramsar Convention deals with the conservation of :
a. wet lands
b. endangered species of birds
c. endangered species of wild animals
d. Global Warming
Ans:A

44. Under Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, member of the boards
other than Member Secretary can hold office for a term of :
a. 5 years
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
Ans: C

45. Supreme Court opined that there is no reason to compel non-smokers to be helpless
victims of air pollution in the case of :
a. M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
b. Murli Deora vs. Union of India
c. Krishna Gopal vs. State of M.P.
 d. Nyamadevi vs. State of Kerala
Ans: B

46. Stockholm Declaration contains ________ .

(a) 7 Truths and 26 principles
(b) 7 Truths and 27 principles
(c) 26 principles
(d) 8 Truths and 26 principles
Ans: C

47. “Every Generation is under an obligation to reserve its natural and cultural heritage for
enjoyment of the future generations.” This doctrine is called :
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Polluter pays principle
(c) Inter-Generational Sanity
(d) Precautionary principle
Ans: C

48. The main global contributing factors to greenhouse-gas emissions are –

a. Electricity production and transportation
b. Industrial processes
c. Agricultural processes
d. Agriculture and transportation
Ans: A
49. In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the directions given by the
Environment Pollution (Prevention and control) Authority Constituted under Section 3,
EP Act are-
a. Binding only to the extent that it conforms with Act
b. Final and binding on all persons and organizations concerned and ate bound to
follow the same
c. Non-binding where reasons are given for justification of the Act.
 d. Non appealable and binding in nature.
Ans; B
50. Which convention adopted for the protection of ozone layer?
a. Vienna Convention
b. Basel Convention
c. Montreal Protocol
d. Stockholm Convention
Ans: C

DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Short Note on Eco-labelling and Eco-Mark.

2. Short Note on Global Warming.
3. Explain ‘Day’ and ‘Night’as per the Noise Pollution Rules.
4. Discuss ‘hunting’ and its associated provisions under the Wildlife Protection Act.
5. Declaration of National Parks under Wildlife Protection Act.
6. Explain the Polluter pays principle. Cite relevant caselaws.
7. Explain the principles of Sustainable Development.
8. Enumerate and any 6 salient features of the Environment Protection Act.
9. One of the hazardous chemicals producing factory was violating permitted norms of
effluent emissions. The smoke and other effluents emitted from the factory’s funnel was
hazardous to the health of the residents living in the surrounding vicinity.
a. State the role of the Control Board in this situation.
b. What are the remedies available to the residents living in the nearby vicinity?
c. State the liability of the polluter factory under the Law of Torts.
10. In Navratri festival a Garba dance programme was continued after 10 pm in high decibels
in the compound of one of the Housing society regularly. Despite of many complaints
from the disturbed surrounding locality residents it wasn’t stopped.
a. Who would be the appropriate authority to lodge a complaint and under what
grounds.
b. What are the actions that can be taken against the Respondents?
c. Explain the remedies under the Indian Penal Code.
11. Discuss fully the procedure of collection of samples, its analysis.
12. A group of hunters entered into a sanctuary with a hope to enter illegally and succeed in
trapping a few wild animals for earning some gain on the sale of the hunted animals.
They were carrying sharp weapons, kerosene, match-boxes, etc.
a. What are the rules regarding authorized entry under the Wildlife Protection Act?
b. What action can be taken against the group of hunters for carrying sharp weapons,
kerosene, match-boxes?
c. Trapped animals are whose property?
13. Discuss the salient features of ‘Sustainable development’.
14. Discuss the powers of the Central Government to take measures to protect and improve
the environment under the Environment Protection Act.
15. Short note on Environmental Auditing.
16. Explain Strict liability and discuss a relevant caselaw.
17. Explain in short the new principal laid down in the Oleum gas Leak case.
18. Write in short on Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming.
19. What is ‘taxidermy‘and what is ‘trophy’ with reference to Wildlife Protection Act?
20. Explain the Role of Public Interest Litigation in environmental protection in India.
21. Define ‘Hazardous substance’ and what are the duties of a person handling the hazardous
substance.
22. A State board officer enters into an industry in order to carry out inspection.
a. Does a State Board officer have the right to enter into an industry? Explain.
b. Before entering what action has to be taken by the officer?
c. If the occupier refuses to sign the sample containers what must the inspecting
officer do?
23. Is import of hazardous waste permitted? Explain.
24. Short note on Environment Impact Assessment.
25. Explain the provisions of Environmental Protection under the Indian Penal Code and Law
of Torts.
26. Explain the provisions relating to collection of samples and the procedure to be followed
under the Air Act.
27. Short note on ‘Grant of Authorization’ under the Hazardous waste rules.
28. Explain the offences by Companies under the Environment Protection Act.
29. Daily industrial wastes leave black trails on the Alibaug beach. Environmentalists are
worried as to how to control the hydro-carbon effluents washing up on the beaches where
the sand has turned grey and black.
a. Under the Environment Protection Act, explain the power to give directions.
b. What does ‘action taken in good faith’ mean under the Environment Protection
Act?
30. State the functions of the State Board under the Air Act.
 LAW OF CRIMES QUESTION BANK
MCQ
1. Which of the following does not form part of Actus Reus?
a) Conduct
b) Circumstances as are specified by law
c) Result of Conduct
d) Thought of Conduct
2. Offence of attempt
a) Should have the element of Actus Reus
b) Should have the element of Mens Rea
c) May not have any of the two elements
d) Should have the elements of Actus Reus and Mens Rea
3. Which of the following is not punishable under section 511?
a) Successful attempt to commit suicide
b) Unsuccessful attempt to commit suicide
c) Successful attempt to riot
d) Unsuccessful attempt to wage war against the government of India

4. Which of the following statement is true?

a) It is necessary that the act abetted must have been committed
b) It is not essential that the act abetted must have been committed
c) At least 50% of the act must have been committed
d) Consequences of the act must be there.
5. A kept open the gate of his master’s house with a view to facilitate the entry
of thieves B & C but in place of them D & F stole all valuable goods.
a) A can be guilty of abetting the offence committed by D &F
b) A cannot be held guilty of abetting the offence committed by D & F
c) A, B & C are all abettors
d) Only B & C are abettors
6. The application of the Indian Penal Code 1860 may be extended to offences
committed
a) By any Indian Citizen
b) By any person whether citizen or not
c) A and B above
d) None of the above
7. The rule incorporated in section 34 of the Indian Penal Code 1860
a) Is a rule of evidence
b) It creates substantives offence
c) A and B both
d) None of the above
8. The object of the punishment as provided of the Indian Penal Code 1860 is
Curative
a) Reformative
b) Retributive
c) A and B
d) Punitive
9. In respect of solitary confinement section 73 & 74 regulates such a
confinement
a) For a term not exceeding one month if the term of imprisonment shall
not exceed six months
b) For a term not exceeding two months if the term of imprisonment
shall exceed six months and shall not exceed one year
c) For a term not exceeding three months if the term of imprisonment
shall not exceed one year
d) All of the above
10. The extent of right of private defence as provided in section 97 of the indian
penal code 1860 related to defending:
a) His own body
b) Body of any other person
c) His movable or immovable property
d) Movable or immovable property of another person
e) All the above
11. Unlawfull assembly is an assembly of five or more persons with
a) Common object
b) Common intention
 c) Conspiracy
d) All above
12.Whether the provocation was grave and sudden enough to prevent the
offence from amounting to murder is
a) A question of law
b) A question of fact
c) Mixed question of law and fact
d) None of the above
13.In case of Dowry Death offence is
a) Cognizable
b) Non- Bailable
c) Compoundable
d) All above
e) A and B
14.In case of kidnapping from India following elements are involved
a) Conveying of any person
b) Beyond the any limit of India
c) Without the consent of that person
d) Without the consent of some person legally authorized to consent on
behalf of that person
e) All above

15. Causing of death by negligence is provided by

a) Sec. 304
b) Sec. 304 A
c) Sec. 304 B
d) Sec 305
16. In respect of offence of rape the provision incorporated in sec 375 by an
amendment in the code. The amendment had been introduced in the year
a) 1983
b) 1985
c) 1993
d) 1995
17.A person may be guilty of offence of forgery by signing his own name.
a) True
b) False
 c) Partly true
d) Partly false
18.A person may be guilty of offence of mischief in respect of his own property
a) True
b) False
c) Partly true
d) Partly false
19.Offence of Dishonest Misappropriation of property provided in sec 403 may
be committed in respect of
a) Movable property
b) Immovable property
c) A & B above
20.The offence of cheating as defined in sec 415 of the Indian Penal Code 1860
requires that offence any be committed by
a) Act of the offender
b) Omission on the part of the offender
c) Both a & b
21.In case of offence of criminal trespass as defined in section 441 it requires:
a) Entry upon the property owned by another person
b) Entry upon the property possessed by another person
22.House breaking becomes house- breaking by night if house breaking is
committed
a) During the day time
b) In the night only
c) After sunset and before sunrise
d) Neither above
23.The provision as to offences of forgery and making of a false document have
been amended by the government in the Indian Penal Code 1860.
a) 1995
b) 1996
c) 2000
d) 2002

24.In case of offence of Defamation it may be committed by

a) Writing
b) Orally sings
 c) Visible Representation
d) All above
25.Section 498 A involves following elements
a) Cruelty by husband or relatives of husband
b) Harassment of the woman with a view to requiring her or person
related to her to meet any unlawful demand
c) Both (a) & (b)
None of the above
26.Performance submitted to the judgment of the public is always exempted
from defamation whenever there is assessment thereof by anybody from the
public.
a) True
b) False
c) Partly True
d) None of the above
27. Provisions as to cruelty by the husband or relatives of husband have been
added in the Indian Penal Code 1860 by way of chapter XX A, section 498
A, by the amendment in the year_
a) 1983
b) 1986
c) 1990
d) 1993
28.‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided under
a) Section 80
b) Section 81
c) Section 82
d) Section 84
29.Irresistible impulse is a defence
a) India
b) England
c) Both the above countries
d) None of the countries

30.For Conspiracy, the minimum number of persons required is:

a) One
b) Five
 c) Two
d) No minimum required
31.Section 149 of IPC is
a) Declaratory Provision
b) Creates a distinct offence
c) A rule of evidence
d) All of the above
32.Culpable Homicide is not murder if it is committed under
a) Grave and sudden provocation
b) Self-intoxication
c) Irresistible impulse
d) All of the above
33.Which of the following is the grevious hurt:
a) Emasculation
b) Permanent disfiguration of face
c) Privation of nay member or joint
d) All the above
34.The word ‘Take’ in section 361 of IPC signifies:
a) Taking by force
b) Taking by fraud
c) Physical taking
d) All the above
35. Y inserts his hand into the pocket of Z only to find the pocket to be empty.
Y is guilty of:
a) No offence as the pocket was empty and offence not committed
b) Theft
c) Attempt to commit theft
d) Mischief
36.The causing of death of child in the mother’s womb is not homicide under:
a) Indian Law only
b) English Law only
c) Both Indian and English Laws
d) None of these

37.Attempt to commit an offence is punishable with:

a) Two third
 b) Half
c) Full
d) One eighth
38.The age of consensual sex after the criminal Law ( Amendment) Act 2013 is
a) 14 years
b) 15 years
c) 16 years
d) 18 years
39.In which of the following case SC has recently held section 499 and section
500 of IPC as constitutional
a) Bachan Singh’s case
b) Indra Sawhney case
c) Subramaniam Swamy v. union of India
d) S R Bommai Case
40.Forced intercourse by a man with his wife while a decree of judicial
separation is in effect:
a) Is punishable under the Hindu Marriage Act
b) Is punishable under the Indian Penal Code
c) Is not an offence in India
d) Is punishable under the Hindu Succession Act
41.When a weapon is a deadly weapon is a question of:
a) Law
b) Fact
c) Opinion to the expert witness
d) Opinion to the judge

42.Maximum period for which a convicted person may be kept in solitary

confinement is
a) One month
b) Two month
c) Three month
d) Six month
43.What minimum number of witnesses are required to prove offence of
dacoity in a trial?
a) 5
b) 8
 c) Judge directs how many witnesses are to be examined
d) No particular number of witnesses is prescribed
44.Judgment in Mahboob Shah v. Emperor, AIR 1945 PC 118 explained the
penal law relating to:
a) Right to private defence
b) Defence of unsound mind
c) Common object
d) Common Intention
45.A private person :
a) Cannot arrest an accused
b) Can arrest any person who in his presence commits a non-bailable and
cognizable offence in the absence of a police officer
c) Can arrest a person if he sees him running away from the crime spot
where an offence has been committed
d) Can arrest any person suspected of committing an offence.
46. Which of the following is an offence under the Indian Penal Code:
a) Purchasing acid
b) Throwing acid on a person with the intention of maiming/ disfiguring
c) Manufacturing acid
d) Selling acid

Descriptive Questions:
1. What are the cardinal principles of criminal justice?
2. Write a short note on theories of punishment/ Deterrent/ preventive/
Reformative/ Retributive/ Compensatory.
3. Explain in detail the two essential ingredients of a crime.
4. Write a short note on : stages of a crime
5. Write a short note on the theories of Negligence.
6. Give an explanation with example of Actus non FAcit Reum Nisi Mens Sit
Rea.
7. Define Woman as per the Indian Penal Code
8. Define Judge and give two examples.
9. Define wrongful gain and wrongful loss.
10.Write a short note on fraudulently.
11.What are the provisions in the Indian Penal Code regarding joint liability?
12.Write a short note on Kinds of Punishment.
13.Write a short note on: Exception from criminal liability.
14.What is the exception to Volenti Non Fit Injuria.
15.What is De minimis Non Curat Lex?
16.Limitation to the right to private Defence. Explain
17.What is abetment?
18.Discuss Criminal Conspiracy.
19.Explain: Waging War/ Assaulting high officers/ Sedition.
20.Explain Sedition.
21.State any two reasons which might make an assembly unlawful.
22.Explain. Affray
23.What are offences relating to elections?
24.Explain with examples, the offences of public nuisance.
25.Explain Offences relating to religion.
26.Who is Thug?
27.Grievous hurt. Explain.
28.Explain Force & Assault.
29.What is abduction/ Begging/ Kidnapping?
30.Write a short note on: Punishment for rape.
31.What is Sexual harassment according to IPC?
32.What is Voyeurism?
33.Define theft. Distinguish it from extortion, robbery & dacoity.
34. What is criminal breach of trust?
35. What is cheating by personification?
36.Write a short note on Bigamy.
37.Explain Defamation.