Test Bank for Anatomy and Physiology 2nd Edition by Martini

Test Bank for Anatomy and Physiology 2nd Edition

by Martini

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Exam

Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system? 1)
A) pectoral girdle
B) vertebral column
C) hyoid bone
D) skull
E) auditory ossicles

2) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? 2)

A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton
B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk
C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration
D) all of the above
E) B and C only

3) How many bones make up the axial skeleton? 3)

A) 70 B) 60 C) 90 D) 80 E) 50

4) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ 4)
suture.
A) coronal
B) sagittal
C) squamosal
D) rostral
E) lambdoidal

5) The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones. 5)

A) frontal, parietal, and occipital
B) temporal, parietal, and occipital
C) frontal, temporal, and parietal
D) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital
E) frontal, temporal, and occipital

6) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones? 6)
A) temporal and zygomatic
B) frontal and temporal
C) sphenoid and temporal
D) zygomatic and maxilla
E) temporal and maxilla

7) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the 7)
A) mastoid process.
B) temporal process.
C) condyloid process.
D) occipital condyle.
E) styloid process.

1
 8) Which of these is not one of bones of the face? 8)
A) frontal B) mandible C) vomer D) maxilla E) zygomatic

9) The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for 9)
A) muscles that open and close the eye.
B) muscles that turn the head.
C) muscles that close the mouth.
D) muscles that stabilize the skull at the vertebral column.
E) both A and D

10) What organ is located in the lacrimal fossa? 10)

A) the lacrimal ramus
B) tear gland
C) the pituitary gland
D) the inner ear
E) the frontal sinus

11) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the 11)
A) styloid process.
B) mastoid process.
C) medial concha.
D) posterior clinoid process.
E) articular tubercle.

12) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the 12)
A) styloid process.
B) mastoid process.
C) middle concha.
D) posterior clinoid process.
E) articular tubercle.

13) The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the ________ suture. 13)
A) lambdoidal
B) squamosal
C) coronal
D) rostral
E) sagittal

14) The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the 14)
A) mastoid process.
B) cribriform plate.
C) mandibular fossa.
D) lateral palatine process.
E) superior clinoid process.

15) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone, except the 15)
A) mandibular fossa.
B) internal acoustic meatus.
C) mastoid cells.
D) petrous portion.
E) sella turcica.

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16) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland. 16)
A) nasal B) olfactory C) pituitary D) lacrimal E) sellar

17) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone, except the 17)
A) optic canals.
B) foramen ovale.
C) cribriform plate.
D) pterygoid processes.
E) sella turcica.

18) A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to the 18)
A) crista galli.
B) cribriform plate.
C) styloid process.
D) pterygoid processes.
E) perpendicular plate.

19) The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the ________ bone(s). 19)
A) palatine
B) vomer
C) maxillary
D) sphenoid
E) both A and C

20) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the 20)
A) maxilla B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) crista galli E) cribriform

21) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones, except the 21)
A) ethmoid.
B) sphenoid.
C) zygomatic.
D) frontal.
E) maxillary.

22) The nasal conchae 22)

A) contain the nerves for olfaction.
B) attach muscles that move the eyelids.
C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways.
D) attach muscles that move the eye.
E) protect the pituitary gland.

23) Which of the following statements about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is false? 23)
A) They make skull bones lighter.
B) The mucus they secrete enters the nasal cavities.
C) They support cilia that move the mucus.
D) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium.
E) None of the above all are true.

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24) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true, except that 24)
A) the bones of the skull develop from a single ossification focus.
B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue.
C) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements.
D) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5.
E) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain.

25) The skull contains ________ bones. 25)

A) 32
B) 12
C) 42
D) 22
E) none of the above

26) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the 26)
A) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bones.
B) nasal bones.
C) vomer and sphenoid bone.
D) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bones.
E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone.

27) The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are 27)
A) fibrocartilaginous discs.
B) sutures.
C) foramina.
D) Wormian bones.
E) fontanels.

28) The alveolar process of the mandible 28)

A) anchors the tongue.
B) supports the upper teeth.
C) supports the lower teeth.
D) all of the above
E) A and B only

29) Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone except the 29)
A) superficial nuchal lines.
B) jugular foramen.
C) petrous process.
D) hypoglossal canals.
E) occipital crest.

30) The hyoid bone 30)

A) is superior to the larynx.
B) attaches to tongue muscles.
C) is linked to the styloid process by a ligament.
D) all of the above
E) A and C only

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31) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones, except the 31)
A) ethmoid.
B) frontal.
C) maxillae.
D) zygomatic.
E) sphenoid.

32) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the 32)
A) temporal bone.
B) ulna.
C) sphenoid.
D) parietal bone.
E) occipital bone.

33) The hyoid bone is suspended by ________ ligaments. 33)

A) sternocleidomastoid
B) sutural
C) styloid
D) hyoid
E) stylohyoid

34) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the 34)
A) medial and lateral nuchal lines.
B) anterior and superior nuchal lines.
C) inferior and superior nuchal lines.
D) anterior and posterior nuchal lines.
E) cranial and caudal nuchal lines.

35) Of the following bones, which is unpaired? 35)

A) nasal
B) maxillary
C) palatine
D) vomer
E) none of these

36) The function of the hyoid bone is to 36)

A) anchor the tongue muscles.
B) support the larynx.
C) protect the trachea.
D) both A and B
E) A, B, and C

37) A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________ 37)
septum.
A) deviant
B) obstructive
C) deviated
D) crooked
E) restrictive

5
 38) The smallest facial bones are the 38)
A) lacrimal bones.
B) zygomatic bones.
C) lacerum bones.
D) nasal bones.
E) ethmoid bones.

39) If there were no paranasal sinuses, all of the following would be true, except 39)
A) the ability to sneeze would be impaired.
B) stronger neck muscles would be required.
C) the skull would be heavier.
D) reduced ability to trap dust and particles.
E) less mucus in the nasal cavity.

Figure 7-1 Floor of the Cranial Cavity

Use Figure 7-1 to answer the following questions:

40) Which bone has foramina for the olfactory nerves? 40)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

41) Identify the sphenoid bone. 41)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

42) Identify the internal occipital crest. 42)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

43) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland? 43)

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8

6
44) What is the name of the structure labeled "8"? 44)
A) foramen spinosum
B) foramen ovale
C) carotid canal
D) foramen rotundum
E) sella turcica

45) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s) 45)

A) making the skull lighter.
B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.
C) extra source of air.
D) release of stress hormones.
E) both A and B

46) You witness one of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at 46)
him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not
surprised to learn that he has a broken
A) temporal bone.
B) mandible.
C) zygomatic bone.
D) external auditory meatus.
E) clavicle.

47) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull, except between 47)
A) the vomer and the zygomatic bone.
B) the mandible and the cranium.
C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone.
D) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone.
E) None of the above they are all sutures.

48) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in 48)

A) an unusually small head.
B) a very broad head.
C) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other.
D) a long and narrow head.
E) death.

49) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal squama by a wild pitch. Which of the following 49)
complaints would you expect her to have?
A) a headache
B) a black eye
C) a sore back
D) a broken jaw
E) a sore chest

50) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured? 50)
A) temporal bone
B) sphenoid bone
C) ethmoid bone
D) mandible
E) parietal bone

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51) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the 51)
A) hyoid bone.
B) condylar process of the mandible.
C) alveolar process of the mandible.
D) stylohyoid ligaments.
E) greater cornu of the hyoid bone.

52) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone. 52)

A) sphenoid B) temporal C) parietal D) occipital E) frontal

53) Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the 53)
A) mental foramina.
B) mandibular foramina.
C) condylar process.
D) ramus of the mandible.
E) maxillary foramina.

54) A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums of the lower jaw passes through 54)
the
A) maxillary foramen.
B) mandibular foramen.
C) condylar process.
D) mental foramen.
E) ramus of the mandible.

55) The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone? 55)
A) temporal
B) auditory ossicles
C) parietal
D) zygomatic
E) vomer

56) The facial nerve (N. VII) passes through internal acoustic meatus and then through the 56)
A) mastoid foramen.
B) stylomastoid foramen.
C) carotid foramen.
D) foramen lacerum.
E) jugular foramen.

57) Identify the structure the occipital bone surrounds. 57)

A) maximus minimus
B) foramina maximus
C) magnum maximus
D) foramen magnus
E) foramen magnum

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58) The ________ passes through the ________. 58)
A) trigeminal nerve; foramen ovale
B) acoustic nerve; external acoustic meatus
C) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen
D) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen
E) vagus nerve; foramen magnum

59) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense of 59)
A) balance.
B) hearing.
C) smell.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B only

60) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex, except the ________ bone. 60)
A) nasal B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) lacrimal E) frontal

61) The term for undersized head is 61)

A) encephalopathy.
B) macrocephaly.
C) encephalitis.
D) microcephaly.
E) none of the above

62) The anterior fontanel is located 62)

A) posterior to the frontal bone.
B) anterior to the parietal bones.
C) inferior to frontal bone.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C

63) The most significant skull growth occurs before the age of 63)
A) 4. B) 1. C) 2. D) 5. E) 3.

64) Fibrous connective tissue called ________ accommodates brain growth in infants. 64)
A) sutures B) vertebrae C) frontals D) foramina E) fontanels

65) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you 65)
observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and
having several episodes of diarrhea lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible
dehydration when she
A) questions the mother about normal feeding habits.
B) checks the infant's reflexes.
C) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper.
D) checks the anterior fontanel for depression.
E) none of the above

9
66) While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You 66)
think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal,
sagittal, and coronal sutures is
A) occipital fontanel.
B) sphenoidal fontanel.
C) mastoid fontanel.
D) cushion spot.
E) anterior fontanel.

67) The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception. 67)
A) pelvic B) sacral C) cervical D) thoracic E) axial

68) ________ curves of the spine develop late in fetal development. 68)
A) Compensation
B) Secondary
C) Accommodation
D) Primary
E) all of the above

69) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are 69)
the secondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later?
A) cervical and lumbar
B) cervical and sacral
C) thoracic and lumbar
D) thoracic and sacral
E) sacral and lumbar

70) The primary spinal curves 70)

A) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera.
B) are also called compensation curves.
C) develop several months after birth.
D) all of the above
E) B and C only

71) The ligamentum nuchae 71)

A) helps to hold the head in an upright position.
B) stabilizes the lumbar vertebrae.
C) attaches the atlas to the occipital bone of the skull.
D) attaches the ribs to the thoracic vertebrae.
E) attaches the sternum to the ribs.

72) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region. 72)
A) lumbar
B) cervical
C) thoracic
D) sacral
E) coccygeal

10
 Figure 7-2 Typical Vertebra (inferior view)

Use Figure 7-2 to answer the following questions:

73) Identify the structure labeled "7." 73)

A) lamina
B) vertebral body
C) transverse process
D) spinous process
E) pedicle

74) Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc? 74)

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

75) Identify the structure labeled "1." 75)

A) transverse process
B) lamina
C) transverse articular facet
D) pedicle
E) spinous process

76) Where is the spinal cord located? 76)

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

77) Identify the structure labeled "2." 77)

A) inferior articular process
B) transverse process
C) lamina
D) pedicle
E) superior articular process

78) The odontoid process is found on the 78)

A) coccyx. B) sacrum. C) axis. D) ribs. E) atlas.

11
79) The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra. 79)
A) first cervical
B) second cervical
C) seventh cervical
D) first thoracic
E) fifth lumbar

80) The ribs articulate with the 80)

A) cervical vertebrae.
B) lumbar vertebrae.
C) thoracic vertebrae.
D) all of the above
E) A and B only

81) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae. 81)

A) 7 B) 31 C) 4 D) 12 E) 5

82) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of 82)
A) transverse processes.
B) notched spinous processes.
C) transverse foramina.
D) facets for the articulation of ribs.
E) costal cartilages.

83) The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae. 83)

A) 5 B) 31 C) 12 D) 4 E) 7

84) All of the following are true of the sacrum, except that it 84)
A) articulates with the coccyx.
B) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.
C) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.
D) articulates with the pelvic bones.
E) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs.

85) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae? 85)
A) axis
B) atlas
C) vertebra prominens
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

86) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the 86)
A) articular processes.
B) vertebral arch.
C) intervertebral space.
D) vertebral body.
E) none of the above

87) Most mammals, including humans and giraffes, have ________ cervical vertebrae. 87)
A) 6 B) 19 C) 7 D) 11 E) 10

12
88) Which of the following are distinctive features of thoracic vertebrae? 88)
A) long spinous processes
B) rib articulations
C) heart-shaped bodies
D) all of the above
E) A and C only

89) Which of these types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct? 89)
A) lumbral 5
B) cervical 7
C) thoracic 12
D) coccygeal 3 to 5
E) sacral 1

90) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the 90)
A) laminae.
B) dorsal spinous processes.
C) transverse spinous processes.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

91) The sacrum protects these organs: 91)

A) reproductive
B) urinary
C) digestive
D) all of the above
E) A and C only

92) All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae, except that 92)
A) the vertebral bodies are delicate.
B) the vertebral foramen is triangular.
C) the transverse process is slender and projects dorsolaterally.
D) the superior articular processes face medially.
E) they lack costal facets.

93) Vertebrae of the 93)

A) lumbar region are fused.
B) coccygeal region are fused.
C) sacral region are fused.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C

94) Lumbar vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile. 94)
A) most; most
B) least; most
C) not; excessively
D) most; least
E) least; least

13
 95) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true? 95)
A) is the most caudal vertebral region
B) is more flexible in women
C) anchors a muscle that constricts the anal opening
D) fusion is delayed until mid-20s
E) all of the above

96) As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column 96)
A) the size of the vertebral foramen decreases.
B) the vertebrae become larger and heavier.
C) the transverse foramina become larger.
D) all of the above
E) A and B only

97) As you move caudally along the spinal column, 97)

A) the vertebral bodies become relatively larger.
B) the vertebral foramina become relatively smaller.
C) the dorsal spines grow progressively longer.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

98) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae. 98)
A) laminae
B) transverse processes
C) pedicles
D) spinous processes
E) auric arches

99) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs. 99)

A) 24 B) 2 C) 10 D) 12 E) 6

100) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the 100)
A) tuberculum.
B) angle.
C) xiphoid process.
D) manubrium.
E) body.

101) The true ribs are 101)

A) ribs 1-7.
B) also called vertebrosternal ribs.
C) ribs 8-12.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C

102) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium? 102)

A) scapula
B) sternum
C) clavicle
D) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2
E) all the vertebrae

14
103) The costal groove 103)
A) is located on the exterior surface.
B) is located on the interior surface.
C) marks the path of blood vessels.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C

104) The sternum contains 104)

A) the xiphoid process.
B) the manubrium.
C) the jugular notch.
D) the body.
E) all of the above

105) Ossification of the sternum is not complete until at least age 105)
A) 25. B) 10. C) 16. D) 50. E) 6.

106) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful 106)
to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the
A) ribs.
B) scapula.
C) xiphoid process.
D) sacrum.
E) both A and C

107) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? 107)
A) sacrum
B) coxal bones
C) tibia
D) scapula
E) metacarpals

108) Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton? 108)
A) humerus
B) femur
C) scapula
D) metatarsals
E) None of the above all are appendicular bones.

109) The clavicle articulates with the scapula 109)

A) proximally with the coracoid cavity.
B) distally with the manubrium.
C) distally with the coracoid process.
D) distally with the acromion.
E) distally with the glenoid cavity.

15
110) The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the 110)
A) acromion.
B) scapular spine.
C) subscapular fossa.
D) coracoid process.
E) glenoid tuberosity.

111) The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle. 111)
A) radius B) clavicle C) sternum D) scapula E) vertebra

112) The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which two bones? 112)
A) humerus and ulna
B) scapula and humerus
C) clavicle and humerus
D) clavicle and scapula
E) none of the above

113) The clavicle articulates with the scapula 113)

A) distally with the glenoid cavity.
B) distally with the coracoid process.
C) distally with the acromial process.
D) proximally with the manubrium.
E) both C and D.

114) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the 114)
A) coxal bones articulate with the femur.
B) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum.
C) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
D) clavicle articulates with the humerus.
E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.

115) The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the 115)
borders?
A) superior border
B) inferior border
C) lateral border
D) all of the above
E) A and C only

116) Which of these is most commonly fractured in a fall? 116)

A) scapula
B) radius
C) clavicle
D) glenoid cavity
E) navicular

16
117) Which of these constitutes the pectoral girdle? 117)
A) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna
B) clavicles and scapulae
C) clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones
D) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus
E) clavicles only

118) Which of these adapts the pectoral girdle to a wide range of movement? 118)
A) heavy bones
B) tough ligaments and tendons
C) relatively weak joints
D) all of the above
E) A and C only

119) Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch? 119)
A) distal end of clavicle
B) proximal end of clavicle
C) proximal end of scapula
D) distal end of scapula
E) both A and B

17
 Figure 7-3 The Scapula

Use Figure 7-3 to answer the following questions:

120) Identify the structure labeled "7." 120)

A) scapular notch
B) scapular process
C) coracoid process
D) spine
E) acromion

121) Identify the structure labeled "1." 121)

A) coracoid process
B) spine
C) scapular process
D) acromion
E) scapular notch

122) Which structure is the acromion? 122)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

123) Identify the structure labeled "2." 123)

A) acetabulum
B) rotator cup
C) scapular notch
D) glenoid cavity
E) scapular cavity

18
124) What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"? 124)
A) manubrium
B) femur
C) humerus
D) clavicle
E) radius

125) Which of these features is located near the proximal end of the humerus? 125)
A) greater tubercle
B) lateral epicondyle
C) medial epicondyle
D) capitulum
E) olecranon fossa

126) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the 126)
A) radial groove.
B) olecranon fossa.
C) radial fossa.
D) intertubercular groove.
E) coronoid fossa.

127) Which of these is a forearm bone? 127)

A) fibula B) tibia C) radius D) humerus E) femur

128) Which of these surface features does the ulna possess? 128)
A) olecranon
B) trochlear notch
C) styloid process
D) all of the above
E) A and C only

129) The surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the 129)
A) radial groove.
B) medial epicondyle.
C) lateral epicondyle.
D) coronoid process.
E) deltoid tuberosity.

130) The radius articulates with the 130)

A) ulna.
B) carpals.
C) humerus.
D) all of the above
E) A and C only

131) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint. 131)
A) styloid process
B) radial tuberosity
C) olecranon process
D) coronoid process
E) capitulum

19
132) The bones that form the palm are the 132)
A) metatarsals.
B) carpals.
C) phalanges.
D) metacarpals.
E) tarsals.

133) The bones that give the hand a wide range of motion are the 133)
A) carpals.
B) metacarpals.
C) tarsals.
D) phalanges.
E) metatarsals.

134) The bones that form the fingers are the 134)
A) phalanges.
B) tarsals.
C) metatarsals.
D) metacarpals.
E) carpals.

135) The carpus contains ________ bones. 135)

A) 7 B) 8 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

136) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? 136)

A) carpals
B) ulna
C) metatarsals
D) humerus
E) radius

137) Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial ________ accommodates the head of the radius in the 137)
radio-ulnar joint.
A) muscle B) groove C) notch D) tendon E) ligament

138) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the 138)
wrist.
A) 4; 2 B) 10; 3 C) 2; 8 D) 8; 2 E) 6; 2

139) Each hand has ________ phalangeal bones. 139)

A) 14 B) 15 C) 10 D) 20 E) 18

140) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius. 140)
A) proximal
B) medial
C) distal
D) superior
E) none of these

20
 141) The hand has 15 phalangeal bones; the foot has 14 phalangeal bones. 141)
A) The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
B) The first statement is false and the second statement is false.
C) The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
E) Too much anatomical variability to be sure.

142) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured? 142)
A) forearm B) ankle C) hand D) wrist E) foot

Figure 7-4 The Humerus

Use Figure 7-4 to answer the following questions:

21
143) Identify the structure labeled "9." 143)
A) medial epicondyle
B) trochlea
C) olecranon process
D) lateral epicondyle
E) greater tubercle

144) Which structure does the radius rotate upon? 144)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

145) When the arm is straight, which structure accepts the olecranon? 145)
A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9

146) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures. 146)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

147) Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity? 147)

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

148) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis? 148)

A) coccyx
B) lumbar vertebrae
C) sacrum
D) coxal bone
E) both B and D

149) What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum? 149)
A) tibia B) femur C) humerus D) sacrum E) fibula

150) Each one of the coxal bones is formed by the fusion of ________ bones. 150)
A) 3 B) 6 C) 5 D) 2 E) 4

151) The largest component coxal bone is the 151)

A) ilium. B) pubis. C) ischium. D) femur. E) tibia.

152) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is 152)
the
A) iliac crest.
B) iliac notch.
C) posterior superior iliac spine.
D) anterior iliac spine.
E) acetabulum.

153) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the 153)

A) femur. B) pubis. C) ilium. D) patella. E) ischium.

22
154) The sacrum articulates with the 154)
A) ischium and pubis.
B) pubis.
C) ilium.
D) ischium.
E) ilium and ischium.

155) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the 155)

A) greater sciatic notch.
B) lesser sciatic notch.
C) pubic symphysis.
D) acetabulum.
E) obturator foramen.

156) Each coxal bone consists of the following three fused bones: 156)
A) femur, tibia, and fibula.
B) ulna, radius, and humerus.
C) hamate, capitate, and trapezium.
D) femur, patella, and tibia.
E) ilium, ischium, and pubis.

157) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles? 157)
A) iliac spines
B) gluteal lines
C) greater sciatic notch
D) both A and C
E) none of the above

158) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the 158)
A) inferior rami of the pubis.
B) posterior inferior iliac spines.
C) ischial tuberosities.
D) obturator foramina.
E) iliac crests.

159) Which of these is not one of the boundaries of the pelvic outlet? 159)
A) iliac crest
B) ischial tuberosities
C) coccyx
D) inferior border of the pubic symphysis
E) both A and B

160) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the 160)
A) obturator foramen.
B) pubic symphysis.
C) ishial fossa.
D) iliac fossa.
E) ishial spine.

23
161) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the 161)
A) tibia.
B) coxal bone.
C) humerus.
D) femur.
E) fibula.

162) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the 162)
A) calcaneus.
B) coxal bone.
C) fibula.
D) talus.
E) patella.

163) Powerful hip muscles attach posteriorly to the femur along the 163)
A) linea aspera.
B) medial epicondyle.
C) lesser trochanter.
D) intercondylar fossa.
E) greater trochanter.

164) The medial bulge at your ankle is a projection from the 164)
A) talus.
B) femur.
C) calcaneus.
D) fibula.
E) tibia.

165) The lateral malleolus is found on the 165)

A) patella.
B) calcaneus.
C) tibia.
D) femur.
E) fibula.

166) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the ________ by the interosseous membrane. 166)
A) femur
B) navicular
C) tibia
D) patella
E) both A and B

167) The tarsus contains ________ bones. 167)

A) 8 B) 5 C) 4 D) 6 E) 7

168) Which of the following is the heel bone? 168)

A) navicular
B) talus
C) calcaneus
D) patella
E) cuboid

24
169) The weight of the body is supported by the 169)
A) proximal metatarsals.
B) distal metacarpals.
C) distal metarsals.
D) calcaneus.
E) both C and D

170) Another name for the first toe is 170)

A) hyoid.
B) lateral cuneiform.
C) pollex.
D) hallux.
E) phalanx.

171) The largest bone of the lower limb is the 171)

A) fibula.
B) calcaneus.
C) tibia.
D) femur.
E) humerus.

172) Which of these bones was not formed by the fusion of several bones? 172)
A) femur
B) coccyx
C) coxal bones
D) sacrum
E) none of the above

173) The longest bone is the 173)

A) humerus.
B) coxal bone.
C) femur.
D) sternum.
E) both C and D

174) The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure? 174)

A) lesser trochanter
B) cuboid bone
C) talus
D) calcaneus
E) both B and C

175) Which of the following is not a lower limb bone? 175)

A) patella B) fibia C) tibia D) femur E) metatarsal

176) When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the 176)
A) talus and proximal metatarsals.
B) calcaneus and proximal metatarsals.
C) talus and cuneiforms.
D) calcaneus and talus.
E) distal metarsals and calcaneus.

25
177) The talus contacts the 177)
A) navicular bone.
B) calcaneus.
C) tibial bone.
D) both A and B
E) A, B, and C

178) Compared to the hand, the foot 178)

A) contains ellipsoidal arches that help distribute body weight.
B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals.
C) has a more restricted range of movement.
D) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones.
E) has more phalanges.

179) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured? 179)
A) his knee B) his ankle C) his foot D) his hand E) his hip

26
 Figure 7-5 Bones of the Ankle and Foot

Use Figure 7-5 to answer the following questions:

180) Identify the bone labeled "7." 180)

A) calcaneus
B) navicular
C) talus
D) cuneiform I
E) cuboid

181) Identify the bone labeled "1." 181)

A) calcaneus
B) cuboid
C) talus
D) metatarsal
E) cuneiform V

182) On which bone does the tibia press? 182)

A) 2 B) 9 C) 1 D) 7 E) 3

183) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape. 183)
A) 7 B) 2 C) 1 D) 8 E) 3

27
184) Identify the bones labeled "9." 184)
A) metatarsals
B) carpals
C) coxae
D) tarsals
E) metacarpals

28
 Figure 7-6 The Femur

Use Figure 7-6 to answer the following questions:

185) Identify the structure labeled "2." 185)

A) lateral epicondyle
B) lateral condyle
C) head
D) greater trochanter
E) linea aspera

29
186) Identify the structure labeled "3." 186)
A) greater trochanter
B) lateral epicondyle
C) lesser trochanter
D) head
E) lateral condyle

187) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? 187)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 9

188) Identify the diaphysis of the femur. 188)

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7

189) Identify the structure labeled "12." 189)

A) linea aspera
B) greater trochanter
C) lateral condyle
D) head
E) lateral epicondyle

190) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A 190)
problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?
A) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals
B) a loose Achilles tendon
C) weak tarsometatarsal joints
D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia
E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals

191) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? 191)
A) ilia extend far above sacrum
B) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees
C) heart-shaped pelvic inlet
D) relatively deep iliac fossa
E) heavy, rough textured bone

192) Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis? 192)
A) coccyx points anteriorly
B) ischial spine points posteriorly
C) bone markings not very prominent
D) triangular obturator foramen
E) sacrum broad and short

193) Study of human skeletons can reveal information concerning the person's 193)
A) age and nutritional status.
B) size and handedness.
C) sex.
D) all of the above
E) A and B only

30
 194) Compared to the male skeleton, the female skeleton 194)
A) is larger.
B) is heavier.
C) has a greater angle inferior to the pubic symphysis.
D) has a smaller average cranium.
E) both C and D

195) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the 195)
A) sacrum.
B) teeth.
C) pelvis.
D) thoracic cage.
E) skull.

196) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet. 196)
A) deeper B) wider C) smaller D) larger E) longer

197) Which of the following is not a developmentally controlled process? 197)

A) fusion of the coxal bones
B) closure of the fontanels
C) reduction in mineral content
D) appearance of major vertebral curves
E) bone remodeling

198) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. The acetabulum is 198)
directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is
less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal
plates. This skeleton is probably from
A) a young female.
B) an elderly male.
C) a young male.
D) an elderly female.
E) Cannot tell on the basis of this information.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

199) The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and 199)
_________________________.

200) List the five primary components of the axial skeleton. 200)

201) The bony compartment that houses the brain is called the _________________________. 201)

202) The occipital _________________________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the 202)
first cervical vertebra.

203) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the _________________________ suture. 203)

204) The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the _________________________ suture. 204)

31
205) The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the 205)
_________________________ sinuses.

206) The _________________________ is a fluid-filled bony chamber that cushions and supports 206)
the brain.

207) The zygomatic bone articulates with the _________________________ bone to form the 207)
zygomatic arch.

208) The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the _________________________. 208)

209) The _________________________ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone. 209)

210) Sinus inflammation is termed _________________________. 210)

211) Name the four sutures found in the skull. 211)

212) Which five skull bones contain the paranasal sinuses? 212)

213) List the four primary sutures. 213)

214) In the condition known as a(n) _________________________, the nasal septum has a bend 214)
in it.

215) _________________________ are non-ossified fibrous attachments between cranial bones. 215)

216) In the condition known as _________________________, premature closure of all of the 216)
cranial sutures results in restricted brain growth and an undersized head.

217) Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the _________________________ of the superior 217)
vertebra and facets on the _________________________ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae.

218) The term _________________________ is used to describe an injury caused by displacement 218)
of the cervical vertebrae during a sudden change in body position.

219) Give the clinical term for the condition in which the vertebral laminae fail to unite during 219)
development.

220) The first cervical vertebra is better known as the _________________________. 220)

221) The second cervical vertebra is usually called the _________________________. 221)

222) The _________________________ allow for a wide range of head movements. 222)

223) True ribs are directly connected to the sternum by _________________________. 223)

32
224) Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called _________________________. 224)

225) Ribs 8 to 12 are called _________________________ because they do not attach directly to 225)
the sternum.

226) Provide alternate terms for these rib parts: 226)

A) head
B) tubercle
C) body

227) The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their 227)
supporting elements called _________________________.

228) The _________________________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular 228)
notch.

229) Two prominent features of the clavicle are the conoid tubercle at the distal end and the 229)
_________________________ tuberosity at the proximal end.

230) The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n) _________________________ ligament. 230)

231) The bones of the forearm, or _________________________, consist of the radius and ulna. 231)

232) The girdles of the appendicular skeleton support the bones of the 232)
_________________________.

233) The scapula articulates with the humerus at the _________________________ joint. 233)

234) The two pubic bones join medially at the _________________________. 234)

235) The space enclosed by the true pelvis is called the _________________________. 235)

236) The pelvic _________________________ is bordered by the coccyx, the ischial tuberosities, 236)
and the inferior border of the pubic symphysis.

237) A ligament attaches the acetabulum to the femur at the _________________________, a 237)
small pit in the center of the femoral head.

238) The ligament that surrounds the _________________________ attaches to the tibial 238)
tuberosity.

239) Match the term with its key characteristics. 239)

1. lunate A) pea-shaped
2. navicular B) comma-shaped
3. pisiform C) boat-shaped

33
 240) Name the sesamoid bone that may occur in association with the gastrocnemius. 240)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

241) The "pinky finger" is known as metacarpal number I. 241)

242) The fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis forms each coxal bone. 242)

243) Bone markings are more prominent in muscular individuals. 243)

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

244) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. After the nose heals, he starts to have sinus
headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. What is probably the cause of Frank's discomfort?

245) Sasha has a chronic sinus infection that she has treated herself. She develops a dangerous infection of the brain.
Explain to her how this happened.

246) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more
common in cervical vertebrae?

247) The structural features and skeletal components of the sternum make it a part of the axial skeleton, which is
important in a variety of clinical situations. If you were teaching this information to prospective health care
professionals, what clinical applications would you cite?

248) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in
breathing. What might the problem be?

249) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?

250) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral girdle?

251) Describe how the arches of the foot assist in weight distribution.

252) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal condyle of tibia).
What landmarks would you use to make the measurement?

253) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.

34
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7

1) A
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) A
6) A
7) A
8) A
9) C
10) B
11) B
12) A
13) E
14) C
15) E
16) C
17) C
18) A
19) E
20) C
21) C
22) C
23) E
24) A
25) D
26) A
27) E
28) C
29) C
30) D
31) D
32) A
33) E
34) C
35) D
36) D
37) C
38) A
39) A
40) E
41) B
42) C
43) C
44) B
45) E
46) B
47) B
48) D
49) A
50) C
35
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7

51) B
52) D
53) A
54) B
55) A
56) B
57) E
58) C
59) E
60) A
61) D
62) D
63) D
64) E
65) D
66) E
67) E
68) D
69) A
70) A
71) A
72) A
73) E
74) E
75) A
76) C
77) C
78) C
79) C
80) C
81) D
82) D
83) A
84) B
85) D
86) D
87) C
88) D
89) E
90) A
91) D
92) A
93) E
94) D
95) E
96) E
97) D
98) B
99) D
100) D
36
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7

101) D
102) B
103) E
104) E
105) A
106) E
107) A
108) E
109) D
110) A
111) D
112) B
113) E
114) C
115) E
116) C
117) B
118) C
119) B
120) D
121) A
122) E
123) D
124) C
125) A
126) B
127) C
128) D
129) E
130) D
131) A
132) D
133) A
134) A
135) B
136) C
137) C
138) D
139) A
140) B
141) D
142) D
143) A
144) C
145) D
146) D
147) C
148) B
149) B
150) A
37
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7

151) A
152) A
153) C
154) C
155) E
156) E
157) B
158) C
159) A
160) D
161) D
162) D
163) A
164) E
165) E
166) C
167) E
168) C
169) E
170) D
171) D
172) A
173) C
174) D
175) C
176) E
177) E
178) C
179) C
180) B
181) A
182) A
183) D
184) A
185) D
186) E
187) D
188) E
189) A
190) A
191) B
192) A
193) D
194) E
195) C
196) C
197) E
198) C
199) coccygeal
200) skull, auditory ossicles, hyoid bone, vertebral column, and thoracic cage
38
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7

201) cranium
202) condyles
203) lambdoid
204) coronal
205) paranasal
206) cranial cavity
207) temporal
208) vomer
209) hyoid
210) sinusitis
211) lambdoid, coronal, sagittal, and squamous
212) sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, palatine, and maxillary bones
213) lambdoid, coronal, sagittal, and squamous
214) deviated septum
215) Fontanels
216) microcephaly
217) inferior articular processes; superior articular process
218) whiplash
219) spina bifida
220) atlas
221) axis
222) cervical vertebrae
223) costal cartilages
224) floating ribs
225) false ribs
226) A = capitulum; B = tuberculum; C = shaft
227) girdles
228) clavicles
229) costal
230) interosseus
231) antebrachium
232) limbs
233) glenohumeral
234) pubic symphysis
235) pelvic inlet (or pelvic cavity)
236) outlet
237) fovea capitis
238) patella
239) 1-B; 2-C; 3-A
240) fabella
241) FALSE
242) TRUE
243) TRUE
244) Frank probably has a deviated septum as the result of his broken nose. In a deviated septum the cartilaginous portion
of the septum is bent where it joins the bone. This condition often blocks the drainage of one or more sinuses with
resulting sinus headaches, infections, and sinusitis.
245) The paranasal sinuses in the frontal bone are only a few millimeters of bone away from the cranial cavity. Chronic
infection has permitted the bone to be eroded and penetrated, introducing bacteria into the brain case.

39
Test Bank for Anatomy and Physiology 2nd Edition by Martini

Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED7

246) The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight; these factors contribute to the rupturing of an
intervertebral disc. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies; these factors increase the possibility
of dislocations and fractures in the cervical vertebrae.
247) Because it is accessible, the body of the sternum is often sampled for red bone marrow. The xiphoid process is useful
landmark in CPR; this part of the sternum is easily broken, because its only attachment is superior, to the sternum. A
broken xiphoid process can cause injury to nearby organs.
248) Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. Movement of the ribs changes the size of the thoracic cavity, which is
an important part of breathing. When the ribs are broken, breathing can become difficult (labored) because of pain
when the ribs are moved.
249) The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limit is a line that extends from either side of the base of the
sacrum, along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic symphysis. The false pelvis consists of the expanded,
bladelike portions of each ilium superior to the pelvic brim.
250) The pelvic girdle must withstand the load of bearing and moving the entire body whereas the pectoral girdle only
supports the upper limbs.
251) The arches absorb shock as weight distribution shifts during movements. The longitudinal arch absorbs most of the
shock of steps, while the transverse arch distributes the weight evenly.
252) You could feel the inferior iliac notch, which is at the same level as the head of the femur. You could feel the medial
malleolus of the tibia at the ankle.
253) These include: an enlarged pelvic outlet, a broader pubic angle, less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx, wider and
more circular pelvic inlet, a relatively broad pelvis that does not extend as far superiorly, and ilia that project farther
laterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum.

40

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