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Naga College Foundation, Inc.

Liboton St., Naga City 4400, Philippines


COLLEGE OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION

Subject: Forensics 1

INSTRUCTION: Choose the letter of the correct answer for each of the following
questions. SHADE the corresponding letter of your answer on the ANSWER SHEET
provided. ERASURES AND ALTERATIONS ARE NOT ALLOWED
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. It refers to the study of the general practices, methods and steps in taking pictures
of the crime scene physical things and other circumstances that can be used as criminal
evidences or for law enforcement purposes.
A. Police photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
2. It is the art or process of producing images of objects on sensitized surfaces by the
chemical action of light.
A. Photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
3. It is a factual reproduction and accurate record of the crime scene because it
captures TIME, SPACE AND EVENT
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
4. It is a method of recording images by the action of light or related radiations on a
sensitive material
A. Macrophotography C. Photography
B. Photomicrography D. All of the foregoing
5. He was the first person to coin the word CAMERA OBSCURA IN 1604, and in 1609,
he further suggested the use of a lens to improve the image projected by a Camera
Obscura.
A. Isaac Newton C. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
B. William Henry Fox Talbot D. Johannes Kepler
6. The field of photography covering the legal application of photography in criminal
jurisprudence and criminal investigations.
A. Police photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
7. It is an image produced through the action of light.
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
8. It is a representation or image on a surface especially as a work of art. Example:
painting, drawing, print or photograph.
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
9. It is the type of photography which focuses on the preparation of photographic
evidence needed by prosecutors and courts of law
A. Police photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography

10. It is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object without the
use of a microscope, by using a short focus lens or macro lens/close-up lens and a long
bellow extension.
A. Macrophotography C. Photomacrography
B. Photomicrography D. Microphotography
11. It is the production of photographs in which the image of an object is reproduced
much smaller than it actually is, it is the opposite of photomicrography.
A. Macrophotography C. Photomacrography
B. Photomicrography D. Microphotography
12. It refers to the recording of images formed by infrared radiation. This type of
photography uses a special type of film that is sensitive to infrared radiation.
A. Infrared photography C. Photomacrography
B. UV photography D. Microphotography
13. The type of photography that is best used in aerial surveillance since it allows the
viewer to see things clearly even in bad weather conditions.
A. Infrared photography C. Photomacrography
B. UV photography D. Microphotography
14. It is the process that records the glow or visible light given off by certain substances
when they are irradiated by ultraviolet rays.
A. Infrared photography C. Photomacrography
B. UV photography D. Microphotography
C.
15. A photograph of the crime scene is a factual reproduction and accurate record of
the crime scene because it captures __________.
A. Time C. Event
B. Space D. All of the foregoing
16. It is a branch of forensic science dealing with the preparation of photographic
evidence needed by prosecutors and courts of law.
A. Photography C. Infrared photography
B. Police photography D. Forensic photography
17. A photograph of the crime scene is capable of capturing the event that happened.
What does EVENT pertains to?
A. The WHERE of the Crime C. The WHAT of the Crime
B. The WHEN of the Crime D. The HOW of the Crime
18. The word PHOTOGRAPHY was derived from the Greek word Phos which means to
light, and the word Graphos which means __________.
A. To draw B. To Graph C. To see D. To click
19. It is the process of taking photographs of the suspect/s in full length, half body,
right and left side views, and two quarter views.
A. Investigation C. Mug-shot Photography
B. Aerial Photography D. Personal Identification
20. It is the art or science of photographically documenting a crime scene and evidence
for laboratory examination and analysis for purposes of court trial.
A. Police photography C. Surveillance photography
B. Forensic photography D. Aerial photography
21. An evidence that is presented in court once accepted will become known as
__________.
A. Evidence C. Proof
B. Exhibit D. Photographic Evidence

22. Before an evidence is accepted in court, it is a requirement that they must first
satisfy the basic requirements of admissibility which is __________.
A. Relevancy C. Both A and B
B. Competency D. None of the Above
23. Which of the following is best used in the examination of questioned or disputed
documents?
A. Infrared Photography C. Photomicrography
B. UV Photography D. X-ray Photography
24. The word forensic was derived from the Latin word ___________ which means “a
market place” where people gathered for public discussion.
A. Forens B. Forensis C. Forum D. Legal
25. It is the mechanical and chemical result of Photography.
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
26. It is generally known as the birth year of photography.
A. 1604 B. 1609 C. 1827 D. 1839
27. It is the process of taking photograph of a far object with the aid of a long focus
and Telephoto lens.
A. Photomicrography C. Macrophotography
B. Microphotography D. Telephotography
28. The process of photographing unseen objects with the naked eye with the use of
ultra-violet rays and filters.
A. UV Photography C. Macrophotography
B. Microphotography D. Infrared Photography
29. The use of photography from which reproduction of the evidence can be made in
any number giving unlimited opportunity for its examination without compromising the
original.
A. For Identification C. For Communication
B. For Reproduction and Copying D. For Preservation
30. Refers to the zone of acceptable sharpness or the area or zone of a photograph, from
front to back, which is in focus.
A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
31. Refers to the range of distance in a scene that appears to be in focus and will be
reproduced as being acceptably sharp, it could be shallow or greater.
A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
32. In the relationship between the f-number, lens opening and the depth of field, the
higher the f-number, the _________ the lens opening, the _________ depth of field.
A. Larger; Shallow C. Smaller; Greater
B. Larger; Greater D. Smaller; Shallow
33. This refers to the zone of focus in the camera.
A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
34. Refers to the distance between the focal point of a lens and the film plane when the
lens is focused at infinity.
A. Hyperfocal Distance C. Focal Length
B. Hyperfocal Point D. Focal Point

35. The central or principal point of focus.


A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
36. When the lens is focused on infinity, the distance of the nearest object in a scene
that is acceptably sharp is called ___________?
A. Depth of Focus C. Hyperfocal Point
B. Hyperfocal Distance D. Focal Point
37. When the lens is focused on infinity, the nearest point to the camera that is acceptably
sharp is the __________.
A. Depth of Focu10s C. Hyperfocal Point
B. Hyperfocal Distance D. Focal Point
38. A piece of glass, plastic or any transparent substance bounded by two surfaces of
different curvature, generally spherical, by which rays of light may be made to converge
or diverge.
A. Lens B. Prism C. Mirror D. Viewfinder
39. A very important part of the camera which controls the amount of light that reaches
the film. It also controls the magnification of the image.
A. Prism B. Lens C. Mirror D. Viewfinder
40. A type of lens which diverge light and produce a virtual or real image. Also called a
diverging lens.
A. Chromatic Lens C. Concave Lens
B. Process Lens D. Convex Lens
41. A camera lens which has a focal length of 24mm-35mm is categorized as _________?
A. Ultra-Wide Angle Lens C. Normal Lens
B. Wide Angle Lens D. Telephoto Lens
42. It refers to the failure of light rays to focus properly after they pass through a lens or
reflect from a mirror.
A. Aberration C. Curvature of field
B. Coma D. Astigmatism
43. This lens defect arises from a variation of magnification with axial distance and is not
caused by a lack of sharpness in the image.
A. Barrel Distortion C. Distortion
B. Wave Distortion D. Pincushion Distortion
45. A type of distortion which is present when straight lines running parallel with the
picture edges appear to bow inward.
A. Barrel Distortion C. Distortion
B. Wave Distortion D. Pincushion Distortion
46. It is a tinted glass, gelatin or plastic disc, squares or rectangles that modify light
passing through them.
A. Filter C. Haze Filter
B. Lens D. Viewfinder
47. When using a red filter, what colors of light will be absorbed?
A. Blue C. Green and Blue
B. Red D. Red and Green
48. A filter that absorbs atmospherically scattered sunlight. This filter affect the gray tone
of colored objects.
A. Haze Filter C. Neutral Density Filter
B. Skylight Filter D. Polarizing Filter
49. It is a transparent cellulose nitrate or cellulose acetate composition made in thin,
flexible strips or sheets and coated with a light sensitive emulsion for taking photograph.
A. Filter C. Photographic Paper
B. Film D. Top Coating
50. A black dye applied on the rear surface of the film used to absorb light that may
penetrate the emulsion layer, preventing it to reflect back to the emulsion.
A. Top Coating C. Emulsion Layer
B. Anti-Halation Backing D. Film Base
51. It is an over coating of a thin layer of hard gelatin which helps protect the silver halide
emulsion from scratches and abrasions.
A. Top Coating C. Emulsion Layer
B. Anti-Halation Backing D. Film Base
52. It is the light sensitive portion of a film or paper that records the image.
A. Top Coating C. Emulsion Layer
B. Anti-Halation Backing D. Film Base

53. A film which is sensitive to all colors and are further subdivided according to their
degree of sensitivity to each color.
A. Orthochromatic Film C. Panchromatic Film
B. Infrared Film D. Non-Chromatic Film
54. It is the most commonly used film in investigative photography because it produces
the most natural recording of colors.
A. Orthochromatic Film C. Panchromatic Film
B. Non-Chromatic Film D. Infrared Film
55. This refers to the heart of a digital camera.
A. Film B. Sensor C. Lens D. Battery
56. It is that sensitized material that will record the visible image in the final development
and become the photograph.
A. Film C. Photographic Filter
B. Photographic Paper D. Sensor
57. In the chemical processing, this refers to the process necessary for reducing the silver
halides to form the image.
A. Development C. Fixation
B. Stop Bath D. Developer
58. In the development of the negative, what is the main developing agent being used?
A. Elon Hydroquinone C. D-76
B. Dektol D. Acetic Acid
59. Under the stages of development, this refers to the process by which all unexposed
silver halides are dissolved or removed from the emulsion surface making the image more
permanent.
A. Development C. Fixation
B. Stop Bath D. Developer
60. In the process of fixation, this is the commonly used fixing agent to make the image
in the film permanent.
A. Elon Hydroquinone C. D-76
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Acetic Acid
61. The development stage normally composed of water with a little amount of dilute
acetic acid that serves as a means to prevent contamination between the developer and
the acid fixer
A. Development C. Fixation
B. Stop Bath D. Developer
62. This refers to the gradual fading of the image towards the side through skillful
adjustment on the dodging board.
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Vignetting
63. A darkroom technique which refers to the process of eliminating unwanted portion
of the negative during enlarging.
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Vignetting
64. It refers to the addition of exposure on a desired portion of the negative used for
purposes of making a balance exposure
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Burning-in
65. The process of omitting an object during the process of enlarging and printing.
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Vignetting
66. It refers to the sensitivity of the film emulsion to light, which is measured and
expressed in a numerical rating called ISO, formerly known as ASA/DIN.
A. Film Speed C. Lens
B. Emulsion Layer D. Camera
66. It is the crime scene view which establishes or shows the general location and
condition or the overall view of the crime scene to include reference point.
A. Close-up View C. Birds’ Eye View
B. Midrange View D. General View
67. In the conduct of crime scene photography, what “crime scene view” is needed to
be taken first?
A. General View C. Midrange View
B. Close-up View D. Birds’ Eye View
68. A crime scene view which is utilized to facilitate identification or to show the extent
of damage or injury caused by the suspect.
A. Close-up View C. Birds’ Eye View
B. Midrange View D. General View
69. The requirement in crime scene photography wherein photographs taken must
show its purpose and photograph must for a set together related to the scene as a
whole.
A. Admissibility B. Clarity C. Consistency D. Scale
70. It is a requirement in crime scene photography that is applied to determine the
actual measurement/size of the object being photographed.
A. Admissibility B. Clarity C. Consistency D. Scale
71. If in the crime scene a street sign or the building name is not present to orient its
location, the following can be used as reference point to orient the viewer of its general
location, except:
A. Known Building C. Natural Feature in the Area
B. A Car Parked D. Streetlight Post

72. What is the reason why the entire exterior of the building should be photographed?
A. To establish location of the crime scene
B. To determine possible entrance and exits of perpetrators
C. To locate possible offenders
D. To show the appearance of the crime scene
73. Which of the following is a disadvantage of diagonal view in capturing an overall
exterior of a building?
A. The near side and the far side have the same perspective
B. The façade has a better view
C. Flash cannot light all areas equally
D. It can identify possible entrance and exit in the building
74. In capturing the overall exterior of a large building, what type of lens is best
applicable?
A. Fisheye Lens C. Normal Lens
B. Telephoto lens D. Wide Angle Lens
75. Once inside the crime scene room, take a complete set of “interior overall
photographs”. The phrase “interior overall photographs” means __________________.
A. All kinds of documentation C. All crime scene view of the room
B. The overall exterior view D. Full 360° view of the room
76. To eliminate shadow of objects when photographing a dim crime scene, what
should the photographer do?
A. Detach flash C. Use bounce flash technique
B. Use direct flash technique D. Add more light intensity to the flash
77. Which of the following would depict a fair and accurate relationship between the
distance of a subject and the reference point?
A. Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Parallel View
B. Linear Point of View D. Diagonal Point of View
78. It is a cardinal rule in crime scene photography whereby only the subject matter at
hand should be seen in the photograph. All other extraneous elements should be
excluded from the photo.
A. Use Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Maximize depth of field.
B. Fill the Frame D. Keep the film plane parallel
79. If the relationship of the evidence to a fixed feature of the scene is the only story that
should be told in a particular photograph, everything else that does not contribute to this
goal should be eliminated from the field of view. This pertains to the cardinal principle
which is to _________________.
A. Use Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Maximize depth of field.
B. Fill the Frame D. Keep the film plane parallel
80. In the documentation of wounds especially on the sensitive portion of the female
body, the foremost requirement before taking photographs is the _____________.
A. Wounds Sustained C. Victims’ Consent
B. Relation to the Suspect D. Skill in Photography
81. It is a lighting technique which uses normal copy lighting with one or more light
sources at a 45-degree angles.
A. Bounce Lighting C. Oblique Lighting
B. Direct Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting

83. It is a lighting technique in which an opaque material is placed between the light
source and the subject to diffuse the light. This usually results in even lighting with
reduced reflections and hot spots.
A. Bounce Lighting C. Oblique Lighting
B. Direct Lighting D. Diffused Lighting
84. It is a cardinal rule in photography, which means that the photographer must aligned
himself perpendicularly to subject being photographed.
A. Use Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Maximize depth of field.
B. Fill the Frame D. Keep the film plane parallel
85. Under the evidence close-up photography, it is a special technique that is commonly
uses a light source at a low angle, usually to show detail by creating shadows in the
subject surface. It is commonly used when photographing impressions, tool marks and
certain types of fingerprints.
A. Bounce Lighting C. Oblique Lighting
B. Direct Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
86. It is a lighting technique that is applied when the subject is transparent. The light
source is transmitted through the subject toward the lens.
A. Direct Lighting C. Bounce Lighting
B. Transmitted Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
87. It is an evidence close-up photography technique that is best applied and is
effective when photographing fingerprints on mirrors and into glasses or cups to
eliminate or minimize reflection.
A. Diffused Lighting C. Direct Reflective Lighting
B. Transmitted Lighting D. Front Directional or Axis Lighting
89. If during the investigation, there is a presence of soot in the surroundings of the
gunshot wound, this is in indication that _____________________.
A. The shot was fired 10 meters away from the victim
B. The shot was fired at a distance
C. The shot was fired in contact with the victim
D. None of the above.
90. In taking photographs of wounds and injuries sustained by live victims on the
sensitive portions of the body, what should be the considered?
A. Include in the photograph the face of the victim to facilitate identification
B. Include the fix features of the body to locate the injury
C. Only the injuries/wounds that are significant should be photographed
D. All of the above
91. It is the law which established the rules on electronic evidence in the Philippines. It
is also known as the E-Commerce Law.
A. RA 10175 C. RA 8792
B. RA 8551 D. RA 6539
92. In the rules of admissibility, evidence must have such a relation to the fact in issue
as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. This means that the evidence must
be ___________.
A. Competent C. Material
B. Relevant D. Accurate

93. An evidence is said to be ___________ when it is not excluded by the rules of court
or by the law.
A. Competent C. Material
B. Relevant D. Accurate

94. In the rules of admissibility, pictures must not emotionally influence the judge and
the witnesses as to the facts of the case. This means that photographs should be
________.
A. Competent C. Relevant
B. Non-Inflammatory D. Free from Distortion

95. In the rules of admissibility of evidence, the photograph should depict that a crime
was actually committed and what crime was committed.
A. Competent C. Material
B. Relevant D. Accurate

96. In the rules on electronic evidence, who has the burden of proving the authenticity
of the evidence to be presented?
A. The Judge of the Court C. The Prosecutor on Case
B. The Offended Party D. The Person Seeking to Introduce the Evidence
97. Under Philippine law, evidence is competent when it relates directly to the fact in
issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.
A. True C. Partly True
B. False D. Partly False

98. If the person who made the recording is not available during the presentation of the
electronic evidence, who may prove its authenticity?
A. The Judge of the Court C. The Witness
B. Other Persons Competent to Testify D. The Prosecutor of the case

99. The principal requirements to admit a photograph either digital or film-based into
evidence are:
A. Free of Distortion and Accuracy C. Relevance and Authentication
B. Material and Relevant D. Competency and Relevancy

100. In this method of proving authenticity, the affiant shall be made to affirm the
contents of the affidavit in open court and may be cross-examined as a matter of right
by the adverse party.
A. Cross-Examination of the Deponent C. Interview the Witnesses
B. Affidavit of Evidence D. Testimony of Witnesses
1. If the electronic evidence presents a faithful and clear representation of the
subject, it means that the evidence is ___________.
A. Competent C. Material and Relevant
B. Non-Inflammatory D. Free from Distortion and Accurate
2. Mr. X is seeking to introduce an evidence of a decomposed body in the court. He
was denied to introduce evidence because it is so smelly. This denotes that the
evidence is ___________.
A. Not Competent C. Irrelevant
B. Inflammatory D. Not Accurate

“Never Give Up.


Today is Hard, Tomorrow is Worse,
But the Day after Tomorrow is Sunshine.”

- Jack Ma
FORENSIC – 2 Qualifying Examination Review Questionnaire
Personal Identification Techniques
=====================================================
====
Multiple Choice
Instruction: Choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item.

1. What is the oldest form of physical evidence?


A. Hair C. Odontology
B. Fingerprint D. Blood
2. He published on his book, establishing the individuality and permanency of
fingerprint on 1892;
A. Juan Vucetich C. William Herschel
B. Francis Galton D. Charles Darwin
3. He first made the criminal fingerprint identification and able to identify a
women who had murdered her two sons and cut her own throat in or attempt to
place blame on another;
A. Henry Faulds C. Francis Galton
B. Marcelo Malpighi D. Juan Vucetich

4. It is the process of recording fingerprint impression through the use of


fingerprint ink;
A. Fingerprinting C. Fingering
B. Dactyloscopy D. Fingerprint

5. Gilbert Thompson use his own fingerprints on a document to prevent forgery


on _________ year;
A. 1882 B. 1872 C. 1886 D.
1856

6. A professor in Anatomy who noted in his treaties as ridges, spiral and loops
in fingerprint on 1686.
A. John Evangelist Purkinji C. Marcelo Malpighi
B. Henry Faulds D. Francis Galton
7. A Scottish physician who laid the ground work for scientific study of
fingerprints in criminology;
A. Henry Faulds C. Henry Fielding
B. Francis Galton D. Charles Darwin
8. Science of identification by means of pores is;
A. Chiroscopy C. Podoscopy
B. Poroscopy D. Dactyloscopy
9. Science of identification through friction ridge characteristics existing in sole
of the human foot is;
A. Dactyloscopy C. Podoscopy
B. Chiroscopy D. Poroscopy
10. In principle of constancy in fingerprint science it means that fingerprint is;
A. Fallible C. Not conclusive
B. Unchanging D. Not Possible for Forgery
11. Points often missed in rolling impression;
A. Core C. Ridge
B. Bifurcation D. Delta
12. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as a
means of identification;
A. Chiroscopy C. Dactyloscopy
B. Poroscopy D. Podoscopy
13. Fingerprinting is universally used as valuable method of identification due
to following reason, EXCEPT:
A. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy
B. Fingerprints are not changeable
C. There are no two identical fingerprints
D. Wounded or burned out pattern will re-appear
14. Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals in the world are
exactly the same size and that human skeleton does not change after 20 years”;
A. Mendel C. Bertillon
B. Darwin D Galton
15. It is the types of patterns, EXCEPT:
A. Ordinary C. Whorl
B. Arches D. Loop
16. In fingerprinting, the space between shoulders of a loop, free from any
appendage, and abutting in right angle;
A. Sufficient recurve C. Core
B. Complete curve D. Straight arrow
17. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what finger should be given a
value of 4 when a whorl pattern appears therein:
A. Left thumb and right thumb fingers
B. Right little and left thumb fingers
C. Right thumb and left little fingers
D. Left little and right thumb fingers
18. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening ridges
that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta;
A. Ridge tracing C. Ridge counting
B. Delta tracing D. All of these
19. It is the condition of the skin that is common in the bodies buried to the
ground;
A. Mummification C. Rigor Mortis
B. Putrefaction D. Maceration
20. The core and delta are also termed as:
A. Inner terminus C. outer ridge
B. Focal points D. Pattern area

21. How many ridge counts must a pattern have to be a loop?


A. 5 B. 2 C. 10 D. 1
22. A part of the whorl or loop where the sores, delta and ridges appears.
A. Type lime C. Bifurcation
B. Pattern area D. Furrow
23. If the number of intervening lines is below three then this would have been?
A. Inner tracing C. Outer tracing
B. Ring inner tracing D. Meeting tracing
24. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl hand, he has ______?
A. Extra hand C. Extra finger
B. Extra nails D. Extra hair
25. The core and delta are also termed as _______?
A. Inner terminus C. Outer terminus
B. Focal point D. Pattern area
26. The forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches is called ____?
A. Ridge B. Delta C. Island D.
Bifurcation
27. This is a canal-like impression or depression found between the ridges;
A. Friction skin C. Ridge surface
B. Ridges D. Furrows
28. This refers to the study of fingerprints for the purpose of identification;
A. Dactyloscopy C. Dactylography
B. Podoscopy D. Poroscopy
29. What is the science of palm print identification?
A. Chiroscopy C. Poroscopy
B. Podoscopy D. Astrology
30. A 32 over 32 would indicate all _____ patterns in primary classification;
A. Whorl B. Tented Arch C. Loop D. Radial
31. It is a means of identification by means of teeth structure;
A. Bertillon System C. Odontology
B. Hair D. Blood
32. William Herschel first used fingerprints on native contract on _________ year;
A. 1882 C. 1886
B. 1876 D. 1858
33. It is another means of identification through bodily measurement;
A. Hair C. Odontology
B. Blood D. Bertillon system
34. He had to record the fingerprints of the resident of Jungipoor, India to reduce
fraud;
A. Herschel B. Faulds C. Galton D.
Henry
35. He used his own fingerprints on his own document to prevent forgery;
A. Herschel B. Malpighi C. Thompson D.
Galton

36. In what place Alphonse Bertillon was born?


A. Paris B. France C. India D.
Nero
37. During whose time that teeth identification was already used;
A. Agrippina B. Nero’s time C. Herschel D.
Henry
38. What is the birth date of Alphonse Bertillon?
A. April 24, 1835 C. April 24, 1825
B. April 24, 1953 D. April 24, 1853
39. Who is the first person used teeth identification
A. Agrippino B. Vucetich C. Agrippina D.
Bertillon
40. What is the outer layer of hair
A. Cuticle B. Cortex C. Medulla D.
Thenar
41. It is taking of fingerprint of the deceased person.
A. Fingerprinting C. Putrefaction Fingerprinting
B. Rigor Mortis D. Post-Mortem Fingerprinting

42. This is the most widely used method for finding invisible blood;
A. Takayama test C. Luminol test
B. Kastle-Meyer Color test D. Teichmann test
43. It is a crystal test used for the confirmation of the presence of blood on
samples that screened positive with LMG.
A. Takayama test C. Luminol test
B. Kastle-Meyer Color test D. Blood examination
44. A German anthropologist who led the way in the study of friction ridge skin
permanence.
A. Marcelo Malpighi C. William Herschel
B. Hermann Welcker D. Gilbert Thompson
45. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin found
between ridges?
A. Pores B. Indentions C. Furrows D. Duct
46. What are those that are sometimes referred to as papillary or epidermal
ridges?
A. Latent print C. Dermal ridges
B. Friction ridges D. Fingerprints
47. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impressions?
A. both little fingers C. both thumb fingers
B. all fingers except thumb D. both index fingers
48. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or slanting ridges flows
towards the little finger?
A. Loop B. Ulnar loop C. Radial loop D. Tented
arch
49. What types of a pattern possesses an angle, an up-thrust, or two or three
basic characteristics of the loop?
A. Plain arch C. Tented arch
B. Accidental whorl D. Ulnar loop
50. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how
it is counted?
A. One B. Three C. Two D. Six
51. He first used fingerprints on native contracts in Hoogly district in Jungipoor,
India.
A. John Evangelist Purkinje C. Dr. Henry Faulds
B. Marcelo Malpighi D. Sir William Herschel
52. It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be carried from womb to tomb.
What principle greatly described the phrase?
A. principle of individuality C. principle of permanency
B. principle of infallibility D. all of these
53. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the
science of fingerprint?
A. People Vs. Medina C. People Vs. Jennings
B. Miranda Vs. Arizona D. West Case
54. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its infants stage which
usually starts:
A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life;
B. 3rd to 5th months after birth;
C. 5th to 6th month of the fetus life; and
D. 5th to 6th months after birth.
55. The following are considerations used for the identification of a loop except
one:
A. a ridges forming circuit C. a delta and core
B. a sufficient recurve D. a ridge count across a looping
ridge
56. What is the rule when there is a choice between a bifurcation and other type
of delta found in the fingerprint?
A. Bifurcation is selected C. The other type of delta is selected
B. Bifurcation is disregarded D. The one towards the core is
selected
57. Which of the following is not true about the value or the importance of
fingerprinting?
A. Serve to provide evidence.
B. Prevent criminal substitutions.
C. Help identify victims of calamities like crime.
D. Speedily identifying the perpetrator.
58. It is placed just to the right of primary in the classification formula.
A. Sub-secondary classification C. Major division
B. Secondary classification D. Final classification
59. What type of pattern is that which could be found on the lower box of the
fingerprint card having a delta and core with a recurving ridge flowing towards
the no. 6 finger?
A. Ulnar loop B. Radial loop C. Loop D. Arches
60. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type lines where the
characteristics needed for interpretation/classification is found?
A. Loops B. Double lines C. Ridges D. Pattern
area
61. Who wrote that if points were same between two fingerprints, it would suffice
as a positive identification?
A. Gilbert Thompson C. Edward Richard Henry
B. Agripino Ruiz D. Edmond Locard
62. A German doctor and anatomist, who contributed for the recognition of
principle of fingerprint, that fingerprint pattern or design may be similar, they
are never duplicated.
A. Edmond Locard C. Johann Cristoph Andreas
B. William Herschel D. Edward Richard Henry
63. Who was the Constabulary agent and fingerprint expert, who successfully
depended his finding base on 10 points of comparison?
A. Agripino Ruiz C. Juan Vucetich
B. Agrippina Ruiz D. Francis Galton
64. Known as the Father of Ridgeology?
A. Sir Francis Galton C. Sir Edward Richard Henry
B. Sir William Herschel D. Dr. Locard

65. Following are types of Delta, EXCEPT;


A. Dot C. Abrupt ending ridge
B. Bifurcation D. Rod
66. It is the meeting of two or more ridges at a certain point;
A. Convergence C. Divergence
B. Incipient Ridge D. Bifurcation
67. The ending ridge possessing a single pore is __________;
A. Dot C. Enclosure
B. Eyelet D. Ending Ridge
68. The spreading apart of two lines which have been running parallel or nearby
parallel is ________________;
A. Convergence C. Divergence
B. Type Line D. Pattern Area
69. The following are types of delta, EXCEPT:
A. Bar B. Dot C. Bifurcation D. Abrupt ending
ridge
70. This is a type of core;
A. Dot B. Convergence C. Staple D.
Bifurcation
71. A ridge of limited length with two or more pores is __________;
A. Short Ridge B. Rod C. Ending Ridge D.
Ridge
72. The terminus of a short and long ridge is _____________;
A. Short Ridge B. Rod C. Ending Ridge D.
Ridge
73. What is the ending ridge inside a looping ridge?
A. Ridge B. Short Ridge C. Rod D. Ending
Ridge
74. In ridge tracing, when the imaginary line passes inward or above the right
delta and there are 3 or more intervening ridges, tracing is designated as
____________?
A. Meeting B. Inner C. Outer D.
Large
75. Which of the following best describes a loop pattern?
A. presence of 1 sufficient recurving ridge
B. has a bifurcation as the delta
C. 1 core at the point of the divergence
D. all of these
76. All BUT one, are the elements of a whorl pattern?
A. Usually possessing a circular formation at the center
B. Several patterns may be present
C. It may bear 2 or more deltas
D. none of these
77. The right and left little fingers are used exclusively for the final classification.
However, they are also considered in what classification?
A. Primary B. Secondary C. Sub-secondary D.
Final
78. These are tiny portions or a hill-like structure found on the epidermis of
friction skin containing sweat, with pores appearing as black likes in a
fingerprint impression.
A. Imaginary lines B. Furrows C. Black lines D.
Ridges
79. The principle in fingerprint study that states that fingerprint cannot be
forged. Fingerprint is a reliable and a positive means of identification.
A. principle of infallibility C. principle of permanency
B. principle of individuality D. principle of constancy
80. The following are the requisites of a loop, EXCEPT ONE:
A. It must have a core C. It must have a complete circuit
B. It must have a delta D. It must have a ridge count of at least one
81. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening ridges
that touch or cross an imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta.
A. Ridge counting C. Ridge tracing
B. Delta tracing D. All of these
82. Who is that Geologist in New Mexico who adopted the first individual use of
fingerprint on August 8, 1882 by using his own thumb prints as protection to
prevent tampering with the pay order he issued?
A. Alberto Reyes C. Samuel Clemens
B. Gilbert Thompson D. Henry De Forrest
83. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket loop whorl in the little finger
it is derived by:
A. Treating it as ulnar loop C. Getting the ridge count of the top
loop
B. Getting the least ridge count D. Getting the delta opposite each
hand
84. The Chief Magistrate of the Hooghly District in India, first used fingerprints
on contracts with the natives. He is also known as father of Chiroscopy.
A. JCA Myer C. John Evangelist Purkinji
B. Herman Welcker D. Sir William James Herschel
85. Who discovered the two main layer of the friction skin (Epidermis and
Dermis) and to whom one of the thin layer of the friction skin was named.
A. Hermann Welcker C. Marcelo Malpighi
B. Nehemian Grews D. Dr. Henry Faulds
86. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impressions are held to be:
A. Plain whorl on meeting
B. Dependents on ridges tracing
C. Loops
D. Dependents on the classification of the print of the finger.
87. A person committing a crime would always leave something behind and may
be considered as an integral part in the identification of the suspect especially if
it is a “Latent Print”. This prints are made through the:
A. Ridge of the skin C. Furrows of the skin
B. Ridge formation D. Perspiration on top of the finger
88. Fingerprints help to positively identify people because of the principle that:
A. its pattern reveals racial origin
B. they are available in most places
C. no two persons have identical fingerprints
D. it can be lifted at the crime scene
89. What type of pattern consists of two deltas, one or more ridge forming a
complete circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right
delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common
type of whorl?
A. Plain whorl C. Central pocket loop whorl
B. Double loop whorl D. Accidental whorl
90. What fingerprint pattern have slope or downward flow of the innermost
sufficient recurve towards the thumb of the radius bone of the hand of origin.
A. Ulnar loop C. Tented arch
B. Accidental whorl D. Radial loop
91. Who is that fingerprint pioneer who introduced the fingerprint classifications
that dominated in almost all English speaking countries of the world?
A. Sir Francis Galton C. Professor Johannse E. Purkinji
B. Sir Edward Richard Henry D. Dr. Henry Faulds
92. Symbolized by letter W in the fingerprint classification, this fingerprint
pattern have two deltas in which at least one ridge makes a turn through one
complete circuit.
A. Plain whorl C. Central pocket loop whorl
B. Accidental whorl D. Ulnar loop
93. Who is that anthropologist who published a study of fingerprint science that
included the system of classification to facilitate the collected fingerprints?
A. Nehemia Grew C. Johannes Purkinji
B. Francis Galton D. Marcelo Malpighi
94. The illegitimate mother of the two murdered children whom she was accused
because of the latent prints that has been found on the scene of the crime. Who
is that person, in which without his participation the case will not be solve?
A. Francisca Rojas C. Francis Galton
B. Juan Vucetich D. Edward Henry
95. Fingerprint Identification is now one of the most indispensable tools of
investigation because of its use in identifying the perpetrators. Classifying the
person’s fingerprints is a work of the art of:
A. Edward B. Richard C. Galton D. Henry
96. The ridges of the skin is part of the dermal surface that is why sometimes it
is called as the dermal ridges and it will not be forged. The statements best
drescribes:
A. principle of individuality C. principle of permanency
B. principle of infallibility D. principle of unchanging
97. Which of the following is true about fingerprinting?
A. methods of identification
B. can be found on the terminal part of the hand
C. cannot be distinguished
D. carried from birth to grave
98. Which of the following is not true about accidental whorl?
A. Two deltas are present
B. Two loop patterns are present having separate shoulders
C. Combination of two whorls and a loop
D. May possess two or more types of pattern except plain arch
99. It is very center point of the pattern area and one of the very important focal
points of a pattern especially for loops. What is the core of the pattern having a
terminal point?
A. Core B. Delta C. Ridge end D. Short
ridge
100. A delta may be any of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Bifurcation which is not opening towards the core;
B. Dot or fragmentary as thick as the other ridges;
C. A point of a first recurving ridge located nearest to the center and in
front of
the divergence of the type lines;
D. A meeting of two ridges
101. Condition before fragments and dots are counted.
A. they must be touched or cut by the imaginary line
B. they must be as thick and heavy as other ridges
C. they must be in the line of flow
D. they must be found inside the pattern area
102. If an appendage is present between the shoulders of a loop (innermost
recurve), the one being considered for purpose of locating the core is;
A. next loop outside with no appendage at right angle
B. next loop inside
C. the same loop even with an appendage
D. next loop outside with appendage at right angle.
103. In ridge tracing, the reference is on;
A. upper side or point of the extreme right delta
B. lower side or point of the extreme left delta
C. upper side or point of the moderate left delta
D. upper side or point of the moderate right delta.
104. In the classification line, the order should be:
A. Primary, secondary, sub-secondary, final, major and key
B. Major, key, primary. Secondary, sub-secondary, final
C. Primary, secondary, sub-secondary, major, final, and key
D. Key, major, primary, secondary, sub-secondary, final
105. A pattern possessing most of the elemental characteristics of a whorl but
became so special because of its unique combination of two distinct loops. The
statement is referring to what type of pattern?
A. Plain whorl C. Accidental whorl
B. Central pocket loop whorl D. Double loop whorl
106. It is obtained by counting the ridges of the first loop appearing on the
fingerprint card (beginning with the right thumb), exclusive of the little fingers
which are never considered for the key as they are reserved for the final.
A. Primary B. Final C. Key D.
Major
107. On the night of August 2, 2020, a certain burglary happened on the store
of a Japanese Merchant. On the scene of the crime, laying the dead body of the
victim stained by his own blood and the presence of several evidences found
including the fingerprints of the three unidentified persons. If you are one of
those three persons whose fingerprints were found on the scene of the crime.
What will be the basis of the investigators in case they will hold you as one of
the responsible regarding the commission of the crime?
A. principle of individuality C. principle of permanency
B. principle of infallibility D. principle of constancy
108. Before the arrival of DNA test, personal identification through fingerprint is
most widely used around the county and around the world in positively
identifying person especially if the subject us beyond recognition. The reason
behind this lied on the principle that:
A. Its pattern reveals racial origin
B. They are available in most places
C. It can be lifted at the crime scene
D. No two persons have identical fingerprints
109. It is the ridge count of the loop in the little fingers is ______ classification.
A. Major B. Key C. Final D.
Secondary
110. The following are consideration used for the identification of a loop except
one;
A. Ridge forming circuit C. A ridge count across a looping
ridge
B. Delta and core D. A sufficient recurve
111. The process of recording fingerprint through the use of fingerprint ink;
A. Fingerprinting C. Printing press
B. Pathology D. Dactyloscopy
112. The fingerprint method of identification;
A. Fingerprinting C. Printing press
B. Pathology D. Dactyloscopy
113. The minimum identical characteristics to justify the identity between two
prints;
A. Fifteen (15) C. Nine (9)
B. Eighteen (18) D. Twelve (12)
114. It is the condition of the skin that is noted in bodies immersed longer on
water;
A. Maceration C. Putrefaction
B. Mummification D. Rigor Mortis
115. It is noted in the bodies found in the open, dry protected place or bodies
subjected to severe heat;
A. Rigor Mortis C. Mummification
B. Maceration D. Putrefaction
116. Those made by fingers smeared with colored substance, can be seen by
naked eye without being developed;
A. Latent print C. Visible latent print
B. Invisible latent print D. Semi-visible latent print
117. Rigor Mortis is set-in when muscles become ________.
A. Soft B. Stiff C. Soaked D.
Dried
118. Most common type of change impression; print cannot be seen by the naked
eye;
A. Semi-visible latent print C. latent print
B. Visible latent print D. Invisible latent print
119. Latin word of finger;
A. Dermal B. Dermis C. Dactyl D.
Digitus
120. What are the little openings on the skin from where sweat is excreted?
A. Whorl B. Ridges C. Loops D.
Pores
121. It is taking of fingerprint of the deceased person.
A. Fingerprinting C. Putrefaction Fingerprinting
B. Post-Mortem Fingerprinting D. Rigor Mortis Fingerprinting
122. A ridge that curves back in the same direction from where it entered.
A. Recurving ridge C. Convergence
B. Shoulder of the loop D. Sufficient recurve
123. They are prints made in plastic materials;
A. Invisible latent print C. Latent print
B. Visible latent print D. Semi-visible latent print
124. It is the thorough study of the palms of the human hand as a point in
identifying persons;
A. Podoscopy B. Chiroscopy C. Dactyloscopy D.
Poroscopy
125. A term coined by Wilder and Wenworth which refers to the examination of
the soles and their significance in personal identification;
A. Podoscopy B. Chiroscopy C. Dactyloscopy D.
Poroscopy
126. In taking the fingerprint, it is a must to instruct the subject to;
A. Relax the fingers C. Exert pressure on the inking process
B. Stiffen the fingers D. Wash both hands before taking the prints
127. To determine whether a loop is a radial or ulnar, it is important that we
should know what _____ the fingerprint pattern came from.
A. Finger B. Person C. Pattern D.
Hand
128. Minimum identical characteristics detail to justify the identity between two
prints in the Philippines;
A. 8 B. 12 C. 10 D. 16
129. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and
composition of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Fingerprint C. Explosive
B. Blood D. Body fluids
130. A Dogmatic Principle which postulates that the fingerprint cannot be forged.
A. Principle of individuality C. Principle of
constancy/permanency
B. Principle of infallibility D. All of these
131. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around
core axes;
A. Plain whorl C. Double loop whorl
B. Radial loop whorl D. Accidental whorl
132. A kind of fingerprint which is found on soft and sticky objects as wax and
tape?
A. Visible print C. Semi-visible print
B. Invisible print D. All of these
133. Fingerprints left on various surfaces at the crime scene which are not clearly
visible are refers to as:
A. Plane impressions C. Visible impressions
B. Rolled impressions D. Latent fingerprints

134. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the
combination?
A. Ulnar loop C. Plain whorl
B. Tented arch D. Plain arch
135. In the distribution of percentage in the fingerprint pattern, 35% is being
represented by what group?
A. Loop B. Arch C. Whorl D. Radial
loop
136. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called pores) in an inked
finger impression?
A. Sweat pores B. Ridges C. Furrows D. Sweat
duct
137. It refers to all fingerprints left at the crime scene including those left
accidentally or unconsciously;
A. Chance impressions C. Latent prints
B. Smudge prints D. Fragmentary prints

138. The innermost ridges run parallel and surrounded to the pattern area are
known as ______ ?
A. Type lines C. Criss-crossing ridges
B. Long ridges D. Rideology

139. What fingers are disregarded in key classification?


A. Index B. Thumb C. Little D. Ring

140. What is the major classification of right thumb with a ridge count of 20,
and the left thumb has a ridge count of 16.
A. Medium B. Outer C. Small D. Large
FORENSIC - 3
Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology
Qualifying Examination Review Questionnaire
=====================================================
====
Multiple Choice
Instruction: Choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item.

1. Branch of chemistry that deals with the application of chemical theories and
principles in the solution of legal problems in relation to the administration of
justice.
A. Forensic Chemistry C. Chemistry
B. Forensic D. Forensic Science
2. Dealing with the application of scientific knowledge to legal problems and legal
proceedings.
A. Chemistry C. Forensic Science
B. Forensic Chemistry D. Forensic
3. The first reliable analysis that scientifically demonstrated the presence of
arsenic in the body of a victim.
A. Marsh Test C. Blandy Test
B. Locard Test D. Arsenic Test
4. A French criminologist, the pioneer in forensic science who became known as
the "Sherlock Holmes of France".
A. Mathieu Joseph Bonaventure Orfila C. Edmond Locard
B. Mathew Joseph Bonaventure Carmilla D. Francis Galton
5. Who is the father of modern toxicology?
A. Mathieu Joseph Bonaventure Orfila C. Francis Galton
B. Mathew Joseph Bonaventure Carmilla D. Edmond Locard
6. The following are the characteristics of a forensic chemist, EXCEPT:
A. Possess moral integrity
B. Clearly and concisely answers challenges to his findings
C. Be able to spend hours rigorously applying analytical techniques to
evidence
D. Collection and reception of the specimen
7. A Belgian chemist, conducted studies to detect certain types of vegetable
poisons in the body.
A. Christian Friedrich Schonbein C. Izaak van Deen
B. Jean Servais Stas D. Francis Galton
8. The first book devoted exclusively to toxicology.
A. Treatise on Poisons
B. Elements of Medical Chemistry
C. Research on Poisoning by Arsenians Acid
D. Treatise on Legal Exhumations
9. Who discovered the first reliable method for identifying human blood?
A. Christian Friedrich Schonbein C. Izaak van Deen
B. Jean Servais Stas D. Francis Galton
10. Refers to any material object introduced in a trial for the purpose of proving
a fact in issue based on its demonstrable physical characteristics.
A. Physical Evidence C. Trace Evidence
B. Chain of Custody D. Marked Evidence
11. Refers to microscopic materials found at a crime scene, such as hair, blood,
glass particles, foot/tire impression, fiber, or paint, to name a few.
A. Physical Evidence C. Trace Evidence
B. Circumstantial Evidence D. Marked Evidence
12. Types of physical evidence that referred to characteristics of firearms,
ammunitions, and residue; chemical composition of explosives, etc.
A. Weapons B. Firearms C. Armament D.
Ammunition
13. Types of physical evidence that referred to printing method or paper and ink
used in forged documents, handwriting style, counterfeit bills, ransom notes,
etc.
A. Questioned document C. Disputed document
B. Document D. Miscellaneous document
14. Evidence containing moisture should not be packed in plastic or paper
containers for a period exceeding ____ hours.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
15. Refers to a written record of all the individuals who maintained unbroken
control over certain items of evidence collected from a crime scene.
A. Evidence custody C. Questioned document
B. Chain of custody D. Disputed document
16. If any type of physical evidence is found and subsequently associated with a
suspect where he or she had no right to be, then upon proper identification, the
evidence may:
A. establish proof beyond reasonable doubt C. have no significance
B. establish the case via other source D. provides leads to
follow
17. If the physical evidence is found for a period during which a suspect may
have had legitimate right to be then the evidence may:
A. have no significance
B. establish proof beyond reasonable proof
C. establish probable cause
D. establish a suspect's presence at the crime scene
18. Any synthetic or natural substance that is used to produce psychological
effects in humans; it can also play a central role in the daily lives of many people
regardless of whatever it is used legitimately or illegitimately.
A. Dangerous drug B. Medicine C. Drug D. Illegal
drug
19. It is known through the following street names: “lid poppers,” “eye openers,”
“pep pills,” “uppers,” and “hearts.”
A. Cocaine C. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Caffeine D. Amphetamine
20. Locally known as shabu.
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride C. Methylamphetamine
Oxychloride
B. Phenethylamine Hydrochloride D. Phenethylamine
Oxychloride
21. Any act of giving away, selling or distributing medicine or any dangerous
drug with or without the use of prescription.
A. Deliver B. Cultivate C. Manufacture D. Dispense
22. The investigative technique of allowing an awful or suspect consignment of
any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical,
equipment or paraphernalia, or property believed to be derived directly or
indirectly from any offense.
A. Controlled Delivery C. Cultivate or Culture
B. Drug Syndicate D. Dispense
23. This refers to a generalized feeling that all is well and good with the world.
People on MDMA often describe being "at peace" or experiencing a generalized
"happy" feeling.
A. Entactogenesis C. Empathogenesis
B. An enhancement of senses D. Phenethylamine
24. An analytical test using a device, tool or equipment with a different chemical
or physical principle that is more specific which will validate and confirm the
result of the screening test.
A. Screening test C. Confirmatory test
B. Drug test D. Chemi-toxicological test
25. Any act of introducing any dangerous drug into the body of any person, with
or without his/her knowledge, by injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means,
or of committing any act of indispensable assistance to a person in administering
a dangerous drug to himself/herself unless administered by a duly licensed
practitioner for purposes of medication.
A. Administer B. Cultivate C. Dispense D.
Deliver
26. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful acts
provided for in this Act and uses his/her influence, power or position in
shielding, harboring, screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she
knows, or has reasonable grounds to believe on or suspects, has violated the
provisions of this Act in order to prevent the arrest, prosecution and conviction
of the violator.
A. Financier C. Employee of Den, Dive or
Resort
B. Practitioner D. Protector/Coddler
27. Any person who is licensed physician, dentist, chemist, medical technologist,
nurse, midwife, veterinarian or pharmacist in the Philippines.
A. Financier C. Employee of Den, Dive or
Resort
B. Practitioner D. Protector/Coddler
28. Also called diacetylmorphine, a semi-synthetic opioid, which is the 3,6-
diacetyl derivative of morphine, commonly synthesize by acetylation.
A. Heroin B. Codeine C. Hydromorphone D. Opium
Poppy
29. Street name for _____ are "peace pill," and "angel's dust".
A. Phencyclidine B. Phenethylamine C. Ecstasy D.
Mescaline
30. The common street names of __________ include "Smack," "Dillies," "D,"
"Dust," "Juice," and "footballs."
A. Hydromorphone B. Morphine C. Codeine D. Heroin
31. This is a feeling of emotional closeness to others accompanied by a
breakdown of communication barriers. Due to this effect, the MDMA is known
as a "hug drug," that is, the increased emotional closeness makes personal
contact quite common and very rewarding.
A. Entactogenesis C. Empathogenesis
B. An enhancement of senses D. Phenethylamine
32. Refers to the process of identifying and quantifying specimens of illegal
drugs.
A. Forensic Drug Test C. Forensic Drug Analysis
B. Qualitative Drug Analysis D. Quantitative Drug Analysis
33. Refers to a substance containing a large amount of stored energy, which is
capable of undergoing a rapid chemical reaction.
A. Explosives B. Detonation C. Bomb D.
Combustion
34. In several bombing incidents, it is commonly used explosive device. Its
popularity could be due to the ubiquity of materials for its production and its
low cost without compromising its effectiveness as a bomb.
A. Incendiary Explosive Device C. Explosively Formed
Penetrator
B. Trinitrotoluene D. Blasting caps
35. _________ are reactive substances containing great amount of potential
energy that if released suddenly can produce an explosion, usually accompanied
by the production of light, sound, heat, and pressure.
A. Chemical reaction B. Explosives C. Detonation D.
Blast
36. They invented the first chemical explosive called gunpowder.
A. Chinese B. Europeans C. Japanese D. Germans
37. According to the explosive's sensitivity, it is the sensitive materials that can
be exploded by a smaller amount of pressure or heat.
A. Primary explosives C. Secondary explosives
B. Low explosives D. High explosives
38. These are mixtures of chemicals that burn very rapidly, but subsonically (as
opposed to supersonically), meaning that they “deflagrate.” They consist typically
of fuel and an oxidizer. The black powder used in fireworks is one example of a
__________.
A. Primary explosives C. Secondary explosives
B. Low explosives D. High explosives
39. It detonates instantaneously, burn more rapidly, and create more pressure.
It involves the combination of a metal with chlorine, which releases excess
energy.
A. Primary explosives C. Secondary explosives
B. Low explosives D. High explosives
40. The following are some of the contents of dynamite: EXCEPT
A. Nitroglycerine C. Ethylene Glycol Dinitrate
B. Ammonia-Gelatin D. Cyclonite

41. Its NG content makes it the most dangerous type of dynamite to handle and
store. It produces toxic fumes that make them unsuitable for underground or
confined space blasting. Has a velocity of 17,000 psi.
A. Straight Dynamite C. Ammonia-Gelatin Dynamite
B. Gelatin Dynamite D. Ammonia Dynamite
42. A hollow projectile with a generally spherical shape, containing an explosive
material and is made of iron. It is fired by concussion or by time fuse.
A. Bomb B. IED C. Blasting cap D.
Explosion
43. Refers to the rapid combustion and decomposition of gases with consequent
violent increase of pressure that often causes a load report.
A. Bomb B. IED C. Blasting cap D.
Explosion
44. Refers to a violent explosion resulting from the practically instantaneous
combustion or decomposition of unstable compounds.
A. Detonation B. Blast C. Explosion D.
Bomb
45. Test that tells you what particular substance (analyte) is present in the
specimen.
A. Qualitative Analysis C. Quantitative Analysis
B. Drug Specimen Analysis D. Analysis of Drugs
46. In this test, a specific reagent or series of reagents is used for a presumptive
test. Color reaction is expected to occur in order to determine the presence of a
dangerous drug.
A. Reagent Test C. Chemical Test
B. Simon's Test D. Physical Test
47. A method to measure how much a chemical substance absorbs light by
measuring the intensity of light as a beam of light passes through sample
solution. The basic principle is that each compound absorbs or transmits light
over a certain range of wavelength.
A. Thin Layer Chromatography C.
Spectrophotometry
B. Gas Chromatography Mass Spectrophotometry D. Confirmatory
Test
48. This type of test requires the comparison of RF (retention in time values)
between the specimen in question and the standard.
A. Thin Layer Chromatography C. Confirmatory
Test
B. Gas Chromatography Mass Spectrophotometry D.
Spectrophotometry
49. A complete laboratory report should be able to indicate all the necessary
information, which includes the following: EXCEPT
A. the time and date at which the specimen was received by the authorized
personnel.
B. the effects and metabolism of drugs
C. the name and signature of the examiner and the approving officer
D. the findings and conclusion
50. This is done by adding water into the urine sample so that minimum required
quantity sample can be achieved. It reduces the concentration of normal
constituent.
A. Dilution B. Substitution C. Adulteration D.
Absorption

51. The used paraffin to collect and examine gunpowder residues from
discharged firearms.
A. Dr. Gonzales Itorrios C. Dr. Gonzalo Iturrios
B. Dr. Gonzaga Toni D. Dr. Gon Freecss
52. Why it is important to perform paraffin casting within said period?
A. Nitrates from pores cannot be removed by washing of the skin and stays
on the hands for 48 hours.
B. Nitrates from pores cannot be removed by washing of the skin and stays
on the hands for 72 hours.
C. Nitrates from pores can be removed by washing of the skin and stays
on the hands for 72 hours.
D. Nitrates from pores can be removed by washing of the skin and stays
on the hands for 48 hours.
53. This refers to the use of access to the nuclear reactor and facilitates to
determine radiation.
A. Gunshot Range Test C. Gunpowder Residue Test
B. Neutron Activation Analysis D. Paraffin-Diphenylamine
Test
54. Mainly composed of burned and unburned particles from the propellant, the
explosive primer, the components from the bullet, as well as the cartridge case
and the firearm used.
A. Smokeless powder C. Gunshot residue
B. Gun propellant D. Black powder
55. Type of discoloration which occurs when the gun is held at about 2 inches
to a maximum of 8 inches away from the target.
A. Tattooing B. Smudging C. Abrasion D. Singeing
56. Refers to the science of detecting and identifying the presence of drugs and
poisons in the tissues, organs, and body fluids.
A. Evidence Analysis C. Toxicology
B. Serology D. DNA Analysis
57. Are strong acids and bases that can destroy the tissues that they come in
contact to (e.g., HCL, NaOH)
A. Irritants B. Vibranium C. Corrosive D.
Neurotics
58. Classification of Poisoning based on chemical properties that these poisons
that can be detected through qualitative methods of examination for the presence
of anions.
A. Metallic B. Volatile Poisons C. Anions D. True
poison
59. Types of poisoning which refers to exposure to poison and produces
immediate or instant death.
A. Chronic poisoning C. Acute poisoning
B. Volatile poisoning D. Corrosive poisoning
60. A branch of science that deals with the determination of the type and
characteristics of blood, blood testing, and the examination of bloodstain, semen,
saliva and other body fluids that may or may not be involved with DNA typing.
A. Toxicology B. Serology C. Chemistry D. Analogy
61. Blood can be used as _____ in identifying the perpetrator of a crime.
A. Circumstantial evidence C. Corroborative evidence
B. Either A or C D. Neither A or C
62. Refers to the examination of the shapes and the distribution patterns and
locations of bloodstains, which can provide an interpretation of the physical
events that gave rise to their origin.
A. Bloodstain Pattern Analysis C. Basic Metabolic Panel
B. Phenolphthalein Test D. Luminol Test
63. The classification of human blood based on the inherited properties of red
blood cells (erythrocytes) as determined by the presence or absence of the
antigens A and B, which are carried on the surface of the red cells.
A. ABO blood group system C. Rh system
B. Blood patterns D. Serology
64. Blood type AB+ _________.
A. Can give blood to AB-, A and B C. Can receive blood from all blood
types
B. Can give blood to O+ and O- D. Cannot receive blood from AB-, A
and B
65. Which statement is correct?
A. A child with type O blood could have parents with type A, type B, or
type O blood (but not with type AB).
B. If two parents both have type O blood, all their children will have type
O blood.
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A or B
66. Refers to the body fluid produced by the male sex organ, usually amounting
to 2.5 to 6.0ml per ejaculation.
A. Sperm B. Semen C. Cell D. Prostate
fluid
67. A male reproductive cell that contains an oval-shaped head with a long tail.
A. Sperm B. Semen C. Cell D. Prostate
fluid
68. A condition where there is no sperm in seminal fluid, which is due to a
vasectomy.
A. Aspermia B. STD C. HIV/aids D. Endometriosis
69. A molecule that contains all the genetic information used in the development
and functioning of all known viruses and living organisms.
A. Cell B. Genes C. DNA D. Chromosomes
70. DNA is organized into long structures called _____. A threadlike structure of
nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying
genetic information in the form of genes.
A. Cell B. Chromosomes C. Cytosine D. Genes
71. Blood consists of 4 elements, EXCEPT
A. Red blood cells C. White blood cells
B. Platelets D. Hemoglobin

72. Consists of a mixture of silica (natural sand) and two or more acids and
bases. It may contain other elements and metals, which are added for color, heat
resistance, hardness, and other desired properties.
A. Fragment B. Glass C. Mirror D. Projectile
73. Investigators can determine whether a glass fragment originated from a
particular kind of glass object, such as a spectacle lens, headlight lens, or a
window pane.
A. True
B. False
C. True, because strength of the glass does not depend on its surface
D. Depends
74. Types of glass fracture that resembles the spoke of a wheel, in which the
radiating rod originates at a common point.
A. Primary fracture C. Secondary fracture
B. Standard fracture D. Concentric fracture
75. Is conducted based on the fact that mineral constituents imbue a distinctive
type and degree of fluorescence to the glass that originate from one molten batch.
A. Fluorescence examination C. Spectrographic examination
B. Refractive Index D. Density Analysis
76. It is based on the relative densities of two or more pieces of glass.
A. Fluorescence examination C. Spectrographic examination
B. Refractive Index D. Density Analysis
77. Refers to the application of a chemical solution on a metal surface and
observing any reaction that may take place.
A. Macro-etching C. Chemical reaction
B. Obliteration D. Concavity
78. The science of investigating projectile motion is known as ________.
A. Trajectory C. Bullet Trajectory
B. Ballistics D. Firing
79. Refers to the path of flight it follows from firing up to reaching its target.
A. Trajectory C. Bullet Trajectory
B. Ballistics D. Firing
80. Select the best answer: When a bullet strikes an object, such as piece of
clothing…
A. The investigators must reproduce the pattern by firing the weapon.
B. A bullet entrance/exit hole is created.
C. May determine whether a fatal shooting was homicide or suicide.
D. Firearm examiners are summoned to examine the victim’s clothing.
81. Select the best answer: When the body offers no evidence of the bullet’s
entrance and exit paths, …
A. The investigators must reproduce the pattern by firing the weapon.
B. A bullet entrance/exit hole is created.
C. May determine whether a fatal shooting was homicide or suicide.
D. Firearm examiners are summoned to examine the victim’s clothing.

82. Factors to determine in examining glass fracture, EXCEPT.


A. Point of impact C. Cob-web appearance
B. Age of fracture D. Cause of fracture
83. Soil recovered from clothes, shoes, and automobiles can be analyzed in order
to ____.
A. determine the identity of the suspect.
B. determine if a suspect was or was not in a particular location.
C. compare the sizes and shapes of particles using reflected light
microscopes.
D. produce patterns that indicate the crystal structure of minerals in the
soil.
84. _________refers to the branch of geology dealing with the systematic
classification and identification of rock forming minerals, rocks, and soils.
A. Petrography C. Mineralogy
B. Petrography Analysis D. Minerology Analysis
85. Are impressions or marks produced by a tool or instrument on a receptive
surface.
A. Abrasion B. Signature C. Toolmarks D.
Indentation
86. Kind of characteristics of toolmarks that include its general shape, the type
of impression, and its general dimensions. It allows the examiner to identify
what type of tool created the impression and how the mark was created.
A. Individual B. Class C. Slipped D. Molded
87. Refers to the method of extracting an impression using a cast-like plaster of
parts inside a mold to recover the pattern for laboratory analysis.
A. Casting and molding C. Toolmark examination
B. Classification of impression D. Tire impression
88. Refers to the impression left by tires on the surface onto which vehicle drove.
A. Vehicle impression C. Tire trace
B. Tire tracks D. Vehicle trace
89. Refers to slender, threadlike outgrowths of the epidermis, which forms a
distinct type of body covering in mammals
A. Fur B. Bristles C. Wool D.
Hair
90. The central canal of the hair shaft; may be continuous, fragmented,
interrupted or absent.
A. Cuticle B. Medulla C. Cortex D.
Bulb
91. The smallest single unit that forms the basis of a textile yarn.
A. Fiber B. Textile C. Leather D.
Clothing
92. Defined by the law as the intentional act of setting fires to buildings and
properties.
A. Arson B. Fire C. Pyromania D. Burning
93. The product of continuous combustion of energy-containing compounds
combined with oxygen.
A. Arson B. Fire C. Pyromania D. Burning

94. The triangle of fire includes 3 components, EXCEPT


A. Heat B. Fuel C. Gas D. Oxygen
95. Refers to a mixture of dyes and pigments, either in liquid or paste form. This
is used to color a surface in order to produce an image, text or design.
A. Paint B. Ink C. Liquid D. Hue
96. Method of crime scene search where a combination of the strip search and
is beneficial in large crime scenes, particularly outdoor scenes.
A. Line search C. Grid search
B. Zone search D. Spiral search
97. This is conducted with the searching officer starting at the focal point of the
crime scene or the center of the area, working his or her way outward by circling
in a clockwise or counter-clockwise direction to the edges of the crime scene.
A. Pie search C. Grid search
B. Zone search D. Spiral search
98. This method of crime scene search is done based on a circle surrounding the
crime scene. The circle is divided into six quadrants.
A. Pie search C. Grid search
B. Zone search D. Spiral search
99. Includes strong acids and bases.
A. Corrosive B. Explosive C. Flammable D.
Toxic
100. Includes solvents and precursor chemicals that can lead to illness or death
when inhaled, swallowed, or absorbed.
A. Corrosive B. Explosive C. Flammable D. Toxic
FORENSIC - 4
Questioned Document
Qualifying Examination Review Questionnaire
=====================================================
====
Multiple Choice
Instruction: Choose the best answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item.

1. In legal language, it refers to the document Examiner's conclusion.


A. Opinion C. Qualification
B. Result D. Resolution
2. Manny E. Manyakis, 21, resident of Brgy. Bario, Cabanatuan City cannot write
because of his brain tumor, it means that he has-
A. Aphasia B. Dyslexia C. Agraphia D.
Paragraphia
3. A pictorial image formed by casting a shadow, usually of the hands, upon a
rightful surface or screen.
A. Magnifying lens C. Shadowgraph
B. Stereoscopic microscope D. Measures and test plates
4. It is used in the detection of counterfeit bills and can be used to detect security
features of documents.
A. Comparison microscope C. Infrared viewer
B. Ultra violet lamp D. Transmitted light gadget
5. Irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or wavering stroke which is
perfectly apparent even without magnification. In questioned document
examination parlance, the said characteristic of handwriting is called-
A. Tremor C. Tremor of fraud
B. Genuine tremor D. Tremor of illiteracy
6. The standard count of a ream of paper is _____.
A. 300 B. 400 C. 500 D. 600
7. A paper which includes identification features such as metallic strips and
watermarks to assist in detecting fraud and to prevent counterfeiting.
A. Coded paper C. Security paper
B. Tissue paper D. Wove paper
8. It refers to the relation of parts of the whole of writing or line of individual
letters in words to the baseline.
A. Alignment B. Angular forms C. Baseline D. Height
9. These are sharp, straight strokes that are made by stopping the pen and
changing direction before continuing.
A. Alignment B. Angular forms C. Baseline D. X-
height
10. In QDE, it is the critical comparison or side by side examination of the
standard and the questioned document.
A. Comparison B. Collation C. Juxtaposition D.
Examination

11. The act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their identifying
qualities.
A. Comparison B. Collation C. Juxtaposition D.
Examination
12. The German word that means “complete” or “whole”.
A. Grapho B. Gestalt C. Documentum D.
Graphometry
13. It refers to “wrong hand writing.”
A. Disguised writing C. Left-handed writing
B. Guided writing D. Hand lettering
14. Analysis of documents by comparison and measurement.
A. Graphometry C. Graphology
B. Grapho-Analysis D. Grapho
15. These are normal or usual deviations found between repeated
specimens of any individual handwriting.
A. Natural writing C. Natural variation
B. Manuscript writing D. Rhythm
16. Any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to control
or alter its identifying habits and its usual quality or execution.
A. Natural writing C. Natural variation
B. Manuscript writing D. Rhythm
17. The average force with which the pen contacts the paper.
A. Pen emphasis C. Pen hold
B. Pen position D. Pen pressure
18. The act of intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surfaces.
A. Pen emphasis C. Pen hold
B. Pen position D. Pen pressure
19. The place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at
which he holds it.
A. Pen emphasis C. Pen hold
B. Pen position D. Pen pressure
20. The relation between the tall and the short letter is referred as
A. Print script C. Proportion or ratio
B. Quality D. Rhythm
21. Is the widening of the ink strokes due to the added pressure on a flexible pen
point or to the use of a stub pen.
A. Print script C. Proportion or ratio
B. Shading D. Rhythm
22. The degree of force exerted on the pen compared to the degree of relaxation.
A. Tension B. System C. Rhythm D. Pen
emphasis
23. A diacritic includes the following, EXCEPT:
A. Tilde B. None C. T-crossing D. Letters i and j
dots

24. It links the downward stroke to the upstrokes with a flowing curve swinging
from left to right. It is an easy, effortless mode of connection, written with speed.
A. Arcade C. Garland
B. Angular connective form D. Threadlike connective form
25. A rounded stroke shaped like an arch. It is a slow mode of connection
resulting from controlled movements.
A. Arcade C. Garland
B. Angular connective form D. Threadlike connective form
26. Series of lines or curves written in a single letter; one of the lines of an
alphabet or series of lines or curves within a single letter
A. Stroke B. Style C. Personal D.
Design
27. A writing weakness portrayed by irregular shaky strokes is described as
A. Hesitation B. Tremor C. Puckering D.
Irregular
28. A short initial or terminal stroke.
A. Spur B. Buckle knot C. Staff D.
Tick/Hitch
29. A fully rounded oval or circular form on a letter complete into "O".
A. Bowl B. Blunt C. Beard D.
Beaded
30. The retouching or going back over a defective portion of a written stroke.
A. Patching B. Retouching C. Retracing D.
Repairing
31. Is not simply a signature but it is a signature, signed at a particular time and
place, under particular conditions, while the signer was at particular age, in a
particular physical and mental condition, using particular implements, and with
a particular reason and purpose for recording his name.
A. Guided Signature C. Fraudulent signature
B. Evidential Signature D. Assisted Signature
32. A fraudulent signature that was executed purely by simulation rather than
by tracing the outline of a genuine signature.
A. Freehand Signature C. Guided Signature
B. Fraudulent signature D. Assisted Signature
33. These are writings made by a person written in his daily life.
A. Original standards C. Requested standards
B. Collected standards D. Non-requested standards
34. A forged signature that involves the writing of a name as a signature by
someone other than the person himself, without his permission.
A. Guided Signature C. Fraudulent signature
B. Evidential Signature D. Assisted Signature
35. Pen came from the Latin word “Penna” which means _____.
A. Stick B. Tube C. Feather D.
Ball
36. The process where forger places the document to be forged at bottom, inter-
leaves a piece of carbon paper and places on top a document containing the
genuine signature.
A. Carbon process C. Indentation process
B. Transmitted light process D. Traced process
37. Spurious signature is also a simple forgery, as to informal signature is _____.
A. Conventional C. Copybook form
B. Cursory D. Careless
38. It is the process by which the line to be printed are cut into pieces of metal
by hand or with a machine.
A. Engraving C. Letterpress printing
B. Offset printing D. Stamping
39. Is the method a photograph is taken of the desired material and a print is
made on a specially prepared aluminum plate.
A. Engraving C. Letterpress printing
B. Offset printing D. Stamping
40. The most common form of printing books, magazine, letterheads and the
usual printing in common uses.
A. Letterpress printing C. Engraving
B. Offset printing D. Stamping
41. The P50 bill has Pink Color with the image of Sergio Osmeǹa. The P200 peso
has Green color with the image of _____.
A. Manuel L. Quezon C. Sergio Osmena
B. Manuel A. Roxas D. Diosdado Macapagal
42. The image at the paper bill is referred to as the _____.
A. Portrait B. Vignette C. Watermark D. Lacework
design
43. It refers to something wrong in time and in place. This means that the forger
has trouble matching the paper, ink, or writing materials to the exact date it was
supposed to have been written.
A. Anachronism C. Anarchronism
B. Chronism D. Anarchrone
44. When does official document becomes public document?
A. When a document was issued by an official and was notarized for legal
purposes.
B. When a notarized document was issued by an official of a government
office.
C. When a receipt was issued and was certified as true copy.
D. When a document is certified and notarized by a notary public.
45. A document completely written and signed by one person is known as:
A. Disputed document C. Holographic document

B. Questioned document D. Typewritten document


46. The deliberate alteration of the usual writing habit in hope of holding the
identity is called-
I. Disguised writing
II. Forged handwriting Aphasia
A. I only C. II only, I’m certain on it
B. Both I and II D. I’m not certain if they are the same

47. What type of forgery is made when the writer exerts no effort to effect
resemblance or facsimile between the forged and the genuine signatures?
A. Traced B. Simple C. Spurious D.
Simulated
48. Refers to the direction of handwriting, if it stays on the baseline or goes
upward.
A. Slope B. Skills C. Slant D. Spacing
49. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the beginning and continues
beyond the end to a vanishing point and are found on free natural writing and
as a rule are important indication of genuineness.
A. Ending stroke C. Pen movement
B. Terminal stroke D. Flying starts and finish
50. In question document examination, to fully appreciate the details of the
document, you must have to what?
A. Enlarge them C. Piece thems
B. Use microscope D. Have an objective
51. A sign of forgery in guided hand signature is ___________.
A. Bad shading C. Good pen control
B. Disconnected strokes D. Irregular line quality
52. A kind of defect in which the character prints a double impression.
A. Rebound C. Twisted letter
B. Vertical Mal-alignment D. Horizontal Mal Alignment

53. These are actual breaks on type face like worn off series or cut on shanks
which cannot be remedied.
A. Alignment defect C. Transitory defect

B. Permanent defect D. Horizontal mal-alignment

54. In genuine bank notes, the colored fibers can be ___________.


A. Erased B. Altered C. Substituted D. Easily
pick off
55. In the examination of handwritings, If fundamental significant differences
exist between the known and unknown signatures it can be concluded that:
A. Written by one and different person
B. It was written by two different people
C. Written by one and the same person
D. It was written by two and the same person
56. It details indentation or indented writings and it records transparencies of
any indentation.
A. Compound microscope C. Stereoscopic microscope
B. Video Spectral Comparator D.Electrostatic Detection
Apparatus
57. He is regarded as father of Questioned Document Examination
A. Hans Gross C. Albert Osborn
B. John Howard D. Cesare Lombroso
58. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of light
behind it, letting light passes through the paper.
A. Ultraviolet examination C. Oblique light examination
B. Infrared Light Examination D. Transmitted Light
Examination
59. Which of the following refer to the irregular thickening of ink which is found
when writing slows down or stops while the writer takes stock of the position?
A. Knob B. Shading C. Pressure D. Hesitation
60. The relationship between the height of the small letters to the tall letters is
called ______.
A. Ratio B. Slant C. Slope D. Proportion
61. A kind of document which is recognized by the Code of Commerce and other
Mercantile laws.
A. Public document C. Official document
B. Private document D. Commercial document
62. Basically, in QDE, the primary mission of the document examiner is to
determine the quality and who ______.
A. Is the victim C. Is the suspect
B. Order the writing D. Write and signed
63. Who are the first inventors of the paper more than 2000 years ago?
A. Indians B. Chinese C. Americans D.
Babylonians
64. traced forgery of signature is not really a writing but a ________.
A. Copying B. Patching C. Drawing D.
Retouching
65. It refers to any person that determines one’s personality through
handwriting.
A. Graphology C. Graph artists
B. Graphologists D. Graph paper maker
66. Which of the following methods of forging signature needs that the original
document shall be placed below the forged signature?
A. Indention process C. Simulated process
B. Carbon paper process D. Transmitted light process
67. It is an exemplar which has been obtained from an official record, personal
letter, or any other document that is known to have been written by the suspect,
when the suspect refuses to write an exemplar, when the suspect is not available,
or when the investigation is conducted without the knowledge of the suspect.
A. Simulated Document C. Questioned document
B. Collected standard document D. Requested standard
document
68. A kind of document which is executed by a person in authority or by private
parties and notarized by a competent public official.
A. Public document C. Official document
B. Private document D. Commercial document
69. A document completely written and signed by one person is known as _____.
A. Disputed document C. Holographic document
B. Questioned document D. Typewritten
document
70. Which of the following handwriting movement is commonly employed by
children and illiterates?
A. Hand movement C. Finger movement
A. Forearm movement D. Whole forearm movement
71. Which of the following natural phenomenon is very important in questioned
document examination and even an expert question document examiner cannot
examine a disputed document without it.
A. Skill B. Light C. Knowledge D.
Microscope
72. In questioned document parlance, which of the following terms pertains to
small letters?
A. Majuscule B. Minuscule C. Cacography D.
Calligraphy
73. Irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or wavering stroke which is
perfectly apparent even without magnification. In questioned document
examination parlance, the said characteristic of handwriting is called:
A. Tremor C. Tremor of fraud
B. Genuine tremor D. Tremor of illiteracy
`

74. In Questioned Document, it refers to the process necessary to discover the


facts about them.
A. Investigation B. Examination C. Analysis D.
Evaluation
75. Pamphlets and books which do not evidence any disposition or agreement
are not documents but are mere
A. Writings C. Written instruments
B. Written deeds D. Merchandize
76. It refers to any material which some issue has been raised or which is under
scrutiny.
A. Questionable specimen C. Doubtful material
B. Questioned Document D. All of these
77. In relation to Criminal Jurisprudence under the Best Evidence rule: any
physical embodiment of information or ideas is called –
A. Instrument B. Written Instrument C. Document D.
Record
78. Which of these is issued by the government or its agents or its officers having
the authority to do so and the offices, which in accordance with their creation,
they are authorized to issue and be issued in the performance of their duties?
A. Private Document C. Public Document
B. Official Document D. Commercial Document
79. It is the removal of writings, typewriting or printing, from a document.
A. Eradication B. Erasure C. Obliteration D.
Deleting
80. What is the step in the scientific examination of questioned documents where
the properties or characteristics are observed or measured?
A. Comparison B. Evaluation C. Analysis D.
Verification
81. Which of these is used in the examination of masked or obliterated text,
watermarks, visible fluorescence, paper fluorescence and oblique illumination of
indented writing and embossing?
A. Ultra-Violet Examination C. Photographic Examination
B. Infrared Examination D. Video Spectral
Comparator

82. It is the result of a very complicated series of acts, being used as whole,
combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular habits acquired by
long, continued painstaking effort.
A. Writing Habit C. Signature
B. Handwriting D. Writing Characteristics
83. The examination of handwriting characteristics to determine one’s personal
character dispositions is called –
A. Graphology B. Calligraphy C. Graphometry D. All of the
above
84. It refers to the standard of handwriting instruction taught in particular
school.
A. Copybook Form C. Alphabet
B. School Standard D. Writing Model
85. It refers to the overall character of the ink lines from the beginning to the
ending strokes.
A. Line Quality C. Stroke Quality
B. Stroke Characteristics D. Handwriting
Characteristics
86. What is the least applied disguise in writing?
A. Change of slant - from right to left or vice versa
B. Change of letter, either from cursive to block style
C. Change from cursive (conventional style) to block form
D. Using the wrong hand
87. When the writer hides his identity and attempts to deliberately alter his usual
writing habits it is called –
A. Spurious Writing C. Forged Writing
B. Disguised Writing D. Counterfeited Writing
88. Standards which are prepared upon the request of the investigator and for
the purpose of comparison with the questioned document.
A. Relative standards C. Extended standards
B. Collected standards D. Requested standards
89. The art of beautiful writing.
A. Drafting B. Calligraphy C. Art appreciation D.
Gothic
90. The Pica Type of typewriters contains how many characters per inch?
A. 10 B. 6 C. 14-16 D. 12
91. In the examination of counterfeit bills, the first consideration is the -
A. Watermark B. Serial Number C. Color D.
Paper
92. The act or process of making the content/s of a document not the intended
content is referred to as ________.
A. Counterfeiting B. Forgery C. Fraud D.
Falsification
93. In connection with typewriting identification, this term is used to include
letters, symbols, numerals, or points of punctuation.
A. Character C. Letters and symbols
B. Characteristics D. Identifying fonts

94. It refers to the translucent design impressed on papers during the course of
the manufacturing of papers.
A. Trademark C. Watermark
B. Company Design D. Confidential Design
95. These are acquired characteristics in writing through repetition that have
become fixed and spontaneous.
A. Writing habits C. Natural variation
B. School model D. Disguised writing
96. It is the group of muscle in the hand that pushes the pen upward to form
the upward strokes.
A. Flexor B. Extensor C. Cortex D.
Atrium
97. This refers to the writer’s chosen writing style. It is the way the writing looks,
whether it is copybook, elaborated, simplified or printed.
A. Rhythm B. Habit C. Form D. Quality
98. A gap occurring between a continuous strokes without lifting the pen.
A. Pen Pressure B. Tension C. Diacritic D. Hiatus
99. An element added to complete certain letters either a cross bar or a dot.
A. Bar B. Blunt C. Diacritic D. Buckle
100. Any stroke which goes back over another writing stroke.
A. Natural variation B. Rhythm C. Retracing D. Shading

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