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Forensic 1 4 PDF 1
Forensic 1 4 PDF 1
Forensic 1 4 PDF 1
Subject: Forensics 1
INSTRUCTION: Choose the letter of the correct answer for each of the following
questions. SHADE the corresponding letter of your answer on the ANSWER SHEET
provided. ERASURES AND ALTERATIONS ARE NOT ALLOWED
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1. It refers to the study of the general practices, methods and steps in taking pictures
of the crime scene physical things and other circumstances that can be used as criminal
evidences or for law enforcement purposes.
A. Police photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
2. It is the art or process of producing images of objects on sensitized surfaces by the
chemical action of light.
A. Photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
3. It is a factual reproduction and accurate record of the crime scene because it
captures TIME, SPACE AND EVENT
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
4. It is a method of recording images by the action of light or related radiations on a
sensitive material
A. Macrophotography C. Photography
B. Photomicrography D. All of the foregoing
5. He was the first person to coin the word CAMERA OBSCURA IN 1604, and in 1609,
he further suggested the use of a lens to improve the image projected by a Camera
Obscura.
A. Isaac Newton C. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
B. William Henry Fox Talbot D. Johannes Kepler
6. The field of photography covering the legal application of photography in criminal
jurisprudence and criminal investigations.
A. Police photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
7. It is an image produced through the action of light.
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
8. It is a representation or image on a surface especially as a work of art. Example:
painting, drawing, print or photograph.
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
9. It is the type of photography which focuses on the preparation of photographic
evidence needed by prosecutors and courts of law
A. Police photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
10. It is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object without the
use of a microscope, by using a short focus lens or macro lens/close-up lens and a long
bellow extension.
A. Macrophotography C. Photomacrography
B. Photomicrography D. Microphotography
11. It is the production of photographs in which the image of an object is reproduced
much smaller than it actually is, it is the opposite of photomicrography.
A. Macrophotography C. Photomacrography
B. Photomicrography D. Microphotography
12. It refers to the recording of images formed by infrared radiation. This type of
photography uses a special type of film that is sensitive to infrared radiation.
A. Infrared photography C. Photomacrography
B. UV photography D. Microphotography
13. The type of photography that is best used in aerial surveillance since it allows the
viewer to see things clearly even in bad weather conditions.
A. Infrared photography C. Photomacrography
B. UV photography D. Microphotography
14. It is the process that records the glow or visible light given off by certain substances
when they are irradiated by ultraviolet rays.
A. Infrared photography C. Photomacrography
B. UV photography D. Microphotography
C.
15. A photograph of the crime scene is a factual reproduction and accurate record of
the crime scene because it captures __________.
A. Time C. Event
B. Space D. All of the foregoing
16. It is a branch of forensic science dealing with the preparation of photographic
evidence needed by prosecutors and courts of law.
A. Photography C. Infrared photography
B. Police photography D. Forensic photography
17. A photograph of the crime scene is capable of capturing the event that happened.
What does EVENT pertains to?
A. The WHERE of the Crime C. The WHAT of the Crime
B. The WHEN of the Crime D. The HOW of the Crime
18. The word PHOTOGRAPHY was derived from the Greek word Phos which means to
light, and the word Graphos which means __________.
A. To draw B. To Graph C. To see D. To click
19. It is the process of taking photographs of the suspect/s in full length, half body,
right and left side views, and two quarter views.
A. Investigation C. Mug-shot Photography
B. Aerial Photography D. Personal Identification
20. It is the art or science of photographically documenting a crime scene and evidence
for laboratory examination and analysis for purposes of court trial.
A. Police photography C. Surveillance photography
B. Forensic photography D. Aerial photography
21. An evidence that is presented in court once accepted will become known as
__________.
A. Evidence C. Proof
B. Exhibit D. Photographic Evidence
22. Before an evidence is accepted in court, it is a requirement that they must first
satisfy the basic requirements of admissibility which is __________.
A. Relevancy C. Both A and B
B. Competency D. None of the Above
23. Which of the following is best used in the examination of questioned or disputed
documents?
A. Infrared Photography C. Photomicrography
B. UV Photography D. X-ray Photography
24. The word forensic was derived from the Latin word ___________ which means “a
market place” where people gathered for public discussion.
A. Forens B. Forensis C. Forum D. Legal
25. It is the mechanical and chemical result of Photography.
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
26. It is generally known as the birth year of photography.
A. 1604 B. 1609 C. 1827 D. 1839
27. It is the process of taking photograph of a far object with the aid of a long focus
and Telephoto lens.
A. Photomicrography C. Macrophotography
B. Microphotography D. Telephotography
28. The process of photographing unseen objects with the naked eye with the use of
ultra-violet rays and filters.
A. UV Photography C. Macrophotography
B. Microphotography D. Infrared Photography
29. The use of photography from which reproduction of the evidence can be made in
any number giving unlimited opportunity for its examination without compromising the
original.
A. For Identification C. For Communication
B. For Reproduction and Copying D. For Preservation
30. Refers to the zone of acceptable sharpness or the area or zone of a photograph, from
front to back, which is in focus.
A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
31. Refers to the range of distance in a scene that appears to be in focus and will be
reproduced as being acceptably sharp, it could be shallow or greater.
A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
32. In the relationship between the f-number, lens opening and the depth of field, the
higher the f-number, the _________ the lens opening, the _________ depth of field.
A. Larger; Shallow C. Smaller; Greater
B. Larger; Greater D. Smaller; Shallow
33. This refers to the zone of focus in the camera.
A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
34. Refers to the distance between the focal point of a lens and the film plane when the
lens is focused at infinity.
A. Hyperfocal Distance C. Focal Length
B. Hyperfocal Point D. Focal Point
53. A film which is sensitive to all colors and are further subdivided according to their
degree of sensitivity to each color.
A. Orthochromatic Film C. Panchromatic Film
B. Infrared Film D. Non-Chromatic Film
54. It is the most commonly used film in investigative photography because it produces
the most natural recording of colors.
A. Orthochromatic Film C. Panchromatic Film
B. Non-Chromatic Film D. Infrared Film
55. This refers to the heart of a digital camera.
A. Film B. Sensor C. Lens D. Battery
56. It is that sensitized material that will record the visible image in the final development
and become the photograph.
A. Film C. Photographic Filter
B. Photographic Paper D. Sensor
57. In the chemical processing, this refers to the process necessary for reducing the silver
halides to form the image.
A. Development C. Fixation
B. Stop Bath D. Developer
58. In the development of the negative, what is the main developing agent being used?
A. Elon Hydroquinone C. D-76
B. Dektol D. Acetic Acid
59. Under the stages of development, this refers to the process by which all unexposed
silver halides are dissolved or removed from the emulsion surface making the image more
permanent.
A. Development C. Fixation
B. Stop Bath D. Developer
60. In the process of fixation, this is the commonly used fixing agent to make the image
in the film permanent.
A. Elon Hydroquinone C. D-76
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Acetic Acid
61. The development stage normally composed of water with a little amount of dilute
acetic acid that serves as a means to prevent contamination between the developer and
the acid fixer
A. Development C. Fixation
B. Stop Bath D. Developer
62. This refers to the gradual fading of the image towards the side through skillful
adjustment on the dodging board.
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Vignetting
63. A darkroom technique which refers to the process of eliminating unwanted portion
of the negative during enlarging.
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Vignetting
64. It refers to the addition of exposure on a desired portion of the negative used for
purposes of making a balance exposure
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Burning-in
65. The process of omitting an object during the process of enlarging and printing.
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Vignetting
66. It refers to the sensitivity of the film emulsion to light, which is measured and
expressed in a numerical rating called ISO, formerly known as ASA/DIN.
A. Film Speed C. Lens
B. Emulsion Layer D. Camera
66. It is the crime scene view which establishes or shows the general location and
condition or the overall view of the crime scene to include reference point.
A. Close-up View C. Birds’ Eye View
B. Midrange View D. General View
67. In the conduct of crime scene photography, what “crime scene view” is needed to
be taken first?
A. General View C. Midrange View
B. Close-up View D. Birds’ Eye View
68. A crime scene view which is utilized to facilitate identification or to show the extent
of damage or injury caused by the suspect.
A. Close-up View C. Birds’ Eye View
B. Midrange View D. General View
69. The requirement in crime scene photography wherein photographs taken must
show its purpose and photograph must for a set together related to the scene as a
whole.
A. Admissibility B. Clarity C. Consistency D. Scale
70. It is a requirement in crime scene photography that is applied to determine the
actual measurement/size of the object being photographed.
A. Admissibility B. Clarity C. Consistency D. Scale
71. If in the crime scene a street sign or the building name is not present to orient its
location, the following can be used as reference point to orient the viewer of its general
location, except:
A. Known Building C. Natural Feature in the Area
B. A Car Parked D. Streetlight Post
72. What is the reason why the entire exterior of the building should be photographed?
A. To establish location of the crime scene
B. To determine possible entrance and exits of perpetrators
C. To locate possible offenders
D. To show the appearance of the crime scene
73. Which of the following is a disadvantage of diagonal view in capturing an overall
exterior of a building?
A. The near side and the far side have the same perspective
B. The façade has a better view
C. Flash cannot light all areas equally
D. It can identify possible entrance and exit in the building
74. In capturing the overall exterior of a large building, what type of lens is best
applicable?
A. Fisheye Lens C. Normal Lens
B. Telephoto lens D. Wide Angle Lens
75. Once inside the crime scene room, take a complete set of “interior overall
photographs”. The phrase “interior overall photographs” means __________________.
A. All kinds of documentation C. All crime scene view of the room
B. The overall exterior view D. Full 360° view of the room
76. To eliminate shadow of objects when photographing a dim crime scene, what
should the photographer do?
A. Detach flash C. Use bounce flash technique
B. Use direct flash technique D. Add more light intensity to the flash
77. Which of the following would depict a fair and accurate relationship between the
distance of a subject and the reference point?
A. Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Parallel View
B. Linear Point of View D. Diagonal Point of View
78. It is a cardinal rule in crime scene photography whereby only the subject matter at
hand should be seen in the photograph. All other extraneous elements should be
excluded from the photo.
A. Use Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Maximize depth of field.
B. Fill the Frame D. Keep the film plane parallel
79. If the relationship of the evidence to a fixed feature of the scene is the only story that
should be told in a particular photograph, everything else that does not contribute to this
goal should be eliminated from the field of view. This pertains to the cardinal principle
which is to _________________.
A. Use Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Maximize depth of field.
B. Fill the Frame D. Keep the film plane parallel
80. In the documentation of wounds especially on the sensitive portion of the female
body, the foremost requirement before taking photographs is the _____________.
A. Wounds Sustained C. Victims’ Consent
B. Relation to the Suspect D. Skill in Photography
81. It is a lighting technique which uses normal copy lighting with one or more light
sources at a 45-degree angles.
A. Bounce Lighting C. Oblique Lighting
B. Direct Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
83. It is a lighting technique in which an opaque material is placed between the light
source and the subject to diffuse the light. This usually results in even lighting with
reduced reflections and hot spots.
A. Bounce Lighting C. Oblique Lighting
B. Direct Lighting D. Diffused Lighting
84. It is a cardinal rule in photography, which means that the photographer must aligned
himself perpendicularly to subject being photographed.
A. Use Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Maximize depth of field.
B. Fill the Frame D. Keep the film plane parallel
85. Under the evidence close-up photography, it is a special technique that is commonly
uses a light source at a low angle, usually to show detail by creating shadows in the
subject surface. It is commonly used when photographing impressions, tool marks and
certain types of fingerprints.
A. Bounce Lighting C. Oblique Lighting
B. Direct Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
86. It is a lighting technique that is applied when the subject is transparent. The light
source is transmitted through the subject toward the lens.
A. Direct Lighting C. Bounce Lighting
B. Transmitted Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
87. It is an evidence close-up photography technique that is best applied and is
effective when photographing fingerprints on mirrors and into glasses or cups to
eliminate or minimize reflection.
A. Diffused Lighting C. Direct Reflective Lighting
B. Transmitted Lighting D. Front Directional or Axis Lighting
89. If during the investigation, there is a presence of soot in the surroundings of the
gunshot wound, this is in indication that _____________________.
A. The shot was fired 10 meters away from the victim
B. The shot was fired at a distance
C. The shot was fired in contact with the victim
D. None of the above.
90. In taking photographs of wounds and injuries sustained by live victims on the
sensitive portions of the body, what should be the considered?
A. Include in the photograph the face of the victim to facilitate identification
B. Include the fix features of the body to locate the injury
C. Only the injuries/wounds that are significant should be photographed
D. All of the above
91. It is the law which established the rules on electronic evidence in the Philippines. It
is also known as the E-Commerce Law.
A. RA 10175 C. RA 8792
B. RA 8551 D. RA 6539
92. In the rules of admissibility, evidence must have such a relation to the fact in issue
as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. This means that the evidence must
be ___________.
A. Competent C. Material
B. Relevant D. Accurate
93. An evidence is said to be ___________ when it is not excluded by the rules of court
or by the law.
A. Competent C. Material
B. Relevant D. Accurate
94. In the rules of admissibility, pictures must not emotionally influence the judge and
the witnesses as to the facts of the case. This means that photographs should be
________.
A. Competent C. Relevant
B. Non-Inflammatory D. Free from Distortion
95. In the rules of admissibility of evidence, the photograph should depict that a crime
was actually committed and what crime was committed.
A. Competent C. Material
B. Relevant D. Accurate
96. In the rules on electronic evidence, who has the burden of proving the authenticity
of the evidence to be presented?
A. The Judge of the Court C. The Prosecutor on Case
B. The Offended Party D. The Person Seeking to Introduce the Evidence
97. Under Philippine law, evidence is competent when it relates directly to the fact in
issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.
A. True C. Partly True
B. False D. Partly False
98. If the person who made the recording is not available during the presentation of the
electronic evidence, who may prove its authenticity?
A. The Judge of the Court C. The Witness
B. Other Persons Competent to Testify D. The Prosecutor of the case
99. The principal requirements to admit a photograph either digital or film-based into
evidence are:
A. Free of Distortion and Accuracy C. Relevance and Authentication
B. Material and Relevant D. Competency and Relevancy
100. In this method of proving authenticity, the affiant shall be made to affirm the
contents of the affidavit in open court and may be cross-examined as a matter of right
by the adverse party.
A. Cross-Examination of the Deponent C. Interview the Witnesses
B. Affidavit of Evidence D. Testimony of Witnesses
1. If the electronic evidence presents a faithful and clear representation of the
subject, it means that the evidence is ___________.
A. Competent C. Material and Relevant
B. Non-Inflammatory D. Free from Distortion and Accurate
2. Mr. X is seeking to introduce an evidence of a decomposed body in the court. He
was denied to introduce evidence because it is so smelly. This denotes that the
evidence is ___________.
A. Not Competent C. Irrelevant
B. Inflammatory D. Not Accurate
- Jack Ma
FORENSIC – 2 Qualifying Examination Review Questionnaire
Personal Identification Techniques
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Multiple Choice
Instruction: Choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item.
6. A professor in Anatomy who noted in his treaties as ridges, spiral and loops
in fingerprint on 1686.
A. John Evangelist Purkinji C. Marcelo Malpighi
B. Henry Faulds D. Francis Galton
7. A Scottish physician who laid the ground work for scientific study of
fingerprints in criminology;
A. Henry Faulds C. Henry Fielding
B. Francis Galton D. Charles Darwin
8. Science of identification by means of pores is;
A. Chiroscopy C. Podoscopy
B. Poroscopy D. Dactyloscopy
9. Science of identification through friction ridge characteristics existing in sole
of the human foot is;
A. Dactyloscopy C. Podoscopy
B. Chiroscopy D. Poroscopy
10. In principle of constancy in fingerprint science it means that fingerprint is;
A. Fallible C. Not conclusive
B. Unchanging D. Not Possible for Forgery
11. Points often missed in rolling impression;
A. Core C. Ridge
B. Bifurcation D. Delta
12. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as a
means of identification;
A. Chiroscopy C. Dactyloscopy
B. Poroscopy D. Podoscopy
13. Fingerprinting is universally used as valuable method of identification due
to following reason, EXCEPT:
A. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy
B. Fingerprints are not changeable
C. There are no two identical fingerprints
D. Wounded or burned out pattern will re-appear
14. Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals in the world are
exactly the same size and that human skeleton does not change after 20 years”;
A. Mendel C. Bertillon
B. Darwin D Galton
15. It is the types of patterns, EXCEPT:
A. Ordinary C. Whorl
B. Arches D. Loop
16. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free from any
appendage, and abutting in right angle;
A. Sufficient recurve C. Core
B. Complete curve D. Straight arrow
17. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what finger should be given a
value of 4 when a whorl pattern appears therein:
A. Left thumb and right thumb fingers
B. Right little and left thumb fingers
C. Right thumb and left little fingers
D. Left little and right thumb fingers
18. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening ridges
that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta;
A. Ridge tracing C. Ridge counting
B. Delta tracing D. All of these
19. It is the condition of the skin that is common in the bodies buried to the
ground;
A. Mummification C. Rigor Mortis
B. Putrefaction D. Maceration
20. The core and delta are also termed as:
A. Inner terminus C. outer ridge
B. Focal points D. Pattern area
42. This is the most widely used method for finding invisible blood;
A. Takayama test C. Luminol test
B. Kastle-Meyer Color test D. Teichmann test
43. It is a crystal test used for the confirmation of the presence of blood on
samples that screened positive with LMG.
A. Takayama test C. Luminol test
B. Kastle-Meyer Color test D. Blood examination
44. A German anthropologist who led the way in the study of friction ridge skin
permanence.
A. Marcelo Malpighi C. William Herschel
B. Hermann Welcker D. Gilbert Thompson
45. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin found
between ridges?
A. Pores B. Indentions C. Furrows D. Duct
46. What are those that are sometimes referred to as papillary or epidermal
ridges?
A. Latent print C. Dermal ridges
B. Friction ridges D. Fingerprints
47. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impressions?
A. both little fingers C. both thumb fingers
B. all fingers except thumb D. both index fingers
48. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows
towards the little finger?
A. Loop B. Ulnar loop C. Radial loop D. Tented
arch
49. What types of a pattern possesses an angle, an up-thrust, or two or three
basic characteristics of the loop?
A. Plain arch C. Tented arch
B. Accidental whorl D. Ulnar loop
50. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how
it is counted?
A. One B. Three C. Two D. Six
51. He first used fingerprints on native contracts in Hoogly district in Jungipoor,
India.
A. John Evangelist Purkinje C. Dr. Henry Faulds
B. Marcelo Malpighi D. Sir William Herschel
52. It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be carried from womb to tomb.
What principle greatly described the phrase?
A. principle of individuality C. principle of permanency
B. principle of infallibility D. all of these
53. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the
science of fingerprint?
A. People Vs. Medina C. People Vs. Jennings
B. Miranda Vs. Arizona D. West Case
54. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its infants stage which
usually starts:
A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life;
B. 3rd to 5th months after birth;
C. 5th to 6th month of the fetus life; and
D. 5th to 6th months after birth.
55. The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop except
one:
A. a ridges forming circuit C. a delta and core
B. a sufficient recurve D. a ridge count across a looping
ridge
56. What is the rule when there is a choice between a bifurcation and other type
of delta found in the fingerprint?
A. Bifurcation is selected C. The other type of delta is selected
B. Bifurcation is disregarded D. The one towards the core is
selected
57. Which of the following is not true about the value or the importance of
fingerprinting?
A. Serve to provide evidence.
B. Prevent criminal substitutions.
C. Help identify victims of calamities like crime.
D. Speedily identifying the perpetrator.
58. It is placed just to the right of primary in the classification formula.
A. Sub-secondary classification C. Major division
B. Secondary classification D. Final classification
59. What type of pattern is that which could be found on the lower box of the
fingerprint card having a delta and core with a recurving ridge flowing towards
the no. 6 finger?
A. Ulnar loop B. Radial loop C. Loop D. Arches
60. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type lines where the
characteristics needed for interpretation/classification is found?
A. Loops B. Double lines C. Ridges D. Pattern
area
61. Who wrote that if points were same between two fingerprints, it would suffice
as a positive identification?
A. Gilbert Thompson C. Edward Richard Henry
B. Agripino Ruiz D. Edmond Locard
62. A German doctor and anatomist, who contributed for the recognition of
principle of fingerprint, that fingerprint pattern or design may be similar, they
are never duplicated.
A. Edmond Locard C. Johann Cristoph Andreas
B. William Herschel D. Edward Richard Henry
63. Who was the Constabulary agent and fingerprint expert, who successfully
depended his finding base on 10 points of comparison?
A. Agripino Ruiz C. Juan Vucetich
B. Agrippina Ruiz D. Francis Galton
64. Known as the Father of Ridgeology?
A. Sir Francis Galton C. Sir Edward Richard Henry
B. Sir William Herschel D. Dr. Locard
134. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the
combination?
A. Ulnar loop C. Plain whorl
B. Tented arch D. Plain arch
135. In the distribution of percentage in the fingerprint pattern, 35% is being
represented by what group?
A. Loop B. Arch C. Whorl D. Radial
loop
136. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores) in an inked
finger impression?
A. Sweat pores B. Ridges C. Furrows D. Sweat
duct
137. It refers to all fingerprints left at the crime scene including those left
accidentally or unconsciously;
A. Chance impressions C. Latent prints
B. Smudge prints D. Fragmentary prints
138. The innermost ridges run parallel and surrounded to the pattern area are
known as ______ ?
A. Type lines C. Criss-crossing ridges
B. Long ridges D. Rideology
140. What is the major classification of right thumb with a ridge count of 20,
and the left thumb has a ridge count of 16.
A. Medium B. Outer C. Small D. Large
FORENSIC - 3
Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology
Qualifying Examination Review Questionnaire
=====================================================
====
Multiple Choice
Instruction: Choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item.
1. Branch of chemistry that deals with the application of chemical theories and
principles in the solution of legal problems in relation to the administration of
justice.
A. Forensic Chemistry C. Chemistry
B. Forensic D. Forensic Science
2. Dealing with the application of scientific knowledge to legal problems and legal
proceedings.
A. Chemistry C. Forensic Science
B. Forensic Chemistry D. Forensic
3. The first reliable analysis that scientifically demonstrated the presence of
arsenic in the body of a victim.
A. Marsh Test C. Blandy Test
B. Locard Test D. Arsenic Test
4. A French criminologist, the pioneer in forensic science who became known as
the "Sherlock Holmes of France".
A. Mathieu Joseph Bonaventure Orfila C. Edmond Locard
B. Mathew Joseph Bonaventure Carmilla D. Francis Galton
5. Who is the father of modern toxicology?
A. Mathieu Joseph Bonaventure Orfila C. Francis Galton
B. Mathew Joseph Bonaventure Carmilla D. Edmond Locard
6. The following are the characteristics of a forensic chemist, EXCEPT:
A. Possess moral integrity
B. Clearly and concisely answers challenges to his findings
C. Be able to spend hours rigorously applying analytical techniques to
evidence
D. Collection and reception of the specimen
7. A Belgian chemist, conducted studies to detect certain types of vegetable
poisons in the body.
A. Christian Friedrich Schonbein C. Izaak van Deen
B. Jean Servais Stas D. Francis Galton
8. The first book devoted exclusively to toxicology.
A. Treatise on Poisons
B. Elements of Medical Chemistry
C. Research on Poisoning by Arsenians Acid
D. Treatise on Legal Exhumations
9. Who discovered the first reliable method for identifying human blood?
A. Christian Friedrich Schonbein C. Izaak van Deen
B. Jean Servais Stas D. Francis Galton
10. Refers to any material object introduced in a trial for the purpose of proving
a fact in issue based on its demonstrable physical characteristics.
A. Physical Evidence C. Trace Evidence
B. Chain of Custody D. Marked Evidence
11. Refers to microscopic materials found at a crime scene, such as hair, blood,
glass particles, foot/tire impression, fiber, or paint, to name a few.
A. Physical Evidence C. Trace Evidence
B. Circumstantial Evidence D. Marked Evidence
12. Types of physical evidence that referred to characteristics of firearms,
ammunitions, and residue; chemical composition of explosives, etc.
A. Weapons B. Firearms C. Armament D.
Ammunition
13. Types of physical evidence that referred to printing method or paper and ink
used in forged documents, handwriting style, counterfeit bills, ransom notes,
etc.
A. Questioned document C. Disputed document
B. Document D. Miscellaneous document
14. Evidence containing moisture should not be packed in plastic or paper
containers for a period exceeding ____ hours.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
15. Refers to a written record of all the individuals who maintained unbroken
control over certain items of evidence collected from a crime scene.
A. Evidence custody C. Questioned document
B. Chain of custody D. Disputed document
16. If any type of physical evidence is found and subsequently associated with a
suspect where he or she had no right to be, then upon proper identification, the
evidence may:
A. establish proof beyond reasonable doubt C. have no significance
B. establish the case via other source D. provides leads to
follow
17. If the physical evidence is found for a period during which a suspect may
have had legitimate right to be then the evidence may:
A. have no significance
B. establish proof beyond reasonable proof
C. establish probable cause
D. establish a suspect's presence at the crime scene
18. Any synthetic or natural substance that is used to produce psychological
effects in humans; it can also play a central role in the daily lives of many people
regardless of whatever it is used legitimately or illegitimately.
A. Dangerous drug B. Medicine C. Drug D. Illegal
drug
19. It is known through the following street names: “lid poppers,” “eye openers,”
“pep pills,” “uppers,” and “hearts.”
A. Cocaine C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Caffeine D. Amphetamine
20. Locally known as shabu.
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride C. Methylamphetamine
Oxychloride
B. Phenethylamine Hydrochloride D. Phenethylamine
Oxychloride
21. Any act of giving away, selling or distributing medicine or any dangerous
drug with or without the use of prescription.
A. Deliver B. Cultivate C. Manufacture D. Dispense
22. The investigative technique of allowing an awful or suspect consignment of
any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical,
equipment or paraphernalia, or property believed to be derived directly or
indirectly from any offense.
A. Controlled Delivery C. Cultivate or Culture
B. Drug Syndicate D. Dispense
23. This refers to a generalized feeling that all is well and good with the world.
People on MDMA often describe being "at peace" or experiencing a generalized
"happy" feeling.
A. Entactogenesis C. Empathogenesis
B. An enhancement of senses D. Phenethylamine
24. An analytical test using a device, tool or equipment with a different chemical
or physical principle that is more specific which will validate and confirm the
result of the screening test.
A. Screening test C. Confirmatory test
B. Drug test D. Chemi-toxicological test
25. Any act of introducing any dangerous drug into the body of any person, with
or without his/her knowledge, by injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means,
or of committing any act of indispensable assistance to a person in administering
a dangerous drug to himself/herself unless administered by a duly licensed
practitioner for purposes of medication.
A. Administer B. Cultivate C. Dispense D.
Deliver
26. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful acts
provided for in this Act and uses his/her influence, power or position in
shielding, harboring, screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she
knows, or has reasonable grounds to believe on or suspects, has violated the
provisions of this Act in order to prevent the arrest, prosecution and conviction
of the violator.
A. Financier C. Employee of Den, Dive or
Resort
B. Practitioner D. Protector/Coddler
27. Any person who is licensed physician, dentist, chemist, medical technologist,
nurse, midwife, veterinarian or pharmacist in the Philippines.
A. Financier C. Employee of Den, Dive or
Resort
B. Practitioner D. Protector/Coddler
28. Also called diacetylmorphine, a semi-synthetic opioid, which is the 3,6-
diacetyl derivative of morphine, commonly synthesize by acetylation.
A. Heroin B. Codeine C. Hydromorphone D. Opium
Poppy
29. Street name for _____ are "peace pill," and "angel's dust".
A. Phencyclidine B. Phenethylamine C. Ecstasy D.
Mescaline
30. The common street names of __________ include "Smack," "Dillies," "D,"
"Dust," "Juice," and "footballs."
A. Hydromorphone B. Morphine C. Codeine D. Heroin
31. This is a feeling of emotional closeness to others accompanied by a
breakdown of communication barriers. Due to this effect, the MDMA is known
as a "hug drug," that is, the increased emotional closeness makes personal
contact quite common and very rewarding.
A. Entactogenesis C. Empathogenesis
B. An enhancement of senses D. Phenethylamine
32. Refers to the process of identifying and quantifying specimens of illegal
drugs.
A. Forensic Drug Test C. Forensic Drug Analysis
B. Qualitative Drug Analysis D. Quantitative Drug Analysis
33. Refers to a substance containing a large amount of stored energy, which is
capable of undergoing a rapid chemical reaction.
A. Explosives B. Detonation C. Bomb D.
Combustion
34. In several bombing incidents, it is commonly used explosive device. Its
popularity could be due to the ubiquity of materials for its production and its
low cost without compromising its effectiveness as a bomb.
A. Incendiary Explosive Device C. Explosively Formed
Penetrator
B. Trinitrotoluene D. Blasting caps
35. _________ are reactive substances containing great amount of potential
energy that if released suddenly can produce an explosion, usually accompanied
by the production of light, sound, heat, and pressure.
A. Chemical reaction B. Explosives C. Detonation D.
Blast
36. They invented the first chemical explosive called gunpowder.
A. Chinese B. Europeans C. Japanese D. Germans
37. According to the explosive's sensitivity, it is the sensitive materials that can
be exploded by a smaller amount of pressure or heat.
A. Primary explosives C. Secondary explosives
B. Low explosives D. High explosives
38. These are mixtures of chemicals that burn very rapidly, but subsonically (as
opposed to supersonically), meaning that they “deflagrate.” They consist typically
of fuel and an oxidizer. The black powder used in fireworks is one example of a
__________.
A. Primary explosives C. Secondary explosives
B. Low explosives D. High explosives
39. It detonates instantaneously, burn more rapidly, and create more pressure.
It involves the combination of a metal with chlorine, which releases excess
energy.
A. Primary explosives C. Secondary explosives
B. Low explosives D. High explosives
40. The following are some of the contents of dynamite: EXCEPT
A. Nitroglycerine C. Ethylene Glycol Dinitrate
B. Ammonia-Gelatin D. Cyclonite
41. Its NG content makes it the most dangerous type of dynamite to handle and
store. It produces toxic fumes that make them unsuitable for underground or
confined space blasting. Has a velocity of 17,000 psi.
A. Straight Dynamite C. Ammonia-Gelatin Dynamite
B. Gelatin Dynamite D. Ammonia Dynamite
42. A hollow projectile with a generally spherical shape, containing an explosive
material and is made of iron. It is fired by concussion or by time fuse.
A. Bomb B. IED C. Blasting cap D.
Explosion
43. Refers to the rapid combustion and decomposition of gases with consequent
violent increase of pressure that often causes a load report.
A. Bomb B. IED C. Blasting cap D.
Explosion
44. Refers to a violent explosion resulting from the practically instantaneous
combustion or decomposition of unstable compounds.
A. Detonation B. Blast C. Explosion D.
Bomb
45. Test that tells you what particular substance (analyte) is present in the
specimen.
A. Qualitative Analysis C. Quantitative Analysis
B. Drug Specimen Analysis D. Analysis of Drugs
46. In this test, a specific reagent or series of reagents is used for a presumptive
test. Color reaction is expected to occur in order to determine the presence of a
dangerous drug.
A. Reagent Test C. Chemical Test
B. Simon's Test D. Physical Test
47. A method to measure how much a chemical substance absorbs light by
measuring the intensity of light as a beam of light passes through sample
solution. The basic principle is that each compound absorbs or transmits light
over a certain range of wavelength.
A. Thin Layer Chromatography C.
Spectrophotometry
B. Gas Chromatography Mass Spectrophotometry D. Confirmatory
Test
48. This type of test requires the comparison of RF (retention in time values)
between the specimen in question and the standard.
A. Thin Layer Chromatography C. Confirmatory
Test
B. Gas Chromatography Mass Spectrophotometry D.
Spectrophotometry
49. A complete laboratory report should be able to indicate all the necessary
information, which includes the following: EXCEPT
A. the time and date at which the specimen was received by the authorized
personnel.
B. the effects and metabolism of drugs
C. the name and signature of the examiner and the approving officer
D. the findings and conclusion
50. This is done by adding water into the urine sample so that minimum required
quantity sample can be achieved. It reduces the concentration of normal
constituent.
A. Dilution B. Substitution C. Adulteration D.
Absorption
51. The used paraffin to collect and examine gunpowder residues from
discharged firearms.
A. Dr. Gonzales Itorrios C. Dr. Gonzalo Iturrios
B. Dr. Gonzaga Toni D. Dr. Gon Freecss
52. Why it is important to perform paraffin casting within said period?
A. Nitrates from pores cannot be removed by washing of the skin and stays
on the hands for 48 hours.
B. Nitrates from pores cannot be removed by washing of the skin and stays
on the hands for 72 hours.
C. Nitrates from pores can be removed by washing of the skin and stays
on the hands for 72 hours.
D. Nitrates from pores can be removed by washing of the skin and stays
on the hands for 48 hours.
53. This refers to the use of access to the nuclear reactor and facilitates to
determine radiation.
A. Gunshot Range Test C. Gunpowder Residue Test
B. Neutron Activation Analysis D. Paraffin-Diphenylamine
Test
54. Mainly composed of burned and unburned particles from the propellant, the
explosive primer, the components from the bullet, as well as the cartridge case
and the firearm used.
A. Smokeless powder C. Gunshot residue
B. Gun propellant D. Black powder
55. Type of discoloration which occurs when the gun is held at about 2 inches
to a maximum of 8 inches away from the target.
A. Tattooing B. Smudging C. Abrasion D. Singeing
56. Refers to the science of detecting and identifying the presence of drugs and
poisons in the tissues, organs, and body fluids.
A. Evidence Analysis C. Toxicology
B. Serology D. DNA Analysis
57. Are strong acids and bases that can destroy the tissues that they come in
contact to (e.g., HCL, NaOH)
A. Irritants B. Vibranium C. Corrosive D.
Neurotics
58. Classification of Poisoning based on chemical properties that these poisons
that can be detected through qualitative methods of examination for the presence
of anions.
A. Metallic B. Volatile Poisons C. Anions D. True
poison
59. Types of poisoning which refers to exposure to poison and produces
immediate or instant death.
A. Chronic poisoning C. Acute poisoning
B. Volatile poisoning D. Corrosive poisoning
60. A branch of science that deals with the determination of the type and
characteristics of blood, blood testing, and the examination of bloodstain, semen,
saliva and other body fluids that may or may not be involved with DNA typing.
A. Toxicology B. Serology C. Chemistry D. Analogy
61. Blood can be used as _____ in identifying the perpetrator of a crime.
A. Circumstantial evidence C. Corroborative evidence
B. Either A or C D. Neither A or C
62. Refers to the examination of the shapes and the distribution patterns and
locations of bloodstains, which can provide an interpretation of the physical
events that gave rise to their origin.
A. Bloodstain Pattern Analysis C. Basic Metabolic Panel
B. Phenolphthalein Test D. Luminol Test
63. The classification of human blood based on the inherited properties of red
blood cells (erythrocytes) as determined by the presence or absence of the
antigens A and B, which are carried on the surface of the red cells.
A. ABO blood group system C. Rh system
B. Blood patterns D. Serology
64. Blood type AB+ _________.
A. Can give blood to AB-, A and B C. Can receive blood from all blood
types
B. Can give blood to O+ and O- D. Cannot receive blood from AB-, A
and B
65. Which statement is correct?
A. A child with type O blood could have parents with type A, type B, or
type O blood (but not with type AB).
B. If two parents both have type O blood, all their children will have type
O blood.
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A or B
66. Refers to the body fluid produced by the male sex organ, usually amounting
to 2.5 to 6.0ml per ejaculation.
A. Sperm B. Semen C. Cell D. Prostate
fluid
67. A male reproductive cell that contains an oval-shaped head with a long tail.
A. Sperm B. Semen C. Cell D. Prostate
fluid
68. A condition where there is no sperm in seminal fluid, which is due to a
vasectomy.
A. Aspermia B. STD C. HIV/aids D. Endometriosis
69. A molecule that contains all the genetic information used in the development
and functioning of all known viruses and living organisms.
A. Cell B. Genes C. DNA D. Chromosomes
70. DNA is organized into long structures called _____. A threadlike structure of
nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying
genetic information in the form of genes.
A. Cell B. Chromosomes C. Cytosine D. Genes
71. Blood consists of 4 elements, EXCEPT
A. Red blood cells C. White blood cells
B. Platelets D. Hemoglobin
72. Consists of a mixture of silica (natural sand) and two or more acids and
bases. It may contain other elements and metals, which are added for color, heat
resistance, hardness, and other desired properties.
A. Fragment B. Glass C. Mirror D. Projectile
73. Investigators can determine whether a glass fragment originated from a
particular kind of glass object, such as a spectacle lens, headlight lens, or a
window pane.
A. True
B. False
C. True, because strength of the glass does not depend on its surface
D. Depends
74. Types of glass fracture that resembles the spoke of a wheel, in which the
radiating rod originates at a common point.
A. Primary fracture C. Secondary fracture
B. Standard fracture D. Concentric fracture
75. Is conducted based on the fact that mineral constituents imbue a distinctive
type and degree of fluorescence to the glass that originate from one molten batch.
A. Fluorescence examination C. Spectrographic examination
B. Refractive Index D. Density Analysis
76. It is based on the relative densities of two or more pieces of glass.
A. Fluorescence examination C. Spectrographic examination
B. Refractive Index D. Density Analysis
77. Refers to the application of a chemical solution on a metal surface and
observing any reaction that may take place.
A. Macro-etching C. Chemical reaction
B. Obliteration D. Concavity
78. The science of investigating projectile motion is known as ________.
A. Trajectory C. Bullet Trajectory
B. Ballistics D. Firing
79. Refers to the path of flight it follows from firing up to reaching its target.
A. Trajectory C. Bullet Trajectory
B. Ballistics D. Firing
80. Select the best answer: When a bullet strikes an object, such as piece of
clothing…
A. The investigators must reproduce the pattern by firing the weapon.
B. A bullet entrance/exit hole is created.
C. May determine whether a fatal shooting was homicide or suicide.
D. Firearm examiners are summoned to examine the victim’s clothing.
81. Select the best answer: When the body offers no evidence of the bullet’s
entrance and exit paths, …
A. The investigators must reproduce the pattern by firing the weapon.
B. A bullet entrance/exit hole is created.
C. May determine whether a fatal shooting was homicide or suicide.
D. Firearm examiners are summoned to examine the victim’s clothing.
11. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their identifying
qualities.
A. Comparison B. Collation C. Juxtaposition D.
Examination
12. The German word that means “complete” or “whole”.
A. Grapho B. Gestalt C. Documentum D.
Graphometry
13. It refers to “wrong hand writing.”
A. Disguised writing C. Left-handed writing
B. Guided writing D. Hand lettering
14. Analysis of documents by comparison and measurement.
A. Graphometry C. Graphology
B. Grapho-Analysis D. Grapho
15. These are normal or usual deviations found between repeated
specimens of any individual handwriting.
A. Natural writing C. Natural variation
B. Manuscript writing D. Rhythm
16. Any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to control
or alter its identifying habits and its usual quality or execution.
A. Natural writing C. Natural variation
B. Manuscript writing D. Rhythm
17. The average force with which the pen contacts the paper.
A. Pen emphasis C. Pen hold
B. Pen position D. Pen pressure
18. The act of intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surfaces.
A. Pen emphasis C. Pen hold
B. Pen position D. Pen pressure
19. The place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at
which he holds it.
A. Pen emphasis C. Pen hold
B. Pen position D. Pen pressure
20. The relation between the tall and the short letter is referred as
A. Print script C. Proportion or ratio
B. Quality D. Rhythm
21. Is the widening of the ink strokes due to the added pressure on a flexible pen
point or to the use of a stub pen.
A. Print script C. Proportion or ratio
B. Shading D. Rhythm
22. The degree of force exerted on the pen compared to the degree of relaxation.
A. Tension B. System C. Rhythm D. Pen
emphasis
23. A diacritic includes the following, EXCEPT:
A. Tilde B. None C. T-crossing D. Letters i and j
dots
24. It links the downward stroke to the upstrokes with a flowing curve swinging
from left to right. It is an easy, effortless mode of connection, written with speed.
A. Arcade C. Garland
B. Angular connective form D. Threadlike connective form
25. A rounded stroke shaped like an arch. It is a slow mode of connection
resulting from controlled movements.
A. Arcade C. Garland
B. Angular connective form D. Threadlike connective form
26. Series of lines or curves written in a single letter; one of the lines of an
alphabet or series of lines or curves within a single letter
A. Stroke B. Style C. Personal D.
Design
27. A writing weakness portrayed by irregular shaky strokes is described as
A. Hesitation B. Tremor C. Puckering D.
Irregular
28. A short initial or terminal stroke.
A. Spur B. Buckle knot C. Staff D.
Tick/Hitch
29. A fully rounded oval or circular form on a letter complete into "O".
A. Bowl B. Blunt C. Beard D.
Beaded
30. The retouching or going back over a defective portion of a written stroke.
A. Patching B. Retouching C. Retracing D.
Repairing
31. Is not simply a signature but it is a signature, signed at a particular time and
place, under particular conditions, while the signer was at particular age, in a
particular physical and mental condition, using particular implements, and with
a particular reason and purpose for recording his name.
A. Guided Signature C. Fraudulent signature
B. Evidential Signature D. Assisted Signature
32. A fraudulent signature that was executed purely by simulation rather than
by tracing the outline of a genuine signature.
A. Freehand Signature C. Guided Signature
B. Fraudulent signature D. Assisted Signature
33. These are writings made by a person written in his daily life.
A. Original standards C. Requested standards
B. Collected standards D. Non-requested standards
34. A forged signature that involves the writing of a name as a signature by
someone other than the person himself, without his permission.
A. Guided Signature C. Fraudulent signature
B. Evidential Signature D. Assisted Signature
35. Pen came from the Latin word “Penna” which means _____.
A. Stick B. Tube C. Feather D.
Ball
36. The process where forger places the document to be forged at bottom, inter-
leaves a piece of carbon paper and places on top a document containing the
genuine signature.
A. Carbon process C. Indentation process
B. Transmitted light process D. Traced process
37. Spurious signature is also a simple forgery, as to informal signature is _____.
A. Conventional C. Copybook form
B. Cursory D. Careless
38. It is the process by which the line to be printed are cut into pieces of metal
by hand or with a machine.
A. Engraving C. Letterpress printing
B. Offset printing D. Stamping
39. Is the method a photograph is taken of the desired material and a print is
made on a specially prepared aluminum plate.
A. Engraving C. Letterpress printing
B. Offset printing D. Stamping
40. The most common form of printing books, magazine, letterheads and the
usual printing in common uses.
A. Letterpress printing C. Engraving
B. Offset printing D. Stamping
41. The P50 bill has Pink Color with the image of Sergio Osmeǹa. The P200 peso
has Green color with the image of _____.
A. Manuel L. Quezon C. Sergio Osmena
B. Manuel A. Roxas D. Diosdado Macapagal
42. The image at the paper bill is referred to as the _____.
A. Portrait B. Vignette C. Watermark D. Lacework
design
43. It refers to something wrong in time and in place. This means that the forger
has trouble matching the paper, ink, or writing materials to the exact date it was
supposed to have been written.
A. Anachronism C. Anarchronism
B. Chronism D. Anarchrone
44. When does official document becomes public document?
A. When a document was issued by an official and was notarized for legal
purposes.
B. When a notarized document was issued by an official of a government
office.
C. When a receipt was issued and was certified as true copy.
D. When a document is certified and notarized by a notary public.
45. A document completely written and signed by one person is known as:
A. Disputed document C. Holographic document
47. What type of forgery is made when the writer exerts no effort to effect
resemblance or facsimile between the forged and the genuine signatures?
A. Traced B. Simple C. Spurious D.
Simulated
48. Refers to the direction of handwriting, if it stays on the baseline or goes
upward.
A. Slope B. Skills C. Slant D. Spacing
49. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the beginning and continues
beyond the end to a vanishing point and are found on free natural writing and
as a rule are important indication of genuineness.
A. Ending stroke C. Pen movement
B. Terminal stroke D. Flying starts and finish
50. In question document examination, to fully appreciate the details of the
document, you must have to what?
A. Enlarge them C. Piece thems
B. Use microscope D. Have an objective
51. A sign of forgery in guided hand signature is ___________.
A. Bad shading C. Good pen control
B. Disconnected strokes D. Irregular line quality
52. A kind of defect in which the character prints a double impression.
A. Rebound C. Twisted letter
B. Vertical Mal-alignment D. Horizontal Mal Alignment
53. These are actual breaks on type face like worn off series or cut on shanks
which cannot be remedied.
A. Alignment defect C. Transitory defect
82. It is the result of a very complicated series of acts, being used as whole,
combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular habits acquired by
long, continued painstaking effort.
A. Writing Habit C. Signature
B. Handwriting D. Writing Characteristics
83. The examination of handwriting characteristics to determine one’s personal
character dispositions is called –
A. Graphology B. Calligraphy C. Graphometry D. All of the
above
84. It refers to the standard of handwriting instruction taught in particular
school.
A. Copybook Form C. Alphabet
B. School Standard D. Writing Model
85. It refers to the overall character of the ink lines from the beginning to the
ending strokes.
A. Line Quality C. Stroke Quality
B. Stroke Characteristics D. Handwriting
Characteristics
86. What is the least applied disguise in writing?
A. Change of slant - from right to left or vice versa
B. Change of letter, either from cursive to block style
C. Change from cursive (conventional style) to block form
D. Using the wrong hand
87. When the writer hides his identity and attempts to deliberately alter his usual
writing habits it is called –
A. Spurious Writing C. Forged Writing
B. Disguised Writing D. Counterfeited Writing
88. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and for
the purpose of comparison with the questioned document.
A. Relative standards C. Extended standards
B. Collected standards D. Requested standards
89. The art of beautiful writing.
A. Drafting B. Calligraphy C. Art appreciation D.
Gothic
90. The Pica Type of typewriters contains how many characters per inch?
A. 10 B. 6 C. 14-16 D. 12
91. In the examination of counterfeit bills, the first consideration is the -
A. Watermark B. Serial Number C. Color D.
Paper
92. The act or process of making the content/s of a document not the intended
content is referred to as ________.
A. Counterfeiting B. Forgery C. Fraud D.
Falsification
93. In connection with typewriting identification, this term is used to include
letters, symbols, numerals, or points of punctuation.
A. Character C. Letters and symbols
B. Characteristics D. Identifying fonts
94. It refers to the translucent design impressed on papers during the course of
the manufacturing of papers.
A. Trademark C. Watermark
B. Company Design D. Confidential Design
95. These are acquired characteristics in writing through repetition that have
become fixed and spontaneous.
A. Writing habits C. Natural variation
B. School model D. Disguised writing
96. It is the group of muscle in the hand that pushes the pen upward to form
the upward strokes.
A. Flexor B. Extensor C. Cortex D.
Atrium
97. This refers to the writer’s chosen writing style. It is the way the writing looks,
whether it is copybook, elaborated, simplified or printed.
A. Rhythm B. Habit C. Form D. Quality
98. A gap occurring between a continuous strokes without lifting the pen.
A. Pen Pressure B. Tension C. Diacritic D. Hiatus
99. An element added to complete certain letters either a cross bar or a dot.
A. Bar B. Blunt C. Diacritic D. Buckle
100. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. Natural variation B. Rhythm C. Retracing D. Shading