Vstep - Vlu - Key

Van Lang University Vstep Preparation Course Level B1 – B2 -C1
VSTEP LISTENING PRACTICE TEST
Time allowance: approximately: 40 minutes

Number of questions: 35 minutes
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your
ability to understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this
section with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what
is stated or implied by the speakers in the recording.
The recording will be played ONCE only.
LISTENING TEST 1
PART 1: Questions 1-8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is
one question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right
answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
Now, let’s listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:
Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the
holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at
Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you
will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I
can help you with any other information.
Goodbye.
On the test book, you will read:
Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. All meals
The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let’s begin with the first question.
1. How did he feel in his first job?

A. bored
B. confused
C. enthusiastic
2. What are listeners being invited to?

A. a show
B. a talk
C. a party
3. Who was she?

A. a pedestrian
B. a driver
C. a passenger
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4. What is her main point?

A. Being in the right place at the right time is a matter of luck
B. More time is spent planning than filming
C. It is worthwhile spending time preparing
5. Where is the speaker?

A. outside a café
B. by the sea
C. on a lake
6. What does she want the shop assistant to do about her table-tennis table?
A. provide her with a new one
B. have it put together for her
C. give her the money back
7. What is her business?

A. hiring out boats
B. hiring out caravans
C. building boats
8. Who is talking?
A. an actor
B. a journalist
C. a theatre-goer
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be
repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the
correct answer A, B, C or D
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation
9. Where is the woman?

A. At a hotel C. At a conference
B. At a restaurant D. At a laundry room
10. What service is the woman asking about?

A. Room cleaning C. Express check-in
B. Laundry service D. Conference room rental
11. When most likely will the woman give a speech?

A. On Sunday C. On Tuesday
B. On Monday D. On Wednesday
12. What will the man probably do next?

A. Process the woman’s payment C. Take the woman’s jacket
B. Help the woman with her luggage D. Give the woman a bag
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13. Why does the woman say the meeting should be postponed?
A. Some important data is missing C. The computer system has a problem
B. Some employees will be absent D. An executive is scheduled to visit the office
14. Who is likely a woman?

A. a manager C. a doctor
B. a salesperson D. a shop assistant
15. When will the meeting most likely be held?

A. Thursday morning C. Friday morning
B. Thursday afternoon D. Friday afternoon
16. What will the man probably do next?

A. Visit a computer facility C. Reserve a meeting room
B. Take a lunch break D. Write an e-mail message
17. Why is the man traveling to India?

A. To study at a university C. To attend a conference
B. To sell his company’s products D. To look for an apartment
18. What does the man say about the bag?

A. It is lightweight C. It is too expensive
B. It is fashionable D. It is too small
19. What does the woman offer to do?

A. Show the man a different part of the shop C. Give the man a discount
B. Look for other products on a computer D. Repair an item for the man
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20. When will the product be shipped?

A. Within 24 hours C. Within a month
B. Within a week D. Within 2 days

Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks,
lectures, or conversations will not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk,
lecture, or conversation.
For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following radio interview
21. Stan says that the best thing about walking is that you can
A. get fit by doing it
B. please yourself how you do it
C. do it on your own
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22. Stan’s opinion on scrambling is that

A. people doing it may need to be accompanied
B. it is unsuitable for beginners
C. it is more exciting than walking
23. What did Stan discover when he went climbing?

A. It was not enjoyable
B. It was harder than he expected
C. It can be very frightening
24. What does Stan say about mountain biking?
A. Britain is not the best place for it.
B. It is more expensive in Britain than elsewhere
C. It is best where there are lots of downhill slopes
25. Stan’s advice on scuba diving is that

A. most of the courses for it are good
B. it is easier than it seems
C. you should think carefully before trying it
Questions 26- 30 refer to the following radio interview
26. How did Douglas feel when he booked the weekend?

A. sure that he would enjoy training for it
B. uncertain if it was a good idea for him
C. surprised that such activities were organized
27. Douglas expected that the experience would help him to

A. meet people with similar interests
B. improve his physical fitness
C. discover his psychological limits
28. He was surprised that the other participants

A. were there for reasons like his
B. were experienced climbers
C. were in better condition than him
29. What did one of his friends say to him?

A. He was making a mistake
B. Climbing was fashionable
C. She was envious of him
30. What did the people plan at the end of the trip?
A. to send each other postcards
B. to take a different sort of trip together
C. to go on another climbing trip together
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Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following radio interview
31. What was the origin of Martin Middleton’s love of travel?

A. living abroad in the 1960s
B. something he read as a child
C. a television film about Africa
32. When he visited Borneo, Martin

A. had no fixed expectations
B. made a program about life on the river
C. became more interested in filming old buildings
33. Since the early 1960s, wildlife filming has become

A. more relaxed
B. more creative
C. more organized
34. Looking back, Martin regards his experience on the iceberg as

A. slightly ridiculous
B. extremely
C. strangely depressing
35. When he takes a holiday, Martin prefers to

A. relax by the sea
B. stay in comfortable surroundings
C. travel for a particular reason
LISTENING TEST 2
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one
question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A,
B, C or D. Then, on the screen, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
1. How far was the man from the beach?

A. one mile B. two miles
C. three miles D. four miles
2. Where did the twins find each other?

A. at a party B. in college
C. a family reunion D. at high school
3. How much money did the man get?

A. $130,000 B. $135,000
C. $145,000 D. $115,000
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4. How far had the camera floated?

A. 1,010 miles B. 1,011 miles
C. 1,100 miles D. 1,000 miles
5. Who placed the babies next to each other?

A. a nurse B. a doctor
C. their mother D. their sister
6. Why didn’t the people hear the smoke alarm?

A. It was broken B. The parrot imitated the sound
C. They didn’t have one D. It wasn’t very loud
7. Where were they made?

A. In Italy B. In China
C. In the U.S D. In Spain
8. What is it made of?

A. cotton B. leather
C. wool D. wood
repeated. There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct
answer A, B, C or D.
9. How many cakes did the man order?

A. Four B. Five
C. Ten D. Twelve
10. What is the woman saying will not be enough for that day?
A. The cakes B. The people who are coming
C. The roses D. The budget
11. What should they try to do?

A. spend more money
B. make sure everything is enough for the event
C. cut the cakes in small pieces for many people
D. tell people not to come
12. What will make the boss pleased?

A. their preparation
B. to let them spend some more money
C. the fixed budget
D. the new budget
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13. Who is the man?

A. A store clerk
B. A doctor
C. A patient
D. A teacher
14. What does the woman tell Mr. Stevens to do?

A. Don’t smoke
B. Make an appointment next week
C. Take an X-ray
D. Drink only a little
15. Why did Mr. Stevens probably call her Dr. Bothering?
A. She was mean to other people
B. The woman’s name is Bothering
C. He heard a lot of complaints
D. Joking around, they are close together
16. What can be inferred from the conversation?

A. She will see the man next time
B. She will call the man next time
C. She is setting the appointment for the man
D. She does not want to be bothered
17. What are the receipts for?

A. Travel expenses
C. Product sales
B. Office supplies
D. Delivery costs
18. What is the woman trying to get?

A. A loan from her company
B. An airplane ticket for her business trip
C. Insurance money for her trip
D. Her money back from her company
19. What can you say about her financial situation?

A. She is trying to invest more money into stocks
B. She is getting loans to buy a house
C. She is short of some money
D. She is making a good salary
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20. What will the man do?

A. check his mailbox again
C. go to conference trip in Singapore
B. pay the woman
D. miss her email
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be
repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right
Questions 21 to 25
Listen to a talk given by a professor about the poet Sylvia Plath
21. What is The Bell Jar?

A. about her father
B. her first novel
C. a very successful collection of poems
D. her last poem
22. What happened to Sylvia Plath’s ‘Collected poems’?

A. won the Pulitzer Prize twenty years after it was published
B. were written during the last year of her life
C. won the Pulitzer Prize in 1982
D. were never published
23. What can we know about Sylvia’s husband?

A. made movies
B. died in 2003
C. was also a poet
D. had a movie made about him
24. What did Susan Bassnett think about Sylvia’s work?

A. was about her husband
B. wasn’t very good
C. was about work life
D. was of great interest to women
25. What can we know about Sylvia’s brother?

A. was born two years after her
B. was two years older than her
C. was a professor at Boston University
D. was a highly educated academic
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Questions 26-30
Listen to a lecture given by a professor about facial recognition
26. Where does the TV show ‘Las Vegas’ take place?

A. in a shopping mall
B. in a police department
C. in a casino
D. in a crime lab
27. What is a faceprint?

A. a code which identifies a face
B. distinctive curves in the face
C. a 2D image of the face
D. the number of nodal points on the face
28. Which one is the problem with 2D facial recognition from the list below?
A. It is still effective if a picture is dark
B. the person in the photograph must face the camera
C. facial curves change over time
D. Nodal points cannot be measured.
29. What is the problem with the 3D technology?

A. It can only be used when the individual is directly facing the camera.
B. the image might change over time
C. It is impossible to match a 3D image to a 2D image
D. It cannot distinguish between identical twins
30. Which element below can be measured by Skin Biometric?

A. the curve of the chin
B. the skin’s depth
C. the existences of lines on the face
D. the distance between the eyes
Questions 31-35
Listen to the lecture about population growth
31. What is the number of children born per 1000 people per year?
A. Replacement Level
B. Fertility Level
C. Birth Rate
D. Fertility Level
32. Which of the following countries in the UK has the highest fertility rate?
A. England B. Scotland
C. Wales D. Northern Ireland
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33. Why is fertility rate in the UK higher than it was twenty years ago?
A. Couples are choosing to have larger families
B. a higher proportion of women are having children
C. women who delayed childbirth are having children now
D. Fewer women are interested in their careers
34. What proportion of women in their mid-forties do not have children nowadays?
A. 10% B. 4% C. 25% D. 40%
35. Which reason for low fertility rates is NOT mentioned?

A. women are increasingly focused on their jobs
B. Children are considered to cost a lot of money
C. Parents do not have time to have many children
D. People want to enjoy their lives before taking on responsibility
LISTENING TEST 3
Now, let’s listen to the example. On the recording, you will hear:
Man: May I have your attention, please? Please be advised that there has been a change
in the conference schedule. The speaker for the 2 o’clock presentation has a family
emergency, so he won’t be able to make it. So please note that there is no presentation at
2.
On the screen, you will see:
What is being announced?
A. a change in a speaker
B. the cancelation of a lecture
C. the change of a venue
D. the confirmation of a schedule
The correct answer is B. the cancelation of a lecture. Now, let’s begin with the first
question.
1. How will the woman get to the airport?

A. she will get a ride with the man
B. she will ride the airport shuttle
C. she will drive her car
D. she will rent a car
2. What does the woman want to eat?

A. she would like eggs and potatoes
B. she wants eggs and pancakes
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C. she wants to eat potato pancakes

D. pancakes is what she would like to eat
3. How many boxes of cookies did the man order?

A. the man bought one box of cookies
B. the man ordered four boxes of cookies
C. he purchased five boxes of cookies
D. he did not order any cookies this year
4. What is the correct area code for the woman?

A. the number is 6-9-1
B. the area code is 1-9-6
C. 9-1-6 is the area code
D. 6-1-9 is the correct number
5. How much per copy will the woman pay?

A. she will pay eight cents per page
B. the price is ten cents a copy
C. she owes 15 cents per copy
D. 20 cents per page is the price
6. How much will the woman pay?

A. one dollar a minute
B. one dollar a page
C. 2 dollars and 50 cents a minute
D. 2 dollars and 50 cents a page
7. What does the woman want to do?

A. see a documentary
B. change the channel
C. watch television
D. go to a movie
8. What does the man want the woman to do?

A. he wants all 20 dollar bills
B. he wants all 50 dollar bills
C. he wants all large bills
D. he wants some 20 dollar and some 50 dollar bills

Questions 9 to 12
Listen to a conversation about a tragic event
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9. What is the topic of this conversation?

A. Fire damage to some apartments
B. How to prevent fires
C. An apartment fire and what one can learn from it
D. An early morning news story
10. According to the woman, how extensively were the apartments damaged?
A. One was damaged more severely than the others
B. All the apartments were completely destroyed
C. There was one thousand dollars of damage
D. All twenty apartments suffered some damage
11. What did the man say about some of the apartment residents?
A. They were killed
B. They were taken to the hospital
C. The damage to the apartments was more serious than the harm to the residents
D. They weren’t frightened
12. What advice does the man give to the woman to protect herself from fires?
A. Call the fire department
B. Rush to the hospital
C. Listen for a smoke alarm
D. Have an alarm and extinguisher in good condition
Questions 13 to 16
Listen to a conversation between two students
13. What are the man and woman discussing in this conversation?
A. A presentation for political science class
B. How quickly time passes
C. The differences between the various types of courts
D. A schedule for preparing for a political science exam
14. What will the man and woman discuss during their presentation?
A. Three levels of courts
B. Only the municipal courts
C. The state but not the federal courts
D. Only the state and federal courts
15. When do they next plan to meet?

A. On Thursday
B. On Monday
C. In a week
D. Before Monday
16. How much time do they have to prepare for the presentation?
A. Plenty of time
B. Until Monday
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C. About one week

D. Until a week from Monday
Questions 17 to 20
Listen to a conversation between two friends
17. When does the conversation probably take place?

A. Just before a vacation
B. Just after the end of a school semester
C. At the end of the summer
D. Just after a break from school
18. What are the man and woman discussing?

A. A trip to visit the Eskimos
B. A trip the woman is planning to take
C. A trip the man has already taken
D. A camping trip the man and the woman took
19. Which of the following is NOT part of the kayaking trip?

A. Sleeping outside on the ground
B. Spending time in a hot tub
C. Relaxing at the lodge
D. Enjoying excellent food
20. How does the woman feel about taking a kayaking trip?
A. She’d be scared, but she’d like to try
B. She can’t wait
C. It would be quite exciting for her
D. She’d prefer not to cry
Questions 21 to 25
Listen to a talk given by a professor
21. What prompted the conversation?
A. The man wants to place a classified ad in the newspaper.
B. The woman wants to find an apartment close to school
C. The man wants to pay for a newspaper subscription
D. The woman wants to fill out an application for employment
22. What does the man want to sell?

A. furniture B. books
C. garden supplies D. an apartment
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23. What is the man’s last name?

A. Martin B. Martyn
C. Wynn D. Wartin
24. How will the man pay?

A. He will pay by check
B. He will have the amount billed to his home address
C. He will give the woman cash
D. He will come back to pay when he is billed
25. Why does the man decide to revise what he has written?
A. To make it clearer to understand
C. To make it cheaper to print
B. To make it longer to read
D. To make it easier to use
Questions 26-30
26. What is the purpose of the conversation?
A. To help the woman make a purchase
B. To request the woman’s identification
C. To show the woman how to make out a check
D. To register the woman for a course at City colleage
27. What is meant by the term cash?

A. Money
B. Money or credit cards
C. Credit cards or checks
D. Checks or money
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28. How does the woman pay for her purchase?

A. Credit card
B. money
C. debit card
D. check
29. What did the woman use as identification?

A. She used her student ID and a charge card
B. She used her credit card
C. She used her driver’s license and her student ID card
D. She used her telephone number and her student ID card
30. Who is the man in this conversation?

A. A clerk
B. The woman’s husband
C. A police officer
D. A bank teller
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Questions 31-35
31. What is the main subject of the conversation?
A. The man’s last appointment
B. Professor Irwin’s office hours
C. Student advisement during registration
D. The man’s health problems
32. When is the man’s new appointment scheduled?

A. Tuesday at 2 o’clock
B. Thursday at 2 o’clock
C. This afternoon at three o’clock
D. Now
33. What should the man have done about his 1st appointment?
A. He should have made an appointment
B. He should have called to cancel his appointment
C. He should have come for his appointment
D. He should have stayed at home until he was well
34. What is the man’s excuse?

A. He was not well
B. He was out of town
C. He did not know what to do
D. He forgot the time
35. What word best describes professor Irwin’s attitude toward the student?
A. uninterested
B. apologetic
C. sick
D. annoyed
LISTENING TEST 4
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one
question for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A,
B, C or D.
Now, let's listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:
can help you with any other information. Goodbye.

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The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let's begin with the first question.
1. What is mentioned about Saigon House?

A. The prices are economical
B. The interior is unique
C. It is well known for its food
D. It is located on the beach
2. Who will be providing the food?

A. Nancy Hadley
B. The cafeteria staff
C. A caterer
D. Greentree Park staff
3. What does the announcement ask the passengers to do?

A. Return to the boarding area before 6
B. Hold on to their tickets
C. Wait until 4:30 to ride the boat
D. Have some snacks while waiting
4. What is NOT a reason the park was chosen?

A. Its quiet setting
B. Its size
C. Its unique color
D. Its natural beauty
5. Where is the construction taking place?

A. On Route 2 between Main St. And Diamond St.
B. On Route 2 between Harper Lane and Main St.
C. On Route 3 between Harper Lane and Arctic Blvd.
D. On Route 4 between Harper Lane and Main St.
6. What is the bad news for the travelers?

A. Some flights will be less comfortable
B. Ticket prices are higher
C. There is no bad news
D. There will be extra seats for them to use
7. What does Mark Hunt say about his classes?

A. They last 2 hours
B. They last 3 hours
C. They start at 5:30 p.m
D. They end at 9:00 p.m
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8. What does the store probably NOT sell?

A. TVs
B. DVD players
C. Leather coats
D. Radios
Questions 9 - 12 to 16 refer to the following conversation
9. Who does the student want to live with?

A. A local family to practice English
B. By herself
C. Other students her own age
D. Not mentioned
10. Will she live in the residential block?

A. Yes, because she will be living with other students her own age
B. No, because it’s full
C. No, because it’s too expensive
D. Yes, because she loves it
11. What are private lets?

A. Rooms that belong to the college
B. Flats and houses owned by private landlords
C. Rooms with a private bathroom
D. Flats and houses owned by college
12. What benefit can she have when she lives there?
A. Practice English
B. Go to the gym nearer
C. Go to the supermarket nearer
D. Find a part-time job easily
13. What is Harry’s problem?

A. He doesn’t want to sell his things
B. He needs to decide what to do with his possessions
C. He wants to take everything to England
D. He failed the exam
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14. Where is Harry going to advertise his books for sale?

A. In the university bookshop
B. In the student newspaper
C. In the economics department
D. In a second-hand shop
15. Andrea thinks it is unlikely students will buy the furniture because
A. They’re all doing the same thing
B. They live at home
C. It’s the summer vacation
D. They’re only keen to buy cheap textbooks
16. Andrea thinks that a second-hand shop

A. May not pay well
B. May not take your goods
C. May only take free goods
D. May not give a free quote
17. Where was sewage emptied out in the past?

A. Into the harbour
B. Into the lake
C. Into the river
D. Way out into the sea
18. Where is sewage poured out now?

A. Into the harbour
B. Into the lake
C. Into the river
D. Way out into the sea
19. Where does the pollution come from in the harbour?

A. The boats using the harbour and littering
B. The trading vessels using the harbour
C. The ferries
D. The state government
20. Who tries to clean the harbour?

A. The city council
B. The waste management company
C. The local diving clubs
D. The state government
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Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks. The talks will not repeated. There are five
questions for each talk. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
Questions 21- 25 refer to the following talk
21. What is the talk about?

A. Describe the history of a certain technology device
B. Advertise a new product
C. Introduce an invention
D. Talk about a company
22. What does QWERTY stand for?

A. Letters on the top row of the keyboard
B. The company that made the first typewriter
C. Letters on the home row of the keyboard
D. The history of typewriter
23. When did typewriter appear?

A. In late 19th B. In early 20th
C. In the early 1700s D. In 1873
24. The first commercial typewriter was developed in

A. Germany
B. Great Britain
C. United States
D. Canada
25. The purpose of the QWERTY keyboard layout was

A. To slow down typing speed
B. To prevent keys from sticking
C. To reduce typing inefficiency
D. To support the left-handed people
26. What is the program about?

A. Buying a new car
B. Buying a used car
C. New tricks
D. Difficult tasks
27. What don’t people buy new cars?
A. They are too expensive
B. They are too modern
C. They are too big
D. They aren’t charming
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28. What is a used car dealer?

A. A second hand car shop
B. A mechanic that repairs second hand cars
C. A station that sells second hand cars
D. A showroom where you can find second hand cars
29. What can you do if something goes wrong with the car?
A. Sell it back to the car dealer
B. Bring it to a mechanic
C. Send it back and get it repaired
D. Buy a new car
30. How much is a car from a dealer?

A. $800 to $1,000 B. £800 to £1,000
C. £600 to £1,000 D. €800 to €1,000
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following talk
31. In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador

A. as a tourist guide
B. as part of his studies
C. as a voluntary worker
D. as a teacher
32. Dan's neighbor was successful in business because he ____________.

A. employed carpenters· from the area
B. was the most skilled craftsman in the town
C. found it easy to reach customers
D. had money to start business
33. Dan says the charity relies on _____________.

A. getting enough bicycles to send regularly
B. finding new areas which need the bicycles
C. charging for the bicycles it sends abroad
D. finding areas which need bicycle repairing
34. What does Dan say about the town of Rivas?

A. It has received the greatest number of bikes
B. It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam
C. Its economy has been totally transformed
D. It is free from air pollution
35. What problem did the charity face in August 2000?
A. It couldn't meet its overheads
B. It faced the natural disaster
C. It had to delay sending the bikes
D. It was criticized in the British media
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PRACTICE TEST 5
Now, let’s listen to the example. On the recording, you will hear:
On the screen, you will see:
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let’s begin with the first question.
1. What is new about the fitness center that the listeners can enjoy?
A. using multiple locations
B. going on a vacation while using the service
C. meeting with a nutritionist
D. seeing a map
2. What is the man trying to do?

A. to eat something
B. to recommend a dish
C. to talk about ingredients
D. to serve a strict client
3. What problem does the speaker mention?

A. There is no more room for large bags
B. Too many tickets have been sold
C. Weather conditions have changed
D. A piece of equipment is being repaired
4. Why did the company choose the product?

A. It is reasonably priced
B. Arranging meetings would be easy
C. It has good security features
D. It has received positive reviews
20
5. What does the speaker say has recently been announced?

A. an increase in funding
B. a factory opening
C. a new venue for an event
D. a change in regulations
6. In which division do the listeners most likely work?

A. Shipping and Receiving
B. Maintenance
C. Sales and Marketing
D. Accounting
7. What event is being described?

A. a sports competition
B. a government ceremony
C. a presentation
D. a cooking contest
8. What is the purpose of the call?

A. to email a list of the products
B. to explain a company policy
C. to make a job offer
D. to discuss the database
correct answer A, B, C or D.
Questions 9 to 12
9. James chose to take Scandinavian Studies because when he was a child

A. he was often taken to Denmark
B. his mother spoke to him in Danish
C. a number of Danish people visited his family
D. he usually talked to Danish people
10. When he graduates, James would like to

A. take a postgraduate course C. learn about culture
B. become a translator D. work in the media
11. Which course will end this term?
A. Scandinavian literature
B. Swedish cinema
C. Danish television programs
D. other specialized courses
21
12. They agree that James’s literature paper this term will be on
A. literature and society
B. 19th century playwrights
C. the Icelandic sagas
D. modern Scandinavian novels
Questions 13 to 16
13. Natalie and Dave agree one reason why so few people visit Horton Castle is that
A. the publicity is poor
B. it is difficult to get to
C. there is little there of interest
D. there is no visitor center
14. Natalie and Dave agree that the greatest problem with a visitor center could be
A. covering the investment costs
B. finding a big enough space for it
C. dealing with planning restrictions
D. retirees are not interested
15. What does Dave say about conditions in the town of Horton?
A. There is a lot of unemployment
B. Youngsters are not well-trained
C. There are opportunities for skilled workers
D. There are few people of working age
16. According to Natalie, one way to prevent damage to the castle site would be to
A. insist visitors have a guide
B. make visitors keep to the paths
C. limit visitor numbers
D. do something with environmentalists
Questions 17 to 20
17. What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor?

A. the stories his grandfather told him
B. the times when he watched his grandfather working
C. the way he imagined his grandfather at work
D. the report he got from his father
18. In the play’s first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by
A. repetition of words and phrases
B. scenery painted in dull colors
C. long pauses within conversations
D. the frustration of the villagers
22
19. To support the production, research material was used which described
A. political developments
B. changing social attitudes
C. economic transformations
D. theater approach
20. What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal?
A. one person forgetting their words
C. no wheelchair on the stage
B. the injury of one character
D. an equipment failure
Questions 21 to 25
21. According to the manager, what do most people like about the job of a kitchen
assistant?
A. the variety of work
B. the friendly atmosphere
C. the opportunities for promotion
D. the responsibilities
22. The manager is concerned about some of the new staff’s

A. jewelry
B. hair styles
C. shoes
D. long hair
23. The manager says that the day is likely to be busy for kitchen staff because
A. it is a public holiday
B. the head chef is absent
C. some equipment is broken
D. the restaurant is almost fully booked
24. Only kitchen staff who are 18 or older are allowed to use
A. the waste disposal unit C. the meat slicer
B. the electric mixer D. the oven
25. According to the manager, which can make the job of kitchen assistant
stressful?
A. The kitchen gets very hot
B. The work is mentally demanding
C. The may not be able to take a break
D. They have to follow the orders immediately
23
Questions 26 to 30
26. Students should complete their work on the 1950s
A. if they want to be allowed to continue attending lectures
B. because they will appreciate the information about the 1960s more
C. otherwise they face the possibility of being failed for their coursework
D. or they will not figure out what is going on in the 1960s
27. According to the lecturer, the “baby boom” happened

A. because of relaxed attitudes in the sixties
B. during a time of war
C. due to large number of people approaching adulthood
D. because people felt more secure
28. According to the lecturer, compared to the 1950s, the 1960s were
A. more open
B. less modern
C. more conservative
D. just as conservative
29. According to the lecturer, literature changed the way women

A. over 40 were treated by society
B. viewed issues of race in society
C. felt about their roles in society
D. took their equality back
30. What happened at the start of the 1960s?

A. the first heart transplant
B. the introduction of the internet
C. the invention of lasers
D. the first man on the moon
Questions 31 to 35
31. Anita first felt the Matthews article was of value when she realized
A. how it would help her difficulties with left-handedness
B. the relevance of connections he made with music
C. it discouraged her from reading for further details
D. the impressive size of his research project
32. Anita feels that the findings on handedness will be of value in

A. helping sportspeople identify their weaknesses
B. aiding sportspeople as they plan tactics for each game
C. developing suitable training programs for sportspeople
D. ascertaining what trainers need to focus on
33. Anita feels that most sports coaches

24
A. know nothing about the influence of handedness

B. focus on the wrong aspects of performance
C. underestimate what science has to offer sports
D. realized the importance of mix-handedness
34. A German study showed there was greater “mixed handedness” in musicians
who
A. started playing instruments in early youth
B. play a string instrument such as the violin
C. practice a great deal on their instrument
D. play instruments regularly and for ages
35. Studies on ape behavior show that

A. apes which always use the same hand to get food are most successful
B. apes have the same proportion of left-and right-handers as humans
C. more apes are left-handed than right-handed
D. more food is collected by younger left-handed apes
PRACTICE TEST 6
answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have chosen.
Now, let's listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:

The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let's begin with the first question.
1. What is the man calling about?

A. A document C. A piece of luggage
B. A flight voucher D. A flight ticket
2. What change is expected this weekend?

A. The store will have new products
B. A website will be open
25
C. A special movie is being shown

D. The store will open earlier
3. Who most likely is the speaker?

A. A travel agent C. A tour guide
B. An actor D. A pilot
4. What is this speech about?

A. A new high-tech product C. A reduction in costs
B. A board meeting D. An increase in sales
5. What is Mr. Young’s profession?

A. News reporter C. Guitarist
B. Athlete D. Movie actor
6. How does the speaker know Mr. Lambough?

A. He is a close personal friend
B. He has read several of Mr. Lambough’s books
C. He attended one of Mr. Lambough’s lectures
D. He read Mr. Lambough’s newspaper columns
7. How long has Ms. Blackman worked in her profession?

A. Two years C. Ten years
B. Five years D. Fifteen year
8. What is the company offering this week only?

A. Free additional products C. Free delivery
B. Product warranty D. Discounts
correct answer A, B, C or D.

9. What do the two speakers have in common?
A. They are both studying social anthropology
B. Both of them are going to the museum on Saturday
C. They both have the same teacher
D. Both of them have studied anthropology before
10. When does the woman's class meet?
A. In the morning C. In the evening
B. In the afternoon D. Only on Saturdays
11. Which of the following topics would most likely be discussed in the man's
class?
A. Relationships between parents and children
B. The tools used by ancient people
26
C. Leadership in contemporary society

D. Marriage customs
12. What had the man's opinion of anthropology been before this term?
A. He found it uninteresting
B. He found it useful
C. He found it fascinating
D. He found it difficult
13. Where does the woman work?

A. At a university
B. At a television station
C. At a newspaper office
D. At a hospital
14. Why is the man applying for this position?

A. He needs a well-paying position
B. He was told to by a professor
C. He wants the experience
D. He recently lost another job
15. What is the man majoring in at the university?

A. Drama
B. Journalism
C. Telecommunications
D. History
16. What does the man need to do next in order to get the position?
A. Talk to Ms. Wagner
B. Drop a class
C. Change his major
D. Complete a form
17. Where does Mark work?

A. At a newspaper
B. At an advertising agency
C. At a furniture store
D. At a real estate office
18. Which of the following is Cecilia trying to find?

A. A two-bedroom apartment
B. A sofa
C. A chair
D. A roommate
27
19. Which of the following does Cecilia initially forget to tell Mark?
A. Her phone number
B. The location of the apartment
C. The best time to call her
D. Her first name
20. What is the total amount that the two advertisements will cost for one week?
A. $5 B. $15
C. $30 D. $250
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks, lectures conversations. The talks, lectures,
or conversations will not repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture,
conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following lecture
21. What is the main topic of this talk?

A. A football game
B. Jet transportation
C. The Hindenburg disaster
D. Lighter-than-air craft
22. Which of the following aircraft is classified as “non-rigid”?

A. Early twentieth century airships
B. Blimps
C. Jet aircraft
D. Modern airships
23. What material did the old zeppelins use to provide lift?
A. hydrogen B. helium
C. oxygen D. non-flammable gas
24. What important event in the history of airships took place at Lakehurst, New
Jersey, in 1937?
A. The age of zeppelins ended in disaster there
B. It was there that the first blimp was designed
C. The first blimp circled the stadium
D. It was there that the last zeppelin was built
25. According to the talk, what advantage would the airships of the future have over
jet airplanes?
A. They would be safer.
B. They would use less fuel.
C. They would be faster.
D. They could fly higher.
28
26. What is the main topic of this talk?

A. The Uniform Time Act
B. The role of daylight saving time in wartime
C. Ways to save energy
D. The history of daylight saving time
27. According to the speaker, when are clocks in the United States set back?
A. In the spring B. In the summer
C. In the fall D. In the winter
28. When did Benjamin Franklin propose the idea of daylight saving time?
A. In the 1790s B. In 1719
C. In 1966 D. In the World War I
29. According to the speaker, how would most people probably have characterized
Benjamin Franklin's plan?
A. It was confusing B. It was innovative
C. It was amusing D. It was wasteful
30. What was the effect of the Uniform Time Act of 1966?
A. To standardize daylight saving time
B. To establish year-round daylight saving time
C. To abolish daylight saving time
D. To shorten daylight saving time
Questions 31- 35 refer to the following lecture
31. Question 31: What is the main topic of this talk?

A. New theories about the origin of language
B. How to teach grammar to children
C. Mistakes children sometimes make
D. The stages of children's language learning
32. Which of the following sounds would a two-month-old baby be most likely to
produce?
A. “Koo, Koo.”
B. “Da-da.”
C. “More milk!”
D. “Na-na.”
33. At what age do most children begin to master the basics of grammar?
A. Between four and eight months
B. Between one year and eighteen months
C. Between two and three years
D. Between three and four years
29
34. What does the speaker say about the grammatical mistakes that four-year-olds
make?
A. They are the same in all languages
B. They are often misinterpreted
C. They are learned by imitation
D. They are quite logical
35. Why does the speaker not discuss the theories about how children acquire
language?
A. They are too complicated
B. She doesn't have time to talk about them today
C. The class didn't have a chance to read about them
D. She doesn't agree with them
30
VSTEP READING PRACTICE TEST

Duration: 60 minutes
Number of questions: 40 minutes
Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed
by 10 questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C, or D
for each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions.
READING TEST 1
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
Basic to any understanding of Canada in 20 years after the Second World War is the
country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over
five in 1996. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of
this surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930's and the war
had held back marriages and the catching – up process began after 1945. The baby boom
continued through the decade of the 1950's, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen
percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only
once before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911, when the prairies were being
settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950's supported a growth in the
population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an
increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per
thousand, one of the highest in the world.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued
falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the
low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in
Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer, more women were working,
young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families, rising
living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once
more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the
Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution.
Although the growth in Canada's population has slowed down by 1966(the increase in
the first half of the 1960's was only nine percent). Another large population wave was coming
over the horizon. It would be composed of the children of the children who were born during
the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society
B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in postwar Canada
D. Standards of living in Canada
31
2. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?

A. In the decade after 1911
B. After 1945
C. During the depression of the 1930's
D. In 1966
3. The word "five" in paragraph 1 refers to
A. Canadians
B. Years
C. Decades
D. Marriages
4. The word "surging" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. new
B. extra
C. accelerating
D. surprising
5. The word "trend" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. tendency
B. aim
C. growth
D. directive
6. The word "peak" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. pointed
B. dismal
C. mountain
D. maximum
7. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?
A. 1966
B. 1957
C. 1956
D. 1951
8. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population
growth after 1957 EXCEPT
A people being better educated
B people getting married earlier
C better standards of living
D couples buying houses
9. It can be inferred from the passage that before the industrial Revolution
A. families were larger
B. population statistics were unreliable
C. the population grew steadily
D. economic conditions were bad
32
10. The word "It" in the last paragraph refers to

A. horizon
B. population wave
C. nine percent
D. first half
Are organically grown foods the best food choices? The advantages claimed for such
foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated.
Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly – frequently proclaim
that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the
typical North American diet is a welcome development. However, much of this interest has
been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is unsafe or in adequate in meeting
nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific evidence,
the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general
public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely
of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health
have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.
Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for "no-aging" diets, new vitamins, and
other wonder foods. There are numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are
superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to unfertilized eggs,
that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like.
One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that
they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled
if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than
conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly
those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food and buy and buy only expensive organic
foods instead.
11. The word "organically" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. steadily
B. slowly
C. conventionally
D. naturally
12. The word "Advocates" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
A. Proponents
B. Merchants
C. Inspectors
D. Consumers
33
13. In paragraph 1, the word "others" refers to

A. advantages
B. advocates
C. organic foods
D. products
14. The "welcome development" mentioned in paragraph 2 is an increase in

A. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
B. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
C. the amount of healthy food grown in North America
D. the number of consumers in North America
15. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the term
"organic foods"?
A. It is accepted by most nutritionists
B. It has been used only in recent years
C. It has no fixed meaning
D. It is seldom used by consumers
16. The word "unsubstantiated" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. unbelievable
B. uncontested
C. unpopular
D. unverified
17. The word "maintain" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. improve
B. monitor
C. preserve
D. restore
18. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited
incomes buy organic foods instead of conventionally grown foods because
A. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally
grown foods
B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown
foods
C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods
D. too many farmers will stop using conventional methods to grow food crops
19. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are
better than conventionally grown foods are often
A. careless
B. mistaken
C. thrifty
D. wealthy
34
20. What is the author's attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health
foods?
A. Very enthusiastic
B. Somewhat favorable
C. Neutral
D. Skeptical
There are many theories about the beginning of drama in ancient Greece. The one
most widely accepted today is based on the assumption that drama evolved from ritual. The
argument for this view goes as follows. In the beginning, human beings viewed the natural
forces of the world, even the seasonal changes, as unpredictable, and they sought through
various means, to control these unknown and feared powers. Those measures which
appeared to bring the desired results were then retained and repeated until they hardened
into fixed rituals. Eventually stories arose which explained or veiled the mysteries of the
rites. As time passed some rituals were abandoned, but the stories, later called myths,
persisted and provided material for art and drama.
Those who believe that drama evolved out of ritual also argue that those rites contained
the seed of theater because music, dance, masks, and costumes were almost always used.
Furthermore, a suitable site had to be provided for performances, and when the entire
community did not participate, a clear division was usually made between the "acting area"
and the "auditorium." In addition, there were performers, and since considerable
importance was attached to avoiding mistakes in the enactment of rites, religious leaders
usually assumed that task. Wearing masks and costumes, they often impersonated other
people, animals, or supernatural beings, and mimed the desired effect - success in hunt or
battle, the coming rain, the revival of the Sun - as an actor might. Eventually such dramatic
representations were separated from religious activities.
Another theory traces the theater's origin from the human interest in storytelling.
According to this view, tales (about the hunt, war, or other feats) are gradually elaborated,
at first through the use of impersonation, action, and dialogue by a narrator and then through
the assumption of each of the roles by a different person. A closely related theory traces
theater to those dances that are primarily rhythmical and gymnastic or that are imitations
of animal movements and sounds.
21. What does the passage many discuss?
A. The origins of theater
B. The role of ritual in modern dance
C. The importance of storytelling
D. The variety of early religious activities
22. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to

A. seasonal changes C. theories
B. natural forces D. human beings
35
23. What aspect of drama does the author discuss in the first paragraph?
A. The reason drams are often unpredictable
B. The seasons in which dramas were performed
C. The connection between myths and dramatic plots
D. The importance of costumes in early drama
24. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a common element of theater and
ritual?
A. Dance
B. Costumes
C. Music
D. Magic
25. The word "considerable" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. thoughtful
B. substantial
C. relational
D. ceremonial
26. The word "enactment" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. establishment
B. performance
C. authorization
D. season
27. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to

A. mistakes
B. costumes
C. animals
D. performers
28. According to the passage, what is the main difference between ritual and
drama?
A. Ritual uses music whereas drama does not
B. Ritual is shorter than drama
C. Ritual requires fewer performers than drama
D. Ritual has a religious purpose and drama does not
29. The passage supports which of the following statements?

A. No one really knows how the theater began
B. Myths are no longer represented dramatically
C. Storytelling is an important part of dance
D. Dramatic activities require the use of costumes
30. The word "imitations" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. actions C. limitations
B. repetitions D. behaviors
36
Staggering tasks confronted the people of the United States, North and South, when
the Civil war ended. About a million and a half soldiers from both sides had to be
demobilized, readjusted to civilian life, and reabsorbed by the devastated economy. Civil
government also had to be put back on a peacetime basis and interference from the military
had to be stopped.
The desperate plight of the South has eclipsed the fact that reconstruction had to be
undertaken also in the North, though less spectacularly. Industries had to adjust to
peacetime conditions, factories had to be retooled for civilian needs.
Financial problems loomed large in both the North and the South. The national debt
had shot up from a modest $65 million in 1861, the year the ear started to nearly $3 billion
in 1865, the year the war ended. This was a colossal sum for those days but one that a
prudent government could pay. At the same time, war taxes had to be reduced to less
burdensome levels.
Physical devastation caused by invading armies, chiefly in the South and border states,
had to be repaired. This herculean task was ultimately completed, but with discouraging
slowness. Other important questions needed answering. What would be the future of the
four million black people who were freed from slavery? On what basis were the Southern
states to be brought back into the Union?
What of the Southern leaders, all of whom were liable to charges of treason? One of
these leaders, Jefferson Davis, President of the Southern Confederacy, was the subject of
an insulting popular Northern song, "Hang Jeff Davis from a Sour Apple Tree." And even
children sang it. Davis was temporarily chained in his prison cell during the early days of his
two-year imprisonment. But he and the other Southern leaders were finally released, partly
because it was unlikely that a jury from Virginia, a Southern Confederate state, would
convict them. All the leaders were finally pardoned by President Johnson in 1868 in an
effort to help reconstruction efforts proceed with as little bitterness as possible.

A. Wartime expenditures
B. Problems facing the United States after the war
C. Methods of repairing the damage caused by the war
D. The results of government efforts to revive the economy
32. The word "Staggering" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. specialized
B. confusing
C. various
D. overwhelming
33. The word "devastated" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. developing C. complicated
B. ruined D. fragile
37
34. According to the passage, which of the following statements about the damage
in the South is correct?
A. It was worse than in the North
B. The cost was less than expected
C. It was centered in the border states
D. It was remedied rather quickly
35. The passage refers to all of the following as necessary steps following the Civil
War EXCEPT
A. helping soldiers readjust
B. restructuring industry
C. returning government to normal
D. increasing taxes
36. The word "task" in paragraph 4 refers to

A. raising the tax level
B. sensible financial choices
C. worse decisions about former slaves
D. reconstruction of damaged areas
37. Why does the author mention a popular song in the last paragraph?
A. To give attitude towards the South
B. To illustrate the Northern love of music
C. To emphasize the cultural differences between the North and the South
D. To compare the Northern and Southern presidents
38. Which of the following can be inferred from the phrase " _____it was unlikely
that a jury from Virginia. a Southern Confederate state, would convict them"
(paragraph 5)?
A. Virginians felt betrayed by Jefferson Davis
B. A popular song insulted Virginian
C. Virginians were loyal to their leaders
D. All of the Virginia military leaders had been put in chains
39. The word "them" in paragraph 5 refers to

A. charges
B. leaders
C. days
D. irons
‘
40. It can be inferred from the passage that President Johnson pardoned the
Southern leaders in order to
A. raise money for the North
B. repair the physical damage in the South
C. prevent Northern leaders from punishing more Southerners
D. help the nation recover from the war
38
READING TEST 2
The Glen Nevis River Race

Glen Nevis is known as the. ‘outdoor capital’ of Scotland. Britain’s highest mountain,
Ben Nevis, rises above the area, while the waters of the River Nevis flow through the rocky
valley below. The spectacular scenery attracts walkers and climbers all through the seasons,
despite the cold weather in winter.
During the summer months, one of the most exciting activities is the annual Glen Nevis
River Race, in which competitors uses a lilo, a plastic bed filled with air normally used for
camping or floating in the sea, or another kind of beach toy to race along the river. There
are rocks, waterfalls and sections with scary names like Dead Dog Pool and the Leg Breaker
for them to get through though there are areas of calmer waters too.
Competitors set off at 30 second intervals by jumping with their lilos from a tiny shelf
in a rock into the fast-flowing water 12 metres below. It can take anything from 20 minutes
to over two hours to complete the course, depending on the level of the river and the abilities
of the competitor.
There is much discussion amongst people who take part regularly about which type of
lilo works best for the race. Some prefer short wide ones, while others say that a long narrow
one is better. But since you can use anything that floats, all kinds of beach toys such as
bananas, sharks and crocodiles can be floating down the river.
The only rules are that competitors must be at least 16 years old, and should provide
their own crash helmet, a rubber wet suit and a life jacket. Gloves and old trainers are
recommended to protect against knocks and bumps. The most important qualification,
however, is a sense of fun.
The race is full of exciting moments, and the greatest of these is at the Lower Falls
Leap, where terrified competitors have to jump over a ten-metre waterfall not far from the
finish. More than 3,000 athletes have taken part in the race during its 30-year history. Their
£30 entry fee helps to raise money for the mountain rescue team, whose members provide
an essential service in the region for free. The race is a popular afternoon out for visitors
and it costs nothing to watch, although any money given is gratefully accepted.
The prizes may not be fantastic, but everyone receives a certificate of completion and
the winner gets the tittle River Race Champion and all agree that it has been worth it for the
satisfying feeling of reaching the end safely.
1. Visitor come to Glen Nevis to
A. enjoy the cold weather and spectacular scenery
B. practise walking
C. challenge themselves with climbing activities
D. enjoy outdoor activities
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2. Parts of the course of the River Race are

A. really typical
B. quite easy to conquer
C. less rough than others
D. really dangerous
3. All competitors are able to

A. begin the race as ssoon as they are ready
B. finish the course within 20 minutes
C. swim for 12 metres
D. carry out the game based on their own strength
4. Types of lilo used can be

A. restricted to certain ones
B. varied as long as they can float
C. really important
D. divided into two types
5. Competitors must
A. prepare their own safety clothing
B. use safety clothing of the organisers
C. be more than 16 years old
D. use new trainers
6. The Lower Falls Leap

A. is the most frightening part
B. requires competitors to swim over ten metres
C. has been taken by 3,000 athletes
D. is the last challenge
7. Members in the rescue team

A. help raise money
B. receive £30 each
C. work voluntarily
D. are paid professionals
8. Visitors who come to see the race

A. should buy the tickets
B. could donate for some money
C. should be there in the morning
D. are fully charged
9. Certificates of completion is
A. given to all people there
B. only given to the winner
C. not really interesting
D. a great encouragement for competitors
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10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned?

A. Some people return to do the race again and again
B. All competitors need to be serious about the race
C. Competitors must bring lilos during the race
D. The race takes place at Glen Nevis river
Robert Capa
Robert Capa is a name that has for many years been synonymous with war
photography. Born in Hungary in 1913 as Friedmann Endre Ernő, Capa was forced to leave
his native country after his involvement in anti-government protests. Capa had originally
wanted to become a writer, but after his arrival in Berlin had first found work as a
photographer. He later left Germany and moved to France due to the rise in Nazism. He
tried to find work as a freelance journalist and it was here that he changed his name to
Robert Capa, mainly because he thought it would sound more American.
In 1936, after the breakout of the Spanish Civil war, Capa went to Spain and it was
here over the next three years that he built his reputation as a war photographer. It was here
too in 1936 that he took one of his most famous pictures, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier.
One of Capa’s most famous quotes was 'If your pictures aren't good enough, you're not
close enough.' And he took his attitude of getting close to the action to an extreme. His
photograph, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier is a prime example of this as Capa captures the
very moment the soldier falls. However, many have questioned the authenticity of this
photograph, claiming that it was staged.
When World war II broke out, Capa was in New York, but he was soon back in Europe
covering the war for Life magazine. Some of his most famous work was created on 6th June
1944 when he swam ashore with the first assault on Omaha Beach in the D-Day invasion of
Normandy. Capa, armed only with two cameras, took more than one hundred photographs
in the first hour of the landing, but a mistake in the darkroom during the drying of the film
destroyed all but eight frames. It was the images from these frames however that inspired
the visual style of Steven Spielberg's Oscar winning movie ‘Saving Private Ryan’. When Life
magazine published the photographs, they claimed that they were slightly out of focus, and
Capa later used this as the title of his autobiographical account of the war.
Capa’s private life was no less dramatic. He was friend to many of Hollywood’s
directors, actors and actresses. In 1943 he fell in love with the wife of actor John Austin. His
affair with her lasted until the end of the war and became the subject of his war memoirs.
He was at one time lover to actress Ingrid Bergman. Their relationship finally ended in 1946
when he refused to settle in Hollywood and went off to Turkey.
In 1947 Capa was among a group of photojournalists who founded Magnum Photos.
This was a co-operative organisation set up to support photographers and help them to
retain ownership of the copyright to their work.
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Capa went on to document many other wars. He never attempted to glamorise war
though, but to record the horror. He once said, "The desire of any war photographer is to be
put out of business."
Capa died as he had lived. After promising not to photograph any more wars, he
accepted an assignment to go to Indochina to cover the first Indochina war. On May 25th
1954 Capa was accompanying a French regiment when he left his jeep to take some
photographs of the advance and stepped on a land mine. He was taken to a nearby hospital,
still clutching his camera, but was pronounced dead on arrival. He left behind him a
testament to the horrors of war and a standard for photojournalism that few others have
been able to reach.
Capa’s legacy has lived on though and in 1966 his brother Cornell founded the
International Fund for Concerned Photography in his honor. There is also a Robert Capa
Gold Medal, which is given to the photographer who publishes the best photographic
reporting from abroad with evidence of exceptional courage. But perhaps his greatest legacy
of all are the haunting images of the human struggles that he captured.
11. Why did Capa change his name?

A. To hide his identity
B. Because he had been involved in protests
C. To sound more American
D. Because he had to leave Hungary
12. Capa originally wanted to be

A. A photojournalist
B. A writer
C. An American
D. A protestor
13. Capa went to Spain to

A. fight in the civil war
B. build his reputation
C. have a holiday
D. take photographs
14. Capa’s famous picture Death of a Loyalist Soldier

A. was taken by someone else
B. was definitely genuine
C. wasn’t even taken in Spain
D. cannot be proven genuine or staged
15. When World War II broke out Capa

A. went to New York
B. swam ashore on Omaha Beach
C. went to Europe
D. went to Normandy
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16. A mistake meant that

A. Most of Capa’s images of the D-Day landing were destroyed
B. Capa lost both of his two cameras
C. only one hundred of Capa’s photographs were published
D. Capa’s images inspired an Oscar winning movie
17. Capa’s private life was

A. less dramatic than his professional life
B. very glamorous
C. spent mostly in Hollywood
D. spent in Turkey
18. Capa wanted his work to

A. be very famous
B. show how glamorous war can be
C. show the true horror of war
D. make lots of money
19. Which sentence best paraphrases paragraph 3?

A. Capa took some of his most famous photographs during the D-Day invasion, but
most were tragically destroyed in an accident
B. Capa never tried to avoid danger. He risked his life to take photographs of the D-
Day invasion, but then destroyed most of them
C. Capa only kept the best eight D-Day photographs as the others were out of
focus. These inspired the visual style of a Hollywood film
D. Capa left Europe when the war broke out and went to take his most famous
photographs of the D-Day invasion
20. Which sentence best paraphrases paragraph 4?

A. Capa had a tragic private life and was never able to settle down and find
happiness
B. Despite having many good friends and lovers, Capa always put his work first
C. Capa wanted to make friends with important people in Hollywood so that he
could move into the movie industry
D. Capa’s private life was very complicated. He could not choose between the two
women he loved, so he went off to work in Turkey
The perfume story

The craft of perfumery has an ancient and global heritage. The art flourished in Ancient
Rome, where the emperors were said to bathe in scent. After the fall of Rome, much of the
knowledge was lost, but survived in Islamic civilizations in the Middle Ages. Arab and
Persian pharmacists developed essential oils from the aromatic plants of the Indian
peninsula. They developed the processes of distillation and suspension in alcohol, which
43
allowed for smaller amounts of raw materials to be used than in the ancient process, by
which flower petals were soaked in warm oil. This knowledge was carried back to European
monasteries during the Crusades.
At first, the use of fragrances was primarily associated with healing. Aromatic alcoholic
waters were ingested as well as used externally. Fragrances were used to purify the air,
both for spiritual and health purposes. During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was
thought to have resulted from a bad odour which could be averted by inhaling
pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon. The Black Death led to an aversion to using water
for washing, and so perfume was commonly used as a cleaning agent.
Later on, the craft of perfume re-entered Europe, and was centred in Venice, chiefly
because it was an important trade route and a centre for glass-making. Having such
materials at hand was essential for the distillation process. In the late seventeenth century,
trade soared in France, when Louis XIV brought in policies of protectionism and patronage
which stimulated the purchase of luxury goods. Here, perfumery was the preserve of glove-
makers. The link arose since the tanning of leather required putrid substances.
Consequently, the gloves were scented before they were sold and worn. A glove and
perfume makers’ guild had existed here since 1190. Entering it required 7 years of formal
training under a master perfumer.
The trade in perfume flourished during the reign of Louis XV, as the master glove-and-
perfume makers, particularly those trading in Paris, received patronage from the royal court,
where it is said that a different perfume was used each week. The perfumers diversified into
other cosmetics including soaps, powders, white face paints and hair dyes. They were not
the sole sellers of beauty products. Mercers, spicers, vinegar-makers and wig-makers were
all cashing in on the popularity of perfumed products. Even simple shopkeepers were
coming up with their own concoctions to sell.
During the eighteenth century, more modern, capitalist perfume industry began to
emerge, particularly in Britain where there was a flourishing consumer society. In France,
the revolution initially disrupted the perfume trade due to its association with aristocracy,
however, it regained momentum later as a wider range of markets were sought both in the
domestic and overseas markets. The guild system was abolished in 1791, allowing new
high-end perfumery shops to open in Paris.
Perfume became less associated with health in 1810 with a Napoleonic ordinance
which required perfumers to declare the ingredients of all products for internal consumption.
Unwilling to divulge their secrets, traders concentrated on products for external use.
Napoleon affected the industry in other ways too. With French ports blockaded by the British
during the Napoleonic wars, the London perfumers were able to dominate the markets for
some time.
One of the significant changes in the nineteenth century was the idea of branding. Until
then, trademarks had had little significance in the perfumery where goods were consumed
locally, although they had a long history in other industries. One of the pioneers in this field
was Rimmel who was nationalized as a British citizen in 1857. He took advantage of the
spread of railroads to reach customers in wider markets. To do this, he built a brand which
44
conveyed prestige and quality, and were worth paying a premium for. He recognised the
role of design in enhancing the value of his products, hiring a French lithographer to create
the labels for his perfume bottles.
21. The purpose of the text is to

A. compare the perfumes from different countries
B. describe the history of perfume making
C. describe the problems faced by perfumers
D. explain the different uses of perfume over time
22. Which of the following is NOT true about perfume making in Islamic countries?
A. They created perfume by soaking flower petals in oil
B. They dominated perfume making after the fall of the Roman Empire
C. They took raw materials for their perfumes from India
D. They created a technique which required fewer plant materials
23. Why does the writer include this sentence in paragraph 2?
During the Black Death, the bubonic plague was thought to have resulted from a bad
odour which could be averted by inhaling pleasant fragrances such as cinnamon.
A. To explain why washing was not popular during the Black Death
B. To show how improper use of perfume caused widespread disease.
C. To illustrate how perfumes used to be ingested to treat disease
D. To give an example of how fragrances were used for health purposes
24. Why did the perfume industry develop in Paris?

A. Because it was an important trade route
B. Because of the rise in the glove-making industry
C. Because of the introduction of new trade laws
D. Because of a new fashion in scented gloves
25. What does “putrid” mean in paragraph 3?

A. Bad-smelling
B. Rare
C. Prestigious
D. Numerous
26. Which of the following people most influenced the decline of perfumes as
medicine?
A. Louis XIV
B. Louis XV
C. Rimmel
D. Napoleon
45
27. In paragraph 4, it is implied that

A. Master glove and perfume makers created a new perfume each week
B. Mercers, spicers and other traders began to call themselves masters
C. The Royal Court only bought perfume from masters
D. Cosmetics were still only popular within the Royal Courts
28. How did the French Revolution affect the Parisian perfume industry?
A. The industry declined then rose again
B. The industry collapsed and took a long time to recover
C. The industry was greatly boosted
D. The industry lost most of its overseas customers
29. London came to lead the perfume industry because
A. the French were unable to export perfumes for a period of time
B. the production of perfume ceased during the Napoleonic wars
C. Napoleon’s new laws affected the profitability of perfume-making
D. the French Revolution meant that there were fewer customers in France
30. Which of the following is NOT true of Rimmel?

A. He created attractive packaging for his products
B. He was one of the first people to utilise trademarks
C. His products were more expensive than other brands
D. He transported his goods to potential customers by train
Armenian Culture
The Armenians became active in literature and many art forms at a very early point in
their civilization. Metalworking and architecture have been traced back to about 1000 B.C.
The beginning of truly national art is usually fixed at the onset of the Christian era. The three
great artistic periods coincided with times of independence or semi-independence: from the
fifth to the seventh century; the Bagratid golden age of the ninth and tenth centuries; and
the era of the kingdom of Lesser Armenia in the twelfth to fourteenth centuries.
Of especially high quality in the earlier periods were works in gold and bronze, as well
as temples, military fortifications, and aqueducts. In the early Christian era, classical church
architecture was adapted in a series of cathedrals. The circular domes typical of Armenian
churches were copied in Western Europe and in Ottoman Turkey. The best example of the
distinctive architectural sculpture used to adorn such churches is the early tenth-century
Church of the Holy Cross on an island in Lake Van. The architecture of contemporary Erevan
is distinguished by the use of pinkish tufa stone and a combination of traditional Armenian
and Russian styles.
Armenian painting is generally considered to have originated with the illumination of
religious manuscripts that thrived from the ninth to the seventeenth century. Armenian
painters in Cilicia and elsewhere enriched Byzantine and Western formulas with their unique
46
use of color and their inclusion of Oriental themes acquired from the Mongols. Many unique
Armenian illuminated manuscripts remain in museums in the West.
The nineteenth century saw a blooming of Armenian painting. Artists from that
period, such as the portrait painter Hacop Hovnatanian and the seascape artist Ivan
Aivazovsky, continue to enjoy international reputations. Notable figures of the twentieth
century include the unorthodox Alexander Bazhbeuk-Melikian, who lived a persecuted
existence in Tbilisi, and the émigré surrealist Arshile Gorky (pseudonym of Vosdanik
Adoian), who greatly influenced a generation of young American artists in New York. Other
émigré painters in various countries have continued the tradition as well.
The Armenian literary tradition began early in the fifth century A.D. with religious tracts
and histories of the Armenians. The most important of these were written by Agathangelos,
Egishe, Movses Khorenatsi, and Pavstos Buzand. A secular literature developed in the
early modern period, and in the eighteenth century Armenian Catholic monks of the
Mekhitarist order began publishing ancient texts, modern histories, grammars, and
literature. In the nineteenth century, Armenians developed their own journalism and public
theater. Khachatur Abovian wrote the first Armenian novel, Verk Haiastani (The Wounds of
Armenia), in the early 1840s. Armenian literature and drama often depict struggles against
religious and ethnic oppression and the aspirations of Armenians for security and self-
expression.
31. What is the passage about?
A. religion and culture in Armenia
B. Christianty and church architecture in Armenia
C. the history of metal working, architecture, paiting, and literture in Armenia
D. the thriving of fine arts in Armenia
32. What does the passage imply?
A. Paintings and literature work in Armenia were originated from Cilicia
B. Armenian painting and literature originated with the adoption of Christianity
C. Armenian art and literature were copied from Ottoman Turkey
D. Without Christianity, there would have been no art and literature in Armenia
33. In the last paragraph, what is NOT the meaning of the word "secular"?
A. blessed
B. not religious
C. civil
D. non spiritual
34. In the fourth paragraph, what do the words "that period" refer to?
A. the ninth century
B. the seventeenth century
C. the twentieth century
D. the nineteenth century
35. In the third paragraph, what is NOT the meaning of the word "illumination."?
47
A. illustration
B. copying
C. decoration
D. explanation
36. What did the three great artistic periods coincide with?
A. times of Armenian independence or semi-independence
B. the golden and brozen ages
C. the illumination of religious manuscripts
D. classical church architecture
37. Where does the sentence -- "Armenia accepted Christianity as its state religion
in A.D. 306." -- best belong?
A. at the end of the first paragraph
B. at the end of the second paragraph
C. in the second paragraph, after the third sentence
D. in the first paragraph, after the third sentence
38. What is an example of the influence Armenian art in the early Christian era?
A. Byzantine artists used Armenian paint colors
B. Ottoman Turkey and Europe copied the circular domes typical of Armenian
churches
C. Armenian artists had international reputations
D. Erevan applied only Russian style in his architect work
39. In the fourth paragraph, what is NOT the meaning of the word "blooming"?
A. flourishing
B. thriving
C. developing
D. withering
40. In the last paragraph, what is the meaning of the word "depict" mean?
A. prevent C. hide
B. distort D. describe
READING TEST 3

QQ
Most of the United States has, or can gain access to, ample supplies of fresh water
for drinking purposes. But, fresh water can be in short supply in some parts of the country
(and world). And, as the population continues to grow, shortages of fresh water will occur
more often, if only in certain locations. In some areas, salt water (from the ocean, for
instance) is being turned into freshwater for drinking.
48
In California, the towns of Santa Barbara and Avalon have begun using desalinization
methods to remove the salt from seawater and make it suitable for drinking. A promising
method to desalinate seawater is the "reverse osmosis" method. Right now, the high cost of
desalinization has kept it from being used more often, as it can cost over $1,000 per acre-
foot to desalinate seawater as compared to about $200 per acre-foot for water from normal
supply sources. Desalinization technology is improving and costs are falling, though, and
Tampa Bay, FL is currently desalinizing water at a cost of only $650 per acre foot. As both
the demand for fresh water and technology increase, you can expect to see more
desalinization occurring, especially in areas such as California and the Middle East.
What do we mean by "saline water?" Water that is saline contains significant amounts
(referred to as "concentrations") of dissolved salts. In this case, the concentration is the
amount (by weight) of salt in water, as expressed in "parts per million" (ppm). If water has a
concentration of 10,000 ppm of dissolved salts, then one percent (10,000 divided by
1,000,000) of the weight of the water comes from dissolved salts.
Here are our parameters for saline water:
· Fresh water - Less than 1,000 ppm

· Slightly saline water - From 1,000 ppm to 3,000 ppm
· Moderately saline water - From 3,000 ppm to 10,000 ppm
· Highly saline water - From 10,000 ppm to 35,000 ppm
By the way, ocean water contains about 35,000 ppm of salt.
1. There is a shortage of fresh water

A. in all areas of the United States
B. in no area of the United States
C. in some areas of the United States
D. in most areas of the United States
2. In the future, shortages of fresh water

A. will be about the same as now
B. will become more common
C. will become less common
D. will not happen
3. According to the article, reverse osmosis will probably be
A. a poor method of desalinization in the future
B. a good method of desalinization in the future
C. an unreliable method of desalinization in the future
D. a cheap method of desalinization in the future
4. Desalinization isn't being used much at present because

A. it is too expensive
B. it is too inefficient
C. it is too slow
D. it is too complicated
49
5. In the future, desalinization will probably be used

A. the same as now
B. less than now
C. more than now
D. more frequently
6. The concentration of salt in water is measured

A. by weight
B. by volume
C. by ppm
D. by percent
7. If water has a concentration of 5,000 ppm of dissolved salts, then _____ of the
weight of the water comes from dissolved salts.
A. two percent
B. fifty percent
C. one percent
D. one half of one percent
8. “Significant” probably means

A. just enough to be measured
B. extremely large
C. fairly large
D. enormous
9. As it is used here, “parameters” probably means about the same as

A. limits.
B. volumes.
C. recommendations.
D. constraints
10. The removal of salt from water is called
A. desalinization
B. reverse osmosis
C. parts per million
D. dissolution
No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By

changing word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are
able to communicate tiny variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question,
state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take place, and perform many other
word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the
English language. All languages, even those of so-called 'primitive' tribes have clever
grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish
between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In English,
50
all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal
and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question
which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?
At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how
grammar is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation,
documenting its emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex
languages back to earlier languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex
languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how languages are started
from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.
Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that
time, slaves from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under
colonizer's rule. Since they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they
developed a make-shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from
the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and in many cases
it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to
whom. [A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning
understood. [B] Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex
language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their
mother tongue. [C] Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their
elders, they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. [D] Complex
grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by
children.
Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign
languages are not simply a series of gestures; they utilize the same grammatical machinery
that is found in spoken languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used
worldwide. The creation of one such language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua.
Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in 1979 a new government
introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip reading in
the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the
gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs
differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school
later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign
language. Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's
language was more fluid and compact, and it utilized a large range of grammatical devices
to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new
creole was born.
Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were
creoles at first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It
ended' may once have been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most
widespread languages were partly created by children. Children appear to have innate
grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are first trying to make
sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex
structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
51
11. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee
language?
A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar
structures
B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language
12. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?

A. It contained complex grammar
B. It was based on many different languages
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves
D. It was created by the land-owners
13. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT
A. The language has been created since 1979
B. The language is based on speech and lip reading
C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home
D. The language was perfected by younger children
14. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?

It included standardized word orders and grammatical markers that existed in
neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
15. 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. from the very beginning
B. in simple cultures
C. by copying something else
D. by using written information
16. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. complicated and expressive
B. simple and temporary
C. extensive and diverse
D. private and personal
17. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?

Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how
widespread it is.
52
A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people,
contain grammar
B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a
little
C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages
that contain a little
D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages
evolved
18. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT
A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning
B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language
C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities
19. Which idea is presented in the last paragraph?
A. English was probably once a creole
B. The English past tense system is inaccurate
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children
D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults
20. Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced
by which of the following?
A. natural
B. predictable
C. imaginable
D. uniform
Memorandum
To all staff,
The hospital is always trying to cut its carbon footprint, and to do this, we want to
encourage staff, visitors and patients to use environmentally-friendly forms of transport to
and from the hospital. Therefore, we are making the following changes, which will come
into effect from 1st April:
Car Park A will stay as a staff car park, but, to encourage car sharing, it will only be
available to cars containing 3 passengers or more. This rule will be in place between 7am
and 6pm. A car park attendant will monitor users. Note that cars do not have to leave the
car park with three passengers. The parking fee will remain at the current price of £1 an
hour up to a maximum of £5 per day. If you are interested in car sharing and wish to find
members of staff who live in your area or along your route, please click on the link on the
human resources page of the hospital website. Car Park C, previously a staff-only car-
park, will now be open to visitors at the increased cost of £2/hour up to 5 hours, and £1 an
hour after that. These new rates will also apply to staff/visitor Car Park E. Car Park B will
53
only be open to blue card holders. Only senior and emergency staff are eligible for this
card.
Car park D will no longer be in use, as it will make way for an improved bus park. The
current bus service (Service 56D) from the city centre will be replaced by two services.
The service will be available to staff, patients and visitors alike.
Service 57A will run from: Hebdon Town centre, Hebden Station, Critchley Park and
Ride, Grafton Street Train Station, Portchester City Centre (Bus Stop D on Mill Yard) to the
hospital. The service will run 24 hours a day every 20 minutes between 7am and 7pm and
once an hour during the night.
Service 62A will run from Oldgrave Town Centre, Kings Wood Park and Ride and
Polegate Park and Ride to the hospital every 15 minutes between 7.30 am and 7.00 pm
and once every 30 minutes thereafter.
The buses will have a flat rate of £1 per journey. Staff will be able to buy a bus pass
valid for 20 trips for just £15. These can be purchased on the bus.
Staff can also purchase a Go! pass from the human resources website. The Go! pass
costs £45 and entitles users to park at any of the city’s park and ride services for just £2 a
day. It is valid for one year.
There will also be an improved lock-up shed for bicycles and motorcycles in the
former car park D. Hospital staff may wish to take advantage of the voucher giving 50% off
all cycles and cycle accessories bought from Perkin’s Wheels, which is downloadable from
the Human Resources website. Note that you will have to show your staff ID card at the
store when making purchases. There will be a fix-it session once a fortnight in car park D
on Fridays at 2pm- 5pm. At this time, bicycle mechanics from Perkins Wheels will give
advice on bicycle upkeep and make minor bicycle repairs free of charge.
We hope you will take advantages of these schemes.
21. Under the rules, staff can only park in car park A at noon if
A. they hold a blue card
B. there are three people in the car
C. there are two people in the car
D. they stay for a maximum of 5 hours
22. The cost to park in Car Park A for 4 hours will be
A. £4 B. £14
C. £5 D. £15
23. Staff should _____ to find people to share a car with them.
A. visit the human resources department. C. ask their friends
B. speak to their departmental manager. D. go online
24. After April 1st, Car Park C will be for

A. staff only
B. visitors only
C. staff and visitors
54
D. everybody
25. The cost to park in Car Park C for 8 hours will be

A. £8 B. £13
C. £18 D. £ 23
26. The cost to park in Cark Park E for 4 hours will be

A. £4 B. £7
C. £8 D. £10
27. The cost to park in Car Park B is

A. not given in the text
B. the same as car parks C & E.
C. the same as car park A
D. £5
28. Joe sometimes works the night shift. What is the maximum time he may have to
wait for a bus from the hospital to the station?
A. 30 minutes B. 35 minutes
C. 40 minutes D. 59 minutes
29. Jane has to make 8 return trips to the hospital from Oldgrave Town Centre for
treatment. How much money will she save by buying a bus pass?
A. £1 B. £4
C. £7 D. £11
30. Which is NOT true about Perkin’s Wheels?

A. It sells bicycles and motorbikes
B. It will sell goods to staff at half price
C. It will fix staff member’s bikes for no charge
D. It will fix cars for staff members
The modern age is an age of electricity. People are so used to electric lights, radio,
televisions, and telephones that it is hard to imagine what life would be like without them.
When there is a power failure, people grope about in flickering candlelight. Cars hesitate in
the streets because there are no traffic lights to guide them, and food spoils in silent
refrigerators.
Yet, people began to understand how electricity works only a little more than two
centuries ago. Nature has apparently been experimenting in this field for millions of years.
Scientists are discovering more and more that the living world may hold many interesting
secrets of electricity that could benefit humanity.
All living cells sent out tiny pulses of electricity. As the heart beats, it sends out
pulses of recorded electricity; they form an electrocardiogram, which a doctor can study to
determine how well the heart is working. The brain, too, sends out brain waves of
55
electricity, which can be recorded in an electroencephalogram. The electric currents

generated by most living cells are extremely small-of-ten so small that sensitive
instruments are needed to record them. But in some animals, certain muscle cells have
become so specialized as electrical generators that they do not work as muscle cells at all.
When large numbers of these cells are linked together, the effects can be astonishing.
The electric eel is an amazing storage battery. It can send a jolt of as much as eight
hundred volts of electricity through the water in which it lives. An electric house current is
only one hundred twenty volts.) As many as four fifths of all the cells in the electric eel’s
body are specialized for generating electricity, and the strength of the shock it can deliver
corresponds roughly to the length of its body.
31. What does the word HESITATE in the first paragraph mean?
A. crash C. be uncertain
B. stop D. be fast
32. How long ago did human know about electricity?

A. more than twenty years ago
B. more than two hundred years ago
C. more than two thousand years ago
D. more than two million years ago
33. From the sentence: “All living cells sent out tiny pulses of electricity”, we can
infer
A. Electric pulses of animals are dangerous for themselves
B. Very tiny animals like mosquitoes do not have
C. A dead elephant still have electric pulses
D. A fly has pulses of electricity
34. The word “astonishing” can be replaced by ……

A. surprising B. small C. strong D. weak
35. The phrase “four fifths” means ….

A. 45 B. 54 C. 4/5 D. 5/4
36. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Electric eels are potentially dangerous
B. Biology and electricity appear to be closely related
C. People would be at a loss without electricity
D. Scientists still have much to discover about electricity
37. The author mentions all of the following as results of a blackout EXCEPT
A. refrigerated food items may go bad
B. traffic lights do not work
C. people must rely on candlelight
D. elevators and escalators do not function
56
38. Why does the author mention electric eels?

A. To warn the reader to stay away from them
B. To compare their voltage to that used in houses
C. To give an example of a living electrical generator
D. To describe a new source of electrical power
39. How many volts of electricity can an electric eel emit?

A. 1,000 B. 800 C. 200 D. 120
40. It can be inferred from the passage that the longer an eel is the
A. more beneficial it will be to science
B. more powerful will be its electrical charge
C. easier it will be to find
D. tougher it will be to eat
READING TEST 4
Just as optical fibers have transformed communication, they are also revolutionizing
medicine. These ultra-thin, flexible fibers have opened a window into the living tissues of
the body. By inserting optical fibers through natural openings or small incisions and
threading them along the body’s established pathways, physicians can also look into the
lungs, intestines, heart, and other areas that were formerly inaccessible to them.
The basic fiber-optics system is called a fiberscope, which consists of two bundles of
fibers. One, the illuminating bundle, carries light into the tissues. It is coupled to a high-
intensity light source. Light enters the core of the high-purity silicon glass and travels along
the fibers. A lens at the end of the bundle collects the light and focuses it into the other
bundle, the image bundle. Each fiber in the bundle transmits only a tiny fraction of the total
image. The reconstruction image can be viewed through an eyepiece or displayed on a
television screen. During the last five years, improved method of fabricating optical fibers
have led to a reduction in fiberscope diameter and an increase in the number of fibers, which
in turn has increased resolution.
Optical fibers can also be used to deliver laser light. By use of laser beams, physicians
can perform surgery inside the body, sometimes eliminating the need for invasive
procedures in which healthy tissue must be cut through to reach the site of disease. Many
of these procedures do not require anesthesia and can be performed in a physician’s office.
These technique have reduced the risk and the cost of medical care.
1. What is the main subject of the passage?
A. A revolution in communication
B. The invention of optical fibers
C. New surgical techniques
D. The role of optical fibers in medicine
57
2. The author uses the expression “have opened a window” to indicate that the use
of optical fibers____________.
A. has enabled scientists to make amazing discoveries
B. sometimes requires a surgical incision
C. allows doctors to see inside the body without major surgery
D. has been unknown to the general public quite until recently
3. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “formerly”?

A. Previously
B. Completely
C. Usually
D. Theoretically
4. The word “them” refers to ___________.

A. Optical fibers
B. Pathways
C. Other areas of the body
D. Physicians
5. According to the passage, what is the purpose of the illuminating bundle in a

fiberscope?
A. To carry light into the body
B. To collect and focus light
C. To reconstruct image
D. To perform surgery inside the body
6. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “core”?

A. Tips
B. Centers
C. Clusters
D. Lines
7. According to the passage, how do fiberscope used today differ from those used
five years ago?
A. They use brighter light.
B. They are longer
C. They contain more fibers
D. They are larger in diameter
8. The word “resolution” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Strength
B. Sharpness
C. Inconvenience
D. Efficiency
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the author as one of the advantages
of laser surgery techniques?
58
A. They can be performed in a physician’s office

B. They are safer than conventional surgery
C. They can be performed without anesthesia
D. They are relatively easy to teach to physician
10. What is the basic description of a fiberscope?

A. Has two bundles of fibers
B. Has a lens at the start of each bundle
C. Has a lens at the start of the two bundles
D. Has two illuminating bundles of fibers
Many flower plants woo insect pollinators and gently direct them to their most fertile
blossoms by changing the color of individual flowers from day to day. Through color cues,
the plant signals to the insect that it would be better off visiting one flower on its bush than
another. The particular hue the pollinator that the flower is full of far more pollen than
neighboring blooms. That nectar-rich flower also happens to be fertile and ready to disperse
its pollen or to receive pollen the insect has picked up from another flowers. Thus, the
colored-coded communication system benefits both plants and insect.
For example, on the lantana plant, a flower starts out on the first day as yellow, when
it is rich with pollen and nectar. Influenced by an as-yet-inidentified environmental signal,
the flower changes color by triggering the production of the pigment anthromyacin. It turns
orange on the second day and red on the third. The the third day, it has no pollen to offer
insects and is no longer fertile. On any given lantana bush, only 10 to 15 percent of the
blossoms are likely to be yellow and fertile. But in tests measuring the responsiveness of
butterflies, it was discovered that the insects visited the yellow flowers at least 100 times
more than would be expected from haphazard visitation. Experiment with paper flowers and
painted flowers demonstrated that the butterflies were responding to color cues rather than,
say, the scene of the nectar.
In other types of plants, blossoms change from white to red, others from yellow to
red, and so on. These color changes have been observed in some 74 families of plants.
11. The first paragraph of the passage implies that insects benefit from the color-
coded communication system because__________.
A. The colors hide them from the predators.
B. They can gather pollen efficiently.
C. The bright colors attract fertile females
D. Other insect species can not understand the code
12. The word “woo” is closest in meaning to________.

A. frighten
B. trap
C. deceive
D. attract
59
13. The word “it” refers to________.

A. a plant
B. an insect
C. a signal
D. a blossom
14. The word “hue” is closest in meaning to________.

A. smell
B. texture
C. color
D. shape
15. Which of the following describes the sequence of color changes that lantana
blossoms undergo?
A. Red to yellow to white
B. White to red
C. Yellow to orange to red
D. Red to purple
16. The word “triggering” is closest in meaning to ________.

A. maintaining
B. renewing
C. limiting
D. activating
17. The passage implies that insects would be most attracted to lantana
blossoms__________.
A. On the first day that they bloom
B. When they turn orange
C. On the third day that they bloom
D. After they produce anthromyacin
18. According to the passage, what is the purpose of the experiments involving paper
flowers and painted flowers?
A. To strengthen the idea that butterflies are attracted by the smell of flowers
B. To prove that flowers do not always need pollen to reproduce
C. To demonstrate how insects change color depending on the type of flower they visit
D. To support the idea that insects respond to the changing color of flowers
19. The word “haphazard” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Dangerous
B. Random
C. Fortunate
D. Expected
20. What is known from the passage about the other types of plants?
A. They follow various sequences of color changes
60
B. They use scent and other methods of attracting pollinators

C. They have not been studied as thoroughly as the latana
D. They have exactly the same pigments as the lantana
While many nineteenth-century reformers hoped to bring about reform through

education or by eliminating specific social evils, some thinkers wanted to start over and
remake society by founding ideal, cooperative communities. The United States seemed to
them a spacious and unencumbered country where models of a perfect society could
succeed. These communitarian thinkers hoped their success would lead to imitation, until
communities free of crime, poverty, and other social ills would cover the land. A number of
religious groups, notably the Shakers, practiced communal living, but the main impetus to
found model communities came from nonreligious, rationalistic thinkers.
Among the communitarian philosophers, three of the most influential were Robert
Owen, Charles Fourier, and John Humprey Noyes Owen, famous for his humanitarian
policies as owner of several thriving textile mills in Scotland, believed that faulty
environment was to blame for human problems and that these problems could be eliminated
in a rationally planned society. In 1825, he put his principles into practice at New Harmony,
Indiana. The community failed economically after a few years but not before achieving a
number of social successes. Fourier, a commercial employee in France, never visited the
United States. However, his theories of cooperative living influenced many Americans
through the writings of Albert Brisbane, whose Social Destiny of Man explained Fourier-ism
and its self-sufficient association or “phalanxes”. One or more of these phalanxes was
organized in every Northern state. The most famous were Red Bank, New Jersey, and Brook
farm, Massachusetts. An early member of the latter was the author Nathaniel Hawthorne.
Noyes founded the most enduring and probably the oddest of the utopian communities, the
Oneida Community of upstate New York. Needless to say, none of these experiments had
any lasting effects on the patterns of American society.
21. The main topic of the passage is ___________.
A. nineteenth-century schools
B. model communities in the nineteenth century
C. the philosophy of Fourier-ism
D. American reformers
22. Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as one of the general goals
of communitarian philosophers?
A. To establish ideal communities
B. To spread their ideas throughout the United States.
C. To create opportunities through education
D. To remake society
23. The Shakers are mentioned as an example of __________.

A. an influential group of writers
61
B. radical reformers
C. rationalistic thinkers
D. a communal religious group
24. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “impetus”?

A. Stimulus
B. Commitment
C. Drawback
D. Foundation
25. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “thriving”?

A. famous
B. prosperous
C. failing
D. pioneering
26. The “phalanxes’ described in the second paragraph were an idea originally
conceived by_____________.
A. Albert Brisbane
B. Robert Owen
C. Charles Fourier
D. John Humphrey Noyes
27. Why does the author mention Nathaniel Hawthorne?

A. He founded Brook farm in Massachusetts
B. He was a critic of Charles Fourier
C. He was at one time a member of the Brook farm community
D. he wrote a book that led to the establishment of model communities
28. Which of the following communities lasted longest?

A. New Harmony B. Brook Farm
C. Red Bank D. The Oneida community
29. The author implies that, for readers, the conclusion of the passage is
___________.
A. obvious
B. surprising
C. absurd
D. practical
30. Why did the author probably divide the passage into two paragraphs?
A. To compare nineteenth-century reforms with twentieth-century reforms
B. To contrast the work of Utopian thinkers with that of practical reformers
C. To present an overview of a concept in the first paragraph and specific examples
in the second
D. To give the causes for a phenomenon in the first paragraph and its
consequences in the second

62
Lighthouses are towers with strong lights that help mariners plot their positions, inform
them that land is near, and warn them of dangerous rocks and reefs. They are placed at
prominent points on the coast and on island, reefs, and sandbars.
Every lighthouse has a distinctive pattern of light known as its characteristic. There are
five basic characteristics: fixed, flashing, occulting, group flashing, and group occulting. A
fixed signal is a steady beam. A flashing signal had periods of darkness longer than periods
of light, while an occulting signal’s periods of light are longer. A group-lasting light gives off
two or more flashes at regular intervals, and group-occulting signal consists of a fixed light
with two or more periods of darkness at regular intervals. Some lighthouses use lights of
different colors as well, and today, most light-houses are also equipped with radio beacons.
The three types of apparatus used to produce the signals are catoptric, in which metal is
used to reflect the light; the dioptric, in which glass is used; and the catadioptric, in which
both glass and metal are used.
In the daytime, lighthouses can usually be identified by their structure alone. The most
typical structure is a tower tapering at the top, but some, such as the Bastion Lighthouse
on the saint Lawrence River, are shaped like Pyramids, and others, such as the Race Rock
Light, look like wooden houses sitting on high platforms. Still others, such as the American
Shoal Lighthouse off the Florida Coast, are skeletal towers of steel. Where lighthouses might
be confused in daylight, they can be distinguished by day-maker patterns- designs of checks
and stripes painted in vivid colors on lighthouse walls.
In the past, the job of lighthouse keeper was lonely and difficult, if somewhat romantic.
Lighthouse keepers put in hours of tedious work maintaining the lights. Today, lighthouses
are almost entirely automated with human supplying only occasional maintenance. Because
of improvements in navigational technology, the importance of lighthouses has diminished.
There are only about 340 functioning lighthouses in existence in the United States today,
compared to about 1,500 in 1900, and there are only about 1,400 functioning lighthouses
outsides the United States. Some decommissioned lighthouses have been preserved as
historical monuments.
31. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as one of the functions
of lighthouses?
A. To help sailors determine their location
B. To warn of danger from rocks and reefs
C. To indicate that land is near
D. To notify sailors that bad weather is approaching
32. The word “their” refers to _____________.

A. mariners’
B. lighthouses’
C. dangers’
D. lights’
63
33. In the context of the passage, the author uses the term “characteristic” to refer
to ___________.
A. period of darkness
B. distinctive light signal
C. pattern painted on a lighthouse
D. someone who operates a lighthouse
34. According to the passage, what kind of signal has long periods of light that are
regularly broken by two or more periods of darkness?
A. group flashing
B. flashing
C. occulting
D. group occulting
35. According to the passage, a catoptric apparatus is one that uses ___________.
A. metal
B. lights of various colors
C. glass
D. a radio beacon
36. For which of the following does the author NOT provide a specific example in the
third paragraph?
A. a lighthouse with day-marker patterns
B. a lighthouse made of steel
C. a lighthouse shaped like a pyramid
D. a lighthouse that resembles a house on a platform
37. The word “Tapering” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. soaring
B. narrowing
C. opening
D. rotating
38. It can be concluded from the passage that lighthouses with day-marker patterns
would most likely be found in areas where ___________.
A. the weather is frequently bad
B. the structures themselves can not be easily seen by passing mariners
C. there are a number of lighthouses with similar structures
D. there are not many lighthouses
39. The author implies that, compared to those of the past, contemporary
lighthouses________
A. employ more powerful lights
B. are more romantic
C. are more difficult to operate
D. require less maintenance
64
40. There is information in the fourth paragraph to support which of these

statements?
A. There are more lighthouses in the United States now than there were in 1900
B. There were more lighthouses in the United States in 1900 than there are
elsewhere in the world today
C. There are more functioning light-houses in the United States today than there are
lighthouses preserved as historical monuments
D. There are more lighthouses in the United States today than in any other single
country
PRACTICE TEST 5
Each advance in microscopic technique has provided scientists with new perspectives
on the function of living organisms and the nature of matter itself. The invention of the visible-
light microscope late in the sixteenth century introduced a previously unknown realm of
single-celled plants and animals. In the twentieth century, electron microscopes have
provided direct views of viruses and minuscule surface structures. Now another type of
microscope, one that utilize X-rays rather than light or electrons, offers a different way of
examining tiny details, it should extend human perception still farther into the natural world.
The dream of building an X-ray microscope dates to 1895, its development, however,
was virtually halted in the 1940's because the development of the electron microscope was
progressing rapidly. During the 1940's electron microscopes routinely achieved resolution
better than that possible with a visible-light microscope, while the performance of X-ray
microscopes resisted improvement. In recent years, however, interest in X-ray microscopes
has revived, largely because of advances such as the development of new sources of X-ray
illumination. As a result, the brightness available today is millions of times that of X-ray tubes,
which, for most of the century, were the only available sources of soft X-rays.
The new X-ray microscopes considerably improve on the resolution provided by optical
microscopes. They can also be used to map the distribution of certain chemical elements.
Some can form pictures in extremely short times, others hold the promise of special
capabilities such as three dimensional imaging. Unlike conventional electron microscopy, X-
ray microscopy enables specimens to be kept in air and in water, which means that
biological samples can be studied under conditions similar to their natural state. The
illumination used, so-called soft X-rays in the wavelength range of twenty to forty angstroms
(an angstrom is one ten-billionth of a meter), is also sufficiently penetrating to image intact
biological cells in many cases. Because of the wavelength of the X-rays used, soft X-ray
microscopes will never match the highest resolution possible with electron microscopes.
Rather, their special properties will make possible investigations that will complement those
performed with light- and electron-based instruments.
65

A. The detail seen through a microscope
B. Sources of illumination for microscopes
C. A new kind of microscope
D. Outdated microscopic technique
2. According to the passage, the invention of the visible-light microscope allowed
scientists to
A. see viruses directly
B. develop the electron microscope later on
C. understand more about the distribution of the chemical elements
D. discover single celled plants and animals they had never seen before
3. The word "minuscule" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. circular
B. dangerous
C. complex
D. tiny
4. The word "it" in in the first paragraph refers to
A. a type of microscope
B. human perception
C. the natural world
D. light
5. Why does the author mention the visible light microscope in the first
paragraph?
A. To begin a discussion of sixteenth century discoveries
B. To put the X-ray microscope in historical perspective
C. To show how limited its uses are
D. To explain how it functioned
6. Why did it take so long to develop the X-ray microscope?
A. Funds for research were insufficient
B. The source of illumination was not bright enough until recently
C. Materials used to manufacture X-ray tubes were difficult to obtain
D. X-ray microscopes were too complicated to operate
7. The word "enables" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. constitutes C. expands
B. specifies D. allows
8. The word "Rather" in in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. significantly
B. preferably
C. somewhat
D. instead
9. The word "those" in in the last paragraph refers to
66
A. properties
B. investigations
C. microscopes
D. X-rays
10. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about X-ray
microscopes in the future?
A. They will probably replace electron microscopes altogether
B. They will eventually be much cheaper to produce than they are now
C. They will provide information not available from other kinds of microscopes
D. They will eventually change the illumination range that they now use
Many trees in the Brackham area were brought down in the terrible storms that March.
The town itself lost two great lime trees from the former market square. The disappearance
of such prominent features had altered the appearance of the town center entirely, to the
annoyance of its more conservative inhabitants.
Among the annoyed, under more normal circumstances, would have been Chief
Inspector Douglas Pelham, head of the local police force. But at the height of that week's
storm, when the wind brought down even the mature walnut tree in his garden, Pelham had
in fact been in no fit state to notice. A large and healthy man, he had for the first time in
his life been seriously ill with an attack of bronchitis.
When he first complained of an aching head and tightness in his chest, his wife, Molly,
had tried to persuade him to go to the doctor. Convinced that the police force could not do
without him, he had, as usual, ignored her and attempted to carry on working. Predictably,
though he wouldn't have listened to anyone who tried to tell him so, this had the effect of
fogging his memory and shortening his temper.
It was only when his colleague, Sergeant Lloyd, took the initiative and drove him to the
doctor's door that he finally gave in. By that time, he didn't have the strength left to argue
with her. In no time at all, she was taking him along to the chemist's to get his prescribed
antibiotics and then home to his unsurprised wife who sent him straight to bed.
When Molly told him, on the Thursday morning, that the walnut tree had been brought
down during the night, Pelham hadn't been able to take it in. On Thursday evening, he had
asked weakly about damage to the house, groaned thankfully when he heard there was
none, and pulled the sheets over his head.
It wasn't until Saturday, when the antibiotics took effect, his temperature dropped and
he got up, that he realized with a shock that the loss of the walnut tree had made a
permanent difference to the appearance of the living-room. The Pelhams' large house stood
in a sizeable garden. It had not come cheap, but even so Pelham had no regrets about
buying it. The leafy garden had created an impression of privacy. Now, though, the storm
had changed his outlook.
67
Previously, the view from the living room had featured the handsome walnut tree. This
had not darkened the room because there was also a window on the opposite wall, but it
had provided interesting patterns of light and shade that disguised the true state of the worn
furniture that the family had brought with them from their previous house.
With the tree gone, the room seemed cruelly bright, its worn furnishings exposed in all
their shabbiness. And the view from the window didn't bear looking at. The tall house next
door, previously hidden by the tree, was now there, dominating the outlook with its
unattractive purple bricks and external pipes. It seemed to have a great many upstairs
windows, all of them watching the Pelhams' every movement.
'Doesn't it look terrible?' Pelham croaked to his wife.
But Molly, standing in the doorway, sounded more pleased than dismayed. 'That's what
I've been telling you ever since we came here. We have to buy a new sofa, whatever it
costs.'
11. Why were some people in Brackham annoyed after the storm?
A. The town looked different
B. The police had done little to help
C. No market could be held
D. Fallen trees had not been removed
12. The author mentions “for the first time in his life” in the second paragraph in
order to
A. emphasize that the man had never been sick at all
B. convey the idea that he wanted to be noticed
C. remind people of paying closer attention to their health
D. state that this was the first time he was badly ill
13. In the third paragraph, what do we learn about Chief Inspector Pelham's
general attitude to his work?
A. He finds it extremely annoying
B. He is sure that he fulfils a vital role
C. He considers the systems are not clear enough
D. He does not trust the decisions made by his superiors
14. Who does 'her' in paragraph 4 refer to?

A. Molly Pelham
B. the doctor
C. the chemist
D. Sergeant Lloyd
15. The word “chemist’s” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. pharmacist
B. drugstore
C. chemistry store
D. laboratory
68
16. When Inspector Pelham's wife first told him about the walnut tree, he
appeared to be
A. worried
B. shocked
C. saddened
D. uninterested
17. What aspect of the Pelhams' furniture does 'shabbiness' in paragraph 8

describe?
A. its color
B. its condition
C. its position
D. its design
18. As a result of the storm, the Pelhams' living-room

A. was pleasantly lighter
B. felt less private
C. had a better view
D. was in need of repair
19. Why did Molly sound pleased by her husband's comment?

A. It proved that he was well again
B. She agreed about the tree
C. She thought he meant the sofa
D. It was what she expected him to say
20. From what we learn of Inspector Pelham, he could best be described as

A. open-minded
B. well-liked
C. warm-hearted
D. strong-willed
Bring back the big cats

It's time to start returning vanished native animals to Britain, says John Vesty
There is a poem, written around 598 AD, which describes hunting a mystery animal
called a Ilewyn. But what was it? Nothing seemed to fit, until 2006, when an animal bone,
dating from around the same period, was found in the Kinsey Cave in northern England.
Until this discovery, the lynx — a large spotted cat with tasselled ears was presumed to have
died out in Britain at least 6,000 years ago, before the inhabitants of these islands took up
farming But the 2006 find, together with three others in Yorkshire and Scotland, is compelling
evidence that the lynx and the mysterious Ilewyn were in fact one and the same animal. If
this is so, it would bring forward the tassel-eared cat's estimated extinction date by roughly
5,000 years.
69
However, this is not quite the last glimpse of the animal in British culture. A 9th-century
stone cross from the Isle of Eigg shows, alongside the deer, boar and aurochs pursued by
a mounted hunter, a speckled cat with tasselled ears. Were it not for the animal's, backside
having worn away with time, we could have been certain, as the lynx's stubby tail is
unmistakable. But even without this key feature, it's hard to see what else the creature could
have been. The lynx is now becoming the totemic animal of a movement that is transforming
British environmentalism: rewilding.
Rewilding means the mass restoration of damaged ecosystems. It involves letting trees
return to places that have been denuded, allowing parts of the seabed to recover from
trawling and dredging, permitting rivers to flow freely again. Above all, it means bringing
back missing species. One of the most striking findings of modern ecology is that
ecosystems without large predators behave in completely different ways from those that
retain them. Some of them drive dynamic processes that resonate through the whole food
chain, creating niches for hundreds of species that might otherwise struggle to survive. The
killers turn out to be bringers of life.
Such findings present a big challenge to British conservation, which has often selected
arbitrary assemblages of plants and animals and sought, at great effort and expense, to
prevent them from changing. It has tried to preserve the living world as if it were a jar of
pickles, letting nothing in and nothing out, keeping nature in a state of arrested development.
But ecosystems are not merely collections of species; they are also the dynamic and ever-
shifting relationships between them. And this dynamism often depends on large predators.
At sea the potential is even greater: by protecting large areas from commercial fishing,
we could once more see what 18th-century literature describes: vast shoals of fish being
chased by fin and sperm whales, within sight of the English shore. This policy would also
greatly boost catches in the surrounding seas; the fishing industry's insistence on scouring
every inch of seabed, leaving no breeding reserves, could not be more damaging to its own
interests.
Rewilding is a rare example of an environmental movement in which campaigners
articulate what they are for rather than only what they are against. One of the reasons why
the enthusiasm for rewilding is spreading so quickly in Britain is that it helps to create a more
inspiring vision than the green movement's usual promise of 'Follow us and the world will be
slightly less awful than it would otherwise have been.'
The lynx presents no threat to human beings: there is no known instance of one
preying on people. It is a specialist predator of roe deer, a species that has exploded in
Britain in recent decades, holding back, by intensive browsing, attempts to re-establish
forests. It will also winkle out sika deer: an exotic species that is almost impossible for human
beings to control, as it hides in impenetrable plantations of young trees. The attempt to
reintroduce this predator marries well with the aim of bringing forests back to parts of our
bare and barren uplands The lynx requires deep cover, and as such presents little risk to
sheep and other livestock, which are supposed, as a condition of farm subsidies, to be kept
out of the woods.
70
On a recent trip to the Cairngorm Mountains, I heard several conservationists suggest

that the lynx could be reintroduced there within 20 years. If trees return to the bare hills
elsewhere in Britain, the big cats could soon follow. [A] The lynx has now been reintroduced
to the Jura Mountains, the Alps, the Vosges in eastern France and the Harz mountains in
Germany, and has re-established itself in many more places. The European population has
tripled since 1970 to roughly 10,000. [B] As with wolves, bears, beavers, boar, bison, moose
and many other species, the lynx has been able to spread as farming has left the hills and
people discover that it is more lucrative to protect charismatic wildlife than to hunt it, as
tourists will pay for the chance to see it. [C] Large-scale rewilding is happening almost
everywhere — except Britain. [D]
Here, attitudes are just beginning to change. Conservationists are starting to accept
that the old preservation-jar model is failing, even on its own terms. Already, projects such
as Trees for Life in the Highlands provide a hint of what might be coming. An organisation
is being set up that will seek to catalyse the rewilding of land and sea across Britain, its aim
being to reintroduce that rarest of species to British ecosystems: hope.
21. What did the 2006 discovery of the animal bone reveal about the lynx?
A. Its physical appearance was very distinctive
B. Its extinction was linked to the spread of farming
C. It vanished from Britain several thousand years ago
D. It survived in Britain longer than was previously thought
22. What point does the writer make about large predators in the third paragraph?
A. Their presence can increase biodiversity
B. They may cause damage to local ecosystems
C. Their behaviour can alter according to the environment
D. They should be reintroduced only to areas where they were native
23. What does the writer suggest about British conservation in the fourth
paragraph?
A. It has failed to achieve its aims
B. It is beginning to change direction
C. It has taken a misguided approach
D. It has focused on the most widespread species
24. Protecting large areas of the sea from commercial fishing would result in
A. practical benefits for the fishing industry
B. some short-term losses to the fishing industry
C. widespread opposition from the fishing industry
D. certain changes to techniques within the fishing industry
25. According to the author, what distinguishes rewilding from other environmental
campaigns?
A. Its objective is more achievable
B. Its supporters are more articulate
C. Its positive message is more appealing
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D. It is based on sounder scientific principles
26. The lynx would reduce the numbers of certain wild animals whose populations
in recent decades
A. have stayed static
B. have fluctuated
C. have plunged dramatically
D. have increased enormously
27. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
important ways or leave out essential information.
A. There is no evidence that the lynx has ever put humans in danger
B. People will never know what preys on them
C. The lynx once attacked people
D. The lynx fed by people has been unrevealed yet
28. The word "lucrative" in the eighth paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. incentive
B. expensive
C. unbeneficial
D. profitable
29. The word "here" in the last paragraph refers to

A. in the Highlands
B. Europe in general
C. Germany
D. Britain
30. Look at the four squares […] that indicate where the following sentence can be
added to the passage.
There is nothing extraordinary about these proposals, seen from the perspective of
anywhere else in Europe.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A] B. [B]
C. [C] D. [D]
72
Music and the emotions

Neuroscientist Jonah Lehrer considers the emotional power of music
Why does music make us feel? On the one hand, music is a purely abstract art form,
devoid of language or explicit ideas. And yet, even though music says little, it still manages
to touch us deeply. When listening to our favourite songs, our body betrays all the symptoms
of emotional arousal. The pupils in our eyes dilate, our pulse and blood pressure rise, the
electrical conductance of our skin is lowered, and the cerebellum, a brain region associated
with bodily movement, becomes strangely active. Blood is even re-directed to the muscles
in our legs. In other words, sound stirs us at our biological roots.
A recent paper in Nature Neuroscience by a research team in Montreal, Canada, marks
an important step in revealing the precise underpinnings of 'the potent pleasurable stimulus'
that is music. Although the study involves plenty of fancy technology, including functional
magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and ligand-based positron emission tomography (PET)
scanning, the experiment itself was rather straightforward. After screening 217 individuals
who responded to advertisements requesting people who experience 'chills' to instrumental
music, the scientists narrowed down the subject pool to ten. They then asked the subjects
to bring in their playlist of favourite songs — virtually every genre was represented, from
techno to tango — and played them the music while their brain activity was monitored.
Because the scientists were combining methodologies (PET and fMRI), they were able to
obtain an impressively exact and detailed portrait of music in the brain. The first thing they
discovered is that music triggers the production of dopamine — a chemical with a key role
in setting people's moods — by the neurons (nerve cells) in both the dorsal and ventral
regions of the brain. As these two regions have long been linked with the experience of
pleasure, this finding isn't particularly surprising.
What is rather more significant is the finding that the dopamine neurons in the caudate
— a region of the brain involved in learning stimulus-response associations, and in
anticipating food and other 'reward' stimuli — were at their most active around 15 seconds
before the participants' favourite moments in the music. The researchers call this the
'anticipatory phase' and argue that the purpose of this activity is to help us predict the arrival
of our favourite part. The question, of course, is what all these dopamine neurons are up to.
Why are they so active in the period preceding the acoustic climax? After all, we typically
associate surges of dopamine with pleasure, with the processing of actual rewards. And yet,
this cluster of cells is most active when the `chills' have yet to arrive, when the melodic
pattern is still unresolved.
[A] One way to answer the question is to look at the music and not the neurons. While
music can often seem (at least to the outsider) like a labyrinth of intricate patterns, it turns
out that the most important part of every song or symphony is when the patterns break down,
when the sound becomes unpredictable. [B] Numerous studies, after all, have demonstrated
that dopamine neurons quickly adapt to predictable rewards. If we know what's going to
73
happen next, then we don't get excited. This is why composers often introduce a key note
in the beginning of a song, spend most of the rest of the piece in the studious avoidance of
the pattern, and then finally repeat it only at the end. [C] The longer we are denied the
pattern we expect, the greater the emotional release when the pattern returns, safe and
sound. [D]
To demonstrate this psychological principle, the musicologist Leonard Meyer, in his
classic book Emotion and Meaning in Music (1956), analysed the 5th movement of
Beethoven's String Quartet in C-sharp minor, Op. 131. Meyer wanted to show how music is
defined by its flirtation with — but not submission to — our expectations of order. Meyer
dissected 50 measures (bars) of the masterpiece, showing how Beethoven begins with the
clear statement of a rhythmic and harmonic pattern and then, in an ingenious tonal dance,
carefully holds off repeating it. What Beethoven does instead is suggest variations of the
pattern. He wants to preserve an element of uncertainty in his music, making our brains beg
for the one chord he refuses to give us. Beethoven saves that chord for the end.
According to Meyer, it is the suspenseful tension of music, arising out of our
unfulfilled expectations, that is the source of the music's feeling. While earlier theories
of music focused on the way a sound can refer to the real world of images and experiences
— its `connotative' meaning — Meyer argued that the emotions we find in music come from
the unfolding events of the music itself. This 'embodied meaning' arises from the patterns
the symphony invokes and then ignores. It is this uncertainty that triggers the surge of
dopamine in the caudate, as we struggle to figure out what will happen next. We can predict
some of the notes, but we can't predict them all, and that is what keeps us listening, waiting
expectantly for our reward, for the pattern to be completed.
31. What point does the writer emphasize in the first paragraph?
A. how dramatically our reactions to music can vary
B. how intense our physical responses to music can be
C. how little we know about the way that music affects us
D. how much music can tell us about how our brains operate
32. What view of the Montreal study does the writer express in the second paragraph?
A. Its aims were innovative
B. The approach was too simplistic
C. It produced some remarkably precise data
D. The technology used was unnecessarily complex
33. What does the writer find interesting about the results of the Montreal study?
A. the timing of participants' neural responses to the music
B. the impact of the music on participants' emotional state
C. the section of participants' brains which was activated by the music
D. the type of music which had the strongest effect on participants' brains
34. Why does the writer refer to Meyer's work on music and emotion?
A. to propose an original theory about the subject
B. to offer support for the findings of the Montreal study
74
C. to recommend the need for further research into the subject

D. to present a view which opposes that of the Montreal researchers
35. According to Leonard Meyer, what causes the listener's emotional response to music?
A. the way that the music evokes poignant memories in the listener
B. the association of certain musical chords with certain feelings
C. the listener's sympathy with the composer's intentions
D. the internal structure of the musical composition
36. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in
A. The music’s feeling comes from unpredictable tension of music caused by
expectations that are not met
B. The unpredictable tension of music is from the music’s feeling which arises
unfinished expectations
C. The source of the music’s feeling can be explained as the fulfilling unpredictable
expectations
D. The suspense od music arises from what we expect out of the music’s feeling
37. The word "dilate" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. close
B. open
C. change
D. see
38. The word "this" in the third paragraph refers to

A. food
B. music
C. dopamine
D. 15 seconds
39. The phrase “piece” in the fourth paragraph refers to

A. a song
B. a part of a study
C. a key note
D. a single pattern
40. Look at the four squares […] that indicate where the following sentence can be
added to the passage
If the music is too obvious, it is annoyingly boring, like an alarm clock.
A. [A] B. [B]
C. [C] D. [D]
75
PRACTICE TEST 6
In addition to their military role, the forts of the nineteenth century provided numerous
other benefits for the American West. The establishment of these posts opened new roads
and provided for the protection of daring adventurers and expeditions as well as established
settlers. Forts also served as bases where enterprising entrepreneurs could bring commerce
to the West, providing supplies and refreshments to soldiers as well as to pioneers. Posts
like Fort Laramie provided supplies for wagon trains traveling the natural highways toward
new frontiers. Some posts became stations for the pony express; still others, such as Fort
Davis, were stagecoach stops for weary travelers. All of these functions, of course, suggest
that the contributions of the forts to the civilization and development of the West extended
beyond patrol duty.
Through the establishment of military posts, yet other contributions were made to the
development of western culture. Many posts maintained libraries or reading rooms, and
some — for example, Fort Davis — had schools. Post chapels provided a setting for religious
services and weddings. Throughout the wilderness, post bands provided entertainment and
boosted morale. During the last part of the nineteenth century, to reduce expenses,
gardening was encouraged at the forts, thus making experimental agriculture another
activity of the military. The military stationed at the various forts also played a role in civilian
life by assisting in maintaining order, and civilian officials often called on the army for
protection.
Certainly, among other significant contributions the army made to the improvement of
the conditions of life was the investigation of the relationships among health, climate, and
architecture. From the earliest colonial times throughout the nineteenth century, disease
ranked as the foremost problem in defense. It slowed construction of forts and inhibited
their military function. Official documents from many regions contained innumerable reports
of sickness that virtually incapacitated entire garrisons. In response to the problems, detailed
observations of architecture and climate and their relationships to the frequency of the
occurrence of various diseases were recorded at various posts across the nation by military
surgeons.
1. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
A. By the nineteenth century, forts were no longer used by the military
B. Surgeons at forts could not prevent outbreaks of disease
C. Forts were important to the development of the American West
D. Life in nineteenth-century forts was very rough
2. The word “daring” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________

A. lost B. bold
C. lively D. foolish
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3. Which of the following would a traveler be LEAST likely to obtain at Fort Laramie?
A. Fresh water B. Food
C. Formal clothing D. Lodging
4. The word “others” in the passage refers to _________

A. posts B. wagon trains
C. frontiers D. highways
5. The word “boosted” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.

A. influenced B. established
C. raised D. maintained
6. Which of the following is the most likely inference about the decision to promote
gardening at forts?
A. It was expensive to import produce from far away
B. Food brought in from outside was often spoiled
C. Gardening was a way to occupy otherwise idle soldiers
D. The soil near the forts was very fertile
7. According to the passage, which of the following posed the biggest obstacle to the
development of military forts?
A. Insufficient shelter
B. Shortage of materials
C. Attacks by wild animals
D. Illness
8. The word “inhibited” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________

A. involved B. exploited
C. united D. hindered
9. How did the military assist in the investigation of health problems?

A. By registering annual birth and death rates
B. By experimenting with different building materials
C. By maintaining records of diseases and potential causes
D. By monitoring the soldiers’ diets
10. The author organizes the discussion of forts by _________
A. describing their locations
B. comparing their sizes
C. explaining their damage to the environment
D. listing their contributions to western life
77
Anyone who has handled a fossilized bone knows that it is usually not exactly like its
modern counterpart, the most obvious difference being that it is often much heavier. Fossils
often have the quality of stone rather than of organic materials, and this has led to the use
of the term “petrifaction” (to bring about rock). The implication is that bone and other tissues
have somehow been turned into stone, and this is certainly the explanation given in some
texts. But it is a wrong interpretation; fossils are frequently so dense because the pores and
other spaces in the bone have become filled with minerals taken up from the surrounding
sediments. Some fossil bones have all the interstitial spaces filled with foreign minerals,
including the marrow cavity, if there is one, while others have taken up but little from their
surroundings. Probably all of the numerals deposited within the bone have been
recrystallized from solution by the action of water percolating through them. The degree of
mineralization appears to be determined by the nature of the environment in which the bone
was deposited and not by the antiquity of the bone. For example, the black fossil bones that
are so common in many parts of Florida are heavily mineralized, but they are only about
20,000 years old, whereas many of the dinosaur bones from western Canada, which are
about 75 million years old, are only partially filled in. Under optimum conditions the process
of mineralization probably takes thousands rather than millions of years, perhaps
considerably less.
The amount of change that has occurred in fossil bone, even in bone as old as that of
dinosaurs, is often remarkably small. We are therefore usually able to see the microscopic
structure of the bone, including such fine details as the lacunae where the living bone cells
once resided. The natural bone mineral, the hydroxyapatite, is virtually unaltered too — it
has the same crystal structure as that of modern bone.
Although nothing remains of the original collagen, some of its component amino acids
are usually still detectable, together with amino acids of the non-collagen proteins of bone.
A. The location of fossils in North America
B. The composition of fossils
C. Determining the size and weight of fossils
D. Procedures for analyzing fossils
12. The word “counterpart” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________

A. species B. version
C. change D. material
13. Why is fossilized bone heavier than ordinary bone?

A. Bone tissue solidifies with age
B. The marrow cavity gradually fills with water
C. The organic materials turn to stone
D. Spaces within the bone fill with minerals
78
14. The word “pores” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________

A. joints B. tissues
C. lines D. holes
15. What can be inferred about a fossil with a high degree of mineralization?
A. It was exposed to large amounts of mineral-laden water throughout time
B. Mineralization was complete within one year of the animal’s death
C. Many colorful crystals can be found in such a fossil
D. It was discovered in western Canada
16. Which of the following factors is most important in determining the extent of
mineralization in fossil bones?
A. The age of the fossil
B. Environmental conditions
C. The location of the bone in the animal’s body
D. The type of animal the bone came from
17. Why does the author compare fossils found in western Canada to those found in
Florida?
A. To prove that a fossil’s age cannot be determined by the amount of mineralization
B. To discuss the large quantity of fossils found in both places
C. To suggest that fossils found in both places were the same age
D. To explain why scientists are especially interested in Canadian fossils
18. The word “it” in the passage refers to _________

A. hydroxyapatite
B. microscopic structure
C. crystal structure
D. modem bone
19. The word “detectable” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________

A. sizable B. active
C. moist D. apparent
20. Which of the following does NOT survive in fossils?

A. Non-collagen proteins
B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Collagen
D. Amino acid
Impeachment
Under the Constitution, the House of Representatives has the power to impeach a
government official, in effect serving as prosecutor. The Senate then holds the impeachment
trial, essentially serving as jury and judge, except in the impeachment of a president when
79
the chief justice presides. The president, vice president, and all civil officers of the United
States are subject to impeachment; conviction means automatic removal from office.
The concept of impeachment originated in England and was adopted by many of the
American colonial governments and state constitutions. At the Constitutional Convention,
the framers considered several possible models before deciding that the Senate should try
impeachments. Since 1789, only 17 federal officers have been impeached by the House, 14
of which were tried by the Senate. Three were dismissed before trial because the individual
had left office, 7 ended in acquittal and 7 in conviction. All of those convicted were federal
judges.
Impeachment is a very serious affair. It is perhaps the most awesome power of
Congress, the ultimate weapon it wields against officials of the federal government. The
House of Representatives is the prosecutor. The Senate chamber is the courtroom. The
Senate is the jury and also the judge, except in the case of a presidential impeachment trial
when the chief justice presides. The final penalty is removal from office. There is no appeal.
So grave is this power of impeachment, and so conscious is the Congress of this
solemn power, that impeachment proceedings have been initiated in the House only sixty-
two times since 1789. Only seventeen federal officers have been impeached: two
presidents, one cabinet officer, one senator and thirteen federal judges. Sixteen cases have
reached the Senate. Of these, two were dismissed before trial because the individuals had
left office, seven ended in acquittal, and seven in conviction. Each of the seven Senate
convictions has involved a federal judge.
The American colonial governments and early state constitutions followed the British
pattern of trial before the upper legislative body on charges brought by the lower house.
Despite these precedents, a major controversy arose at the Constitutional Convention
about whether the Senate should act as the court of impeachment. Opposing that role for
the Senate, James Madison and Charles Cotesworth Pinckney asserted that it would make
the president too dependent on the legislative branch. They suggested, as alternative trial
bodies, the Supreme Court or the chief justices of the state supreme courts. Hamilton and
others argued, however, that such bodies would be too small and susceptible to corruption.
In the end, after much wrangling, the framers selected the Senate as the trial forum.
There was also considerable debate at the convention in Philadelphia over the
definition of impeachable crimes. In the original proposals, the president was to be
removed on impeachment and conviction “formal or corrupt conduct,” or for “malpractice or
neglect of duty.” Later, the wording was changed to “treason, bribery, or corruption,” then to
“treason or bribery” alone. A final revision defined impeachable crimes as “treason, bribery,
or other high crimes and misdemeanors.”
In the Constitution, the House is given the “sole power of impeachment.” To the Senate
is given “the sole power to try all impeachments.” Impeachments may be brought against
“the President, Vice President, and all civil officers of the United States.” Conviction is
automatically followed by “removal from office.”
While the framers very clearly envisaged the occasional necessity of initiating
impeachment proceedings, they put in place only a very general framework. [A] They left
80
many questions open to differences of opinion and many details to be filled in. [B] Despite
the open-endedness, as Peter Charles Hoffer and N.E.H. Hull note in their book
Impeachment in America 1635-1805, thanks to the framers: a tool used in Parliament to
curb kings and punish placemen was molded into an efficient legislative check upon
executive and judicial wrongdoing. [C] The power of the English House of Commons to
impeach anyone, for almost any alleged offense, was restrained; the threat of death and
forfeiture upon conviction was lifted; and the interference of the Commons and the House
of Lords with the regular courts of justice was limited. [D] American impeachment law
shifted, at first inadvertently and then deliberately, from the orbit of English precedent to a
native republican course. Federal constitutional provisions for impeachment reflected
indigenous experience and revolutionary tenets instead of English tradition.
21. The word “power” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________
A. motivation
B. desire
C. bearing
D. authority
22. In paragraph 2, the author explains that the idea of impeachment began _________
A. at the Constitutional Convention
B. in 1789
C. in England
D. in colonial governments
23. According to paragraph 3, what three roles do the House of Representatives and
Senate play in the impeachment process?
A. Government official, jury, judge
B. Prosecutor, jury, judge
C. President, prosecutor, judge
D. Civil officers, jury, prosecutor
24. The word “wields” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________

A. uses B. maintains
C. formulates D. shapes
25. According to paragraph 4, how many impeachment proceedings have been

initiated since 1789?
A. Seventeen B. Two
C. Sixty-two D. Sixteen
26. The word “precedents” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. charges B. statutes
C. examples D. claims
27. According to the passage, the impeachment process incorporates _________

A. the House of Representatives and the Senate
B. the Senate and the President
81
C. a Chief Justice and the House of Representatives

D. a Chief Justice and the Senate
28. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the
highlighted sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in
A. Philadelphians debated considerably over the definition of impeachable crimes
B. Formidable debate occurred at the convention in Philadelphia concerning the
meaning of impeachable crimes
C. Impeachable crimes were debated at the convention in Philadelphia
D. The classification of impeachable crimes was a significant debate at the
Philadelphia convention
29. All of the following are mentioned as part of the final definition of impeachment
EXCEPT _________
A. corruption B. misdemeanors
C. bribery D. treason
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be
added to the passage.
Consequently, the American version of impeachment was clearly quite different than
the English version upon which it was based.
A. [A] B. [B]
C. [C] D. [D]
"Producers, Consumers, and Decomposers"

Organisms that are capable of using carbon dioxide as their sole source of carbon
are called autotrophs (self-feeders), or producers. These are the plants. They chemically
fix carbon through photosynthesis. Organisms that depend on producers as their carbon
source are called heterotrophs (feed on others), or consumers. Generally, these are
animals. From the producers, which manufacture their own food, energy flows through the
system along a circuit called the food chain, reaching consumers and eventually
detritivores. Organisms that share the same basic foods are said to be at the same trophic
level. Ecosystems generally are structured in a food web, a complex network of
interconnected food chains. In a food web, consumers participate in several different food
chains, comprising both strong interactions and weak interactions between species in the
food web.
Primary consumers feed on producers. [A] Because producers are always plants, the
primary consumer is called an herbivore, or plant eater. A carnivore is a secondary
82
consumer and primarily eats meat. [B] A consumer that feeds on both producers (plants)
and consumers (meat) is called an omnivore. [C]
Detritivores (detritus feeders and decomposers) are the final link in the endless
chain. [D] Detritivores renew the entire system by releasing simple inorganic compounds
and nutrients with the breaking down of organic materials. Detritus refers to all the dead
organic debris-remains, fallen leaves, and wastes-that living processes leave. Detritus
feeders-worms, mites, termites, centipedes, snails, crabs, and even vultures, among
others work like an army to consume detritus and excrete nutrients that fuel an
ecosystem. Decomposers are primarily bacteria and fungi that digest organic debris
outside their bodies and absorb and release nutrients in the process. This metabolic work
of microbial decomposers produces the rotting that breaks down detritus. Detritus feeders
and decomposers, although different in operation, have a similar function in an ecosystem.
An example of a complex community is the oceanic food web that includes krill, a
primary consumer. Krill is a shrimplike crustacean that is a major food for an interrelated
group of organisms, including whales, fish, seabirds, seals, and squid in the Antarctic
region. All of these organisms participate in numerous other food chains as well, some
consuming and some being consumed. Phytoplankton begin this chain by harvesting solar
energy in photosynthesis. Herbivorous zooplankton such as krill and other organisms eat
Phytoplankton. Consumers eat krill at the next trophic level. Because krill are a protein-
rich, plentiful food, increasingly factory ships, such as those from Japan and Russia, seek
them out. The annual krill harvest currently surpasses a million tons, principally as
feed for chickens and livestock and as protein for human consumption.
Efficiency in a Food Web
Any assessment of world food resources depends on the level of consumer being
targeted. Let us use humans as an example. Many people can be fed if wheat is eaten
directly. However, if the grain is first fed to cattle (herbivores) and then we eat the beef, the
yield of available food energy is cut by 90% (810 kg of grain is reduced to 82 kg of meat);
far fewer people can be fed from the same land area.
In terms of energy, only about 10% of the kilocalories (food calories, not heat
calories) in plant matter survive from the primary to the secondary trophic level. When
humans consume meat instead of grain, there is a further loss of biomass and added
inefficiency. More energy is lost to the environment at each progressive step in the food
chain. You can see that an omnivorous diet such as that of an average North American
and European is quite expensive in terms of biomass and energy.
Food web concepts are becoming politicized as world food issues grow more critical.
Today, approximately half of the cultivated acreage in the United States and Canada is
planted for animal consumption-beef and dairy cattle, hogs, chickens, and turkeys.
Livestock feed includes approximately 80% of the annual corn and non-exported soybean
harvest. In addition, some lands cleared of rain forest in Central and South America were
converted to pasture to produce beef for export to restaurants, stores, and fast-food outlets
in developed countries. Thus, lifestyle decisions and dietary patterns in North America and
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Europe are perpetuating inefficient food webs, not to mention the destruction of valuable
resources, both here and overseas.
Glossary:
- phytoplankton: a plant that lives in the sea and produces its own energy source
- trophic level: category measured in steps away from the energy input in an ecosystem
31. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is TRUE about autotrophs?
A. They use a chemical process to produce their own food.
B. They require plant matter in order to survive.
C. They need producers to provide them with carbon.
D. They do not interact with other organisms in the food chain
32. The word “sole” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________

A. major B. steady
C. only D. ideal
33. Based on the information in paragraph 1, which of the following best explains the
term “food web”?
A. Energy manufactured by producer organisms in the food chain
B. Another term that defines the food chain
C. An interactive system of food chains
D. Primary and secondary consumers in the food chain
34. It may be concluded that human beings are omnivores because _________
A. people feed on producers for the most part
B. people are usually tertiary consumers
C. people generally eat both producers and consumers
D. most people are the top carnivores in the food chain
35. The word “others” in the passage refers to ________

A. debris
B. feeders
C. processes
D. nutrients
36. Why does the author mention “krill” in paragraph 4?

A. To suggest a solution for a problem in the food chain
B. To provide evidence that contradicts previously stated opinions
C. To present an explanation for the killing of krill
D. To give an example of a complex food web
37. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted
statement in the passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out
important information
A. Part of the one million tons of krill harvested annually is used for protein in animal
feed
B. Both livestock and chickens as well as humans eat krill as a main part of their diets.
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C. The principal use of krill is for animal feed, although some of the one million tons is
eaten by people
D. More than one million tons of krill is eaten by both animals and humans every year
38. According to paragraph 7, how much land is used to grow crops for animal
feed?
A. 80 percent of the acreage in Europe
B. Most of the rain forest in Central America
C. 50 percent of the farm land in Canada and the United States
D. Half of the land in North and South America
39. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author's opinion
about food issues?
A. Too much grain is being exported to provide food for developed nations
B. More forested land needs to be cleared for food production in developing nations
C. Food choices in developed nations are very costly in terms of the environment
D. More animal protein is needed in the diets of people in developing nations
40. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be
added to the passage
A tertiary consumer eats primary and secondary consumers and is referred to as the
"top carnivore" in the food chain.
A. [A] B. [B]
C. [C] D. [D]
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VSTEP SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST
SPEAKING TEST 1
PART 1: Social Interaction (3’)
Let’s talk about work

- Do you work or study?
- What do you do after work/school?
- What would be your ideal job?
Let’s talk about sharing

- Have you shared anything with others recently?
- What do you like to share?
- What kinds of things are not suitable for sharing?
PART 2: Solution Discussion (4’)
Situation: You are thinking about how to find a job. There are three options: asking
friends, reading newspapers, and surfing the Internet. Explain your choice.
PART 3: Topic Development (5’)
Topic: There are several reasons why people stay unemployed.
Your own idea
Reasons for Fear of challenges

Criminal history
unemployment
Lack of job skills
Follow-up questions:
- Which jobs would you say are most respected in your country?
- Do you agree that some jobs are still more suited to either men or women?
- What changes in employment have there been in recent years i your country?
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SPEAKING TEST 2
Let’s talk about travelling

- Do you like travelling?
- Do you usually travel to somewhere on your weekends?
- Do you prefer travelling alone or in a group in your holiday?
Let’s talk about technology

- Do you use any gadgets on a daily basis?
- How much time do you spend using a computer at work or at home?
- Has the internet made your job/ studies easier?
Situation: You are considering a travel package for your holiday. There are three options:
trekking to the mountains, discovering an island, and enjoying an all-inclusive
package at a five-start resort. Explain your choice.
Topic: There are several ideas that could attract more tourists to your country.
Build more amusement parks
Protect the nature Ideas to attracts

[your own ideas]
tourists
Create shopping streets
- Do people from your country like to travel abroad?
- Do you think your hometown is a good place for a holiday?
- How do you think traveling today is different to what it was several decades ago?
87
SPEAKING TEST 3
Let’s talk about INTERNET

- How often do you go online?
- What do you use the internet for?
- How do you get online?
Let’s talk about MODERN TECHNOLOGY

- Do you often use the computer?
- Do you prefer desktops or laptops?
- Do you think it is important to learn how to use a computer?
Situation: Your brother is going to celebrate his 20th birthday and he is a big fan of
technology gadgets. You have to make a decision of choosing his birthday gift: a new I-
phone, a laptop or a game console. What do you think you could buy for his birthday?
Topic: Mobile phones are necessary for people.
social interaction people connection
Mobile phones
entertainment (Your own idea)
- What differences are there between the attitudes of older and younger people to
technology for communication?
- Do you think that the advance of technology has improved standards of education in
schools?
- Would you agree that the rapid development of digital technology has had a positive
impact on the world of work?
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SPEAKING TEST 4
Let’s talk about your English.

- Are you good at English?
- How do you learn your English?
- How often do you learn English?
Let’s talk about your accommodation.

- Is your house near your workplace?
- What is your dream house?
- Which room is your favorite in your house?
Situation: You are buying a gift to celebrate your friend’s new house There are three
suggestions: buying electrical equipment, furniture, a shopping coupon. Which do you
think is the best choice?
Topic: University students should live on campus.
Makes them feel

secure
Reduces living Living on campus Your own idea

expenses
Reduces
travelling costs
- Do you think that students should participate in on-campus activities? Why?
- Are there any problems when living on campus?
- Do the students have their own privacy when living on campus?
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SPEAKING TEST 5
Let’s talk about sports.

- What kind of sports do you love watching or playing?
- What is the most popular sport in your country?
- What kind of sports would you like to try in the future?
Let’s talk about traveling.

- Do you like traveling to remote areas?
- When you visit new places, what do you like to do?
- Do you prefer travelling with your family members or with your friends?
Situation: Your 14-year-old sister is thinking of taking up a new sport. There are three
sports she would like to try: soccer, badminton and swimming. Which do you think is the
best choice for her?
Topic: A host country benefits a great deal from an international sporting event.
promotes tourism
creates employment Hosting an international Your own idea

opportunities sporting event
provides a boost for the

improvement of
infrastructure
- Should a developing country host an international sporting event?
- Do you think that routine life of the residents can be affected by such events?
- Do you think sports should be played for better health but not in competitions? Why?
SPEAKING
90 TEST 6
Let’s talk about school.

- When you were younger did you enjoy your time at school?
- What was your favorite subject at school? Was that subject useful to your job?
- What was your major in university? Why did you choose that major?
Let’s talk about work.

- What do you like and dislike about your job?
- Is there some other kind of work you would rather do?
- Where do you want to see yourself in 10 years?
Situation: Your friend is going to take part in the VSTEP exam next year. What will you
advise him or her to do to prepare for the exam. There are three suggestions: self-
studying through the Internet, studying with a private tutor, taking a course in a
language center. Which do you think is the best choice?
Topic: The benefits of learning foreign languages.
get a good job
feel confident when Learning foreign languages Your own idea

travelling abroad
know more about the

culture of other countries
- Do you think grammar is important when you learn a foreign language? Why?
- In your opinion, what kind of quality should a language teacher have?
- Do you think foreigner should learn your country’s language when they arrive in your
country?
VSTEP WRITING PRACTICE TEST
WRITING
91 TEST 1
TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

Write about the following topic:
You have a pen-friend. Recently, both of you have decided to meet.
Write a letter, telling him/her what you will wear, what you will take and where
you will meet.
You should write at least 120 words. You are not allowed to include your name or address.
Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and
Grammar.
TASK 2

Write about the following topic.
Buying things on the Internet, such as books, air tickets and groceries, is
becoming more and more popular.
Do the advantages of shopping in this way outweigh the disadvantages?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task
fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
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WRITING TEST 2
TASK 1

You received an email from your friend, Anna. She is in her summer vacation.
Read Anna’s email below.
Dear John,
How are you? Have you finished your final exam yet? I just arrived in New York yesterday to start
my wonder summer vacation here. Everything is great, and I should write to tell you about it.
My aunt Eva has shown me everything here – the Statue of the Liberty, the Brooklyn Bridge and
Central park. I haven’t taken a yellow taxi but I really want to. Maybe I should try it tomorrow. The
weather is pretty good. It is sunny, yet cool all day. Tomorrow we’re going to watch a show at a
theatre on Broadway.
How about you? What is your plan for this summer vacation? Where will you go and what would
you do there?
By the way, I want to buy you a souvenir. What do you want me to give you?
Wish you were here
Write me soon
Lots of love
Anna
Write a reply to Anna.

You should write at least 120 words. You are not allowed to include your name or address. Your
response will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
TASK 2

A lot of places in the world rely on tourism as a main source of income.
Unfortunately, tourism can also be a source of problems if it is not managed
correctly.
Describe the advantages and disadvantages of tourism in the modern world. Do you
think that benefits of tourism outweigh its drawbacks?
You should include any relevant examples from your own experience or knowledge.
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3
WRITING TEST 3
TASK 1

You have just received a letter from an English friend and this is part of the letter.
………………………………
I am so glad to hear that you are settling down very well in the new city and have found
a new job! How is the life over there? And how is your new job?
I am looking forward to hearing from you.
\
…………………
Write an email responding to Peter.

Grammar.
TASK 2
Read the following extract from an article about education.
Today more and more young children have electronic gadgets such as computers and
mobile phones. Some people say that this is a positive development in children’s
education; others argue that the use of technology among young children do more harm
than good.
Write an essay to discuss the effects of technology on the education of young

children.
Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your answer.
94
WRITING TEST 4
TASK 1

You are the staff in the human resources department in your company, in charging of
the accommodation. Read Sara’s email below.
Sub: Letter Asking for Free Accommodation

Respected sir,
I am writing this letter to inform you that I have joined your company last week and I am very much
satisfied with the environment and staff over here.
One issue I am facing is accommodation, as you know I had to move here just because of this job
opportunity which I definitely did not want to miss. I request you to kindly give me accommodation.
It is very hard for me to stay in hotels or hostels.
I shall be really thankful to you if you provide me accommodation considering my issue. I am looking
forward to your positive response. Thank you.
Yours sincerely,
Sara Lee
Write a reply to Sara. In your email, you have to tell her the place she is going to live, how far it is to
the company and how she can travel between the two places.
TASK 2

People in rural and mountainous areas often lack affordable housing.

What are the causes and effects of this problem?
You should include any relevant examples from your own experience or knowledge.
You should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfillment,
Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
95
WRITING TEST 5
TASK 1

You are working at the customer service office of the Lauloa Surf School. You got
an email from one of the customers. Read the email below.
Greetings,
I’m writing to thank you on behalf of my 12-year-old daughter for the wonderful surfing
lesson she had during the week when she and I visited Hawaii. I’ve already told her that
when we visit again, I’ll purchase another lesson and even sign up with her this time, so
we can both learn more about how to surf.
Thank you again. We can’t wait to get back and enjoy the beach and waves together at
Lauloa Surf School.
Sincerely,
Jack Najarian
Write a reply to Jack Najarian. In your email, show your gratitude to the customer’s
feedback, give some comments on his 12-year-old daughter’s performance in the lesson
she took and recommend a suitable surfing lesson to him when he returns next time.
Grammar.
TASK 2

Successful sports professionals can earn a great deal more money than people in
other important professions. Some people think this is fully justified while others
think it is unfair.
Discuss both of these views and give your own opinion.
experience or knowledge.
96
WRITING TEST 6
TASK 1

You have just come back from your trip to Manchester. When you were there, your friend,
Mark, gave you a great deal of help. He sent you an email. Read part of his email below.
……
I hope you enjoy the time we spent here together. Did you get home all right? I finished the final
exam last week and we are planning to go to the beach for the holiday. I’m really looking forward
to it. How about you? What is your plan for the holiday?
Next year will be a hard time for me, because it is the final year at high school and I intend to study
at a university. Which major do you think is suitable for me? Can you give me some advice?
……
Mark
Write a reply to Mark. In your email, you should thank him for his help and hospitality, tell him your
plan for the holiday and give him advice about the major which is suitable for him.
TASK 2

In the past lectures were the traditional method of teaching large numbers of
students. Nowadays new technology is increasingly being used to teach students.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of this new approach?
experience or knowledge.
fulfilment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
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SKILL PRACTICE
LISTENING
QUESTION TYPES FOR PART 1
(Announcements, Instructions and Short Dialogues)
A. OVERVIEW QUESTIONS
To answer Overview questions, you must have the general- understanding of the talk or dialogue. A
common type of Overview questions is questions about the topic(s) or purpose(s) of the talk or
dialogue.
Example:
Speaker A: Give me your number and I'll call you later.
Speaker B: OK. It's 555 1331.
Speaker A: Is that home or office?
Question: What are they discussing?
(A) A telephone number.
(B) An office
(C) An address
The correct answer is (A). Choice (B) uses address, which is associated with home. Choice
(C) tries to confuse you by repeating the word office.
There are different ways of asking main idea questions:
• What is the talk/ dialogue mainly about?
• What is the talk/ dialogue primarily about?
• What is the purpose of the speaker?
• What is the purpose of this talk/ dialogue?
• What is announced in this talk?
• What is discussed in this talk?
• What are the speakers talking about?
• What are the speakers discussing?
Exam advice:
Be careful with choices which contain similar-sounding words or repeated words.
Vocabulary Practice
Exercise 1: Complete the sentences with the correct answers.
ways connection problems progress origin
1. In the afternoon meeting, they will discuss .................................... to increase productivity.
I've heard there are several methods.
2. Although the .................................... of this strange tradition is not known, most people
believe that it started in the 1850s.
3. We're having .................................... with our office phone system. Could you call me back
on my cell phone?
4. Doctors believe that the new drug will slow down the .................................... of the disease.
5. There was no evidence of a direct .................................... between the suspect and the murder
victim.

98
solution varieties distinction cause effects

1. The firefighters still do not know the .................................... of the fire.
2. All the .................................... of smoking cigarettes are bad.
3. Many .................................... of apples grow around the world.
4. What is the .................................... between butterflies and moths?
5. Let's find a(n) .................................... to the problem together.
Warm-up Exercise
Exercise 1: Listen and answer the questions.
1. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
(A) The cause of why the woman is late for work.
(B) The best way to get to work.
(C) A problem with heavy street traffic in rush hour.
2. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
(A) The cause of a car accident.
(B) The effects of drunk driving.
(C) The reason for the speed limit.
Exercise 2: Listen and answer the questions.
1. What is the talk mainly about?
(A) The reason why the store will close and open again in the morning.
(B) The reason why shoppers need to bring their purchases to the check-out counter.
(C) The reason why a child was lost in the store.
(A) The problem with public speaking.
(B) The best way to give a speech.
(C) How to prepare for a speech.
Practice Test
Listen and answer the questions.
1. What is the purpose of the talk?
(A) Where to park at the library.
(B) How to get to the library.
(C) Ways to find directions.
(D) Things to do in the city
(A) How to become a good teacher
(B) How to teach a parrot to talk
(C) How to choose the words to teach
(D) How to take care of a pet parrot
3. What is the best title of the passage?
(A) Where to Finf Edible Flowers
(B) Examples of Edible Flowers in Your Garden
(C) How to Cook with Flowers
(D) How to Grow Flowers
4. What is the best title of the passage?
99
(A) The Biggest Roller Coasters in America

(B) America's Wildest Roller Coasters
(C) Why People Love Roller Coasters
(D) A Guide to Riding Roller Coasters
5. What is the main idea of the conversation?
(A) Reasons for buying a bicycle
(B) The best bicycle routes to take
(C) The difference between road and mountain bikes
(D) Different varieties of road bicycles
B. NEGATIVE QUESTIONS
Negative questions ask about something that is NOT mentioned in the talk or dialogue, or is NOT
true.
In order words, all of the wrong choices are MENTIONED in the recording, or they are TRUE
according to the information.
Example:
Tutor: The next course I am talking about is English for Academic Purposes, or EAP. This course is
a must for first-year students in all departments However, if you are a freshman of English
Department, you don't need to take this course. Instead, you have to take the Study Skill Module.
Question: Which statement is NOT true according to the tutor?
(A) All students must learn EAP.
(B) Students from English Department don't learn EAP.
(C) Students from English Department must learn Study Skills.
The correct answer is (A). (B) and (C) are wrong because they are mentioned in the recording.
Negative Questions always contain the word NOT.
• Which of the following is NOT true according to the talk?
• Which one is NOT mentioned in the conversation?
• Who will NOT join the flower festival this weekend?
Exam advice
Be careful with negative words such as NO ONE, NOTHING, NOT, etc.
C. DETAILED QUESTIONS
Detail questions can be WH-questions or How questions. They are the most common type of question
in this part.
• Who will meet Mary at the airport?
• What time does the film start?
• When is the meeting scheduled?
• Where are they going to this weekend?
• How often does John travel for business?
• Why was Jack late for class yesterday?
Exam advice
Make sure you understand the question to identify the correct answer.
Base on the question word (Who/ Where/ When/etc.) to locate your answer.
PACK 1: NUMBER-RELATED QUESTIONS - NUMBERS AND PRICES
100
MONEY
COINS
AND
BILLS
101
FRACTION
Vocabulary Practice Choose the same amount.
1. a quarter
(A) 1 cent
(B) 10 cents
(C) 25 cents
2. A dime
(A) 1 cent
(B) 5 cents
(C) 10 cents
3. Three nickels
(A) 3 cents
(B) 15 cents
(C) 30 cents
4. Five pennies
(A) A nickel
(B) a dime
(C) a quarter
Warm-up Exercises
Exercise 1: Listen and choose the correct amount.
1.
(A) $3.15
(B) $3.50
2.
(A) $13.00
(B) $30.00
3.
(A) $120.16
(B) $112.60
4.
(A) $718.57
102
(B) $780.57
Exercise 2: Look at the menu, listen to the dialogues and answer the questions. (KHÔNG CÓ
FILE NGHE)
1. How much does the man have to pay?

(A) $3.75
(B) $5.25
(C) $6.75
(D) $8.75
2. How much does the woman have to pay?

(A) $11.00
(B) $13.00
(C) $14.00
(D) $15.00
103
Practice Test
1. How much money does the woman have to pay for the lemonade?
(A) one cent
(B) five cents
(C) nine cents
(D) ten cents
2. How much money does the man have to pay for the donut?
(A) $1.15
(B) $2.50
(C) $2.65
(D) $6.15
3. How much money does the woman have to pay for all her bills?
(A) $140.50
(B) $160.50
(C) $165.00
(D) $170.50
4. How much money does Mother Hen have to pay for her groceries?
(A) $5.50
(B) $7.50
(C) $10.00
(D) $12.50
5. How much money does the man have to pay for the seeds and fertilizers?
(A) $9.00
(B) $10.00
(C) $11.00
(D) $12.00
104
PACK 2: NUMBER-RELATED QUESTIONS - TIME, DAY AND DATE

Vocabulary
Vocabulary Practice
Exercise 1: Fill in the blanks with the correct answers.
half midnight noon dusk a quarter
1. 12 0'clock at night = ....................................
2. 12 0'clock midday = ....................................
3. Dawn = sunrise; ....................................= sunset
4. two thirty = .................................... past two
5. 11:45 = .................................... to twelve
Exercise 2: Fill in the blanks with the correct answers
Four thirty Today is April twenty-fifth It's Friday
1.
A: What time do you have?
B: ....................................
105
2.
A: What day is today?
B: ....................................
3.
A: What's the date today?
B: ....................................
Warm-up Exercises
Listen and choose the correct time.
1. (A) 4:02 (B) 2:04
2. (A) 12:45 (B) 1:15
3. (A) 1:30 (B) 2:30
Practice Test
1. What time will the man go for a run?
(A) 1:30 a.m.
(B) 2:30 a.m.
(C) 5:00 a.m.
(D) 7:00 a.m.
2. Which day of the week has the least chance of rain?
(A) Monday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday
3. What time did the woman's meeting start?
(A) 3:00
(B) 3:05
(C) 3:10
(D) 3:15
4. What time did Jack really arrive at work?
(A) 6:00
(B) 6:15
(C) 6:45
(D) 7:00
5. What is the date of the man's party?
(A) February 14
(B) February 16
(C) January 28
(D) January 30
106
PACK 3: RECOGNIZING PURPOSES, INTENTIONS AND REASONS

Vocabulary
to cheer to request to appreciate to refuse to reject
to complain to honor to apologize to warn to disagree
Vocabulary Practice
reject appreciate apologize complain warn
1. My grandmother sent me a birthday card. I really .................................... it.
2. Parents .................................... their children of the danger of talking to strangers.
3. I hate to tell you this, but I'm afraid that they will .................................... your offer.
4. You were so rude to Mr. Bonds. I want you to .................................... to him.
5. After the interview, thousands of viewers called to .................................... about the
interviewer's lack of knowledge.
Exercise 2: Look at the pictures and write the correct answer for each picture.
cheer disagree request honor refuse
…………. ..………… …………. …………. ………….

Warm-up Exercises
1. What is the main purpose of the phone call?
(A) To thank
(B) To reject
2. Why did the woman call?
(A) To make a complaint
(B) To make an apology
107
Practice Test
1. What is the main purpose of the announcement?
(A) To thank
(B) To invite
(C) To advice
(D) To reject
2. Why does the woman call the man?
(A) To thank him for a favour
(B) To ask him to feed her dogs
(C) To return a key she borrowed
(D) To let him know she's leaving town
3. Why did the woman's parents switch seats?
(A) Because they couldn't hear the announcer
(B) Because they didn't want to sit next to John
(C) Because they wanted a better view of the race
(D) Because they wanted to cheer for their daughter
4. What is the man trying to do?
(A) To advise someone to get a cell phone
(B) To persuade someone to buy a phone service
(C) To complain about his phone service
(D) To teach someone how to use a cell phone.
5. Why can't the woman find the book she's looking for?
(A) The book was in the wrong section.
(B) She got the title wrong.
(C) She didn't know the author.
(D) It's not out in print yet.
PACK 4: IDENTIFYING JOBS AND RELATIONSHIPS
Vocabulary
Chef firefighter
Professor police officer
Doctor dentist
Baker taxi driver
pilot actor
waiter business person
salesperson construction worker
housekeeper farmer
florist reporter
hairdresser artist
108
Vocabulary Practice
s
Exercise 1: Look at the pictures and write the correct answer for each picture.
dentist chef hairdresser doctor construction worker

Professor Pilot waiter dentist baker
1. A .................................... flies an airplane.
2. A .................................... works on teeth.
3. A .................................... makes bread and cakes.
4. A .................................... teaches students in a university or college.
5. A .................................... brings food and drinks to customers in a restaurant.
Warm-up Exercises
Exercise 1: Listen and write the correct letter of the picture in the blank.
Exercise 2: What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

1.
(A) Patient — Doctor
(B) Driver - Police officer
2.
(A) Professor — Student
(B) Cook — Waiter
3.
(A) Customer – Salesperson
(B) Taxi driver — Passenger
4.
(A) Actor — Reporter
(B) Waiter - Customer
Practice Test
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1. What is the man's occupation?
(A) Mail carrier
(B) Waiter — Customer
(C) Taxi driver
(D) Train conductor
2. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
(A) Salesperson — Customer
(B) Manager— Employee
(C) Store manager - Job applicant
(D) Tailor — Customer
3. What is the man’ s occupation?
(A) Office worker
(B) Construction worker
(C) Waiter
(D) Chef
4. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
(A)Ambulance driver — Victim
(B) Waiter — Customer
(C) Doctor — Nurse
(D) Dentist — Patient
5. What is the man's occupation?
(A) Cake decorator
(B) Waiter
(C) Baker
(D) Farmer
TESTING POINTS FOR PART 2 & 3

(Conversations and Talks)
BASIC COMPREHENSION
Basic comprehension questions are related to what is mentioned in the recording. These questions
may ask about the gist (the main idea or were topic), or they may ask about specific details in the
recording.
PACK 1: MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS
Necessary Skills
• Understanding the overall topic or basic idea of a lecture or conversation
• Understanding the speaker's general pawpaw in giving a lecture or haing a conversation
• Inferring the speaker's purpose or main idea when it is not directly stated
Example Questions
• What is the main topic of the lecture?
• What is the main topic of the conversation?
• What are the speakers mainly discussing?
• What aspect of ...... does the professor mainly discuss?
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• What aspect of the problem does the ......help with?
• What features of each type of ... does the professor locus on?
• What is woman's main concern about ...?
• What concerns does the student have about......?
• Why did the professor mention......?
• What is the student's motivation for ......?
Strategies
• Pay attention to expressions that indicate the topic
➢ Today’s talk is on...
➢ Today we’re going to talk about...
➢ Now we are going to discuss...
• In a conversation, listen for cues that will indicate a speaker’s main purpose.
➢ How can I help?
➢ What do you need?
➢ Can you help me with...?
• Listen for key words that are emphasized or repeated.

• Keep in mind that 2 or more major ideas together may define the overall topic.
LISTENING 1: MUSIC
Key Vocabulary
• icon: an object or person that has an uncritical following
• orchestrate: to write and arrange music for an orchestra
• tuba: a large, metal, wind instrument that is shaped like a tube with a wide open end
• Recognition: specific notice or attention recording: a copy of music onto a CD tape, record, etc.
A. Listen to a lecture in a musk class and answer the questions.
1. What is the main topic of the lecture?
(A) The effects of cool jazz
(B) The origins of a type of music
(C) A form of musical theory
(D) A comparison of two band leaders
2. What is the main idea of the lecture?
(A) How cool jazz changed jazz music
(B) A jazz musician and his influence
(C) Why cool jazz had a slow tempo
(D) The type of instruments cool jazz used
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B. Fill in the blanks to complete the summary.
The professor is talking about cool jazz from the 1940s and ‘50s. This jazz had more classical
European influences than earlier forms of jazz. This meant that jazz musicians could also use
instruments like flutes and (1)……………. The music sounded lighter and softer and jazz bands
became bigger. Bands grew to be mid-sized (2)……………..groups and also gave individuals more
focus. The first true cool jazz (3)……………was Miles Davis. He made a famous
(4)………………that brought him much (5)…………..as a musical artirst.
PACK 2: DETAILED QUESTIONS

Necessary Skills
• Taking note of major points and important details of a lecture or conversation
• Listening for signal expressions that identify details, such as the following: for example, the
reason Is, on the other hand, I would say.
• Eliminating incorrect answer choices
• Identifying a statement that is not mentioned
Example Questions
• According to the lecture, what is...?
• According to the lecture, which of the following is true?
• What does the speaker say about...?
• What connection does the speaker make between ... and ...?
• What does the professor suggest the student do?
• Which of the following is true of...?
• What advice does the professor give to the student about...?
• According to the discussion, how did...?
Strategies
• Since the answers to questions are generally found in order in the passage, it is helpful to take
notes in the order of what you hear.
• Detail questions do not require inference. Choose what speakers actually say.
• In a lecture, detail questions are about information related to the following: new facts,
descriptions, definitions of terms/ concepts/ ideas, reasons, results, and examples.
• Incorrect choices may repeat some of the speakers' words but do not reflect correct information
from the lecture or conversation.
Listening 1: OFFICE VISIT 1
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Key Vocabulary
• due: owed
• enforce: to carry out with force
• neighbor: a person that lives close by
• recession: a period of reduced economic activity
• skip: to miss out on
A. Listen to a conversation between a student and a professor and answer the questions.
1. Why didn't the student turn in his project?
(A) He was at home sick.
(B) He ate lunch with Mends.
(C) He had no Internet access.
(D) He had a broken-down car.
2. Why doesn't the professor want to accept the student's project?
(A) It's against her policy.
(B) It's against school rules.
(C) He purposefully skipped class.
(D) He turned in late projects before.
3. Why didn't the student contact the professor?
(A) He was delayed by a traffic jam.
(B) His computer wasn't working.
(C) He didn't have access to the Internet.
(D) The phone number in the syllabus was wrong.
A student’s essay on the economic (1)…………..is late. The professor is not happy because the
student (2) ……………….class. The student tells the professor he was sick the day the essay was
(3)…………….He says he knows that the professor likes to (4)………….the rule about late work.
He says that he worked really hard and couldn’t find a number to call. The professor tells him it’s
okay but that next time he should email her from a (5)……………house.
PACK 3: OPINION/ ATTITUDE QUESTIONS

Necessary Skills
• Understanding the speakers general feeling about what Is discussed
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• Recognizing words or phrases that indicate the speaker's feeling or opinion
• Recognizing tone of voice, intonation, and sentence stress that the Speaker uses to show his or her
feeling or opinion
Example Questions
• Which of the following best describes the professor’s opinion?
• What is the professor's opinion of...?
• What is the student's attitude toward...?
• What is the woman's initial attitude toward the student's request?
• What is the student's attitude toward the suggestion of...?
• What can be inferred about...?
Strategies
• Pay attention to adjectives and verbs related to feelings. These may help you recognize words or
phrases that Indicate the speaker's feeling or opinion.
➔ Example: A: The course Chemistry 204 was very helpful.
B: Yeah. I really enjoyed the classes with Professor Tones.
• Guess the speaker’s attitude by the tone of voice, intonation, and the sentence stress that the
speaker uses to show his or her feeling or opinion.
→ Example: (With surprise) You liked It? (The speaker does not agree.)
(Happily) You liked it (The speaker Is pleased.)
• Consider the degree of certainty in what a speaker says.
Example: You want to know when it was discovered? Hmm, let me think.
Probably around 1600. (The speaker is not sure of the information)
Listening 1: HISTORY 1
Key Vocabulary
anchor: to secure or hold
excessive: a ridiculous amount of something
plain: large area of flat treeless land
plow: to turn over the soil before planting seeds using a piece of farming equipment
soil: the top layer of earth that is dug or plowed away to plant crops
A. Listen to a lecture in a history class and answer the questions.
1. What attitude does the professor have toward over-plowing?
(A) He blames It for causing the Dust Bowl.
(B) He thinks that it was developed too fast.
(C) He feels that farmers shouldn't have used it.
(D) He believes It did nothing to help farmers.
2. How does the professor feel about this?
(A) Disappointed that farmers over-plowed their fields.
(B) Angry about the needless plowing that occurred.
(C) Annoyed with farmers for their bad decisions.
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(D) Uncomfortable with the concept of over-plowing.
3. How does the professor feel about the Dust Bowl?
(A) It forever changed the way people farm.
(B) It made the Great Depression worse.
(C) It wouldn't have been so bad at a different time.
(D) It forced farmers into the Depression.
The professor is discussing the causes of the Dust Bowl, a period of dust storms that destroyed many
crops during the Great Depression of the 1930s, the professor explains that the crop failure was the
result of farmers (1)………..the Great (2)…………By doing an (3)……………amount of this,
grasslands were left exposed. Farmers could not always afford to seed them. Without grass, there was
nothing to (4) …………the (5)………….When disastrous droughts came, winds blew it away.
PACK 4: INFERENCE QUESTIONS

Necessary Skills
• Guessing the implied meaning of a sentence or phrase
• Making a generalization from what is said
• Drawing a conclusion based on the main points of a lecture or a conversation
• Recognizing how intonation or stress indicates implied information or opinions
• Inferring what is likely to happen from what a speaker says
Example Questions
Some inference questions will not appear during the test. You will only hear them.
• Listen again to part of the conversation. Then answer the question. You will hear a few lines of the
lecture or conversation again.
• What does the professor imply when she says this: You will hear port or one line of the previous
excerpt again.
The following types of inference questions may appear during the test:
• What does the professor imply about...?
• What can be inferred about...?
• What will the professor likely discuss next?
• What will the student probably do next?
Strategies
• Try to guess the implied meaning of the given Information. The correct answer is not directly stated.
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• Pay attention to dues expressed by certain words, word stress Intonation, or pace of what is said.
The same sentence can express different meanings when said in different ways.
→ Example: Oh, you've never heard of that. (1 may need to explain more.)
Oh, you've never heard of that? (I'm surprised that you've never heard of that.)
• Pay attention to the last part of the conversation. For example, if a speaker agrees with the other
speaker's suggestion at the end, we can Infer that the speaker will do what is suggested.
Listening 2: SERVICE ENCOUNTER 1
Key Vocabulary
• allergic: not able to eat or drink something without getting sick or feeling bad
• dairy: foods made from milk
• feature: to display something as special
• International: from another country
• Policy: a set of rules or guidelines
A. Listen to a conversation between a student and a cafeteria worker and answer the questions.
1. What does the employee imply about the university?
(A) It has lots of dining places on campus.
(B) It requires all freshmen to purchase a meal plan.
(C) It offers a variety of meal plans for its students.
(D) It does not offer any soy food products.
2. What does the student imply about her high school meal plan?
(A) She wasn't required to purchase one.
(B) It did not offer non-dairy options.
(C) It was nut vet y expensive.
(D) She really liked it a lot.
3. What can be inferred about eating at the university?
(A) The food is costly for students to purchase.
(B) It features lots of dairy products in the meal plan.
(C) All students must purchase meals on-campus.
(D) There are many different foods to eat.
A freshman must buy a meal plan because this is university (1) ……….. The student is (2)………
to (3)………… products but does not want to buy food anywhere else. She is told that dining
services do offer non-dairy meals. They offer soy milk and soy-based products. They also have
special meal days for (4) ………….students. These (5) …………….foods from different countries.
That way, all students get a taste of home.
READING – SKILL PRACTICE

READING QUESTION TYPES
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Question type 1:
VOCABULARY
In the passage, one or two words will be underlined or put in bold, and you will be asked to choose
an option that is closest in meaning to those. The best way to succeed on this question type is to
know as many vocabulary words as possible, but if you really don't know the meaning of the word,
we have 3 simple strategies that can help you conquer this type of question.
Question forms
The word/ phrase in paragraph X is closet in meaning to
The word/ phrase in paragraph X could be best replaced by
Based on the information in paragraph X, which of the following best explains the term ?
Strategy 1: Connect the word to the one you already know.
This strategy means you can always try to connect the unknown word with a word in the same
sentence that you do know.
Sample Questions
The assessment of past rises and falls in sea level requires study of submerged land surfaces off the
coast and of elevated beaches on land. Raised beaches are remnants of former coastlines at higher
levels relative to the present shoreline and visible, for instance, along the California coast north of
San Francisco, the height of a raised beach above the present shoreline, however, does not generally
give a straightforward indication of the height of a former sea level.
The word "remnants" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. remains C. pints
B. regions D. origins
Strategy 2: Understand through context
Understanding the context of a passage is another helpful strategy for capturing the meaning of the
highlighted word in this type of question.
Sample Questions
At night, the solar energy (stored as vast quantities of heat in city buildings and roads) is slowly
released into the city air. Additional city heat is given off at night (and during the day) by vehicles
and factories, as well as by industrial and domestic heating and cooling units. The release of heat
energy is retarded by the tall vertical city walls that do not allow infrared radiation to escape as
readily as does the relatively level surface of the surrounding countryside. The slow release of heat
tends to keep nighttime city temperatures higher than those of the faster-cooling rural areas.
The word "retarded" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. disguised C. made possible
B. added to D. slowed down
Strategy 3: Check if the word is an adjective, adverb, verb, or noun and eliminate incorrect
choices
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Keep in mind this strategy is only to help you eliminate incorrect choices. You still need to rely on
other techniques to solve this question.
Sample Questions
Several dinosaur fossil localities preserve coprolites. Coprolites yield unequivocal evidence about
the dietary habits of dinosaurs. Many parts of plants and animals are extremely resistant to the
digestive systems of animals and pass completely through the body with little or no alteration.
Study of coprolites has indicated that the diets of some herbivorous dinosaurs were relatively
diverse, while other dinosaurs appear to have been specialists, feeding on particular types of plants.
The problem with inferring diets from coprolites is the difficulty in accurately associating a
particular coprolite with a specific dinosaur.
The word "unequivocal" in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. deniable
B. unambiguous
C. unclear
D. largely
PRACTICE 1
Cultural Universals
Often, a comparison of one culture to another will reveal obvious differences. But all cultures also
share common elements. Cultural universals are patterns or traits that are globally common to all
societies. One example of a cultural universal is the family unit: every human society recognizes a
family structure that regulates sexual reproduction and the care of children. Even so, how that
family unit is defined and how it functions vary. In many Asian cultures, for example, family
members from all generations commonly live together in one household. In these cultures, young
adults will continue to live in the extended household family structure until they marry and join
their spouse’s household, or they may remain and raise their nuclear family within the extended
family’s homestead. In the United States, by contrast, individuals are expected to leave home and
live independently for a period before forming a family unit consisting of parents and their
offspring.
Q. The word offspring is closest in meaning to …

a. Origins
b. Ancestors
c. Children
d. Elders
PRACTICE 2
Chemistry: The Central Science
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Chemistry is sometimes referred to as “the central science” due to its interconnectedness with a vast
array of other STEM disciplines (STEM stands for areas of study in the science, technology,
engineering, and math fields). Chemistry and the language of chemists play vital roles in biology,
medicine, materials science, forensics, environmental science, and many other fields.
The basic principles of physics are essential for understanding many aspects of chemistry, and there
is extensive overlap between many subdisciplines within the two fields, such as chemical physics
and nuclear chemistry. Mathematics, computer science, and information theory provide important
tools that help us calculate, interpret, describe, and generally make sense of the chemical world.
Biology and chemistry converge in biochemistry, which is crucial to understanding the many
complex factors and processes that keep living organisms (such as us) alive. Chemical engineering,
materials science, and nanotechnology combine chemical principles and empirical findings to
produce useful substances, ranging from gasoline to fabrics to electronics. Agriculture, food
science, veterinary science, and brewing and winemaking help provide sustenance in the form of
food and drink to the world’s population. Medicine, pharmacology, biotechnology, and botany
identify and produce substances that help keep us healthy. Environmental science, geology,
oceanography, and atmospheric science incorporate many chemical ideas to help us better
understand and protect our physical world. Chemical ideas are used to help understand the universe
in astronomy and cosmology.
Q. The word interconnectedness is closest in meaning to …

a. Association
b. Interrogation
c. Dependence
d. Togetherness
PRACTICE 3
Cognition and Latent Learning

Although strict behaviorists such as Skinner and Watson refused to believe that cognition (such as
thoughts and expectations) plays a role in learning, another behaviorist, Edward C. Tolman, had a
different opinion. Tolman’s experiments with rats demonstrated that organisms can learn even if
they do not receive immediate reinforcement. This finding was in conflict with the prevailing idea
at the time that reinforcement must be immediate in order for learning to occur, thus suggesting a
cognitive aspect to learning.
In the experiments, Tolman placed hungry rats in a maze with no reward for finding their way
through it. He also studied a comparison group that was rewarded with food at the end of the maze.
As the unreinforced rats explored the maze, they developed a cognitive map: a mental picture of the
layout of the maze. After 10 sessions in the maze without reinforcement, food was placed in a goal
box at the end of the maze. As soon as the rats became aware of the food, they were able to find
their way through the maze quickly, just as quickly as the comparison group, which had been
rewarded with food all along. This is known as latent learning: learning that occurs but is not
observable in behavior until there is a reason to demonstrate it.
Q. The word prevailing is closest in meaning to …

a. Important
b. Predominant
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c. Only
d. Previous
Question type 2: REFERENCE

In a "Reference" question, you are asked what the highlighted word refers to. If it's a pronoun then
you need to identify what word the pronoun is replacing. Here are highlighted words you might be
asked about:
1. Subject pronoun: it, they
2. Object pronoun: it, them
3. Demonstrative pronoun: these, those, this, that
4. Possessive adjectives: its, their
5. Other reference words: the former, the latter, one, ones, another, other, others
Question forms
The word/ phrase in paragraph X refers to
Strategy
- The referent usually appears before the pronoun in the same sentence or shows up in an
earlier sentence. Sometimes, however, the referent might be found after the pronoun.
- Substitute your answer for the highlighted word or words in the passage.
- Make sure that your answer is the same number (singular or plural), gender (male,
female), case (first, second, or third person) as the highlighted pronoun.
Sample Question
[3] Economic contact between Native Americans and Europeans can be traced back to the English
and French fishermen off the coast of Canada in the 1500s. They traded guns and other weapons
for beaver fur. The first explorers to trade with the Native Americans were Giovanni da Verrazano
and Jacques Cartier in the 1520s and 1530s. In Verrazano's book he notes, "If we wanted to trade
with them for some of their things, they would come to the seashore on some rocks where the
breakers were most violent while we remained on the little boat, and they sent us what they wanted
to give on a rope, continually shouting to us not to approach the land."
The word 'They' in paragraph 3 refers to?

A. English and French fishermen
B. Beavers
C. Europeans
D. Traits and characteristics
PRACTICE 1
Hunter-Gatherer
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Hunter-gatherer societies demonstrate the strongest dependence on the environment of the various
types of preindustrial societies. As the basic structure of human society until about 10,000–12,000
years ago, these groups were based around kinship or tribes. Hunter-gatherers relied on their
surroundings for survival—they hunted wild animals and foraged for uncultivated plants for food.
When resources became scarce, the group moved to a new area to find sustenance, meaning they
were nomadic. These societies were common until several hundred years ago, but today only a few
hundred remain in existence, such as indigenous Australian tribes sometimes referred to as
“aborigines,” or the Bambuti, a group of pygmy hunter-gatherers residing in the Democratic
Republic of Congo. Hunter-gatherer groups are quickly disappearing as the world’s population
explodes.
Q. The phrase these groups refers to …

a. Human society
b. Years ago
c. Preindustrial societies
d. Hunter-gatherer societies
PRACTICE 2
Cultural Imperialism
A high level of appreciation for one’s own culture can be healthy; a shared sense of community
pride, for example, connects people in a society. But ethnocentrism can lead to disdain or dislike
for other cultures, causing misunderstanding and conflict. People with the best intentions
sometimes travel to a society to “help” its people, seeing them as uneducated or backward;
essentially inferior. In reality, these travelers are guilty of cultural imperialism, the deliberate
imposition of one’s own cultural values on another culture. Europe’s colonial expansion, begun in
the 16th century, was often accompanied by a severe cultural imperialism. European colonizers
often viewed the people in the lands they colonized as uncultured savages who were in need of
European governance, dress, religion, and other cultural practices. A more modern example of
cultural imperialism may include the work of international aid agencies who introduce agricultural
methods and plant species from developed countries while overlooking indigenous varieties and
agricultural approaches that are better suited to the particular region.
Q. The words these travelers refer to …

a. Its people
b. Them
c. Cultural values
d. People with the best intentions
PRACTICE 3
Measuring Blood Pressure
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Blood pressure is measured using a device called a sphygmomanometer (Greek sphygmos =
“pulse”). It consists of an inflatable cuff to restrict blood flow, a manometer to measure the
pressure, and a method of determining when blood flow begins and when it becomes impeded.
Since its invention in 1881, it has been an essential medical device. There are many types of
sphygmomanometers: manual ones that require a stethoscope and are used by medical
professionals; mercury ones, used when the most accuracy is required; less accurate mechanical
ones; and digital ones that can be used with little training but that have limitations. When using a
sphygmomanometer, the cuff is placed around the upper arm and inflated until blood flow is
completely blocked, then slowly released. As the heart beats, blood forced through the arteries
causes a rise in pressure. This rise in pressure at which blood flow begins is the systolic pressure—
the peak pressure in the cardiac cycle. When the cuff’s pressure equals the arterial systolic pressure,
blood flows past the cuff, creating audible sounds that can be heard using a stethoscope. This is
followed by a decrease in pressure as the heart’s ventricles prepare for another beat. As cuff
pressure continues to decrease, eventually sound is no longer heard; this is the diastolic pressure—
the lowest pressure (resting phase) in the cardiac cycle.
Q. The word its refers to …

a. A method
b. A manometer
c. An inflatable cuff
d. A sphygmomanometer
Question type 3: FACTUAL INFORMATION
Factual Information questions ask you to recognize information that is explicitly stated in the
text. These may include facts such as major ideas, supporting details, or definitions.
Question forms
- According to the passage, which of the following is true of ?
- According to paragraph A, who/ when/ where/ what/ how/ why ?
- According to the passage, X did Y because ?
- The author’s description of X mentions which of the following?
Strategy
- Read the question first to know what exactly is being asked and identify keywords.
- Scan the passage for keywords, which is where the relevant information is in the
passage.
- Remove the choices that are not relevant to the passage.
- Do not choose an answer just because it is mentioned in the passage.
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Sample Questions
The Invention of the X-Ray

German physicist Wilhelm Röntgen (1845–1923) was experimenting with electrical current when
he discovered that a mysterious and invisible “ray” would pass through his flesh but leave an
outline of his bones on a screen coated with a metal compound. In 1895, Röntgen made the first
durable record of the internal parts of a living human: an “X-ray” image (as it came to be called)
of his wife’s hand. Scientists around the world quickly began their own experiments with X-rays,
and by 1900, X-rays were widely used to detect a variety of injuries and diseases. In 1901,
Röntgen was awarded the first Nobel Prize for physics for his work in this field. The X-ray is a
form of high energy electromagnetic radiation with a short wavelength capable of penetrating
solids and ionizing gases. As they are used in medicine, X-rays are emitted from an X-ray machine
and directed toward a specially treated metallic plate placed behind the patient’s body. The beam
of radiation results in darkening of the X-ray plate. X-rays are slightly impeded by soft tissues,
which show up as gray on the X-ray plate, whereas hard tissues, such as bone, largely block the
rays, producing a light-toned “shadow.” Thus, X-rays are best used to visualize hard body
structures such as teeth and bones. Like many forms of high energy radiation, however, X- rays
are capable of damaging cells and initiating changes that can lead to cancer. This danger of
excessive exposure to X-rays was not fully appreciated for many years after their widespread use.
Q. The paragraph states that x-rays…

a. Were invented by a female scientist in the 19th century
b. Were commonly used in medicine to find diseases and injuries as early as the 1900’s
c. Are typically used for observing the exterior structures of the body
d. Were only widely appreciated several years following their invention
PRACTICE 1
The Ideal Gas Law

During the seventeenth and especially eighteenth centuries, driven both by a desire to understand
nature and a quest to make balloons in which they could fly, a number of scientists established the
relationships between the macroscopic physical properties of gases, that is, pressure, volume,
temperature, and amount of gas. Although their measurements were not precise by today’s
standards, they were able to determine the mathematical relationships between pairs of these
variables (e.g., pressure and temperature, pressure and volume) that hold for an ideal gas—a
hypothetical construct that real gases approximate under certain conditions. Eventually, these
individual laws were combined into a single equation—the ideal gas law—that relates gas quantities
for gases and is quite accurate for low pressures and moderate temperatures.
Q. According to the paragraph, what occurred between the 1600’s and 1700’s?
a. Scientists constructed a hypothesis about gas pressure, volume, and temperature
b. Scientists discovered connections between the visible physical features of gases
c. Precise measurements regarding the ideal gas were developed by a physicist
d. Imprecise standards about gases were determined by a small group of scientists
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PRACTICE 2
Social Roles
One major social determinant of human behavior is our social roles. A social role is an pattern of
behavior that is expected of a person in a given setting or group. Each one of us has several social
roles. You may be, at the same time, a student, a parent, an aspiring teacher, a son or daughter, a
spouse, and a lifeguard. How do these social roles influence your behavior? Social roles are defined
by culturally shared knowledge. That is, nearly everyone in a given culture knows what behavior is
expected of a person in a given role. For example, what is the social role for a student? If you look
around a college classroom you will likely see students engaging in studious behavior, taking
notes, listening to the professor, reading the textbook, and sitting quietly at their desks. Of course
you may see students deviating from the expected studious behavior such as texting on their phones
or using Facebook on their laptops, but in all cases, the students that you observe are attending
class—a part of the social role of students.
Social roles, and our related behavior, can vary across different settings. How do you behave when
you are engaging in the role of son or daughter and attending a family function? Now imagine how
you behave when you are engaged in the role of employee at your workplace. It is very likely that
your behavior will be different. Perhaps you are more relaxed and outgoing with your family,
making jokes and doing silly things. But at your workplace you might speak more professionally,
and although you may be friendly, you are also serious and focused on getting the work completed.
These are examples of how our social roles influence and often dictate our behavior to the extent
that identity and personality can vary with context (that is, in different social groups).
Q. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true of social roles?

a. They usually remain the same regardless of setting and environment
b. Humans take on different social roles based on their surroundings
c. Certain individuals change their behavior depending on their expectations
d. All people are more comfortable with their families but are always professional in the workplace
PRACTICE 3
Calorimetry
One technique we can use to measure the amount of heat involved in a chemical or physical process is
known as calorimetry. Calorimetry is used to measure amounts of heat transferred to or from a
substance. To do so, the heat is exchanged with a calibrated object (calorimeter). The temperature
change measured by the calorimeter is used to derive the amount of heat transferred by the process
under study. The measurement of heat transfer using this approach requires the definition of a system
(the substance or substances undergoing the chemical or physical change) and its surroundings (the
other components of the measurement apparatus that serve to either provide heat to the system or absorb
heat from the system). Knowledge of the heat capacity of the surroundings, and careful measurements
of the masses of the system and surroundings and their temperatures before and after the process allows
one to calculate the heat transferred.
A calorimeter is a device used to measure the amount of heat involved in a chemical or physical
process. For example, when an exothermic reaction occurs in solution in a calorimeter, the heat
produced by the reaction is absorbed by the solution, which increases its temperature. When an
endothermic reaction occurs, the heat required is absorbed from the thermal energy of the solution,
which decreases its temperature. The temperature change, along with the specific heat and mass of the
solution, can then be used to calculate the amount of heat involved in either case.
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Q. Calorimetry is best described as:
a. A way of measuring the transfer of heat between chemicals
b. The measurement of heat in a system’s surroundings
c. The only way to measure heat transfer between objects
d. A method of measuring how much heat occurs in either a physical or chemical process
Question type 4: NEGATIVE FACTUAL INFORMATION
Question forms
- According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true of ?
- All of the following are mentioned in paragraph X as EXCEPT:
- The author’s description of mentions all of the following EXCEPT.
- Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
Strategy:
- Read, scan for keywords and synonyms, and simplify the question.
- Eliminate incorrect choices.
- Don’t forget that the necessary information may be spread out over an entire paragraph
or several paragraphs.
Sample Questions
[4] Darwin's theory is that 'selective breeding' occurs in nature as 'natural selection' is the engine
behind evolution. Thus, the theory provides an excellent basis for understanding how organisms
change over time. Nevertheless, it is just a theory and elusively difficult to prove. One of the major
holes in Darwin's theory revolves around “irreducibly complex systems.” An irreducibly complex
system is known as a system where many different parts must all operate together. As a result, in
the absence of one, the system as a whole collapses. Consequently, as modern technology
improves, science can identify these “irreducibly complex systems” even at microscopic levels.
These complex systems, if so inter-reliant, would be resistant to Darwin's supposition of how
evolution occurs. As Darwin himself admitted, “To suppose that the eye with all its inimitable
contrivances for adjusting the focus for different distances, for admitting different amounts of
light, and for the correction of spherical and chromatic aberration, could have been formed by
natural selection, seems, I free confess, absurd in the highest degree.
All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 4 as a viewpoint to state the natural selection is
difficult to prove EXCEPT
A. The belief that the complexity of the human eye could have been formed by natural selection
seems highly unlikely
B. The presence of irreducibly complex system contradicts how evolution occurs
C. Modern microbiology proves that irreducibly complex systems exist
D. Selective breeding is the major hole in the theory of natural selection
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PRACTICE 1
Prosopagnosia
The failures of sensory perception can be unusual and debilitating. A particular sensory deficit that
inhibits an important social function of humans is prosopagnosia, or face blindness. The word
comes from the Greek words prosopa, that means “faces,” and agnosia, that means “not knowing.”
Some people may feel that they cannot recognize people easily by their faces. However, a person
with prosopagnosia cannot recognize the most recognizable people in their respective cultures.
They would not recognize the face of a celebrity, an important historical figure, or even a family
member like their mother. They may not even recognize their own face.
Q. Which of the following is NOT true about prosopagnosia?

a. Another name for prosopagnosia is face blindness
b. The word is derived from two Greek words that were combined
c. Some individuals suffering from face blindness might not be able to recognize themselves
d. People with this sensory deficit can’t recognize celebrities or historical figures, but they
normally recognize close family members
PRACTICE 2
Europa, a Moon with an Ocean
Europa and the inner two Galilean moons, are not icy worlds like most of the moons of the outer
planets. With densities and sizes similar to our Moon, they appear to be predominantly rocky
objects.
The most probable cause is Jupiter itself, which was hot enough to radiate a great deal of infrared
energy during the first few million years after its formation. This infrared radiation would have
heated the disk of material near the planet that would eventually coalesce into the closer moons.
Thus, any ice near Jupiter was vaporized, leaving Europa with compositions similar to planets in
the inner solar system.
Despite its mainly rocky composition, Europa has an ice-covered surface, as astronomers have
long known from examining spectra of sunlight reflected from it. In this it resembles Earth, which
has a layer of water on its surface, but in Europa’s case the water is capped by a thick crust of ice.
There are very few impact craters in this ice, indicating that the surface of Europa is in a continual
state of geological self-renewal. Judging from crater counts, the surface must be no more than a
few million years old, and perhaps substantially less. In terms of its ability to erase impact craters,
Europa is more geologically active than Earth.
When we look at close-up photos of Europa, we see a strange, complicated surface. For the most
part, the icy crust is extremely smooth, but it is crisscrossed with cracks and low ridges that often
stretch for thousands of kilometers. Some of these long lines are single, but most are double or
multiple, looking rather like the remnants of a colossal freeway system.
Q. All of the following are true of Europa except …

a. It’s mostly composed of rock with an exterior of ice
b. It looks similar to the planet Earth because both have water on the surface
c. The few impact craters in the ice suggest that it’s renewed itself geologically once
d. The number of craters indicates that it has a maximum surface age of a few million years
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PRACTICE 3
Diseases
One of the most talked about diseases is skin cancer. Cancer is a broad term that describes
diseases caused by abnormal cells in the body dividing uncontrollably. Most cancers are
identified by the organ or tissue in which the cancer originates. One common form of cancer is
skin cancer. The Skin Cancer Foundation reports that one in five Americans will experience some
type of skin cancer in their lifetime. The degradation of the ozone layer in the atmosphere and the
resulting increase in exposure to UV radiation has contributed to its rise. Overexposure to UV
radiation damages DNA, which can lead to the formation of cancerous lesions. Although melanin
offers some protection against DNA damage from the sun, often it is not enough. The fact that
cancers can also occur on areas of the body that are normally not exposed to UV radiation
suggests that there are additional factors that can lead to cancerous lesions.
Q. All of the following statements are true of cancer except …

a. The term "cancer" usually describes diseases that cause irregular cells to multiply uncontrollably
b. The most common and fatal form of cancer is skin cancer
c. Approximately 20% of Americans will experience a form of skin cancer
d. Harm to our DNA can cause cancerous spots to form
Question type 5: INFERENCE
An inference question requires you to make logical assumptions and connections by using the
information in the passage to come up with a new conclusion. In other words, an inference question
asks you to pick up on information that is indirectly given, rather than being directly stated in the
passage.
Question forms
- Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph about X?
- According to the passage, it can be inferred that
- The author of the passage implies that
- It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely believes which of the
following about X?
- Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author’s opinion about
X?
- The author’s attitude toward X could be best described as
Strategy:
- Read the question carefully and understand what you are being asked
- Make sure you understand the main idea of the whole paragraph.
- Use the process of elimination. The answer is incorrect if it is beyond the scope of the
information in the passage. In other words, you can't really make this inference based
only on the passage. You must use your logical thinking.
- Pay attention to answers containing extreme language such as always, forever, never, all,
totally, completely or extreme phrases such as "this is the only (x)," or "this is the limit
of (y)," and so on. They are used as traps and are often INCORRECT.
- Pay attention to answers only repeating words from the passage but don't answer the
question. These answers look appealing because they contain technical words that you
saw in the passage. But, if you read them carefully, they aren't correct!
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Sample Questions
The body that impacted Earth at the end of the Cretaceous period was a meteorite with a mass of
more than a trillion tons and a diameter of at least 10 kilometers. Scientists first identified this
impact in 1980 from the worldwide layer of sediment deposited from the dust cloud that
enveloped the planet after the impact. This sediment layer is enriched in the rare metal iridium
and other elements that are relatively abundant in a meteorite but very rare in the crust of Earth.
Even diluted by the terrestrial material excavated from the crater, this component of meteorites is
easily identified. By 1990 geologists had located the impact site itself in the Yucatán region of
Mexico. The crater, now deeply buried in sediment, was originally about 200 kilometers in
diameter.
Question: Which of the following can be inferred from the paragraph about the location of the
meteorite impact in Mexico?
A. The location of the impact site in Mexico was kept secret by geologists from 1980 to 1990.
B. It was a well-known fact that the impact had occurred in the Yucatán region.
C. Geologists knew that there had been an impact before they knew where it had occurred.
D. The Yucatán region was chosen by geologists as the most probable impact site because of its
climate.
PRACTICE 1
An increase in the median income of the middle class does not cause average levels of education
for the middle class to go up. If they did, then countries with the highest median income of the
middle class would also have the highest levels of education for this class. In fact, when the
median income of the middle class is made suitably comparable for different countries
(accounting for inflation, currency fluctuations and purchasing power parity), there is no such co-
relation.
Questions: Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the statements above?
A. Countries with the highest median income of the middle class do not have the highest levels
of education for the middle class
B. It is difficult to reliably compare the education and income levels of one country with another
C. A reduction in the median income of the middle class of the country will not necessarily
lower the average level of education for the said class
D. Countries with low levels of education for the middle class have comparatively higher levels
of median income for the middle class
Answer: Option C.
In this case, we are told that there is no reliable relationship between the median income and
average level of education for the middle class and the increase/decrease in income levels does not
have an impact on education levels. This sentiment is highlighted by option 3.
Options 1 and 4 can be ruled out as no direct co-relation can be found between the median income
and average level of education for the middle class. These two options in fact give a particular
extreme co-relation.
Option 2 is irrelevant in the given case (goes against the given facts, figures for comparison have
been derived in fact).
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PRACTICE 2
Long-Term Memory
Long-term memory (LTM) is the continuous storage of information. Unlike short-term memory,
the storage capacity of LTM has no limits. It encompasses all the things you can remember that
happened more than just a few minutes ago to all of the things that you can remember that
happened days, weeks, and years ago. In keeping with the computer analogy, the information in
your LTM would be like the information you have saved on the hard drive. It isn’t there on your
desktop (your short-term memory), but you can pull up this information when you want it, at least
most of the time. Not all long- term memories are strong memories. Some memories can only be
recalled through prompts. For example, you might easily recall a fact— “What is the capital of
the United States?”—or a procedure— “How do you ride a bike?”—but you might struggle to
recall the name of the restaurant you had dinner at when you were on vacation in France last
summer. A prompt, such as that the restaurant was named after its owner, who spoke to you about
your shared interest in soccer, may help you recall the name of the restaurant.
Long-term memory is divided into two types: explicit and implicit. Understanding the different
types is important because a person’s age or particular types of brain trauma or disorders can
leave certain types of LTM intact while having disastrous consequences for other types. Explicit
memories are those we consciously try to remember and recall. For example, if you are studying
for your chemistry exam, the material you are learning will be part of your explicit memory.
Implicit memories are memories that are not part of our consciousness. They are memories
formed from behaviors. Implicit memory is also called non-declarative memory.
Q. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 2 about explicit memories?
a. They are easier to remember than implicit memories
b. They are all eventually forgotten as we age or experience trauma
c. They are formed subconsciously
d. They are more often affected by age and brain trauma than implicit memories
D is correct because paragraph 2 explains the importance of knowing the two types of long-term
memory because they are each affected differently by age and brain trauma. The last paragraph
states that implicit memories are more naturally formed memories that require no conscious
thought to remember, thus making them easier to recall regardless of age or trauma.
PRACTICE 3
The Terrestrial Planets

The terrestrial planets are quite different from the giants. In addition to being much smaller, they
are composed primarily of rocks and metals. These, in turn, are made of elements that are less
common in the universe as a whole. The most abundant rocks, called silicates, are made of silicon
and oxygen, and the most common metal is iron. We can tell from their densities that Mercury has
the greatest proportion of metals (which are denser) and the Moon has the lowest. Earth, Venus,
and Mars all have roughly similar bulk compositions: about one third of their mass consists of
iron-nickel or iron-sulfur combinations; two thirds is made of silicates. Because these planets are
largely composed of oxygen compounds (such as the silicate minerals of their crusts), their
chemistry is said to be oxidized.
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When we look at the internal structure of each of the terrestrial planets, we find that the densest
metals are in a central core, with the lighter silicates near the surface. If these planets were liquid,
like the giant planets, we could understand this effect as the result the sinking of heavier elements
due to the pull of gravity. This leads us to conclude that, although the terrestrial planets are solid
today, at one time they must have been hot enough to melt.
Differentiation is the process by which gravity helps separate a planet’s interior into layers of
different compositions and densities. The heavier metals sink to form a core, while the lightest
minerals float to the surface to form a crust. Later, when the planet cools, this layered structure is
preserved. In order for a rocky planet to differentiate, it must be heated to the melting point of
rocks, which is typically more than 1,800 F.
Q. Which of the following can be inferred about the past temperatures of terrestrial planets?
a. At a point, their temperatures were at least 1,800 F or higher
b. At a point, their temperatures were below 1,800 F
c. Their temperatures currently range a great deal
d. Their temperatures have remained the same throughout time
Question type 6: SENTENCE INSERTION
In a "Sentence Insertion" question, you will be asked to decide where a new sentence best fits into
the reading passage. This question type tests your understanding of the logic in the passage. It also
tests your ability to understand the grammatical connections from one sentence to another.
Question forms
- In which space (marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] in the passage) will the following sentence fit?
Strategy:
1. Ideas in the paragraph are written in a general → specific formula, meaning that an idea is
introduced with general details, and then more specific details will follow.
2. Pronouns are often included in the prompt sentence. Therefore, when you see a word like
“they”, “these”, “those”, or “this”, look for the sentence that contains the information that
these pronouns refer to. Then, the prompt sentence must be inserted after that sentence.
3. Be familiar with connecting words such as “and”, “so”, “therefore” (share the same ideas
and opinions with the prompt sentence; “yet”, “on the contrary”, “in contrast” (contradict
the ideas or opinions from the prompt sentence.
Sample Questions
Examine the four █ in the selection below and indicate at which block the following sentence could
be inserted into the passage:
Seagrasses grow together in dense patches, or beds, with as many as 4,000 blades per square
meter.
Many areas of the shallow sea bottom are covered with a lush growth of aquatic flowering plants
adapted to live submerged in seawater. █ [A]These plants are collectively called seagrasses. █ [B]
Seagrass beds are strongly influenced by several physical factors. █ [C] The most significant is
water motion: currents and waves. █ [D] Since seagrass systems exist in both sheltered and
relatively open areas, they are subject to differing amounts of water motion.
Choose the place where the sentence fits best.
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PRACTICE 1
Pioneer and Voyager

█[A] The first spacecraft to investigate the regions past Mars were the NASA Pioneers 10 and 11,
launched in 1972 and 1973 as pathfinders to Jupiter. █[B] One of their main objectives was simply
to determine whether a spacecraft could actually navigate through the belt of asteroids that lies
beyond Mars without getting destroyed by collisions with asteroidal dust. █[C] Another objective
was to measure the radiation hazards in the magnetosphere (or zone of magnetic influence) of
Jupiter. Both spacecraft passed through the asteroid belt without incident, but the energetic particles
in Jupiter’s magnetic field nearly wiped out their electronics, providing information necessary for
the safe design of subsequent missions. █[D]
Pioneer 10 flew past Jupiter in 1973, after which it sped outward toward the limits of the solar
system. Pioneer 11 undertook a more ambitious program, using the gravity of Jupiter to aim for
Saturn, which it reached in 1979. The twin Voyager spacecraft launched the next wave of outer
planet exploration in 1977. Voyagers 1 and 2 each carried 11 scientific instruments, including
cameras and spectrometers, as well as devices to measure the characteristics of planetary
magnetospheres. Since they kept going outward after their planetary encounters, these are now the
most distant spacecraft ever launched by humanity.
Voyager 1 reached Jupiter in 1979 and used a gravity assist from that planet to take it on to Saturn
in 1980. Voyager 2 arrived at Jupiter four months later, but then followed a different path to visit all
the outer planets, reaching Saturn in 1981, Uranus in 1986, and Neptune in 1989. This trajectory
was made possible by the approximate alignment of the four giant planets on the same side of the
Sun. About once every 175 years, these planets are in such a position, and it allows a single
spacecraft to visit them all by using gravity-assisted flybys to adjust course for each subsequent
encounter; such a maneuver has been nicknamed a “Grand Tour” by astronomers.
Q. In paragraph 1 there is a missing sentence. Look at the four squares [A, B, C, D] that indicate
where the sentence could be added. Where would the sentence best fit?
The former of these was the first spacecraft to make direct observations and take close- up
pictures of Jupiter.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
PRACTICE 2
Long-Term Memory
█[A] Long-term memory (LTM) is the continuous storage of information. █[B] Unlike short-term
memory, the storage capacity of LTM has no limits. █[C] It encompasses all the things you can
remember that happened more than just a few minutes ago to all of the things that you can
remember that happened days, weeks, and years ago. █[D] In keeping with the computer analogy,
the information in your LTM would be like the information you have saved on the hard drive. It
isn’t there on your desktop (your short-term memory), but you can pull up this information when
you want it, at least most of the time. Not all long-term memories are strong memories. Some
memories can only be recalled through prompts. For example, you might easily recall a fact—
“What is the capital of the United States?”—or a procedure—“How do you ride a bike?”—but you
131
might struggle to recall the name of the restaurant you had dinner at when you were on vacation in
France last summer. A prompt, such as that the restaurant was named after its owner, who spoke to
you about your shared interest in soccer, may help you recall the name of the restaurant.
Long-term memory is divided into two types: explicit and implicit. Understanding the different
types is important because a person’s age or particular types of brain trauma or disorders can leave
certain types of LTM intact while having disastrous consequences for other types. Explicit
memories are those we consciously try to remember and recall. For example, if you are studying for
your chemistry exam, the material you are learning will be part of your explicit memory.
Implicit memories are memories that are not part of our consciousness. They are memories formed
from behaviors. Implicit memory is also called non-declarative memory.
It is defined in contrast to short-term memory.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
PRACTICE 3
Types of Mixtures
A mixture is composed of two or more types of matter that can be present in varying amounts and
can be separated by physical changes, such as evaporation. █[A] A mixture with a composition that
varies from point to point is called a heterogeneous mixture. █[B] Italian dressing is an example of
a heterogeneous mixture. █[C] Its composition can vary because we can make it from varying
amounts of oil, vinegar, and herbs. █[D] It is not the same from point to point throughout the
mixture—one drop may be mostly vinegar, whereas a different drop may be mostly oil or herbs
because the oil and vinegar separate and the herbs settle. Other examples of heterogeneous mixtures
are chocolate chip cookies (we can see the separate bits of chocolate, nuts, and cookie dough) and
granite (we can see the quartz, mica, and more).
A homogeneous mixture, also called a solution, exhibits a uniform composition and appears
visually the same throughout. An example of a solution is a sports drink, consisting of water, sugar,
coloring, flavoring, and electrolytes mixed together uniformly. Each drop of a sports drink tastes the
same because each drop contains the same amounts of water, sugar, and other components. Note
that the composition of a sports drink can vary—it could be made with somewhat more or less
sugar, flavoring, or other components, and still be a sports drink. Other examples of homogeneous
mixtures include air, maple syrup, gasoline, and a solution of salt in water.
Though there are specific types of mixtures within them, the two principal categories of
mixture are heterogeneous and homogeneous.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
WRITING – STRUCTURES AND EXPRESSIONS
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PART 1 – EMAIL/ LETTER

A. GENERAL STRUCTURE OF AN EMAIL/ A LETTER
Greeting/ Salutation (Lời chào):
• Dear Tom,
*1 paragraph (mở đầu): Starting your email (Bắt đầu bức thư). Use one of the following phrases
st
to start your email:

• Thanks for your letter/ email. (Cảm ơn bạn đã viết thư)
• It’s lovely to hear from you. (Rất vui khi nhận được tin tức từ bạn)
• How are you? (Bạn khỏe không?)
• How are things? (Mọi việc thế nào)
• I hope you're well. (Mình hi vọng bạn khỏe.)
And comment on the information mentioned in the email that you received from your friend
(Và nhận xét về một thông tin trong bức thư mà người bạn viết cho bạn)
• I'm sorry to hear/learn ... Mình rất tiếc khi nghe được/ biết rằng...
• I'm so pleased to hear ... Mình rất vui khi biết rằng
• I’m so pleased to hear that you are getting married next month
you have got a new job.
• It's great to hear ... Thật vui khi biết rằng
• What wonderful news about ... Tin tức về.. thì thật là tuyệt
Example:
Thank you for your letter. I'm sorry I haven't written for so long but I've been really busy studying
English to pass B1 test. It's great to hear that your all family are fine.
2nd paragragh: Focus on the main ideas and answer the questions as requested. You can start by
stating the reasons for writing: (Viết vào nội dung chính, trả lời các câu hỏi trong đề bài. Sử dụng
một số các cách chuyển câu như sau)
• Anyway, the reason I'm writing ...
• I thought I'd write to tell/ask you
• Anyway, I was wondering ...
3rd paragraph: Use one of the following ways:
• Well, that's all for now.
• I will write back soon.
• I’m looking forward to hearing from you again.
• All the best/ Best wishes/ See you soon/ Take care/ Yours/ Love/ Lots of love
• Yours sincerely,
• Yours faithfully,
(Tất cả các từ/ cụm từ này đều có dấu phẩy (,) phía sau)
Example:
I have to get back to work now. I am looking forward to hearing from you soon.
B. TYPES OF EMAIL/ LETTER

B1. Formal letters/ Emails:
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AN EMAIL OF COMPLAINT
USEFUL EXPRESSIONS
134
EMAIL OF APOLOGY
135
USEFUL LANGUAGE
Give a brief description of the issue
- I am afraid I…
- I regret to say that…
- We are very sorry that you received a defective…
- Thank you for your letter informing me that……
- With reference to your letter of November 20th, I……
Apologize for an action, mistake or omission
- I apologize for/ for not
- I must apologize for
- I am extremely sorry for
Explanation
- This was due to
- This was because if
- This reason for this was
- The reason for this has been that I forgot / misunderstood……
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- I can offer no excuse to except that……
Promise to rectify the situation (if possible)
- I am coming to…… next week, so I……
- I am pleased to inform you that we are prepared to replace your faulty…… with a new one.
- I wonder if you bring with you the…… and our receipt to any showrooms during business hours.
Our staff will then replace the faulty…… with a new one for you.
The conclusion
- Please accept our apologies for having delivered a fault product to you
- We very much regret for the inconvenience the holiday…… has caused to you
- We hope that the refund/replacement will restore your confidence in us and establish
goodwill
EMAIL OF APPLICATION
1. An application letter for a job
2. An application letter for a course
USEFUL LANGUAGES
137
EMAIL OF GIVING INFORMATION

USEFUL EXPRESSIONS
138
AN EMAIL OF REQUEST
COMMON STRUCTURE OF AN EMAIL OF REQUEST

139
USEFUL LANGUAGES
1. Request for goods and services
140
2. Request letters for information
141
3. Ending
II. Useful languages AN EMAIL OF GIVING OPINION
- I am writing to response/ in reply to your letter asking for advice
- I hope the following advice/ suggestions will be of some help to you
Beginning - I would like to give me views on……
- I strongly recommend (+V-ing) that……
- I believe that the best course of action is……
Advice
- I would advise you to……
- You ought to……
- I would suggest that……
Suggestions/ - I would like to offer one/ two suggestions concerning
- I would venture to suggest doing……
- I agree/ disagree with……because……

- I am for the plan because……
- I am against the plan because……
Opinion
-In my view/ it seems to me that……
- I would like to point out that
Ending - I hope you will accept this advice
- Please do not hesitate to contact me should you have any problems.
B2. INFORMAL LETTERS:

Informal letters are usually written to family members, friends, relatives etc.
Useful language
Useful phrases for the opening
• How are you? / How have the family been? / I hope you are well.
• Thank you / Many thanks for your (recent/last) letter / postcard.
• It was good / nice / great to hear from you again.
• I was so surprised to hear that……
• I’m sorry I haven’t written / haven’t been in touch for such a long time
• It’s ages since I’ve heard from you. I hope you’re well / you and your family are well.
How are things? / How are you? / How’s it going?
Other useful phrases
Referring to news
• Great news about……Glad to hear that……Sorry to hear about……
Giving news
• Listen, did I tell you about……? You’ll never believe what…… Oh, and another
thing……This is just to let you know that……
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• I thought you might be interested to hear about / know that……
• By the way, have you heard about/ did you know that……?
Apologies
• I’m writing to apologies for missing your party but I’m afraid I was with flu.
• I’m really sorry that I forgot to send you a birthday card but I was busy with my new job
Invitations
• I’m/ we’re having a party on Friday 19th and I/ we hope you’ll be able to come.
• I was wondering if you’d like to go to the theatre / come on holiday with us.
• Thank you for asking / inviting me to……but I’m afraid I won’t be able to……
Requests
• I’m writing to ask for your help / you (if you could do me) a favor.
• I wonder if / I was wondering if you could help me / do me a favor.
Thank you / Congratulations / Good luck
• I’m writing to thank you for your hospitality / the wonderful present. It
was so kind of you to invite me to stay with you.
• I really appreciated all your help / advice.
• Congratulations on passing your exams / your excellent exam results!
Making suggestions and recommendations
• Why don’t you……? / Maybe you could ……? / How about……? You can’t leave New
York without (……doing sth)
Closing
• Give a reason why you’re ending the letter: Anyway, I must go and get on with my work! / I
guess it’s time I got on with that studying I’ve been avoiding.
• Send greetings and / or make reference for future contact
• Closing statement such as Love, Lots of Love, All the best, Take care, Best wishes, should be
written on a new line. If you used a comma after the opening greeting, use a comma here
too.
PART 2 – WRITING – OUTLINES FOR ESSAYS

ADVANTAGES & DISADVANTAGES
1. Introduction
✓ Opening sentence
✓ Thesis statement
Some people contend that the advantages of … … outweigh the disadvantages. I strongly agree/
disagree and will outline both views in my essay.
2. Body
a. Topic sentence 1
One of the first benefits of such a measure is that….
Explanation 1.1: advantage
Example 1.1: advantage
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b. Topic sentence 2
Another benefit would be that …
Explanation 2.1: advantage
Example 2.1: advantage
c. Topic sentence 3
Nevertheless, there are drawbacks to such a solution. First and foremost, …
Explanation 2.1: disadvantage 1
Example 2.1: disadvantage 1
d. Topic sentence 4
Moreover/ In addition/ another matter of concern with …..,
Explanation 2.1: disadvantage 2
Example 2.1: disadvantage 2
3. Conclusion
Summary
In conclusion, the benefits of … outweigh its drawbacks; however, their downsides cannot be
overlooked.
AGREE or DISAGREE
TYPE 1
1. Introduction
✓ Introduce the topic by paraphrasing
Personally, I am (not) in agreement with this idea.
2. Body
a. Topic sentence 1
The first reason for this is because ....
Explanation 1.1: If … …
Example 1.1: For example, … …
b. Topic sentence 2
In addition to the reason above, I also believe that … …
Explanation 1.1: If … …
Example 1.1: For example, … …
3. Conclusion
Summary
In conclusion/ to recapitulate, I do (not) believe that ... … because of … …
TYPE 2
1. Introduction
To a certain extent I agree that... However, I also think that...
2. Body
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a. Topic sentence 1
On the one hand, I would agree that …
Good point 1: In other words, …
Good point 2: For example, …/ For instance, …
Good point 3: If …
b. Topic sentence 2
On the other hand/ Nevertheless, I also think that ....
Bad point 1: First, … It means that …
Bad point 2 : Second, … In particular, …
Bad point 3: Finally, … For example, …
3. Conclusion
Summary
In conclusion/ to recapitulate, while …, I (do not) believe that …
CAUSES
1. Introduction
No one can deny that … … This leading tendency is caused by several factors such as (cause 1)
… …, (cause 2) … …, and (cause 3) … ….
2. Body
a. Topic sentence 1
(cause 1)… … is one reason attributable to (topic)… …
Explanation 1.1: cause 1
Example 1.1: cause 1
b. Topic sentence 2
Another contributing factor to mention is that …
c. Topic sentence 3
Lastly, one of the causes of (topic) … … is (cause 3) … …
3. Conclusion
Summary
In conclusion/ to recapitulate, (paraphrase the topic)… … … … There are various causes, some
of which include (cause 1) … …, (cause 2) … …, and (cause 3) … … .
CAUSES & SOLUTIONS
1. Introduction
✓ Opening sentences
In this essay, two major causes to …will be presented with proper solutions.
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2. Body
a. Topic sentence 1
The first cause is regarding ….
Explanation 1.1: cause
Example 1.1: cause
To solve this,…
Explanation 1.2: solution
Example 1.2: solution
b. Topic sentence 2
The second cause is concerning …
Explanation 2.1: cause
Example 2.1: cause
To tackle such important/ macro-scale issue,…
Explanation 2.2: solution
Example 2.2: solution
3. Conclusion
Summary
In conclusion, (topic)… is caused mainly by (causes)... … … … and these can be solved by
(solutions)… … …
Final comment:
It is important that these causes should be carefully examined and suggested measures be taken
promptly.
CAUSES & EFFECTS

1. Introduction
✓ Opening sentence
This essay will discuss the main reasons of …(topic) and then describe the possible effects of the
problem.
2. Body
a. Topic sentence 1
In my opinion, the foremost cause of … is …
Explanation 1.1: (cause 1)
Example 1.1: (cause 1)
b. Topic sentence 2
Moreover, the problem is accentuated by …
Explanation 2.1: (cause 2)
Example 2.1: (cause 2)
c. Topic sentence 3
The possible effects of this problem include … and …
Explanation 2.1: First of all, … (effect 1)
Example 2.1: For example, …(effect 1)
Explanation 2.2: Secondly, … (effect 2)
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Example 2.2: For example, … (effect 2)
3. Conclusion
Summary
To sum up, (topic)…is mainly caused by … (cause 1) and … (cause 2) and results in … (effect 1)
and … (effect 2)
POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE ESSAY

Example: Some universities now offer their courses on the Internet so that people can study online.
Is this a positive or negative development?
Outline:
Paragraph 1 – The Introduction
• Introduce the topic: rewrite the question in your own words using synonyms.
• Outline what you’re going to discuss in the body paragraphs + state your viewpoint.
Paragragh 2– The Body 1
• Topic sentence 1: negatives
- Explain
- Examples
Paragragh 3– The Body 2
• Topic sentence 2: positives
• Explain
• Examples
Paragraph 4 – The Conclusion
USEFUL EXPRESSIONS
I/ Introduction
➢ First sentence - It is true that … are becoming a common feature of … (State the
problem/topic)
➢ Second sentence - Although there are some (drawbacks of) …, I would argue that there are
far more (benefits).
➢ Third sentence - This essay will first explain the positive aspects of …such as… , then
outline the its negative sides like …
II/Body
• Paragraph 1:
➢ On the one hand, the main drawback of … is that ….
➢ Similarly,…
➢ For example,…
Paragraph 2:
• Despite the negatives mentioned above, I believe that …is/ are a positive development for various
reasons.
• Firstly,…
• Secondly,…
• Finally,…
• For example,…
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III/ Conclusion
➢ In conclusion, while I recognize the possible disadvantages of online learning such as …… ,
I consider it to be a positive development overall. (ủng hộ mặt tích cực)
➢ To sum up, although … still has/ have some advantages, I believe that its drawbacks
outweigh those merits. (ủng hộ mặt tiêu cực)
148
SPEAKING – STRUCTURES AND EXPRESSIONS
OVERVIEW OF VSTEP – SPEAKING
PART DURATION FORMAT
Part 1: Social interaction 3 minutes Answer 3-6 questions

about 2 different familiar
topics (Hobbies, family,
etc.)
Part 2: Solution discussion 4 minutes (1 minute to Choose 1 of 3 given

prepare and 3 minutes to solutions for the problem
speak)
Part 3: Topic development 5 minutes (1 minute to Give own opinions on a

prepare and 4 minutes to given topic and answer
speak) extended questions.
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USEFUL LANGUAGES FOR VSTEP SPEAKING
COMMON CONNECTIVE WORDS
Addition Sequence Consequence Contrast

In addition and Firstly As a result However
similarly likewise as Initially Thus On the other
well as besides secondly So hand
furthermore also To begin with Therefore Despite
moreover and then Then Consequently In spite of
too not only ... but Next It follows that Though
also besides this/that Earlier/ Later Thereby Although
After this/ that Eventually But
Following this/ Then On the contrary
that In that case Otherwise
Afterwards Admittedly Yet
Certainly Condition Definition Instead of
Obviously If Is Rather
Certainly Unless Refers to Whereas
Plainly Whether Means Nevertheless
Of course Provided that That is Compared with
Undoubtedly For Consists of In contrast
So that Alternatively
Depending on
Example Reason Time Summary
For Instance Since Before In conclusion

One example As Since In summary
For example So As Lastly
Just as Because Until Finally
In particular Due to Meanwhile To sum up
Owning to
The reason why At the moment
In other words When
Leads to Whenever To conclude
Namely Cause As soon as In short
To illustrate
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PART 1 – SOCIAL INTERACTION
In this part, you will be answered 3-6 questions about 2 different topics.
TIPS:
• Answer at least 2-3 sentences for each question.
• Stay on the topic and give extra information (reason for your answer as well).
• Use linking words.
• Never speak as if you memorize the answer.
Question types:
1. Like/ dislike
- Using expressing feelings expressions

- Listing ideas by using linking words or phrases
Example: What do you like about your hometown?
=> The best thing about living here is that everything is at your fingertips. Moreover, I
just adore the local cuisine. However, I’m afraid I can’t stand me the traffic jams during
rush hours.
2. Yes/ No questions
- Confirm the answer: yes/ no/ it depends
- State the reasons
- Clarify the reason by using example (Optional)
This kind of question partly similar to like/dislike questions except from the
confirmation part
Example: Do you think people should use public transport?
=> Yes, I totally agree that people should use buses or train since it would save a huge
amount of money. Another reason is that it might reduce pollution.
3. Wh-Questions
- You might give the answer and then supporting ideas for it. (interrogative words: what,
where)
Example: Where does your family live?
We live in Danang city, the largest city of Central Vietnam. This beautiful place is
famous for sandy beaches and annual festival.
- You might give the answer and the reason for your answer
Example: How did you come here today?
=> I came here by motorbike as it is my only vehicle. Furthermore, it’s quite

convenient because it’s easy to find a parking lot.
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PART 2 – SOLUTION DISCUSSIONS
Question requirements
In this part of the test, you are given A SITUATION and THREE OPTIONS for you
to choose from. You need to decide on THE BEST choice and JUSTIFY your opinion.
Example
Your family is planning on a holiday. There are three options that are reasonable to your
family time and financial budget: three-day trip to a foreign country, four-day trip to a
mountainous area, and a two-day trip at a beach resort. What do you think is the best
choice?
Situation: Your family is planning on a holiday.
Options: There are three options that are reasonable to your family time and financial
budget: three-day trip to a foreign country, four-day trip to a mountainous area, and a
two-day trip at beach resort
Requirement: Which do you think is the best choice?
Answering method:
Step 1: Analyze the topic. (1 minute)
Choose the option that you have more ideas (not the one you are interested inList 2
advantages (reasons) of the option you choose and disadvantages of the 2 remain options
Step 2: Answer the question

Introduction: (paraphrase the statement) State the option you choose
Body: state 2 advantages and compare with the other 2 options
Conclusion: Summarize your choice
Note:
Don’t try to complicate your ideas. Make it straightforward, simple and easy to
understand
• Compound and complex sentences are welcome, make sure you produce accurate
simple sentences.
• Try to speak without hesitation. Choose the option that you find it easier to explain and
support rather than choose what you like.
Languages features:
1. Comparatives and superlatives (to show the similarities and differences between the
options, try to highlight the most outstanding features of your option)
2. Signal words to list the reasons and support to create coherence within your answer
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ESSENTIAL LANGUAGE FOR VSTEP SPEAKING – PART 2
1. Appropriate language for compare and contrast structures:
Function Vocabulary Sample sentence frames

both
same
also ….and ….both have….
like Both …. And…. Are….?
similar … and… are the same because…?
similarly ….also has…
alike Similarly … is….
Compare
whereas …is similar to … in many ways
each because … and …
likewise Whereas …is …, … is …. and…?
just as … and …are alike because…
in the same way ….is just as difficult as… because…
akin to
as well as
Different
But
Although
Different from …is …. Different than…. Because…
However …is …, but… is …
One difference Although …has…, … has ….
On the other hand … is …. However, …is…
In comparison … is… . on the other hand, ..is…
By comparison Even though… has…,… has…
Instead of … and… differ because…
Contrast
In contrast to … is unlike … because ….
Conversely … has…, yet… has…
Even though … is … . on the contrary, …is…
Unlike Despite having …, … is different
On the contrary because …
Yet One variation between… and… is
Despite that … has…
Differ
Variation
otherwise
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Van Lang University VSTEP Preparation Course Level B1-B2-C1
PART 3 – TOPIC DEVELOPMENT
In this part of the test, there will be given a STATEMENT and some SUPPORTING DETAILS,
which are displayed in a MIND-MAP. You need to CLARIFY the statement by using the
supporting details and your OWN IDEAS
Answering method
Step 1: Analyze the topic (1 minute)

• Find synonym, phrasal verbs, collocation, etc. to change the expressions of the statement
topic
• Find example for each supporting detail or clarify it with more information
• Find your own idea and example or more information for it.
Step 2: State your answer

• Introduction; paraphrase the statement.
• Body: develop the supporting details9 which are given as nouns, noun phrase, verbs phrase,
etc.) into sentences. For each supporting detail, present example or further information.
• Conclusion: summarize the topic.
Tips:
• Try to vary your vocabulary by using synonyms, related words, phrasal verbs, etc, instead of
using given words
• For the extended questions, use the method of speaking part 1
Example: Reading habit should be encouraged among teenagers.
increases
Improves
knowledge
memory
READING
Reduces Your own ideas
stress
Statement: Reading habit should be encouraged among teenagers
Supporting details:
• Increases knowledge
• Reduces stress
• Improves memory
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Answer sample: Reading habit should be encouraged among teenagers .

Step 1
Statement:
• Reading habit = reading culture, the habit of reading, the culture of reading
• Encouraged =to boost, to inspire
• Teenagers = the youth, adolescence, young people, young generation, teens
Supporting details
• Increase knowledge = broaden/ widen knowledge / understanding Knowledge gathers day by
day through books.
• Reduces stress = release stress, get away from pressure, stress reduction Keep people away
from reality
• Improve memory = memory improvement
• Have to remember characters, backgrounds, etc => help to gain memory improvement
Own ideas: improve focus and concentration.
Step 2
Reading culture seems to be forgotten because of modern technology. However, teens

should engage with reading for following reasons
First of all, the culture of reading allows young generation to widen their understanding. In fact,
everything they achieve from book would fill their head with new information.
Next, reading habit would be method to free adolescence’s mind. No matter how much stress
they have at a school, at home, in their relationships, it all just slips away when they lose
themselves in a great story.
Another good point of reading culture is the memory improvement it brings. When you read a
book, you have to remember characters, their backgrounds as well as their ambitions, history,
etc. It is undeniable that it is a good method to practice memorization skills.
Lastly, teens would improve focus and concentration through reading books. When they read a
book, all of their attention is focused on the story. As a result, their ability to concentrate would
be increase.
To sum up, the youth should be inspired to read books due to the benefits it brings.
155
ANSWER KEY AND AUDIOSCRIPTS (PRACTICE TEST)

LISTENING PRACTICE TEST – ANSWER KEY
Questions Test 1 Test 2 Test 3 Test 4 Test 5 Test 6
1 C A C C A C
2 B B B B B D
3 B B C A A C
4 C D D B B C
5 C A B D D C
6 B D D A A C
7 A A D A D D
8 A C D C C A
9 C B C C C C
10 B C A B D B
11 C B B B A B
12 D C D A B A
13 B C A B A B
14 A D D C C C
15 C D B C D B
16 B A C A B D
17 B A D A C A
18 D D C D A D
19 B C A A B A
20 A A D C D C
21 B B A C A D
22 A C A A A B
23 C C B C D A
24 A D C C C A
25 B A C B D B
26 B C A B B D
27 C A D A D C
28 A B D D A A
29 B D C C C C
30 B C A B C A
31 B C A C D D
32 A D A C B A
33 C C B A C C
34 A C A C A D
35 C D D A A B
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READING PRACTICE TEST – ANSWER KEY
Questions TEST 1 TEST 2 TEST 3 TEST 4 TEST 5 TEST 6

1 C D D D C C
2 B C B C D B
3 A D B A D C
4 C B A D A A
5 A A C A B C
6 D A A B B A
7 A C D C D D
8 B B C B D D
9 A D A D B C
10 B B A A C D
11 D C A B A B
12 A B C D D B
13 D D B B B D
14 A D D C D D
15 C C A C B A
16 D A B D D B
17 C B A A B A
18 A C D D B A
19 B A A B C D
20 D B D A D C
21 A B B B D D
22 D A A A A C
23 C D D D C B
24 D C C A A A
25 B A B B C C
26 B D C C D C
27 D C A C A A
28 D A D D D D
29 A A A A D A
30 B B C C A D
31 B C C D B A
32 D B B A C C
33 B A D B A C
34 A D A D B C
35 D B C A D B
36 D A B A A D
37 A D D B B D
38 B B C C D C
39 B D B D A C
40 D D B B B B
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VSTEP LISTENING PRACTICE TEST – AUDIOSCRIPTS

PRACTICE TEST 1
PART 1
1. I didn't want to go to university, so when I finished school I went and got a job. My parents said if
I was in full time education, they'd give me an allowance, but if not I have to work. So I got a job in a
big store in the menswear department… Actually I think I have to go out and find out what I could do,
because in school I wasn't particularly brilliant. So, when it came to doing work, I think I had to prove
a lot of people wrong. So I really felt like doing it… even though it was just selling socks in Harridges.
2. The Hilton Dance company have been at the Camden Theater for almost a month now, offering us
a wonderful program of mainly modern dances. The company have just celebrated their twentieth year
of performances all over the world! But this week they'll be taking a break from dancing, to give us an
idea of how a dance company works. Top dancer and company manager Lisa West will be in the
theater, telling us about the company's work, but all the dancers will be there too, so it's also your
opportunity for a get-together! And, of course, you don't need to have any experience of dance for
this…
3.
Woman: I tell you, we were dead lucky! He could have done some serious damage if we hadn't
reacted so quickly.
Man: What did he do - just shoot straight out without looking?
Woman: Yeah. Clare yelled something at me and I just slammed on the brakes.
Man: Did he stop?
Woman: You're joking! Just blasted his horn at us and carried on.
Man: And there was nobody behind you?
Woman: No, fortunately, otherwise who knows what might have happened.
Man: You were lucky. That road's always busy.
4. The research for a major wildlife TV series can take up to a year, followed by about 2 years filming,
with 4 or 5 camera teams around the world at any one time. Finding the right stories to film is only
half the job. The other half is finding the right location and then going out to help the camera person
film it. This can be difficult-you have to make sure you’re in the right place at the right time. So good
planning is essential. We spend a lot of time on the phone beforehand, getting advice from local
experts.
5. This is the most beautiful place I've ever visited and, believe me, in my career as a travel writer I've
seen some fabulous scenes. From the deck of this small sailing boat I have a wonderful view out over
a short expanse of sparkling blue water to the white houses of the village on the left, and then to the
wooded hillsides behind which climb up to the snow-covered mountain peaks surrounding this is
lovely valley. By the water's edge, people are sitting in the late evening sun enjoying a leisurely meal
of fresh fish, caught in these waters only a few hours ago. It's heaven.
6. Give me my money back isn't the point. My son needs to practice for an important match, but at the
moment his table is lying in bits on the floor. When I bought it, I was assured that it would only take
a matter of moments to screw the different parts in place, but the instructions don't make sense. Since
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I paid so much for it, I think it's only fair to ask for some hands-on help from you in getting it into a
usable state. My son is impatient for a game on his new table!
7.
Interviewer: Helen, was this business always a dream of yours?
Woman: No. not really. It developed from what we used to do - build fishing boats.
Interviewer: How long have you been in business?
Woman: About eight years. First we built the marina, then we bought boats to rent out for
cruising holidays. It's going well!
Interviewer: How many boats do you have? During the summer I bet you're pretty busy.
Woman: Yes, people use them like caravans, really. They go up river for their holidays and then
bring them back to the moorings here for us to prepare for the next client ...
8. This is a really delicious part- plenty to get your teeth into, some very good speeches, a lot of change
of mood. There’s lots for the audience to identify with too, so it all goes to make my job more
rewarding. The fact that this is a revival means I also have the challenge of putting my own stamp on
a role. The original performance, by the man who created the part some 20 years ago, will still be in
the mind of some members of the audience. I couldn't ask for more!
PART 2
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
(WA) Hi, before I check in, I have a quick question. I’m speaking at a conference here in town, and
I need to get some emergency dry cleaning and ironing done on a blouse. Could you do that
here at that hotel?
(MA) We sure can. That’s all done on site. Today’s Sunday, so if you give us the clothes this evening,
they’ll be ready by noon tomorrow.
(WA) Oh, that’s perfect. The conference is Tuesday, so I’ll have a day to work with. Do I just leave
the clothing with the housekeeping staff?
(MA) Yes, there should be a clear plastic bag beside the luggage rack in your room. But it may be
missing. So, before I process your check-in on the computer, let me grab a bag for you from
the coat room. One moment - I’ll be right back.
WB) Hi, Terrance. Well, it looks like we’ll have to postpone our Wednesday department meeting
on Wednesday. Five or six members of our staff will be touring the new computer facility all
afternoon that day.
(MB) Oh, right. I heard they’ll have a data management forum there. On Thursday, I’m busy all
morning and afternoon. Why don’t we set the meeting for Friday?
(WB) That’ll work. I have a report to do in the afternoon, so would 10 A.M. work?
(MB) Ten on Friday is perfect. I’ll send a group e-mail to everyone once I’ve booked the meeting
room. Looks like a busy afternoon for me, so I think I’ll head out and grab some lunch in a
second.
159

(MA) Hi, I’m looking for a laptop bag for an extended business trip to India. Once there, I’ll be
traveling around to various hotels and universities trying to sell our firm’s software packages.
I need a bag that’s very sturdy.
(WB) Well, you might want to try this black PC10 bag. It’s a hard-bag, so it’s a little heavy and not
really stylish, but it’s durable and a good value at just $34 on sale.
(MA) It looks very tough. I like it, but it’s not quite big enough. I have a larger laptop, so I need a
20 inch bag.
(WB) Oh, I’m afraid we only have the PC10 in our regular stores. But I can check our online
inventory for a 20-inch hard bag and have it shipped here within 24 hours. One moment while
I bring up the computer.
PART 3
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following lecture.
Interviewer: ... Welcome back to the programme. Well, statistics show that the fastest-growing sports in
Britain are adventure sports, and I have with me Stan Leach, an official at the Sports Council,
who's going to tell us a bit about some of them. Stan, where shall we start?
Stan: Well, most people start with walking, I think - although of course strictly speaking it's not
necessarily an adventure sport, but it's what gets most people outdoors. Indeed, the great
thing about walking in Britain is the endless variety, from an easy stroll to a country pub, to
an energetic walk up a high peak. If you want to take up walking, you can start with a few
short circular walks and then pick something longer and more demanding.
Interviewer: What's this thing called scrambling I've been hearing about?
Stan: Yeah, scrambling is sort of in the grey area between walking and climbing. Scrambles are graded
according to difficulty, and on the harder ones, which are quite close to rock climbing. it's
best to go with an expert.
Interviewer: Well, that brings us nicely on to climbing — that's really caught on here lately, hasn't it?
Stan: Yes, and of course you know it doesn't have to mean going up the really big ones like Everest.
Climbing might seem rather terrifying to begin with, but it's great fun and really keeps you
fit. You start by climbing small crags
before moving on to a rock face. I went for a day's lesson with mountaineer Alan Kimber
in Scotland and it was really scaly but realty exciting.
Interviewer: Right, well, what's next?
Stan: Mountain biking. If you can get used to the saddle, you can cycle across Britain. But unlike
in the USA, where there are special cycling paths, in Britain most of the paths are the same as for
walkers, which can cause a bit of trouble. After the initial investment — there's one bike that costs
four thousand pounds but you can get a very good one for two hundred — it's a cost-efficient sport.
And there are relatively easy trips, such as the Pyrenees Traverse, which has seventy per cent
downhill slopes with no major climbs.
160
Interviewer: Scuba diving's my personal favourite — any advice on that?

Stan: Yes, swimming underwater opens up a whole new world. Actually, for most people, the idea
of being underwater, unable to breathe normally, is a frightening one, but with good tuition you can
pick it up in no time at all. Once you get the qualification you need to be considered a competent
diver, you can do it anywhere.
Interviewer: I see you've got skydiving on your list. Surely that's only for people who are very brave
or mad?
Stan: Well, it is the sort of thing you'd expect to only see in the movies but you'd be amazed how
many people go in for it these days. Six hours of training will give you enough background to make
the first jump. People who really take to it often join display teams, so if you take it up you might find
yourself taking part in special events.
Interviewer. OK, and finally canoeing. That always looks a bit dangerous to me - in that tiny boat
with water rushing everywhere.
Stan: Well, there are some terrible bits of water where the real canoeing experts go but beginners can
start in gentler waters and build up. There's one stretch in Wales that was designed for the world
championships that has a dam release, so that at pre-set times the water runs through. You can phone
up and they'll say it's a full release tomorrow or a quarter release so you can choose your times
according to difficulty.
Interviewer: OK, Stan, thanks a lot. After the break, we'll be going to Canada to look at…
Questions 26- 30 refer to the following radio interview.

Interviewer: My guest today is Douglas Turner, who recently spent a weekend climbing a mountain
in Africa. Douglas, how did this come about?
Douglas: Well, I suppose it started with seeing adverts for activity holidays in the national press
week after week; it somehow got into my subconscious. Then there was one which said, 'Are you
ready for the greatest physical challenge of your life? Five thousand metres. One weekend.' And
somewhat against my better judgement, I found myself picking up the phone straight away. You
see, I simply hadn't trained for it; the nearest I'd got was a bit of hill-walking five years ago.
Interviewer: What did you think you would get out of the weekend?
Douglas: Generally when I go to things, I enjoy meeting people, but in this case I was afraid the
rest of the group would be a bunch of healthy types and I wouldn't have much in common with
them. And as for the physical effort of climbing the mountain, I thought I'd be lucky if I survived the
weekend at all! It was more a kind of wanting to see what I was mentally capable of doing. Would I
get cold feet and not go at all? Or go, but give up halfway up? That sort of thing.
Interviewer: But you made it to the top.
Douglas: Yes, I did. Much to my surprise, I can tell you.
Interviewer: And were you right about the other people?
Douglas: No, actually. There were a few serious walkers and climbers, but most of the participants
were professional people who wanted to do something quite different once in a while, more or less
like me, in fact. So not intimidating after all. Though I have to admit that nearly all of them were fitter
161
than me. Actually, I hadn't realised so many people did this sort of thing. It was funny — when I told a
friend that I was going, she said, 'Oh, not another one. Everyone I know's going climbing this year.
There's a big thing about pushing yourself to your limit at the moment, isn't there? You're welcome
to it,' she said. 'You won't catch me up there.'
Interviewer: How did you all get on together?
Douglas: I suppose we were a bit suspicious of each other at first, but that soon went, and we
somehow developed a really close group feeling, and nobody complained about having to wait for
the slow ones, which usually included me. Or at least, if they did complain, they did it out of earshot.
In fact, on the flight home we were busy exchanging cards and decided to book another weekend trip
as a party - but without a mountain in sight this time.
Interviewer: So how did the weekend compare with your expectations?
Douglas: It was much better than I'd expected. It made me change in subtle ways. As I'd hoped, I
gained in self-knowledge, and I learnt to get on with people I couldn't escape from, but I also
became much more observant, of the tiny little wild flowers, for instance, and that was quite a bonus.
Interviewer: I suppose you're going to be a regular mountain climber now.
Douglas: The pair of boots I wore I'm keeping with the mud still on them on my desk at work. They're
a kind of trophy, to prove to myself that I've done it. But I somehow don't think I'll be using them
again. I'm going to have to put them somewhere less visible, though, because it's sometimes a bit
embarrassing when other people are impressed.
Interviewer: Douglas Turner, thank you very much.
Douglas: Thank you.
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following radio interview.
Interviewer. Today's guest needs no introduction. He Is a man who has given us hours of interest
and entertainment over the years, with his weekly series of wildlife programmes. He Is,
of course, Martin Middleton. Martin, you've been to the four comers of the Earth in
search of material. Where did this love of adventures come from?
Martin: I don't really know ... I didn't travel much as a child, but I remember reading about the
East and being fascinated by It. Then, when I was about twelve, I met someone who'd
been to Singapore - and to me that seemed incredible ... and, of course, when I started
In television, back in the early nineteen sixties, you didn't travel to make a wildlife
programme ... you went along and filmed at the local zoo. So, when I said I'd like to go
and film in Africa, the Head of Programmes just laughed at me.
Interviewer: And did you go to Africa?
Martin: On that occasion, not But I eventually got them to allow me to go to Borneo, In nineteen
sixty-two. There was just me and a cameraman. We went off for four months, filming wherever we
found something interesting. We bought a canoe, sailed up-river for ten days and ended up in a
traditional longhouse. Nowadays, of course, it's all quite different.
Interviewer: Different? In what way?
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Martin: We do months of preparation before we set off, so when we start filming, we know exactly
what scenes we want to get. I mean, you don't get up in the morning and say to your team, 'What
shall we do this morning?' You have to know exactly what each scene is going to show ... to work
to a strict plan.
Interviewer: Some of your programmes have taken place in some pretty remote areas. It's hard to
imagine other programme-makers wanting to risk the dangers or discomfort that you've
experienced.
Martin: Well, if you want original material, you've got to go off the beaten track ... but you can find
yourself doing some pretty strange things ... urn ... like, for example, on one occasion, jumping
out of a helicopter onto an iceberg. There I was ... freezing cold ... then It started to snow ... and
the helicopter had gone back to the ship and couldn't take off again. So I was stuck there, on this
iceberg, thinking, 'This is crazy ... I didn't even want to come herel'
Interviewer: What I wonder is ... where does somebody like yourself, who travels to all these
exotic places as part of their work, go on holiday? . . .
Martin: (laughs) I'm not very good at lying on a beach, that's for sure. I wouldn't go to
a place just to sit around. It's nice to have an objective when you're travelling ... to have something you
want to film ... urn ... I've just come back from the Dominican Republic, and we were put up for the first
night in a big hotel ... the place was absolutely full of people, just lying there, sunbathing. They seemed
quite happy to spend the whole day stretched out around the pool ... they never seemed to want to go
and explore the amazing things there were to see outside the hotel. For me, that would be a very boring
way to spend a holiday.
Interviewer: Your programmes, though, must have inspired a lot of people to take their holidays in
remote and little-known places.
Martin: You are probably right, but ... well ... I have mixed feelings about all this. I go back to the places
where, years ago, I was the only European, and now there are cruise ships coming three times a day. So
you worry that In ten years or so every remote place on the planet will be swallowed up, because everyone
will be visiting it. But, on the other hand, I am In favour of tourism that is done in a way that protects the
environment. You can see a good example of this in the Galapagos Islands, where the tourism is carefully
managed. That's very successful, and could be a model for the future ...
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PRACTICE TEST 2
PART 1
Question 1
A: Hey, listen to this. "In Florida today, a man was found drifting about a mile offshore. He was on a
swimming pool float sound asleep." Can you believe that?
B: No way! What was he doing out there?
A: Let's see... It says, "Apparently, the man had fallen asleep and wasn't aware that he was drifting out
to sea. After rescuing him, the Coast Guard said that he was very lucky that they found him."
Question 2
A: Wow, did you hear about the twin sisters that were separated at birth?
B: No, what happened?
A: They were adopted by different families when they were babies and grew up in different cities.
B: Yeah?
A: But after high school, they both attended the same college!
B: Wow! And they met there?
A: Yes! They figured out they were twins. They were even in the same class!
Question 3
A: Hey, has an airline ever lost your luggage?
B: Yeah, once.
A: Well, this British guy claimed that different airlines lost his luggage dozens of times. And since the
airlines pay you when they lose your luggage, he's gotten about $135,000 in lost luggage claims.
B: Wow, that's amazing.
A: It sounds amazing, but it isn't really. The guy had an illegal scam going. He would check two or
three bags. Then when he reached his destination, he would put one bag inside another one and
claim that it was lost!
Question 4
A: I just read the most amazing story online.
B: What was it about?
A: Well, this guy in Florida found a camera floating in the ocean in a plastic case. He decided he would
try to find the owner of the camera, so he posted the photos online. Believe it or not, people who saw
the photos helped him identify the owner of the camera. And it turns out the owner had dropped it in
the ocean in Aruba several months earlier! It had floated 1,000 miles!
Question 5
A: Did you hear that amazing story about the newborn twins?
B: Yeah, one twin was really sick, right?
A: That's right. She wouldn't stop crying, and she was turning blue. No one could calm her. Then a
nurse at the hospital put her twin sister next to her, and when the healthy twin put her arm over her
sister, the sick twin stopped crying and started getting better!
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Question 6
A: Wow, I think I need to get a parrot!
B: Why? What are you reading about?
A: I'm reading a story about a parrot that saved two people's lives. A man and his son fell asleep on
the couch watching a movie. While they were sleeping, their house caught on fire. They woke up
suddenly when they heard their parrot imitating a smoke alarm. Apparently, their smoke alarm did go
off, but it wasn't loud enough to wake them up.
Question 7
I just bought these. Do you like them? They're imported from Italy, and they're made of leather. They'll
look great with my new pants. They're so comfortable to wear. I walked around in them in the store,
so I know they won't hurt my feet They were a pretty good bargain, too—only $125.
Question 8
What do you think of this? Are the arms long enough? I really need it for work. These days we have
to dress up at the office, so I can't just wear a shirt and tie. It's made of wool, so it'll be nice and warm
in the winter. It was on sale for $75.
PART 2
Questions 9-12
A: Have you ordered the cakes for the holiday party on the 10th?
B: Yes, five of them. And I’ve also requested ten dozen roses to be deivered that day.
A: We're, expecting a big turnout. I'm not sure if ten dozen will be enough.
B: What should I do then? Order more? But we’ve already used up all our budget. The boss won't be
pleased with this.
Questions 13-16
A: Is that all at this time?
B: Yes, Mr. Stevens, you are fine. Remember exercise regularly and come back in 6 months for your
next examination. And Mr. Stevens, please make sure to reduce smoking cigarettes and drinking
alcohol. Please, not only for yourself but also for your family.
A: Alright. Dr. Bothering. I will, I will.
B: And make sure to schedule an appointment right now, so I don't have to call to remind you so many
times to make an appointment. Lastly, my name is Dr. Maria, not Bothering.
Questions 17-20
A: Ms. Hanti, I don't seem to have the airline and hotel receipts from your conference trip to Singapore.
B: Well, I'm pretty sure that I included them with my reimbursement form. Have you looked in your
mail box? I put it in there.
A: Yes, I have, but maybe I just missed it. Let me go look again.
B: Please. I've spent lots of money in Singapore, so I am broke right now. I really need that money.
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PART 3
Questions 21-25
Today we're gonna look at the life and some of the works of one of America's finest modern female
poets, Sylvia Plath.
At the time of her death in 1963 Sylvia Plath was on the verge of the critical success and recognition
that she had sought for most of her life. Her first novel 'The Bell Jar' had just been published and the
publication of her collection of poems 'Ariel' had just been agreed.
These poems, which were mostly written during the last year of her life, chronicle the traumatic
developments taking place in her personal life and were to make for her a reputation as a first rate
poet. But it wasn't until 1982, almost twenty years after her death, that her posthumously published
'Collected poems' won the Pulitzer Prize for literature. Since this time the fascination and intrigue
with her work has continued to grow. Very few modern poets have captured the popular imagination
as much as Plath, even to the extent that in 2003 a movie was made about her life and her intense
relationship with husband and fellow poet Ted Huges.
To understand the continued growth in interest in her work, we have to look at the issues which her
life and work address. As Susan Bassnett writes in her book on women writers.
'Dying as she did in 1963, Sylvia Plath never knew that so soon afterwards the problems of what and
how women write was to become such a crucial matter and was to be debated by so many other
women'
So, Sylvia Plath was a woman writing about women's issues before they were recognised as being of
any importance.
Sylvia Plath was born at Robinson memorial Hospital in Boston on 27th October 1932. She was the
first born child of Otto and Aurelia Plath, both highly educated academic people. Her father Otto was
a professor of biology at Boston University, but her mother had been subjugated into a domestic role
as housewife despite her level of education. Her father was not too pleased with the birth of his
daughter and demanded that his wife have a son within the next two years. Amazingly enough his
wife obliged by giving birth to a son almost exactly two years later.
Questions 26-30
Lecturer: Hello class, so today we’re going to be looking at facial recognition, and to the different
sorts of technology that go into facial recognition. Now before we start, can any of you tell me where
we can see facial recognition in action? yes, you at the back?
Student: In the TV show Las Vegas?
Lecturer: Yes, well you’re right. In this popular TV show, the security team pull images of the
individuals from their surveillance system and run the image through a data base to identify the person.
In that way, all the card counters and blacklisted gamblers can be escorted from the poker tables. It
looks easy on TV, but in the real world, facial recognition is a tricky business. So let’s start with the
more traditional methods of facial recognition. Every face has peaks and valleys, and these can be
translated into what is termed as nodal points. Each face has about 80 of these, and they include
distance between the eyes, the length of the jaw, the width of the nose, things like that. These
measurements can be used to create a numerical code, and this is called a faceprint. This system is
good, because it can compare two dimensional images, such as photographs. The problem is that the
images have to be controlled. The person has to be staring straight at the camera, there must be no
variance in facial expression or lighting, because any variance in these parameters reduces the
effectiveness of the system. So they had to come up with another way.
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So the new way of recognising faces is by using a 3D model. It has better accuracy, allegedly. 3D
imagery detects distinctive features in the face, such as the curves of the eyes, nose and chin – features
which do not change over time. These are measured at the sub-millimetre level. Interestingly, a 3D
image can be taken not only from a live scan but also from a 2D photograph. And another good thing
about the 3D system is that it can recognise a person from a range of angles, the person doesn’t have
to be directly facing the camera, as in 2D technology. Once again, the system gives each individual a
unique code – a set of numbers that represents the face.
It’s easy to match a 3D image to another 3D image, if you already have a 3D image in your
database. It’s less easy to match 3D images to 2D images. But what they can do is pull certain
measurements from the 3D image, such as size of the eye and so forth, and use this to convert the 3D
image into a 2D image, and this image can be more easily compared to the 2D images in the database.
But it’s not just the measurements which can be used to recognise faces. There’s also a new
development called Skin Biometrics. This uses the uniqueness of skin texture to get its results. The
process takes a picture of a patch of skin, and the system will then identify any pores, lines, moles,
blemishes and other features of skin texture. This method can be used to identify identical twins,
something that cannot be done with the 3D technology. Its other advantages over 3D imagery are that
it’s insensitive to changes in expression, blinking, smiling and so forth, and can compensate for
changes in facial features – such as the growth of a beard, or wearing glasses. It’s not perfect, though,
as it is sensitive to lighting conditions and poor camera resolution, and if there is glare from the sun.
So, now we’ve covered the main types of facial recognition, we’ll move on to its uses. Now, has
anybody here ...
Questions 31-35
Professor: Good morning everyone, now in today’s lesson I’d like to talk about Population Growth,
and in particular, fertility rate. Now, can anyone here define fertility rate?
Charlene: Er, is it the number of births in a population, measured per thousand people per year?
Professor: Oh, er no, that’s what we call the birth rate. The number of children born in a year, per
thousand people. No, the fertility rate is the average number of children born per woman in her
lifetime, that is, if she lives beyond her child-bearing years. Now, do you think the British fertility
level is higher or lower than it was ... say twenty years ago?
Charlene: I think it’s lower, because these days women are far more focused on their careers than
they used to be.
Professor: Well, that point is certainly true, but actually, fertility levels in Britain are relatively high
at the moment. In 2008, it was 1.96; that means that on average, each woman gives birth to 1.96
children, and in 2009 it was only slightly lower, at 1.94. The last time fertility rates were this high
was back in 1973. In the UK currently, the highest rate of fertility is in Northern Ireland, where the
rate is 2.04, and the lowest is in Scotland, where the rate is just 1.77.
Charlene: I don’t understand. How come fertility rate is going up? Women are just as career-
driven these days as they were thirty years ago.
Professor: Well, the reason is that during the 1990s women really started to delay having families,
and that was the reason for the decrease in birth rate then. Now those women are in their thirties and
early forties, and they are starting to have families. So that’s why the birth rate is going up.
Charlene: Oh, I see, so it’s not actually as if people are actively choosing to have more children
than they used to.
Professor: Yes, that’s right Charlene. The number of children per family is continuing to
167
fall. Women who are currently in their 70s had an average of 2.4 children. Those in their sixties had
2.2, those in their fifties had 2.0, and the current figure is 1.9. Actually, this figure isn’t due to more
families choosing to have only one child, although that certainly is occurring, it’s mainly because of
the increasing number of women who have no children at all. This figure was 1 in 10 among the age
group who are now 65, but now 1 in 4 women in their mid-40s are childless.
Charlene: I heard that the fertility rate in Europe is, like, really low. 1.3 or something.
Professor: That’s right, Charlene. It is. It’s far below the replacement level. Can you tell me what
replacement level means? No? It’s the number of births you need to keep the population constant.
Charlene: Yes, I heard that in France they’re trying to get people to have more children. They
even give out gold medals if you have eight!
Professor: That’s right. So, we’ve already mentioned that women are waiting before having
children because of their careers. Why else is fertility rate generally decreasing?
Charlene: I think they have fewer children because they’re so expensive. I mean, I heard one report
that said it costs £200, 000 a year to raise a child here. But I find that difficult to believe. People’s
standard of living is far higher now than it used to be a hundred years ago when families had eight or
nine kids.
Professor: That’s very true, but these days people’s expectations tend to be higher. Parents want
their children to have the best opportunities in life, so they’re prepared to pay to develop their
children’s talents.
Charlene: Yes, I heard that in China, where they’re easing off some of the rules of the one child
policy and allowing some couples to have two, many parents are still choosing to have one. They
say it’s just too expensive. But, you know, I reckon that, with all this parental micromanagement
that’s going on these days, parents only have the time to manage one or two children.
Professor: That’s a good point. So, now I’d like to look at some different organisations, and
examine what they believe about the current population issues...
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PRACTICE TEST 3
PART 1
169
PART 2
Questions 9 to 12
Speaker 1:
Questions nine to twelve.
Speaker 3:
Listen to a conversation about a tragic event.
Speaker 0:
Did you hear the story on the news this morning about the apartment fire down the street.
Speaker 2:
I heard something about it what happened exactly.
Speaker 0:
A fire started about three o'clock in the morning in an apartment complex with about twenty
apartments one of the apartments was completely destroyed and several of the others were
damaged.
Speaker 2:
Do they know how the fire started.
Speaker 0:
They're not sure at this point but they believe that it was started by someone smoking in bed
it's a shame that one careless person can cause so much trauma for others not to mention the
thousands and thousands of dollars of damage.
Speaker 2:
Even more serious than the damage to property is the harm to the apartment's occupants I hear
that several residents were rushed to the hospital but at least none of them died.
170
Speaker 0:
It's also frightening do you know of anything I can do to keep this from happening to me.
Speaker 2:
I guess the best thing to protect yourself is to make sure that you have a smoke alarm and a fire
extinguisher in good working condition the smoke alarm will give you an early warning that a
fire had started so you can call the fire department it is a small fire maybe you can use the fire
extinguisher to help put out the fire before the fire trucks arrive.
Speaker 0:
That's good advice I think I'll go home and check my smoke alarm.
Speaker 1:
Question nine.
Speaker 3:
What is the topic of this conversation.
Speaker 1:
Question ten.
Speaker 3:
According to the woman how extensively with the apartments damaged.
Speaker 1:
Question eleven.
Speaker 3:
What did the man say about some of the apartment residents.
Speaker 1:
Question twelve.
Speaker 3:
What advice does the man give to the woman to protect yourself from fires.
Questions 13 to 16
Speaker 1:
Questions thirteen to sixteen.
Speaker 3:
Listen to a conversation between two students.
Speaker 0:
We really need to get to work on our oral presentation for political science class.
Speaker 1:
We certainly do you and I have to give the presentation next week and we've hardly anything
done.
Speaker 0:
I can't believe that the presentation is next week I thought we had so much time to prepare for
the time just seems to have disappeared the presentations on Thursday of next week isn't it.
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Speaker 1:
That's right so we have exactly one week to get ready for it we're going to have to do a lot of
work in the next week.
Speaker 0:
In this presentation on the court system do you think we should talk about all three the
municipal the state and the federal court systems.
Speaker 1:
It's too much if we talk about all three and I'm not sure we have enough time to prepare.
Speaker 1:
How about if we only talk about the state and the federal courts.
Speaker 0:
That sounds good to me I think it's best if we talk about fewer topics and really cover them in
depth say I really know a lot about the state courts and you know a lot about the federal courts
how about if we each work on preparing those parts individually and then we can get together
and put it all into one overall presentation.
Speaker 1:
All right I work on the federal courts and you can work on the state courts and then we'll get
together in a few days how about if we get together next Monday.
Speaker 0:
That sounds good to me the presentation is not until Thursday so we get together on Monday
we'll have plenty of time to work on it.
Speaker 1:
Not exactly plenty of time but we should be able to get it done see you on Monday if not sooner.
Speaker 0:
See you then.
Speaker 1:
Question thirteen.
Speaker 3:
One of the man and woman discussing in this conversation.
Speaker 1:
Question fourteen.
Speaker 3:
What will the man and woman discuss during their presentation.
Speaker 1:
Question fifteen.
Speaker 3:
When do they next plan to meet.
Speaker 1:
Question sixteen.
Speaker 3:
How much time do they have to prepare for the presentation.
Questions 17 to 20
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Speaker 3:
Listen to a conversation between two friends.
Speaker 0:
Hi Jack it's good to see you again are you ready to get down to business again after spring
break.
Speaker 2:
Not really but I guess I don't really have too much choice do I and it's going to be particularly
hard to get back to work since I just had the most fantastic vacation ever.
Speaker 0:
Really what did you do.
Speaker 2:
I went kayaking on the Klamath river.
Speaker 0:
Kayaking.
Speaker 2:
Yes you know what a kayak is don't you it's a long narrow boat the kind first used by the
Eskimos it's quite popular now on white water rivers.
Speaker 0:
I don't know what a kayak is I was just surprised that you would take a trip like that weren't
you scared.
Speaker 2:
At first I was but after I learned some techniques for maneuvering the kayak it wasn't so bad
but we didn't start out on the river we had three whole days of instruction in a shallow pool
first then when we finally got out on the river I felt ready for it.
Speaker 0:
Did you spend the nights camping outside on the ground that alone would make the trip
unappealing to me.
Speaker 2:
Oh no the accommodations were fantastic each person on the trip had a private cabin and the
facilities included a hot tub a large were you could have a drink and relax and a top notch
cafeteria with great food.
Speaker 0:
Now that part of the trip does sound good to me but I don't think I'd like the part that involves
riding through rough water in a small kayak.
Speaker 2:
You should try it I know you like it I'm going to do it again myself as soon as I can afford to
spend the time and the money.
Speaker 0:
Well better you than me.
Speaker 1:
Question seventeen.
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Speaker 3:
When does the conversation probably take place.
Speaker 1:
Question eighteen.
Speaker 3:
What are the man and woman discussing.
Speaker 1:
Question nineteen.
Speaker 3:
Which of the following is not part of the kayaking trip.
Speaker 1:
Question twenty.
Speaker 3:
How does the woman feel about taking a kayaking trip.
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PART 3:
Question 21-25
175
Questions 26 – 30
176
Question 31-35
177
178
PRACTICE TEST 4
Q.l:
Are you a fan of Asian food? if so you will love Saigon house which is at 66 Helen St. Try some
special Vietnamese dishes for lunch: fresh summer rolls, spicy soups, vegetables and meats; and for
dinner how about a special fusion dish- a world famous French dish with traditional Vietnamese spices.
Q.2:
The company picnic will be held at green tree park next Friday. Nancy Hadley has arranged many
games and activities and our cafeteria staff will provide all the food. if it rains we'll all go to the Elm
restaurant for lunch. Parking is free inside the park, but in order to avoid traffic jams, please use public
transportation if possible.
Q.3:
This notice is for all passengers for the four-thirty ferry to Marry island. There will be at least a 2-hour
delay in departure. the boat will be late because of strong winds. You should be able to board by 6:00.
Please return to the boarding area at that time.
Q.4:
According to the government official, Forest Park will become the new national recreation area. The
arboretum's recreational agency said that the park was chosen because of its quiet setting, unique color
and natural beauty. Some residents, however, said that they were disappointed by the decision to make
Forest Park a national attraction because they will lose a quiet local property they used to own.
Q.5:
The city council approved a proposal yesterday to repair the front road of the city hall. The construction
will begin on June 1 and is expected to cost 1.$5000000. The project will take approximately 2 months.
Although the construction will be scheduled mainly for evening hours, route 4 between Harper lane
and main street where the city hall is located is expected to be closed during the day.
Q.6:
Well there's good news and bad news for travelers today. The good news is that overall ticket prices
are lower this month than last month. Travelers flying with cruiser Airways will not be so happy though
as they will soon find their trips less comfortable. The struggling airline plans to put more passengers
onto its flights by adding seats to its aircraft.
Q.7:
Hello my name is Mark Han. Tonight I would like to borrow the community theater every Wednesday.
I am teaching a small group of people that would like to become firefighters. I am a captain at the Los
Angeles fire department and would like to teach them in the community theatre. my lessons will be
taught at 6 to 8:00 PM every Wednesday but I would like to rent the theater at 530 to 8:30 PM.
Q.8:
Hello, you've reached Best Buy electronics -your number one selection for electronic devices. Our
store hours are Monday through Friday from 10:00 AM to 9:00 PM Saturdays and Sundays from 10:00
AM to 8:00 PM.
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Q.9- 12:
Student: Excuse me, am I in the right place to look for accommodation?
Staff: Are you a student here?
Student: Yes I just arrived yesterday and I was looking for some help with finding a place to live.
Staff: Well you've come to the right place. What sort of accommodation are you looking for?
Student: I'm not sure, really. Could you tell me what's available?
Staff: Of course there are 3 kinds of accommodation that we deal with: home-stays, college halls of
residence or private lands.
Student: Home-stays, is that where you live with a family?
Staff: Yes that's right. Usually you have your own room and may be your own bath room, but you live
with a local family and they provide you with meals access to a washing machine. All of that kind of
thing. that's $130 per week or $90 without meals.
Student: Yes I did think about doing that. It will be a good way to practice my English but I think I'd
really prefer to live with people more my own age, other students, for example.
Staff: Of course. Well, the college has a small residential block with rooms for 50 students but it's
very popular and I think at the moment it's full.
Student: That's a shame.
Staff: Yes, students like it. You have your own room study bedroom with a bed, a table, chair, and
wash basin, and then you share a bathroom and kitchen with 4 other students
Student: It sounds nice. Never mind. What was the other options that you mentioned?
Staff: The other one is private plates these all flats and houses owned by private landlords not the
college but we make sure that you are paying a reasonable price so it's a bit easier than just looking in
the newspaper to find a flat.
Student: That sounds good. Would it be for one person or more?
Staff: It depends. Mostly flat surface 3 to 4 students but they're all sometimes one-bedroom flats
available.
Q.13- 16:
Harry: Hi Andrea, how are you feeling now that exams are over?
Andrea: it's fantastic to have IT finished, isn't it? and to sleep in every morning. What about you?
Harry: Well I've been catching up on sleep too, but I've got a lot to do before I leave for England.
Perhaps, you could give me some advice. I've got a lot of things I can't possibly take back with me but
I don't know what to do with them.
Andrea: Well it depends on what sort of things they are and whether you're thinking of giving them
away or selling them.
Harry: Well, almost everything: furniture, the fridge, and other kitchen stuff that I bought from the
previous tenant but the new people have already got what they need. So they're not interested in buying
stuff from me. I can't afford to give it away but I'm not sure how to sell it all and there were some
clothes and books as well.
Andrea: Why can't you take them?
Harry: The books are really heavy. It's so expensive if you exceed the airline baggage allowance and
the clothes just won't all fit in my suitcase. It's amazing how much stuff I've accumulated since I've
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been here. Anyway I don't think I'll need as many summer clothes in England as I have here in
Australia.
Andrea: I see. Well, there are several alternatives. First of all, you could put up notices around the
university about the books. You know, on the notice board in the student union building and in the
economics department. Anywhere, a second and thirty, students will save them. People always come
to buy cheap textbooks.
Harry: Okay, what what should I say on the notices?
Andrea: Just put the titles, office, and price you want, your name, of course and maybe put your
phone number on those little tear-off tags.
Harry: That's a good idea and what about the furniture?
Andrea: You could try doing the same thing but usually students are away all summer, so they don't
want to buy furniture now. Another place to try might be a second-hand shop. Someone from the shop
will usually come around and give you a free quote and then you can decide. But you don't usually get
much money for that sort of stuff.
Q.17-20:
Speaker A: The habour? It should be local, but it looks pretty clean to me.
Speaker B: It is now, but it used to be a real problem. Sewage, for example, used to be emptied
directly into the harbor.
Speaker C: Yak, imagine swimming in all that waste water, not a nice thought, is it?
Speaker A: You said it used to be a problem?
Speaker B: Yes, sewage is taken out in pipes a long way out to sea now. The city council constructed
them in the 19 seventies. Unless there is very bad weather, it solved the problem
Speaker A: What are the problems all there?
Speaker B: Well, of course, there is a fair bit of pollution from the traffic on the habour.
Speaker A: You mean, all of the boats?
Speaker B: Yes. There are the ferries of course but also the commercial and trading vessels. it's still
an issue. The state government has set targets for reduction in emissions by next year. They can't stop
boats using the habour, don’t they?
Speaker C: I guess, one of the other problems must just be people dumping rubbish, bottles, plastic
bags, stuff that people can't be bothered to dispose of properly
Speaker B: Yeah that's right. this quite a good story behind that one that. it's an ongoing project it's
not finished yet but a lot of it has been removed
Speaker A: How did they manage that? It must be a really difficult job
Speaker B: Local diving clubs who like to dive in the harbor go down and pick up all bottles and
things like that off the bottom of the sea. I think they have a special day once a year to do it.
Q.21-25:
Our talk today in this history of technology series, is about a feast of entire engineering from the late
nineteenth and early twentieth century that is still very much with us today and that is linked with the
history of the typewriter. it's the QWERTY keyboard.
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What you might ask QWERTY? well have a look at the nearest typewriter or computer keyboard. If
you look at the top row, you will see that Q. W. E. R. T. Y are the first 6 letters.
Did you ever think when you were learning to type about why the letters on the keyboard are distributed
the way they are? here's the story. It all has to do with the history of the typewriter. Typewriters existed
since the early 17 hundreds but the first commercially practical system came into being in 1873. The
typewriter is 1 of America's greatest unsung inventions. Well the telephone, automobile and airplane
sped up communications and transportation. The typewriter did the same thing for the written word.
But few people paid much attention, possibly because they were too busy reading what the typewriter
had written about all the other inventions. The first typewriters had the keys laid out in alphabetical
order but the system had problems. Some cues that tended to be typed together were physically close.
This made the type bars hit each other and get stuck. Typewriters in 1873 jammed or got stuck at the
keys next to each other were hit in quick succession. To solve this problem in 1878, the QWERTY
keyboard was developed. Spacing frequent letters away from each other and therefore reducing the
number of jams. It was not specifically designed to slow down typist as it is generally believed but the
keyboard did create a built-in inefficiency for typos. The most common keys are scattered all over the
keyboard rose, many on the left side. Right handed people have to use their left hand which is the
weaker hand.
Typewriter technology improved doing away with the original rationale for the QWERTY distribution
but the keyboard remained. In spite of its inefficiency, It is the keyboard we all use today.
Q.26- 30:
Hello again and welcome to You Can Do It, the program that aims to help give you inside information
into life's trickier tasks. Today, we're going to talk about the different ways there are of buying a used
car, something that very few people feel confident about. And let's face it, a mistake can be expensive
as well as very inconvenient. So your old car has broken down again and you're feeling that this really
is the end for it and it's not worth repairing.
Or maybe you've just passed your test and are desperate to get out on the road. You look at new cars,
but they are so expensive. What can you do? Well, there are three main places to look for a used car,
and they all have their advantages and their disadvantages. The first place and probably the one that
most people would go to first is a used-car dealer. These are showrooms where you can go and choose
from a range of secondhand cars.
Obviously, some places are bigger than others and some are better than others. On the whole, this kind
of place is probably the safest way of buying a car. As you'll get some kind of warranty. Typically,
this is about three to six months, maybe a year on a newer car. So if something goes wrong with the
car after you've bought it, you can take it back. You've got some kind of guarantee. The problem, of
course, is that you'll pay for it.
Cars from dealers are usually about 800 to 1000 pounds more expensive than the same type of car
bought privately. Quite often. Dealers will offer you a discount, especially if you've got an old car to
trade in. And that might make it seem very attractive. Many will offer you credit, too, so that you don't
have to pay for the car straight away. But it's always good to remember that although this is an
expensive way to buy a car, it's probably the safest.
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Q.31-35:
My name is Dan Haman. and I'd like to talk about the work of pedal power, a small charity based
mainly in the U. K. I'll be giving our contact details at the end if anyone would like to find out more
about how to support us. But first how the charity began. I got the idea of exporting bicycles to
developing countries while I was in Ecuador. I went there in 1993 just after graduating from
university. After 3 years of studying, I wanted adventure. I love traveling so I decided to join a
voluntary organisation and was sent to Ecuador to carry out land surveys.
The project came to an end up to 5 years and when I returned to the UK in 1998 I started planning
pedal power. Where I lived in Ecuador was a very rural area. My neighbor had the only bicycle in the
village where as everyone else walked everywhere. My neighbor's business was unusually successful
and for years I couldn't understand why. Then I realized having a bike meant he could get where he
wanted to go without much trouble. All the local carpenters could only accept jobs in a 3 kilometer
radius so no matter how skilled they were, they could never do as many jobs as my neighbor.
At Pedal Power, we collect secondhand bikes in the UK and send them to some of the poorest regions
in the world. When we distribute bikes overseas, we don't give them away for free. We would like to,
but long term, that doesn't really help the local economy. The demand for bikes is enormous which
makes them very expensive locally. So we sell them for 5 percent of the normal price. But in order to
continue operating we need to have a constant supply of bikes which we send out every 6 months. One
example of a time this received bicycles from pedal power is reverse. It was the first place I sent a full
container of bicycles to. Most people that now own a bicycle.
The local economy has developed so much you wouldn't recognize it is the same place. In fact, there
are more bikes than on the streets of Amsterdam if you've ever been there. But Pedal Power still need
your help. You may have read about some of our recent problems in the British media. In August 2000,
we simply run out of money. We had containers of bikes ready to send, but no money to pay the bills.
It was a terrible situation. We managed to ensure the bikes went out on time but the other problems
carried on for several months.
PRACTICE TEST 5
PART 1
Question 1
Attention all listeners! Palmer's Gym now has several locations in your area. We have everything you
need to keep fit, including exercise classes and fitness instructors ready to help you! But that's not all.
Starting in April, your membership gives you access to any of our locations across the country. So if
you're traveling for business or just on vacation, you won't have to skip your workout routine! Visit
our Web site to see a map of all the Palmer's Gym locations across the nation!
Question 2
Good evening. My name's Mateo and I'll be serving you tonight. Since this is your first time here, let
me tell you about our restaurant. All the vegetable products you see on the menu come from our very
own vegetable garden. The owner of the café, Natasha, is a talented gardener who grows our fresh
produce herself. Now, tonight we have a special entrée. It's poached salmon, caught fresh today. It's a
simple dish, served with a lemon sauce and a salad. I eat it all the time. So, while you read over the
menu, can I bring you a beverage?
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Question 3
Welcome aboard this morning's direct flight to Toronto. We look forward to flying with you today.
Unfortunately, we've run out of space in the overhead bins for larger carry-on bags. If your bag won't
fit under your seat, we'll take it from you and check it. You'll be able to pick it up at the baggage claim
when we land. In addition, we have several meal options for purchase today. Our standard selections
are listed in the magazine in the seat pocket in front of you. If you would like to purchase a meal,
please notify a flight attendant.
Question 4
Good afternoon. My name is Lawrence Wilson, and I’ll be conducting the training on how to use our
company's new scheduling software—Spark Schedule. The reason we chose this particular software is
because it makes it easy for you to schedule meetings with people in different time zones. That way
we can conduct business with our increasing number of clients all over the world. And best of all,
there’s a mobile phone application that you can download for free. This will allow you to check your
schedule from any location.
Question 5
This is Guo Lin with KDM TV News. Tonight, there's news about the Ashworth City light-rail. Work
continues on this massive construction project, but the announcement of new federal safety regulations
means that major modifications must be made to the tracks. Opening day could be delayed by as much
as three months. Public opinion about the railway is already divided. Some residents say they don't
approve of how much money is being spent on the project, but others say it's worth the cost. I'm here
at the Fourth Street station where I'll ask a few passersby how they feel about this latest development
in the project.
Question 6
First of all, we know you have a busy schedule outside of work, so thanks for coming in to the
warehouse today to work on a Saturday. OK, so we're here because this extra shipment was delivered
yesterday. There are hundreds of boxes, and we have to check what's inside them and put the
information into our warehouse database. Now, I'm going to assign you all to groups. Once you have
your group number, go ahead and join your group members. Group leaders will tell you which boxes
you'll be working on.
Question 7
And now, an event we've all been waiting for since last year—Denville's Annual Cook-Off. Held
outside at City Park, the Cook-Off always attracts a lot of participants. Competitors prepare one dish,
which they serve throughout the day. A panel of judges will select the winners based on taste,
presentation, and uniqueness. This event is great fun for the whole family, and entry and food samples
are free! If you're interested in participating, the contest registration form is available on the city's Web
site. Now, keep in mind we're expecting a cloudy day for this year's event. We won't see any sunshine,
so be sure to bring a jacket!
Question 8
This is Seung-ho Park from Park Investors. We met last month at the Westside Technology
Conference. I attended your interesting presentation and spoke to you afterward about my small
investment firm. I'm calling because I'd like to hire you to discuss ways to make my company's
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database more secure. I know you specialize in this type of work, and I’m hoping you'll he interested
in this project. Could you please e-mail me a list of your consultant fees? Use the e-mail address on
the business card I gave you. Thanks.
PART 2
Questions 9 – 12
BETH: Oh good morning. You must be James. I'm Beth Cartwright — please call me Beth.
JAMES: Thank you.
BETH: Now as this is your first tutorial since you started on the Scandinavian Studies course,
I'd like to find out something about you. Why did you decide to take this course?
JAMES: Well, my mother is Danish. and although we always lived in England. she used to talk about
her home a lot. and that made me want to visit Denmark. We hardly ever did, though — my mother
usually went on her own. But whenever her relations or friends were in England they always came to
see us.
BETH: I see. So I assume you already speak Danish, one of the languages you'll be
studying.
JAMES: I can get by when I talk to people, though I'm not terribly accurate.
BETH: Now you probably know that you'll spend the third year of the course abroad. Have
you had any thoughts about that?
JAMES: I'm really looking forward to it. And although Denmark seems the obvious place to go,
because of my family connections. I'd love to spend the time in Iceland.
BETH: Oh, I'm sure it can be arranged. Do you have any plans for when you graduate? A lot of
students go on to take a master's degree.
JAMES: I think the four years of the undergraduate course will be enough for me. I'm interested in
journalism. and I guile like the idea of moving to Scandinavia and writing for magazines I'd find that
more creative than translating, which I suppose most graduates do.
BETH: OK. Now how are you finding the courses you're taking this term, James?
JAMES: Well, I'm really enjoying the one on Swedish cinema.
BETH: That'll continue next term, but the one on Scandinavian literature that's running at the
moment will be replaced by more specialised courses Oh and by the way, if you're interested
in watching Danish television programmes — there's going to be a course on that the term
after next.
JAMES: That sounds good.
BETH:Have you started thinking about the literature paper that you have to write in the next few
weeks?
JAMES: Yes, my first choice would be to do something on the Icelandic sagas.
BETH: Hmm. The trouble with that is that a lot of people choose that topic, and it can be
difficult to get hold of the books you'll need. Why not leave that for another time?
JAMES: Right.
BETH: You might find modem novels or 19th century playwrights interesting.
JAMES: I've read or seen several plays in translation, so that would be a good idea.
SETH:Fine. I'll put you down for that topic.
JAMES: Right. So what would you advise me to aim at in the paper?
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BETH:First I suggest you avoid taking one writer and going into a great deal of detail. That approach
certainly has its place, but I think you first need to get an understanding of the literature in the
context of the society in which it was produced – who it was written for, how it was published and so
on. I also think that's more fruitful than placing it within the history of the genre.
JAMES: OK, that sounds reasonable.
Questions 13 – 16
NATALIE: So basically, the problem we're addressing in our case study or the Horton Castle site is
why so few tourists are visiting it. And we'll find out more from our interviews, but I did find one
report on the internet that suggested that one reason might be because as far as transport goes, access
is difficult.
DAVE: I read that too, but that report was actually written ten years ago, when the road there was
really bad, but that's been improved now. And J think there's plenty of fascinating stuff there for a
really good day out, but you'd never realise it from the castle website — maybe that's the problem.
NATAUE: Yes. it's really dry and boring.
DAVE: I read somewhere a suggestion that what the castle needs is a visitor centre. So we could have
a look for some information about that on the Internet. What would we need to know?
NATALIE: Well, who'd use it for a start. It'd be good to know what categories the visitor fell
into too, like school parties or retired people, but I think we'd have to talk to staff to get
that information.
DAVE: OK. And as we're thinking of suggesting a visitor centre we'd also have to look at potential
problems. I mean, obviously it wouldn't be cheap to set up.
NATALIE: No, but it could be a really good investment. And as it's on a historical site it'd need to
get special planning permission, I expect. That might be hard.
DAVE: Right, especially as the only possible place for it would be at the entrance, and that's
right in front of the castle.
NATALIE: Mmm.
DAVE: But it could be a good thing for the town of Horton. At present it's a bit of a ghost town. Once
they've left school and got any skills or Qualifications, the young people all get out as fast as they can
to get jobs in the city. and the only people left are children and those who've retired.
NATAUE: Right. Something else we could investigate would be the potential damage that
tourists might cause to the castle site, I mean their environmental impact. At present the
tourists can just wander round wherever they want, but if numbers increase, there might
have to be some restrictions, like sticking to marked ways. And there'd need to be guides
and wardens around to make sure these were enforced.
DAVE: Yes, we could look at that too. OK, well…
Questions 17 – 20
MIA: Hi, Rob. How's the course going?
ROB: Oh, hi, Mia. Yeah, great. I can't believe the first term's nearly over.
MIA: I saw your group's performance last night at the student theatre. It was good.
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ROB: Really? Yeah ... but now we have to write a report on the whole thing, an in-depth analysis. I
don't know where to start. Like, I have to write about the role I played, the doctor, how I developed
the character.
MIA: Well, what was your starting point?
ROB: Er ... my grandfather was a doctor before he retired, and I just based it on him.
MIA: OK, but how? Did you talk to him about it?
ROB: He must have all sorts of stories, but he never says much about his work, even now. He has a
sort of authority though.
MIA: So how did you manage to capture that?
ROB: I'd ... I'd visualise what he must have been like in the nest. when he was sitting in his consulting
mom listening to his patients.
MIA: OK, so that's what you explain in your report.
ROB: Right.
MIA: Then there's the issue of atmosphere - so in the first scene we needed to know how boring life
was in the doctor's village in the 1950s, so when the curtain went up on the first scene in the waiting
room, there was that long silence before anyone spoke. And then people kept saving the same thing
over and over. like 'Cold, isn't it?'
ROB: Yes, and everyone wore grey and brown, and just sat in a row.
MIA: Yes, all those details of the production.
ROB: And I have to analyse how I functioned in the group - what I found out about myself. I know I
was so frustrated at times, when we couldn't agree.
MIA: Yes. So did one person emerge as the leader?
ROB: Sophia did. That was OK - she helped us work out exactly what to do, for the production. And
that made me feel better, I suppose.
MIA: When you understood what needed doing?
ROB: Yes. And Sophia did some research, too. That was useful in developing our approach.
MIA: Like what?
ROB: Well she found these articles from the 1950s about how relationships between children and their
parents, or between the Olio and people like bank managers or the police were shifting MIA:
Interesting. And did you have any practical problems to overcome?
ROB: Well, in the final rehearsal everything was going fine until the last scene - that's where the
doctor's first patient appears on stage on his own.
MIA: The one in the wheelchair?
ROB: Yes, and he had this really long speech, with the stage all dark except for one spotlight - end
then that stuck somehow so it was shining on the wrong side of the stage ... but anyway we got that
fixed, thank goodness.
MIA: Yes, it was fine on the night.
PART 3
Questions 21 – 25
Good morning everyone. My name's Joy Parkins and I'm the restaurant manager. And I understand
that none of you've had any previous experience as kitchen assistants? Well, you might be feeling a
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bit nervous now, but most of our kitchen assistants say they enjoy the work. OK, they might get shouted
at sometimes, but it's nothing personal, and they're pleased that they have so many different things to
do. which means they never get bored. And I'll tell you straightaway that if you do well, we might think
about moving you up and giving you some more responsibility.
Right, well, you've all shown up on time, which is an excellent start. Now I'm glad to see none of you
have unsuitable footwear, so that's good - you need to be careful as the floors can get very wet and
slippery. Those of you with long hair have got it well out of the way. but some of you'll need to remove
your rings and bracelets - just put them somewhere safe for today, and remember to leave them at
home tomorrow, as they can be a safety hazard.
Now it's going to be a busy day for you all today - we don't have any tables free for this evening. and only a few
for lunch. Fortunately we've got our Head Chef back - he was away on holiday all last week which meant the
other chefs had extra work. Now, I'll tell you a bit more about the job in a minute but first, some general
regulations. For all of you, whatever your age, there's some equipment you mustn't use until you've been properly
trained, like the waste disposal system for example, for health and safety reasons. Then I think there are two of
you here who are under 18 - that's Emma and Jake isn't it? Right, so for you two, the meat slicer is out of bounds
And of course none of you are allowed to use the electric mixer until you've been shown how it works.
Now you may have heard that this can be a stressful job, and I have to say that can be true. You'll be
working an eight-hour day for the first week, though you'll have the chance to do overtime after that
as well if you want to. But however long the hours are, you'll get a break in the middle. What you will
find is that you're on your feet all day long, lifting and carrying, so if you're not fit now you soon will
be! You'll find you don't have much chance to take it easy - when someone tells you to do something
you need to do it straight away - but at least we do have a very efficient air conditioning system
compared with some kitchens.
Questions 26 – 30
We begin our examination of America in the 1960s with the usual caution - there is no sense in trying
to understand any decade without looking at what came before. Those of you who still have
outstanding coursework on the 1950s would do well to complete it now - if for no other reason than it
will help make sense of the next series of lectures. But we must press on, and I'd like to begin my talk
about the sixties with a reference to one of those things that came before - the post-war baby boom.
With the end of the Second World War in 1945, there began in the USA an era of perceived prosperity
and security. In short, people started to feel that that the world was a much better and safer place to
bring up children.
So, at the start of the sixties, all those children born in the baby boom - seventy million in the USA
alone - were teenagers. As the sixties progressed - and as this large number of people approached
adulthood - there was a noticeable shift in the balance of power, and young people began to have a
voice in ways that were not considered possible in the more conservative atmosphere of the preceding
decade.
Things were moving forward at a rapid pace. The literature of the time brought out all the
taboos...everything was covered, such as race...in, for example, the book To kill a Mockingbird. The
role of women changed and, uh, equality for women...well, let's just say that once certain books were
published, women were no longer going to be satisfied with their roles as devoted wives and mothers.
Through literature alone, the whole fabric of society was challenged and, by the end of the sixties,
things would never again be as they had pretty much been for the preceding 40 years.
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It was a decade of protest - civil rights protests, feminism, the rights of minorities, the Vietnam war -
all these causes led to peaceful and not-so-peaceful protests on college campuses and elsewhere.
People had been given freedom of speech and they were going to use it. The crime rate rose to nine
times what it was in the fifties, as respect for the old order faded away.
But it was also a time of great development...in medicine - the sixties saw the first heart transplant, in
technology and the space race, where we saw the first American in orbit and lasers being invented at
the start of the decade and the first man on the moon and the first primitive internet at the end.
Questions 31 – 35
My topic is handedness - whether in different sports it is better to be left- or right-sided or whether a
more balanced approach is more successful. I'm left-handed myself and I actually didn't see any
relevance to my own life when I happened to start reading an article by a sports psychologist called
Peter Matthews. He spent the first part of the article talking about handedness in music instead of sport,
which I have to say almost put me off from reading further. But what I soon became struck by was the
sheer volume of both observation and investigation he had done in many different sports and I felt
persuaded that what he had to say would be of real interest. I think Matthews' findings will be
beneficial, not so much in helping sportspeople to work on their weaker side, but more that they can
help them identify the most suitable strategies to use in a given game. Although most trainers know
how important handedness is, at present they are rather reluctant to make use of the insights scientists
like Matthews can give, which I think is rather short-sighted because focusing on individual flexibility
is only part of the story.
Anyway, back to the article.
Matthews found a German study which looked at what he called `mixed-handedness', that is, the
capacity to use both left and right hands equally. It looked at mixed-handedness in 40 musicians on a
variety of instruments. Researchers examined a number of variables, e.g. type of instrument played,
regularity of practice undertaken and length of time playing instrument ... and found the following:
keyboard players had high levels of mixed-handedness, whereas string players like cellists and
violinists strongly favoured one hand. Also those who started younger were more mixed-handed.
Matthews also reports studies of handedness in apes. Apes get a large proportion of their food by
'fishing' ants from ant hills. The studies show that apes, like humans, show handedness - though for
them right- and left-handedness is about equal, whereas about 85% of humans are right-handed.
Studies showed that apes consistently using the same hand fished out 30% more ants than those varying
between the two.
PRACTICE TEST 6
Q.1:
Charlotte Parker. This is Sam Greenwood returning your call from Angkor Agency customer service.
I'm happy to inform you that we've found your baggage from flight 619. We'll deliver it to the Novotel
Spa & Resort. I believe you're staying there while visiting Siem Riep. It should be there before 7 p.m.
this evening. Should you have any concerns, please contact me at 1-800-453-8964. Please accept my
apology for any inconvenience this may have caused you. We hope that you will choose Angkor
Agency once again in the future.
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Q.2:
Attention shoppers! The mall will be closing in 20 minutes. Please complete your purchases and
proceed towards the exits. Don't forget about this weekend's Sidewalk Sale. All merchandise within
the mall will be sold at reduced prices, but only for Saturday and Sunday. Please visit our website at
www.Spendcenter.com for mall information. We’re pleased to announce that we'll be opening earlier
for the Sidewalk Sale this weekend. On Saturday and Sunday Spend center will open at 8:30 a.m.
Thank you for visiting Spend center.
Q.3:
Welcome to Niagara Falls. My name is Leo and I will be your guide this afternoon. Our tour company
has selected two destinations for us this afternoon. I can assure you that both the historical museum
and Niagara Falls itself are well worth the price of the tour. Both destinations are within walking
distance and are included in the price of your ticket. We also have a special feature today. It's a 3 p.m.
boat ride on the Maid of the Mist, which will take you to the base of the Falls for an additional 20
dollars. Shall we begin our tour of Niagara Falls now?
Q.4:
Good morning. As Chairman of Bosch Electronics, I am pleased to share with you some very exciting
news. Our company has just released its third quarter financial review and we are reporting a 15 %
reduction in variable costs. We owe this savings to our managers and accounting department, who
worked hard to discover new ways in which Bosch Electronics could cut costs and save the company
money. I am certain that all of you will be happy to learn that this news means that we will be able to
keep our factory in Fairbanks and there will be no employee lay-offs.
Q.5:
Good evening. This is Christie Black at CKNY Rock, your classic rock station. I'd like to remind you
of an upcoming concert, featuring guitarist Glenn Young of Speedtrap, who'll be performing live at
the Keystone Amphitheater next Friday. As a guitarist, Mr. Young has impressed critics with his
amazing skills. The concert will be broadcast on CKNY Rock starting at 8:30 p.m. and ending at 11
p.m. We're also very pleased to let you know that Speedtrap has announced that in addition to the
concert on Friday, they will also be playing Saturday night. Tune in next Friday and Saturday for the
much-anticipated Speedtrap concerts, featuring Glenn Young.
Q.6:
Ladies and gentlemen, our special guest tonight is well known to many of us. I don't have to tell you
that Professor Lambough is one of the most recognized experts in the field of Micro-Economics. After
listening to Professor Lambough's lecture at the University of Maryland last July, I was introduced to
him through a colleague and requested his presence at our conference, although I wasn't sure he'd be
able to find time to visit our small group. Professor Lambough will lecture this evening on how to
manage our personal finances. It is an honor to welcome you, Professor.
Q.7:
Good afternoon. You're listening to “A Novel Idea” and I'm Chrissie Jackson. Our special guest this
afternoon is novelist Jessica Blackman, author of 'Under the Willow Tree'. Critics have complimented
Ms. Blackman's portrayal of American life in the southern United States during the Depression as a
'breakthrough achievement'. The novel explores the life of Mrs. Frankfurt. The novel also reflects parts
190
of Ms. Blackman's fifteen year writing career. After having written several novels that failed to attract
attention, Ms. Blackman is finally receiving the attention she deserves. So, Ms. Blackman, how did
you continue to write when your earlier novels weren't selling?
Q.8:
Good afternoon, this is Sheryl calling from Vickstown Motors. We've proudly been serving the area
for nearly 15 years, and we're thrilled to announce the grand opening of our new and improved
showroom. That's right, we've expanded. You'll find we still have the same high-quality service and
the same great prices on new and used cars as well as parts and accessories. To celebrate our grand
opening, we are offering a special customer appreciation promotion. This weekend only, receive all
weather tires and mats at no additional charge on any new or used car purchase. Our full after-service
warranty on all purchases is still guaranteed. For more information, or to make an appointment to meet
with one of our sales representatives, call us today at 555-9823.
Q.9-12
F1: Walter, why haven't you been coming to Professor Crosley's anthropology class?
M1: What do you mean? I've been there every morning!
F1: Every morning? But …oh, I get it-you must be in the professor's morning class in cultural
anthropology. I'm in her afternoon class in social anthropology. So tell me, how do you like her class?
M1: Oh, it's very interesting. So far, we've been studying the art, the architecture, and the tools of
different cultures. And this Saturday, our class is going down to the local museum. They're having an
exhibit of the artifacts of the early inhabitants of this area.
F1: Your class has quite a different focus from mine. We're studying social relations in groups. For
example, this week we've been talking about marriage customs and family life in a number of societies-
including our own.
M1: So what's your opinion of Professor Crosley?
F1: Well, she asks her students to do a lot of work-we're going to have two tests and two research
papers. But she's a fascinating lecturer. I've never taken an anthropology course before, but I'm glad I
decided to take her course.
M1: Yeah, same for me. In fact, I never thought of anthropology as an interesting subject, but now I
sure do.
Q.13-16
F1: Hello, this is WBCL Community Television studios. How may I help you?
M1: Hello. Uh, I'm calling because I saw an advertisement in the campus newspaper. It said there was
a summer internship available for a student who wants to work on your local news program.
F1: Right. But you do realize that all of our interns are volunteers? It's an unpaid position.
M1: Oh, sure, I understand that. I just want to get some experience working for a television news
program. You see, I'm thinking about a career in television news production after I get my degree.
F1: Oh? Are you majoring in telecommunications?
M1: No, in journalism, but I've taken some telecommunications courses.
F1: I see. Well, you'll need to talk to Ms. Wagner. She's in charge of the internship program. But first,
you'll need to come here to fill out an application form. Can you drop by the studio later today?
191
Q.17-20
M2: Hello, Campus Daily, advertising department. This is Mark speaking.
F2: Hi. I'm calling to place a couple of ads.
M2: Sure. Under what classification?
F2: Well, I want one in the "Roommate Wanted" section.
M2: All right. And how would you like that to read?
F2: OK, it should read "Female roommate wanted for pleasant, sunny two-bedroom apartment on
Elliewood Avenue, three blocks from campus. Share rent and utilities. Available September 1. Call
between 5 and 9 P.M. and ask for Cecilia.
M2: Fine. And what about your other ad?
F2: That one I'd like under "Merchandise for Sale," and I'd like it to read "Matching blue and white
sofa and easy chair, excellent condition, $350 or best offer. Call between 5 and 9 P.M. and ask for
Cecilia." Did you get all that?
M2: Uh-huh. You'll want your phone numbers on these, right?
F2: Oh, sure. Thanks for reminding me-it's 555-6972.
M2: And how long do you want these ads to run?
F2: For a week, I suppose. How much would that be?
M2: It's five dollars a week per line. Each of your ads will take up three lines, so that's $15 per ad.
Q.21-25
How many of you were at the football game Saturday night? Did you notice the blimp circling the
stadium? Today's blimps are much smaller descendants of the giant airships-sometimes called
zeppelins-that were used in the early twentieth century. Like those zeppelins, blimps are lighter-than-
aircraft. But blimps differ from zeppelins in a number of ways. First, as I said, they are quite a bit
smaller. The old airships were as long as football fields. And unlike zeppelins, blimps do not contain
an internal metal frame. That's why blimps are sometimes called “non-rigid” airships. And blimps are
a lot safer than the old zeppelins. That's because they use non-flammable helium in place of hydrogen
to provide lift.
As you may know, the age of the airship ended when the famous German airship Hindenburg exploded
disastrously at Lakehurst, New Jersey, in 1937. I say that airship travel ended then, but some engineers
believe that large, rigid airships will fly again. These airships of the future could be equipped with jet
engines and filled with helium. Although they wouldn't be as fast as modern airplanes, they would be
much more fuel efficient.
Q.26-30
Twice a year, all the clocks in the United States are changed by one hour. In the spring, clocks are
moved ahead an hour. This is called daylight saving time. In the fall, clocks are set back an hour to
standard time. People remember how to change their clocks by remembering this saying: Spring
forward, fall back. It seems Benjamin Franklin was the first person to propose the idea of daylight
saving time, back in the 1790's. At the time, people thought he was joking. They couldn't believe he
was serious. Many years later, during World War I, people realized what an innovative idea he'd had.
In the spring and summer, the Sun rises earlier. By moving the clock ahead, people can take advantage
of the extra daylight and save energy. Energy is an important resource, of course, especially during
wartime. The United States operated on daylight saving time during World War I and again during
192
World War II. After that, some parts of the country observed daylight saving time and some didn't.
Beginning and ending dates varied from place to place. This confusion ended in 1966, when the
Congress passed the Uniform Time Act, standardizing the process and making daylight saving time a
federal law. Since then, some lawmakers have proposed that the United States go to year-round
daylight saving time.
Q.31-35
Now, in the last few minutes of class, I'd like to address a slightly different issue: the question of how
children learn to talk. Learning to speak their own language is one of children's greatest
accomplishments, yet it is a somewhat mysterious process. Children first begin to make language-like
noises when they are between two and four months old. These noises generally begin with the letters
g and k because these sounds – ”goo” and “koo”- are the easiest sounds for infant mouths to make.
Between four months and eight months, infants begin to babble meaningless syllables. Most common
are those beginning with p, b, d, m, or n sounds, followed by a vowel sound. Parents sometimes
misinterpret these as actual words, such as mama or dada. Between six months and a year, babies say
their first true words. Vocabulary grows slowly at first, usually only a few words a month, but once a
child has learned about fifty words generally at around 18 months-the pace picks up rapidly.
At first, children say single words; then they begin forming two-word combinations: “all gone,” “more
milk,” “see doggie.” Children's two word combinations are so similar the world over that they read
like translations of one another. Between the age of two and three, children can form complete
sentences and have mastered the basics of grammar. Can you believe it? A two and- a-half-year-old
toddler is a grammatical genius, and all without studying a single rule! Typically, four-year-olds know
some 15,000 words and can form very sophisticated sentences. Even their mistakes are very logical:
“I saw two mans” or “We goed to gramma's house.”
So, how does this all happen? Well, there are several conflicting theories about language acquisition,
but unfortunately, there just isn't time to discuss them today, so we'll take them up in Wednesday's
class. In the meantime, please read Chapter Eight in your textbook. See you Wednesday.
193
AUDIOSCRIPTS AND ANSWERKEY– SKILL PRACTICE

(QUESTION TYPES FOR PART 1)
WARM-UP EXERCISES
194
PRACTICE TEST
PACK 1
WARM-UP EXERCISE
195
PRACTICE TEST
196
PACK 2
WARM-UP EXERCISES
197
PRACTICE TEST
198
PACK 3
VOCABULARY PRACTICE
PRACTICE TEST
199
PACK 4
VOCABULARY PRACTICE
EXERCISE 1
EXERCISE 2
200
PRACTICE TEST
201
ANSWER KEY
SHORT ANNOUNCEMENTS & CONVERSATIONS
A. OVERVIEW QUESTIONS
VOCABULARY PRACTICE
EXERCISE 1
1. ways
2. origin
3. problems
4. progress
5. connection
EXERCISE 2
1. cause
2. effects
3. varieties
4. distinction
5. solution
WARM-UP EXERCISES
EXERCISE 1
1. B
2. A
EXERCISE 2
1. B
2. C
PRACTICE TEST
1. B
2. B
3. B
4. B
5. C
B. NEGATIVE QUESTIONS
PACK 1: NUMBER-RELATED QUESTIONS: NUMBER AND PRICES
VOCABULARY PRACTICE
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. A
202
WARM-UP EXERCISES
EXERCISE 1
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. B
EXERCISE 2
1. C
2. D
PRACTICE TEST
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C
PACK 2: NUMBER-RELATED QUESTIONS – TIME, DAY AND DATE
VOCABULARY PRACTICE
EXERCISE 1
1. midnight
2. noon
3. dusk
4. half
5. a quarter
EXERCISE 2
1. Four thirty
2. It’s Friday
3. Today is April twenty-fifth
WARM-UP EXERCISES
1. A
2. A
3. B
PRACTICE TEST
LISTEN AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. B
203
PACK 3: RECOGNIZING PURPOSES, INTENTIONS AND REASONS

VOCABULARY PRACTICE
EXERCISE 1
1. appreciate
2. warm
3. reject
4. apologize
5. complain
‘
EXERCISE 2
1. refuse
2. cheer
3. disagree
4. request
5. honor
WARM-UP EXERCISES
EXERCISE 1
1. B
2. A
PRACTICE TEST
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. C
PACK 4: IDENTIFYING JOBS AND RELATIONSHIPS
VOCABULARY PRACTICE
EXERCISE 1
1. chef
2. doctor
3. hairdresser
4. dentist
5. construction worker
EXERCISE 2
1. pilot
2. dentist
3. baker
4. professor
5. waiter
204
WARM-UP EXERCISES
EXERCISE 1
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
EXERCISE 2
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. B
PRACTICE TEST
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C
(CONVERSATIONS AND TALKS)
205
PACK 2: DETAIL QUESTIONS
PACK 3: OPINION/ ATTITUDE QUESTIONS
206
207
ANSWER KEY
CONVERSATIONS AND TALKS

PACK 1 – MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS
LISTENING 1: MUSIC
1. A
2. A
SUMMARY:
tubas – orchestrated – icon – recording – recognition
PACK 2 – DETAIL QUESTIONS

LISTENING 1: OFFICE VISIT 1
1. A
2. A
3. C
SUMMARY:
recession – skipped – due – enforce – neighbor’s
PACK 3: OPINION / ATTITUDE QUESTIONS

LISTENING 1: HISTORY 1
1. A
2. B
3. B
SUMMARY
plowing – plains – excessive – anchor – soil

LISTENING 2: SERVICE ENCOUNTER 1
1. B
2. B
3. D
SUMMARY
policy – allergic – dairy – international – feature
208
ANSWERKEY– READING - SKILL PRACTICE

Question type 1: VOCABULARY
Strategy 1: Connect the word to the one you already know.
The answer is [A]. We know the meaning of the word “former”, so you can probably guess
the answer is related to the meaning of “former”
Strategy 2: Understand through context
The answer is [D]. Let's first simplify the meaning of the sentence that contains the prompt word.
The release of heat energy is retarded by the tall vertical city walls that do not allow infrared
radiation to escape as readily as does the relatively level surface of the surrounding countryside.
----> The tall vertical city walls are doing something to the heat energy because they do not allow
infrared radiation to escape.
Now we can use context to answer. So what are they doing? It’s going to be something similar
to “not allowed”, so we can eliminate answer choices [B] and [C]. Can heat energy be
disguised? Maybe, but it doesn’t seem to match up quite right, making [D] our best choice
here. So the sentence is saying that the city walls slow down the heat energy, which fits with
the rest of the passage
Strategy 3: Check if the word is an adjective, adverb, verb, or noun and eliminate incorrect
choices
(B) is the correct answer, meaning leaving no doubt. Using this strategy, we know that the word
“unequivocal” is an adjective, so we can eliminate choice (D) largely, which is an adverb. Now, le's
use context to answer. Both “deniable” and “unclear” carry a negative meaning, but the rest of this
passage clearly describes what evidence scientists found from coprolites. Therefore, (A) and (C) can
be eliminated.
PRACTICE 1
C is correct because children is closest in meaning to offspring in this situation. In the sentence, just
before the word the sentence states, “…before forming a family unit consisting of parents and…”,
“origins” (A) and “ancestors” (B) will not help form a family unit.
PRACTICE 2
A is correct because association is closest in meaning to interconnectedness.
PRACTICE 3
B is correct because predominant is closest in meaning to prevailing. In this context, there aren’t
many contextual clues to help you eliminate and guess the answer.
Question type 2: REFERENCE
Sample Question
C is the correct answer. It is referring to who traded guns and other weapons for beaver fur. A and B
are in the passage but do not trade for beaver fur.
PRACTICE 1
D is correct because option a is a singular subject that does not refer to multiple groups while option
b, “years ago”, does not refer to multiple groups of something. Although option c could fit and is
grammatically correct, it is not the main subject to which the pronoun referent refers. In order to
209
confirm that this is indeed the correct answer, you could look to the next sentence, which uses the
original subject, “hunter-gatherers”, again.
PRACTICE 2
D is correct because it is another way to refer back to “People with the best intentions” that “travel
to a society….”. The entire subject is “people with the best intentions”, and we read a few words
later that they “travel”, thus we know they are travelers. Option a and b cannot be correct because it
does not say anything about “its people” or “them” traveling. Finally, option c is wrong because
“cultural values” cannot be referred to as travelers.
PRACTICE 3
D is correct because, although the subject to which it refers is not in the same or previous sentence,
the entire passage is about the sphygmomanometer. The device to which the pronoun referent refers
back to is mentioned in the first sentence which is two sentences before. In this case, reading the
sentence after can confirm the answer because the subject, “sphygmomanometer”, is mentioned
again. Option a is incorrect because it is not a specific object. Options b and c are wrong because
they are just parts of the device which is the subject.
Question type 3: FACTUAL INFORMATION
Sample Questions
B is correct because we can immediately eliminate option a as it was a male scientist, not a female.
A sentence with some of the keywords in option b – “diseases”, “injuries”, and “1900’s” – is in the
passage and is true. Like most answers, it is restated using synonyms. Options c and d contain
modifiers that might signal to us that they are wrong as well as other words that greatly change the
meaning from the passage.
PRACTICE 1
B is correct because we find the keywords “scientists”, “physical”, “gases”, and in this case,
“between” in first and same sentence in which the question keywords are mentioned. Note that the
question uses the numerical form of the dates mentioned in the paragraph, i.e., 1600’s and 1700’s is
the equivalent to the “seventeenth and… eighteenth centuries”. Option a does match some of the
keywords in the same sentence as the correct option, but it doesn’t state that scientists constructed a
hypothesis about gas, pressure, volume, and temperature. Options c and d are incorrect as they use
additional or incorrect modifiers like “precise” and “small”.
PRACTICE 2
B is correct because immediately following the keywords from the question, “social roles”, we find
some of the keywords from the answer – “different”, “social”, “roles”, as well as synonyms used to
sum up the sentence. Option a is incorrect because the very first statement in the paragraph is the
opposite. Option c and d are wrong because c uses an incorrect modifier, “certain”, that changes
the meaning while d adds modifiers and makes an absolute claim that is not reflected in the passage.
PRACTICE 3
D is correct because if we look for the keyword “calorimetry” from the question and the keywords
from option a, we can find that it does not state that it’s the measure of heat between chemicals.
Rather, it states that it’s the measure of heat “involved in a chemical or physical process”, which
match the keywords in option d. Option c is incorrect because it mentions heat transfer between
“objects” but the passage says “substances”.
210
Question type 4: NEGATIVE FACTUAL INFORMATION

Sample Questions
D is the correct answer. Selective breeding is not the major hole, but the presence of irreducibly
complex systems is.
A is incorrect because it is stated in this paragraph “As Darwin himself admitted, “To suppose that
the eye with all its inimitable contrivances for adjusting the focus for different distances, for
admitting different amounts of light, and for the correction of spherical and chromatic aberration,
could have been formed by natural selection”.
B is incorrect because it is stated in “One of the major holes in Darwin's theory revolves around
“irreducibly complex systems.” An irreducibly complex system is known as a system where many
different parts must all operate together. As a result, in the absence of one, the system as a whole
collapses” and “These complex systems, if so inter-reliant, would be resistant to Darwin's
supposition of how evolution occurs”
C is incorrect as the irreducibly complex system is the major hole in the theory of natural selection
and modern technology proves the existence of the irreducibly complex system.
PRACTICE 1
D is correct because the passage explains that someone with this disease wouldn’t recognize
celebrities, historical figures, OR “even a family member”. The keywords “recognize”, “celebrity”,
and “family member” help locate the sentence in the passage. Additionally, the option c adds some
modifiers that aren’t in the original passage – “normally” before “recognize” and “close” before
“family members”.
PRACTICE 2
C is correct because, while it does contain some keywords that can be found in the passage – “few”
and “impact craters” – it says contradicts the actual passage by saying that “Europa is in a
continual state of geological self-renewal”. Option c is not true because it says that it has “renewed
itself geologically once”.
PRACTICE 3
B is correct because the modifier “most” is not used in the original statement about skin cancer; the
passage states that skin cancer is “one common form of cancer”. The passage also does not mention
anything about it being the most fatal form.
Question type 5: INFERENCE

[C] is the correct answer.
[A] There’s no mention of the geologists keeping this event a secret, so we can eliminate A.
[B] The Yucatan wasn’t discovered as being the location until later in the passage, meaning it
wasn’t well-known, so we can eliminate B.
[D] Climate isn’t named as a factor in the discovery, so answer choice D can also be eliminated.
[C] Choice C is the best choice, as we see from our notes under the main ideas, the collision occurred
in 1980 and geologists didn’t locate the area until 1990.
211
PRACTICE 1
Answer: Option C.
In this case, we are told that there is no reliable relationship between the median income and
average level of education for the middle class and the increase/decrease in income levels does not
have an impact on education levels. This sentiment is highlighted by option 3.
Options 1 and 4 can be ruled out as no direct co-relation can be found between the median income
and average level of education for the middle class. These two options in fact give a particular
extreme co-relation.
Option 2 is irrelevant in the given case (goes against the given facts, figures for comparison have
been derived in fact).
PRACTICE 2
D is correct because paragraph 2 explains the importance of knowing the two types of long-term
memory because they are each affected differently by age and brain trauma. The last paragraph
states that implicit memories are more naturally formed memories that require no conscious thought
to remember, thus making them easier to recall regardless of age or trauma.
PRACTICE 3
A is correct because paragraph 2 says that the planets “must have been hot enough to melt” while
paragraph 3 states that the melting point is usually more than 1,800 F. This question is challenging
since the information to find the correct answer is spread across two paragraphs.
Question type 6: SENTENCE INSERTION

[B] is the correct answer. Our prompt sentence contains specific information regarding seagrasses.
Now we need to find the sentence that has general information and place this one after. Sentence [B]
introduces seagrasses and defines the term. The next sentence discusses seagrass beds, a term used
in our prompt sentence, so we need to place the prompt sentence between these two, making [B] the
correct choice.
PRACTICE 1
B is correct. The missing sentence refers to the Pioneer 10 in the former sentence, which mentions
two spacecraft, using the pronoun referent “The former of these”. In this paragraph, there are no
other sentences that mention both spacecraft, therefore the missing sentence cannot be placed
anywhere else because it would not make sense. The sentence that follows the missing sentence adds
more information and even some contrast, in that it explains that one of the main goals of the
mission was “simply to determine whether a spacecraft could actually navigate through the belt of
asteroids…”. It contrasts the fact that one of the spacecraft was able to actually take photos and
directly observe Jupiter even though these were not the “main objectives”.
PRACTICE 2
B is correct. It is correct because the missing sentence contains the pronoun referent “It” which refers
back to “long-term memory”, which is mentioned in the previous sentence. The sentence that comes
after the missing sentence compares, or rather contrasts long-term and short-term memory. The
missing sentence introduces or sets the context for the following sentence. It does not make sense at
the beginning of the paragraph because the paragraph cannot start with “It”.
212
PRACTICE 3
A is correct. The missing sentence provides more information about mixtures, which are introduced in
the previous sentence. The missing sentence introduces “the two principal categories of mixture”, the
first of which is defined in the following sentence. Since the rest of the paragraph describes
heterogeneous mixtures in more detail, there is no other logical or fitting place for this missing
sentence.
213
B1, B2 - VOCABULARY
214

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Van Lang University Vstep Preparation Course Level B1 – B2 -C1

VSTEP LISTENING PRACTICE TEST

Time allowance: approximately: 40 minutes

PART 1: Questions 1-8

1. How did he feel in his first job?

2. What are listeners being invited to?

3. Who was she?

4. What is her main point?

5. Where is the speaker?

7. What is her business?

PART 2: Questions 9-20

Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

9. Where is the woman?

10. What service is the woman asking about?

11. When most likely will the woman give a speech?

12. What will the man probably do next?

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation

14. Who is likely a woman?

15. When will the meeting most likely be held?

16. What will the man probably do next?

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation

17. Why is the man traveling to India?

18. What does the man say about the bag?

19. What does the woman offer to do?

20. When will the product be shipped?

PART 3: Questions 21-35

Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following radio interview

22. Stan’s opinion on scrambling is that

23. What did Stan discover when he went climbing?

25. Stan’s advice on scuba diving is that

Questions 26- 30 refer to the following radio interview

26. How did Douglas feel when he booked the weekend?

27. Douglas expected that the experience would help him to

28. He was surprised that the other participants

29. What did one of his friends say to him?

Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following radio interview

31. What was the origin of Martin Middleton’s love of travel?

32. When he visited Borneo, Martin

33. Since the early 1960s, wildlife filming has become

34. Looking back, Martin regards his experience on the iceberg as

35. When he takes a holiday, Martin prefers to

PART 1: Questions 1-8

1. How far was the man from the beach?

2. Where did the twins find each other?

3. How much money did the man get?

4. How far had the camera floated?

5. Who placed the babies next to each other?

6. Why didn’t the people hear the smoke alarm?

7. Where were they made?

8. What is it made of?

PART 2: Questions 9-20

Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation

9. How many cakes did the man order?

11. What should they try to do?

12. What will make the boss pleased?

Questions 13 to 16 refer to the following conversation

13. Who is the man?

14. What does the woman tell Mr. Stevens to do?

16. What can be inferred from the conversation?

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following conversation

17. What are the receipts for?

18. What is the woman trying to get?

19. What can you say about her financial situation?