Developing Person Through Childhood Adolescence 10th Edition Berger Test Bank

Developing Person Through Childhood Adolescence

10th Edition Berger Test Bank

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-10th-edition-berger-test-bank/

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1. Cindy is doing a presentation on prenatal development and wants to include the three
main periods of prenatal development in order from conception to birth. Cindy's
presentation uses which order?
A) embryonic, germinal, and fetal
B) fetal, embryonic, and germinal
C) germinal, embryonic, and fetal
D) germinal, fetal, and embryonic

2. Many obstetricians date the onset of pregnancy from the date of _____.
A) conception
B) the woman's last menstrual period
C) implantation
D) when the woman had intercourse

3. During the germinal period of prenatal development, cells take on distinct

characteristics and gravitate toward particular locations. The term for this process is
_____.
A) duplication
B) division
C) differentiation
D) specialization

4. During the germinal period, the first task of the zygote's outer cells is _____.
A) differentiation
B) duplication
C) germination
D) implantation

5. About _____ percent of natural conceptions never implant.

A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75

6. About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a shell that
will become the _____.
A) placenta
B) umbilical cord
C) embryo
D) infant

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 7. The germinal period ends approximately _____ after conception.
A) 2 days
B) 3 months
C) 2 weeks
D) 12 weeks

8. Jenny just learned that she is 6 weeks pregnant. She is in the _____ period of prenatal
development.
A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) second

9. At the onset of the embryonic period, the _____ appears. It will eventually become the
neural tube.
A) stem cells
B) spinal cord
C) primitive streak
D) placenta

10. As part of embryonic development, the neural tube will become the _____.
A) reproductive organs
B) intestinal tract
C) backbone, legs, and arms
D) central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord

11. The head begins to take shape in the _____ week after conception.
A) fourth
B) fifth
C) sixth
D) seventh

12. In the fourth week after conception, a minuscule blood vessel that will become the
_____ begins to pulsate.
A) lungs
B) stomach
C) kidneys
D) heart

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13. A pregnant woman is having an ultrasound done eight weeks into prenatal development.
She is surprised by the size of the embryo's head when she sees the image on the screen.
The doctor reassures her that this is typical and due to the _____ pattern of
development.
A) proximodistal
B) cephalocaudal
C) neurogenesis
D) synaptogenesis

14. Prenatally, development happens in a “near-to-far” pattern known as _____.

A) proximodistal
B) cephalocaudal
C) neurogenesis
D) synaptogenesis

15. The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period.

A) embryonic
B) fetal
C) proximodistal
D) germinal

16. Johnny's mom is 4 months pregnant. Johnny is eager for the arrival of the new baby and
asks, “How many more months until I'm a big brother?” His mother says he has to wait
about _____ more months.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5

17. The third period of gestation is the _____ period.

A) zygotic
B) embryonic
C) germinal
D) fetal

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18. By the end of the _____ prenatal month, sex organs develop and are soon visible via
ultrasound.
A) second
B) third
C) fourth
D) fifth

19. What happens to the brain during the fetal period of development?
A) It goes through a process of regeneration.
B) Synapses decrease in number.
C) It increases in size.
D) The number of neurons decreases.

20. The age of viability is the time when the preterm newborn _____.
A) might survive outside the uterus
B) begins to move
C) will be born without defects
D) has developed all its major organs

21. Harry was a preterm newborn who was born after 26 weeks of prenatal development.
He now is a healthy, happy 2-year-old. Harry's ability to survive after being born so
early was due in part to his reaching the _____.
A) term of postnatal development
B) germinal period
C) neurogenesis point
D) age of viability

22. The critical factor in attaining the age of viability is _____.

A) weighing at least 5 pounds (2.3 kg)
B) having adequate brain development
C) having functioning digestive and respiratory systems
D) surviving at least 28 weeks past conception

23. On average, fetuses gain about _____ pounds during the last trimester of pregnancy,
which brings the average birth weight to about 7.5 pounds.
A) 1.5
B) 2.5
C) 4.5
D) 6.5

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24. In a first birth, the average length of active labor is _____.
A) several days
B) about 12 hours
C) about 8 hours
D) a few minutes

25. In the third stage of labor, the _____.

A) cervix begins to dilate
B) baby's head moves into the birth canal
C) mother experiences intense contractions
D) placenta is delivered

26. At around 38 weeks after conception, the _____ starts the sequence of events that
prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor.
A) fetal brain
B) maternal brain
C) placenta
D) germinal period

27. When healthy babies are born, they usually _____.

A) do not breathe on their own until the umbilical cord is cut
B) do not cry until the umbilical cord is cut
C) breathe and cry on their own immediately
D) breathe on their own, and cry when the umbilical cord is cut

28. Which step is usually done immediately after birth ?

A) mucus in baby's throat is removed
B) baby is placed in an incubator
C) umbilical cord blood is drawn
D) baby is assessed for eye color

29. The Apgar scale is used at one minute and five minutes after birth to _____.
A) evaluate the newborn's sensory abilities
B) evaluate the health of the new mother
C) help the mother recover from childbirth
D) evaluate the health of the newborn

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30. A baby is assessed at one minute after birth according to the Apgar scale. Three of the
five vital signs are good, but the baby is weak and inactive and grimaces. The two vital
signs the medical team is concerned about are _____.
A) muscle tone and heartbeat
B) respiratory effect and color
C) muscle tone and reflex irritability
D) reflex irritability and respiratory effect

31. Henry was just given the five-minute Apgar and his score was 4. This means Henry is
_____.
A) experiencing good health
B) a slow-to-warm-up infant
C) in need of emergency medical attention
D) in average health

32. In addition to customs of the culture the birth process depends on _____.
A) the personality of the obstetrician
B) position and size of the fetus
C) grandparents' wishes and expectations
D) parents' genetic heritage

33. A surgical birth, in which incisions through the mother's abdomen and uterus allow the
fetus to be removed quickly, is also referred to as a(n) _____.
A) epidural
B) cesarean section
C) induced labor
D) doula

34. In the United States, more than _____ of births occur via c-section.
A) 1/3
B) 1/2
C) 2/3
D) 3/4

35. Compared to vaginal births, c-section births _____.

A) are less expensive
B) increase the risk of complications after birth
C) usually take longer
D) are less safe for the baby

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36. Children born by cesarean section _____.
A) spend more time being held by their mothers in the hours following delivery
B) are more likely to breast-feed from the beginning
C) have double the rate of childhood obesity
D) score lower on the Apgar test

37. Who is most likely to drink alcohol during her pregnancy? A mother who _____.
A) is under age 25
B) never attended college
C) is over age 35
D) belongs to a minority ethnic group

38. What does the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test do?

A) diagnoses HIV infection
B) suggests the presence of Down syndrome
C) measures the mother's genetic weaknesses
D) provides an estimate of the fetus's gestational age

39. Currently in the United States, newborn mortality is about _____.

A) 1 in 100
B) 1 in 150
C) 1 in 200
D) 1 in 250

40. Which statement is TRUE about rates for c-sections?

A) They have been relatively steady over the past three decades.
B) They are the same in the United States as in most other developed nations.
C) They vary by doctor, hospital, and even day of the week.
D) They are higher for births attended by midwives.

41. Most births in the United States take place in _____.

A) birthing centers
B) hospital labor rooms
C) homes
D) pools of water

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42. An alternative to giving birth in a hospital is to arrange to give birth at home. In the
United States, less than _____ of births occur at home.
A) 1 percent
B) 5 percent
C) 10 percent
D) 15 percent

43. A person who supports a mother through the birth process from early labor at home
through delivery at home or in a hospital is called a _____.
A) humanitarian
B) doctor
C) postpartum nurse
D) doula

44. Tina went into labor at her home. Joan arrived soon after and began to time her
contractions and give gentle massages. She assisted Tina and her partner when it was
time to leave for the hospital and accompanied them through the birth process. Joan was
Tina's _____.
A) postpartum nurse
B) doctor
C) couvade
D) doula

45. Research indicates that _____ can benefit from a doula-assisted birth.
A) low-income women
B) married women
C) mothers of multiples
D) all women

46. A teratogen is any agent or condition that increases the risk for _____.
A) prenatal abnormalities
B) damage to the placenta
C) extra chromosomes
D) male infertility

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47. Rita is 1 month pregnant and consults with her doctor about teratogens. The doctor tells
her that one category of teratogens is _____.
A) drugs
B) food
C) the media
D) nutrients

48. Agents and conditions that can harm the prenatal brain, impairing the future child's
intellectual and emotional functioning, are called _____.
A) chromosomal abnormalities
B) genetic mutations
C) cell differentiation
D) behavioral teratogens

49. Jill is 5 years old. She has been diagnosed with ADHD and shows signs of learning
disabilities. Her doctor suggests that Jill's problems could be the result of prenatal
exposure to _____, though he stresses that the link is not straightforward at this time.
A) chromosomal abnormalities
B) genetic abnormalities
C) cell differentiation
D) behavioral teratogens

50. With respect to prenatal development, teratogens _____.

A) increase the risk of prenatal abnormalities
B) decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities
C) always cause prenatal abnormalities
D) do not cause prenatal abnormalities

51. Chantal and Larry are considering having a baby. Chantal's doctor recommends that
they stop using recreational drugs and update their immunizations _____.
A) before Chantal gets pregnant
B) as soon as Chantal knows she is pregnant
C) anytime during the first trimester of pregnancy
D) as soon as the baby is born

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52. The first days and weeks after conception (the germinal and embryonic periods) are
_____ for body formation.
A) sensitive
B) critical
C) crucial
D) imperative

53. Some teratogens have a threshold effect, which means that they are _____.
A) harmful no matter what the level of exposure
B) rarely harmful
C) harmless until exposure reaches a certain level
D) always harmless

54. Thresholds, as they relate to harm from any teratogen, are difficult to set because one
teratogen may _____ the threshold of another teratogen.
A) reduce
B) increase
C) cancel
D) improve

55. Mandy is pregnant yet she still has four alcoholic drinks each day. Her baby may be at
increased risk for the development of _____.
A) fetal alcohol syndrome
B) fetal anoxia syndrome
C) fetal alcohol situation
D) functional alcohol syndrome

56. A woman carrying dizygotic twins drinks alcohol. The twins' blood alcohol levels are
equal, yet one twin may be more severely affected than the other because their alleles
for the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol differ. This is evidence that the _____ influence
the effects of teratogens.
A) kinds of substance
B) genes of the parent
C) genes of each twin
D) doses of teratogen

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57. Which factor influences the effects of teratogens?
A) timing of the teratogen
B) awareness of the parent
C) genes of the mother
D) season of the year

58. Low folic acid during pregnancy can result in _____.

A) heart defects
B) lung defects
C) limb deformities
D) neural-tube defects

59. Alice is pregnant and wants to ensure that she does everything she can to prevent the
occurrence of a neural-tube defect in her child. She makes sure that she has the proper
amount of _____ in her diet.
A) vitamin D
B) zinc
C) folic acid
D) vitamin K

60. Early prenatal care can help decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities; however, it
CANNOT provide pregnant women with information about _____.
A) substances to avoid
B) proper nutrition
C) exact thresholds for teratogens
D) treatments for preexisting conditions

61. Pregnant women should _____.

A) rely on self-education for information about pregnancy
B) never trust their doctors' advice and treatment recommendations
C) consider their doctors' advice and treatment recommendations and engage in some
self-education about pregnancy
D) avoid prenatal care in the early months of pregnancy

62. When it comes to the research on prenatal development and teratogens, scientists _____.
A) always agree on the interpretation of research
B) can disagree on the interpretation of research
C) have not yet started to analyze the data
D) tend to disagree with doctors

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63. Gabby received good quality prenatal care from the care team at her local hospital. She
was informed about what to eat and what to do. They also coached her on what to
_____, such as cigarette smoking and very high stress.
A) avoid
B) seek out
C) experience
D) continue

64. Genetic counseling may be most useful to parents at which stage?

A) before becoming pregnant
B) during the last month of pregnancy
C) during delivery
D) after the birth of a special needs child

65. A common reason that couples do not seek genetic counseling is that _____.
A) they have never been exposed to teratogens
B) they already eat a well-balanced diet
C) their pregnancy is unplanned
D) they are well over the age of 35

66. With respect to test results, a false negative is the result of a laboratory test that reports
something as _____.
A) true when in fact it is not true
B) false when in fact it is not false
C) true when in fact it is true
D) false when in fact it is false

67. Babies born under 1,000 grams (2 pounds 3 ounces) are considered _____.
A) low birthweight
B) very low birthweight
C) extremely low birthweight
D) ultra low birthweight

68. Babies born slightly under 1,500 grams (3 pounds 5 ounces) are considered _____.
A) low birthweight
B) very low birthweight
C) extremely low birthweight
D) ultra low birthweight

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69. Babies born slightly under 2,500 grams are considered _____.
A) low birthweight
B) very low birthweight
C) extremely low birthweight
D) ultra low birthweight

70. A baby born three or more weeks early is called _____.

A) premature
B) preterm
C) low birthweight
D) small for gestational age

71. A baby whose birthweight is significantly lower than expected given the time since
conception is referred to as _____.
A) preterm
B) premature
C) low birthweight
D) small for gestational age

72. Cigarette smoking is implicated in _____ percent of all low-birthweight births

worldwide.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25

73. Bruno and Juliana moved to the United States from Mexico two years ago and just had
their first baby. Bruno and Juliana's SES is lower than their peers who are of Mexican
ancestry but were born in the United States. Bruno and Juliana's baby was born at a
healthy weight, due in part to the support of their social network. This phenomenon is
called the _____.
A) immigrant paradox
B) Hispanic paradox
C) native-born paradox
D) SES paradox

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74. Adults who were low-birthweight babies have higher rates of _____.
A) diabetes
B) malnutrition
C) normal-range weight
D) obesity

75. Possible consequences of low birthweight include infant death, hearing impairment, and
_____.
A) death in adolescence
B) delayed walking
C) teen pregnancy
D) spatial skills

76. The frequency of low birthweight in the United States decreased throughout most of the
twentieth century, and then _____ in the 1990s and early 2000s.
A) increased
B) further decreased
C) remained stable
D) was nearly eradicated

77. Statistically, which woman has characteristics that make her likely to have a baby with
low birthweight?
A) Ashley, who is 27 years old and middle-class SES
B) Jody, who has been diagnosed with diabetes
C) Kate, who regularly misses meals
D) Delfina, who is a Hispanic immigrant

78. In the United States, which is a potential reason for the rise in the frequency of
low-birthweight babies?
A) plentiful food
B) drug use
C) exercise regimens
D) genetic factors

79. Birth complications are more likely when _____.

A) a baby is full term
B) a mother is over age 40
C) a baby is female
D) a mother is unmarried

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80. Sammy is 5 years old and spends his day in a wheelchair, assisted by an aid. Sammy
can't control any of his muscles due to brain damage. Sammy's condition has been
evident since birth, during which he was deprived of oxygen. Sammy has _____.
A) anoxia
B) cerebral palsy
C) Huntington disease
D) Parkinson's disease

81. Cerebral palsy was once thought to be the result of something that happened during the
birth procedure, but we now know it can result from many factors, including _____.
A) a specific gene for cerebral palsy
B) maternal nutritional deficits
C) maternal infection
D) Huntington disease

82. Anoxia refers to _____.

A) cerebral hemorrhaging
B) signs of cerebral palsy
C) a lack of oxygen
D) toxic substances in the bloodstream

83. When Alexia was born, she had a lack of oxygen for a small amount of time. Alexia
experienced _____.
A) cerebral hemorrhaging
B) cerebral palsy
C) couvade
D) anoxia

84. Parents of newborn Renata are amazed at their daughter's responsiveness and reflexes
when a professional administers the _____.
A) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale
B) Apgar scale
C) Child Behavioral Checklist
D) Strange Situation

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85. When infants turn their heads and suck in response to a touch on the cheek, they are
demonstrating the _____.
A) Moro reflex
B) rooting reflex
C) sucking reflex
D) thrashing reflex

86. Newborn babies have _____ designed to maintain oxygen supply, maintain a constant
body temperature, and manage feeding.
A) genes
B) habits
C) reflexes
D) strategies

87. A father's presence at a child's birth _____.

A) has no impact on birth complications
B) only has an impact on birth complications if the mother and father are married
C) reduces the likelihood of birth complications
D) increases the likelihood of birth complications

88. The phenomenon in which fathers experience symptoms of pregnancy and birth is
known as _____.
A) postpartum depression
B) couvade
C) false labor
D) the Moro reflex

89. While Bill's wife was pregnant, he experienced weight gain and indigestion. When she
gave birth, he felt sharp physical pain as well. Bill was experiencing _____.
A) postpartum depression
B) couvade
C) false labor
D) the Moro reflex

90. Postpartum depression _____.

A) is a normal development and no cause for concern
B) has no treatment
C) does not typically interfere with the care of a newborn
D) can be mitigated by successful breast-feeding

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91. Julia had a baby three weeks ago. She has been feeling sad and inadequate as a mother,
which has made caring for her newborn difficult. Julia may be experiencing _____.
A) post-traumatic stress disorder
B) postpartum depression
C) generalized anxiety disorder
D) separation anxiety

92. Kelley just had a baby and now is experiencing a sense of inadequacy and sadness. She
may have _____.
A) couvade
B) behavioral teratogens
C) kangaroo care
D) postpartum depression

93. Studies indicate that _____ may mitigate maternal depression.

A) breast-feeding
B) having a home birth
C) couvade
D) epidurals

94. A commitment by both parents to cooperate in raising the child is referred to as parental
_____.
A) alliance
B) cooperation
C) commitment
D) support

95. Rebecca and Bob just had a baby. They agreed that they would each be responsible for
the baby every other evening to give the other parent a break from childcare. They have
also discussed how to share responsibility for daycare drop off and pick up once they
are both back at work. Rebecca and Bob are demonstrating _____.
A) parental alliance
B) bonding
C) postpartum depression
D) couvade

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 96. The strong, loving connection that forms as parents hold, examine, and feed their
newborn is called _____.
A) couvade
B) a doula
C) kangaroo care
D) the parent–infant bond

97. Phil is holding his newborn child for the first time and is overwhelmed by the love he
feels for his child. What Phil is experiencing is called _____.
A) couvade
B) a doula
C) kangaroo care
D) the parent–infant bond

98. A form of newborn care in which mothers (and sometimes fathers) rest their babies on
their naked chests is called _____.
A) couvade
B) a doula
C) kangaroo care
D) parent–infant bond

99. Rumasia places her baby on her chest so that they are skin to skin. This is called _____.
A) couvade
B) a doula
C) kangaroo care
D) parent–infant bond

100. Kangaroo care has been associated with a newborn _____.

A) sleeping more shallowly
B) gaining weight more quickly
C) spending more time asleep
D) smiling at a younger age

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Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. D
17. D
18. B
19. C
20. A
21. D
22. B
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. C
28. A
29. D
30. C
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. B
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. C
41. B
42. A
43. D
44. D

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45. D
46. A
47. A
48. D
49. D
50. A
51. A
52. B
53. C
54. A
55. A
56. C
57. A
58. D
59. C
60. C
61. C
62. B
63. A
64. A
65. C
66. B
67. C
68. B
69. A
70. B
71. D
72. D
73. B
74. A
75. B
76. A
77. C
78. B
79. B
80. B
81. C
82. C
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. C
87. C
88. B
89. B
90. D

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Developing Person Through Childhood Adolescence 10th Edition Berger Test Bank

91. B
92. D
93. A
94. A
95. A
96. D
97. D
98. C
99. C
100. B

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