PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
1. Ms. Castro is newly-promoted to a patient care manager
position. She updates her knowledge on the theories in
management and leadership in order to become effective in her
new role. She learns that some managers have low concern for
services and high concern for staff. Which style of management
refers to this?
A. Organization Man
B. Impoverished Management
C. Country Club Management
D. Team Management
Rationale: Country club management style puts concern for the
staff as number one priority at the expense of the delivery of
services. He/she runs the department just like a country club where
everyone is happy including the manager.
2. Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving her staff
rather than being served. She takes time to listen, prefers to be a
teacher first before being a leader, which is characteristic of
A. Transformational leader
B. Transactional leader
C. Servant leader
D. Charismatic leader
Rationale: Servant leaders are open-minded, listen deeply, try to
fully understand others and not being judgmental
3. On the other hand, Ms. Castro notices that the Chief Nurse
Executive has charismatic leadership style. Which of the following
behaviors best describes this style?
A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets
attracted of him and regards him with reverence
B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield
positive results
C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership
D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.
Rationale: Charismatic leaders make the followers feel at ease in
their presence. They feel that they are in good hands whenever the
leader is around.
4. Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Castro about
leadership characteristics is TRUE?
A. There is a high correlation between the communication skills of
a leader and the ability to get the job done.
B. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan well.
C. Assessment of personal traits is a reliable tool for
predicting a manager’s potential.
D. There is good evidence that certain personal qualities favor
success in managerial role.
Rationale: It is not conclusive that certain qualities of a person
would make him become a good manager. It can only predict a
manager’s potential of becoming a good one.
5. She reads about Path Goal theory. Which of the following
behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses this theory?
A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving
them citations
B. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own
practice
C. Admonishes staff for being laggards.
D. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non-performance.
Rationale: Path Goal theory according to House and associates
rewards good performance so that others would do the same.
6. One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not
made,” which refers to which of the following theories?
A. Trait
B. Charismatic
C. Great Man
D. Situational
Rationale: Leaders become leaders because of their birth right.
This is also called Genetic theory or the Aristotelian theory.
7. She came across a theory which states that the leadership style
is effective dependent on the situation. Which of the following styles
best fits a situation when the followers are self-directed, experts
and are matured individuals?
A. Democratic
B. Authoritarian
C. Laissez faire
D. Bureaucratic
Rationale: Laissez faire leadership is preferred when the followers
know what to do and are experts in the field. This leadership style
is relationship-oriented rather than task-centered.
8. She surfs the internet for more information about leadership
styles. She reads about shared leadership as a practice in some
magnet hospitals. Which of the following describes this style of
leadership?
A. Leadership behavior is generally determined by the relationship
between the leader’s personality and the specific situation
B. Leaders believe that people are basically good and need not be
closely controlled
C. Leaders rely heavily on visioning and inspire members to
achieve results
D. Leadership is shared at the point of care.
Rationale: Shared governance allows the staff nurses to have the
authority, responsibility and accountability for their own practice.
9. Ms. Castro learns that some leaders are transactional leaders.
Which of the following does NOT characterize a transactional
leader?
A. Focuses on management tasks
B. Is a caretaker
C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals
D. Inspires others with vision
Rationale: Inspires others with a vision is characteristic of a
transformational leader. He is focused more on the day-to-day
operations of the department/unit.
10. She finds out that some managers have benevolent-
authoritative style of management. Which of the following
behaviors will she exhibit most likely?
A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their
subordinates
B. Gives economic or ego awards
C. Communicates downward to the staff
D. Allows decision making among subordinates
Rationale: Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show
their trust and confidence to their followers
11. Harry is a Unit Manager I the Medical Unit. He is not satisfied
with the way things are going in his unit. Patient satisfaction rate is
60% for two consecutive months and staff morale is at its lowest.
He decides to plan and initiate changes that will push for a
turnaround in the condition of the unit. Which of the following
actions is a priority for Harry?
A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda.
B. Seek help from her manager.
C. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these concerns.
D. Ignore the issues since these will be resolved naturally.
Rationale: This will allow for the participation of every staff in the
unit. If they contribute to the solutions of the problem, they will own
the solutions; hence the chance for compliance would be greater.
12. She knows that there are external forces that influence changes
in his unit. Which of the following is NOT an external force?
A. Memo from the CEO to cut down on electrical consumption
B. Demands of the labor sector to increase wages
C. Low morale of staff in her unit
D. Exacting regulatory and accreditation standards
Rationale: Low morale of staff is an internal factor that affects only
the unit. All the rest of the options emanate from the top executive
or from outside the institution.
13. After discussing the possible effects of the low patient
satisfaction rate, the staff started to list down possible strategies to
solve the problems head-on. Should they decide to vote on the best
change strategy, which of the following strategies is referred to
this?
A. Collaboration
B. Majority rule
C. Dominance
D. Compromise
Rationale: Majority rule involves dividing the house and the highest
vote wins.1/2 + 1 is a majority.
14. One staff suggests that they review the pattern of nursing care
that they are using, which is described as a:
A. job description
B. system used to deliver care
C. manual of procedure
D. rules to be followed
Rationale: A system used to deliver care. In the 70’s it was termed
as methods of patient assignment; in the early 80’s it was called
modalities of patient care then patterns of nursing care in the 90’s
until recently authors called it nursing care systems.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
15. Which of the following is TRUE about functional nursing?
A. Concentrates on tasks and activities
B. Emphasizes use of group collaboration
C. One-to-one nurse-patient ratio
D. Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensive nursing
services
Rationale: Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities
and not on the holistic care of the patients
16. Functional nursing has some advantages, which one is an
EXCEPTION?
A. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized.
B. Great control of work activities.
C. Most economical way of delivering nursing services.
D. Workers feel secure in dependent role
Rationale: When the functional method is used, the psychological
and sociological needs of the patients are neglected; the patients
are regarded as ‘tasks to be done.’
17. He raised the issue on giving priority to patient needs. Which of
the following offers the best way for setting priority?
A. Assessing nursing needs and problems
B. Giving instructions on how nursing care needs are to be met
C. Controlling and evaluating the delivery of nursing care
D. Assigning safe nurse: patient ratio
Rationale: This option follows the framework of the nursing
process at the same time applies the management process of
planning, organizing, directing and controlling.
18. Which of the following is the best guarantee that the patient’s
priority needs are met?
A. Checking with the relative of the patient
B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the
patient
C. Consulting with the physician
D. Coordinating with other members of the team
Rationale: The best source of information about the priority needs
of the patient is the patient himself. Hence using a nursing care
plan based on his expressed priority needs would ensure meeting
his needs effectively.
19. When Harry uses team nursing as a care delivery system, he
and his team need to assess the priority of care for a group of
patients, which of the following should be a priority?
A. Each patient as listed on the worksheet
B. Patients who needs least care
C. Medications and treatments required for all patients
D. Patients who need the most care
Rationale: In setting priorities for a group of patients, those who
need the most care should be number-one priority to ensure that
their critical needs are met adequately. The needs of other patients
who need less care ca be attended to later or even delegated to
assistive personnel according to rules on delegation.
20. She is hopeful that her unit will make a big turnaround in the
succeeding months. Which of the following actions of Harry
demonstrates that he has reached the third stage of change?
A. Wonders why things are not what it used to be
B. Finds solutions to the problems
C. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities
D. Selects the best change strategy
Rationale: Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities is a
expected to happen during the third stage of change when the
change agent incorporate the selected solutions to his system and
begins to create a change.
21. Julius is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Good
Shepherd Medical Center, a tertiary hospital located within the
heart of the metropolis. He thinks of scheduling planning workshop
with his staff in order to ensure an effective and efficient
management of the department. Should he decide to conduct a
strategic planning workshop, which of the following is NOT a
characteristic of this activity?
A. Long-term goal-setting
B. Extends to 3-5 years in the future
C. Focuses on routine tasks
D. Determines directions of the organization
Rationale: Strategic planning involves options A, B and D except
C which is attributed to operational planning.
22. Which of the following statements refer to the vision of the
hospital?
A. The Good Shepherd Medical Center is a trendsetter in
tertiary health care in the Philippines in the next five years
B. The officers and staff of The Good Shepherd Medical Center
believe in the unique nature of the human person
C. All the nurses shall undergo continuing competency training
program.
D. The Good Shepherd Medical Center aims to provide a patient-
centered care in a total healing environment.
Rationale: A vision refers to what the institution wants to become
within a particular period of time.
23. The statement, “The Good Shepherd Medical Center aims to
provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment” refers
to which of the following?
A. Vision
B. Goal
C. Philosophy
D. Mission
24. Julius plans to revisit the organizational chart of the department.
He plans to create a new position of a Patient Educator who has a
coordinating relationship with the head nurse in the unit. Which of
the following will likely depict this organizational relationship?
A. Box
B. Solid line
C. Broken line
D. Dotted line
Rationale: This is a staff relationship hence it is depicted by a
broken line in the organizational structure.
25. He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to follow
orders and instructions from him and not from anyone else. Which
of the following principles does he refer to?
A. Scalar chain
B. Discipline
C. Unity of command
D. Order
Rationale: The principle of unity of command means that
employees should receive orders coming from only one manager
and not from two managers. This averts the possibility of sowing
confusion among the members of the organization.
26. Julius orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship
throughout the organization. Which of the following principles refer
to this?
A. Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C. Esprit d’ corps
D. Unity of direction
Rationale: Hierarchy refers to the pattern of reporting or the formal
line of authority in an organizational structure.
27. He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their
efforts together towards the attainment of the goals of the
program. Which of the following principles refers to this?
A. Span of control
B. Unity of direction
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility
Rationale: Unity of direction means having one goal or one
objective for the team to pursue; hence all members of the
organization should put their efforts together towards the
attainment of their common goal or objective.
28. Julius stresses the importance of promoting ‘esprit d corps’
among the members of the unit. Which of the following remarks of
the staff indicates that they understand what he pointed out?
A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive
of one another”
B. “In order that we achieve the same results; we must all follow
the directives of Julius and not from other managers.”
C. “We will ensure that all the resources we need are available
when needed.”
D. “We need to put our efforts together in order to raise the bar of
excellence in the care we provide to all our patients.”
Rationale: The principle of ‘esprit d’ corps’ refers to promoting
harmony in the workplace, which is essential in maintaining a
climate conducive to work.
29. He discusses the goal of the department. Which of the following
statements is a goal?
A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate
B. Eliminate the incidence of delayed administration of medications
C. Establish rapport with patients.
D. Reduce response time to two minutes.
Rationale: Goal is a desired result towards which efforts are
directed. Options B, C and D are all objectives which are aimed at
specific end.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
30. He wants to influence the customary way of thinking and
behaving that is shared by the members of the department. Which
of the following terms refer to this?
A. Organizational chart
B. Cultural network
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational culture
Rationale: An organizational culture refers to the way the members
of the organization think together and do things around them
together. It’s their way of life in that organization
31. He asserts the importance of promoting a positive
organizational culture in their unit. Which of the following behaviors
indicate that this is attained by the group?
A. Proactive and caring with one another
B. Competitive and perfectionist
C. Powerful and oppositional
D. Obedient and uncomplaining
Rationale: Positive culture is based on humanism and affiliative
norms.
32. Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary hospital.
She conducts orientation among new staff nurses in her
department. Joseph, one of the new staff nurses, wants to
understand the channel of communication, span of control and
lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this
information?
A. Organizational structure
B. Policy
C. Job description
D. Manual of procedures
Rationale: Organizational structure provides information on the
channel of authority, i.e., who reports to whom and with what
authority; the number of people who directly reports to the various
levels of hierarchy and the lines of communication whether line or
staff.
33. Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical intern
during coffee breaks and after duty hours. What type of
organizational structure is this?
A. Formal
B. Informal
C. Staff
D. Line
Rationale: This is usually not published and oftentimes concealed.
34. She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a decentralized
structure. Which of the following is NOT compatible with this type
of model?
A. Flat organization
B. Participatory approach
C. Shared governance
D. Tall organization
Rationale: Tall organizations are highly centralized organizations
where decision making is centered on one authority level.
35. Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the
following statements are TRUE?
1. Highly cost-effective
2. Makes management easier
3. Reflects the interest of the worker
4. Allows quick decisions or actions.
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 4
C. 2, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, & 4
Rationale: Centralized organizations are needs only a few
managers hence they are less expensive and easier to manage
36. Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act,
which is BEST defined as:
A. having responsibility to direct others
B. being accountable to the organization
C. having legitimate right to act
D. telling others what to do
Rationale: Authority is a legitimate or official right to give
command. This is an officially sanctioned responsibility.
37. Regardless of the size of a work group, enough staff must be
available at all times to accomplish certain purposes. Which of
these purposes in NOT included?
A. Meet the needs of patients
B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed
C. Cover all time periods adequately.
D. Allow for growth and development of nursing staff.
Rationale: Providing a pair of hands for other units is not a purpose
in doing an effective staffing process. This is a function of a staffing
coordinator at a centralized model.
38. Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in
formulating objectives for nursing care?
A. Written nursing care plan
B. Holistic approach
C. Prescribed standards
D. Staff preferences
Rationale: Staff preferences should be the least priority in
formulating objectives of nursing care. Individual preferences
should be subordinate to the interest of the patients.
41. Stephanie considers shifting to transformational leadership.
Which of the following statements best describes this type of
leadership?
A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.
B. Serves the followers rather than being served.
C. Maintains full trust and confidence in the subordinates
D. Possesses innate charisma that makes others feel good in his
presence.
Rationale: Transformational leadership relies heavily on visioning
as the core of leadership.
42. As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the quality of
services rendered to the patients as well as the welfare of the staff
of her unit. Which of the following management styles does she
adopt?
A. Country club management
B. Organization man management
C. Team management
D. Authority-obedience management
Rationale: Team management has a high concern for services and
high concern for staff.
43. Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most
of her staff nurses are senior to her, very articulate, confident and
sometimes aggressive. Katherine feels uncomfortable believing
that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her
department. Which of the following is the best action that she must
take?
A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points
of friction
B. Disregard what she feels and continue to work independently
C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing
D. Quit her job and look for another employment.
Rationale: This involves a problem solving approach, which
addresses the root cause of the problem.
44. As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any
organization. Which of the following statements regarding conflict
is NOT true?
A. Can be destructive if the level is too high
B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times
C. May result in poor performance
D. May create leaders
Rationale: Conflicts are beneficial because it surfaces out issues
in the open and can be solved right away. Likewise, members of
the team become more conscientious with their work when they are
aware that other members of the team are watching them.
45. Katherine tells one of the staff, “I don’t have time to discuss the
matter with you now. See me in my office later” when the latter asks
if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict
resolution strategies did she use?
A. Smoothing
B. Compromise
C. Avoidance
D. Restriction
Rationale: This strategy shuns discussing the issue head-on and
prefers to postpone it to a later time. In effect the problem remains
unsolved and both parties are in a lose-lose situation.
46. Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout.
Which of the following is the best thing for her to do?
A. Advise her staff to go on vacation.
B. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even without
intervention
C. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution.
D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be
of help.
Rationale: Reaching out and helping the staff is the most effective
strategy in dealing with burn out. Knowing that someone is ready
to help makes the staff feel important; hence her self-worth is
enhanced.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
47. She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the
following activities EXCEPT:
A. Setting specific standards and activities for individual
performance.
B. Using agency standards as a guide.
C. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses
D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.
Rationale: Performance appraisal deal with both positive and
negative performance; is not meant to be a fault-finding activity
48. Which of the following statements is NOT true about
performance appraisal?
A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work
help improve their performance.
B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report
C. Patients are the best source of information regarding
personnel appraisal.
D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the
staff.
Rationale: The patient can be a source of information about the
performance of the staff but it is never the best source. Directly
observing the staff is the best source of information for personnel
appraisal.
49. There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she
makes her daily rounds. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of
conducting an informal appraisal?
A. The staff member is observed in natural setting.
B. Incidental confrontation and collaboration is allowed.
C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
D. The evaluation may provide valid information for compilation of
a formal report.
Rationale: Collecting objective data systematically cannot be
achieved in an informal appraisal. It is focused on what actually
happens in the natural work setting.
50. She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a
staff member. Which of the following actions is appropriate?
A. She asks another nurse to attest the session as a witness.
B. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the
appraisal before the session is over.
C. She tells the staff that the session is manager-centered.
D. The session is private between the two members.
Rationale: The session is private between the manager and the
staff and remains to be so when the two parties do not divulge the
information to others.
51. Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the hospital.
She was given the authority to do as she deems fit. 51. She is
aware that the director of nursing has substantial trust and
confidence in her capabilities, communicates through downward
and upward channels and usually uses the ideas and opinions of
her staff. Which of the following is her style of management?
A. Benevolent –authoritative
B. Consultative
C. Exploitive-authoritative
D. Participative
Rationale: A consultative manager is almost like a participative
manager. The participative manager has complete trust and
confidence in the subordinate, always uses the opinions and ideas
of subordinates and communicates in all directions.
52. She decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of
the following elements is NOT included?
A. Level of authority
B. Lines of communication
C. Span of control
D. Unity of direction
Rationale: Unity of direction is a management principle, not an
element of an organizational structure.
53. She plans of assigning competent people to fill the roles
designed in the hierarchy. Which process refers to this?
A. Staffing
B. Scheduling
C. Recruitment
D. Induction
Rationale: Staffing is a management function involving putting the
best people to accomplish tasks and activities to attain the goals of
the organization.
54. She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants
for staff nurse position. Which one is NOT necessary?
A. Certificate of previous employment
B. Record of related learning experience (RLE)
C. Membership to accredited professional organization
D. Professional identification card
Rationale: Record of RLE is not required for employment purposes
but it is required for the nurse’s licensure examination.
55. Which phase of the employment process includes getting on
the payroll and completing documentary requirements?
A. Orientation
B. Induction
C. Selection
D. Recruitment
Rationale: This step in the recruitment process gives time for the
staff to submit all the documentary requirements for employment.
56. She tries to design an organizational structure that allows
communication to flow in all directions and involve workers in
decision making. Which form of organizational structure is this?
A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Matrix
D. Informal
Rationale: Decentralized structures allow the staff to make
decisions on matters pertaining to their practice and communicate
in downward, upward, lateral and diagonal flow.
57. In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at the
A. Leftmost box
B. Middle
C. Rightmost box
D. Bottom
Rationale: The leftmost box is occupied by the highest authority
while the lowest level worker occupies the rightmost box.
58. She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of
the following is an advantage of this system of staffing?
A. greater control of activities
B. Conserves time
C. Compatible with computerization
D. Promotes better interpersonal relationship
Rationale: Decentralized structures allow the staff to solve
decisions by themselves, involve them in decision making; hence
they are always given opportunities to interact with one another.
59. Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to deliver
care. Which of the following activities is NOT done by a primary
nurse?
A. Collaborates with the physician
B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group
of nurses
C. Provides care for 5-6 patients during their hospital stay.
D. Performs comprehensive initial assessment
Rationale: This function is done in team nursing where the nurse
is a member of a team that provides care for a group of patients.
60. Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a
group of paraprofessional workers led by a professional nurse who
take care of patients with the same disease conditions and are
located geographically near each other?
A. Case method
B. Modular nursing
C. Nursing case management
D. Team nursing
Rationale: Modular nursing is a variant of team nursing. The
difference lies in the fact that the members in modular nursing are
paraprofessional workers.
61. St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance
Improvement Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the Quality
Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her
strategies to realize the goals and objectives of the department.
Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform to
have an effective control system?
A. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses
B. Identify the values of the department
C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria
D. Measure actual performances
Rationale: Identify the values of the department will set the guiding
principles within which the department will operate its activities
62. Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the
following standards, which is considered as a structure standard?
A. The patients verbalized satisfaction of the nursing care received
B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient
care personnel.
C. All patients shall have their weights taken recorded
D. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before discharge
Rationale: Structure standards include management system,
facilities, equipment, materials needed to deliver care to patients.
Rotation of duty is a management system.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
63. When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she
refers to what type of standards?
A. Process
B. Outcome
C. Structure
D. Criteria
Rationale: Process standards include care plans, nursing
procedure to be done to address the needs of the patients.
64. The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the
department. Which of the following is NOT included?
A. Measure actual performance
B. Set nursing standards and criteria
C. Compare results of performance to standards and objectives
D. Identify possible courses of action
Rationale: This is a step in a quality control process and not a basic
step in the control process.
65. Which of the following statements refers to criteria?
A. Agreed on level of nursing care
B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care
C. Step-by-step guidelines
D. Statement which guide the group in decision making and
problem solving
Rationale: Criteria are specific characteristics used to measure the
standard of care.
66. She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned.
Which of the following tasks is NOT included in the controlling
process?
A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to
prepare policies
B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital
C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff
D. Checking if activities conform to schedule
Rationale: Instructing the members involves a directing function.
67. Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the
following is NOT a process standard?
A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty four
hours upon admission.
B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive
procedure
C. Patients’ reports 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge
from the hospital.
D. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be
provided for all patients and their families.
Rationale: This refers to an outcome standard, which is a result of
the care that is rendered to the patient.
68. Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process
is effective?
A. The things that were planned are done
B. Physicians do not complain.
C. Employees are contended
D. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate.
Rationale: Controlling is defined as seeing to it that what is
planned is done.
69. Ms. Valencia is responsible to the number of personnel
reporting to her. This principle refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Carrot and stick principle
D. Esprit d’ corps
Rationale: Span of control refers to the number of workers who
report directly to a manager.
70. She notes that there is an increasing unrest of the staff due to
fatigue brought about by shortage of staff. Which action is a
priority?
A. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest
B. Initiate a group interaction
C. Develop a plan and implement it
D. Identify external and internal forces.
Rationale: Initiate a group interaction will be an opportunity to
discuss the problem in the open.
71. Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the
hospital. His first assignment is to determine the level of patient
satisfaction on the care they received from the hospital. He plans
to include all adult patients admitted from April to May, with average
length of stay of 3-4 days, first admission, and with no
complications. Which of the following is an extraneous variable of
the study?
A. Date of admission
B. Length of stay
C. Age of patients
D. Absence of complications
Rationale: An extraneous variable is not the primary concern of
the researcher but has an effect on the results of the study. Adult
patients may be young, middle or late adult.
72. He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose
theory addresses the four modes of adaptation?
A. Martha Rogers
B. Sr. Callista Roy
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Jean Watson
Rationale: Sr. Callista Roy developed the Adaptation Model which
involves the physiologic mode, self-concept mode, role function
mode and dependence mode.
73. He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is
NOT TRUE about this method?
A. Most direct means of gathering information
B. Versatile in terms of content coverage
C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering
D. Yields information that would be difficult to gather by another
method
Rationale: The most serious disadvantage of this method is
accuracy and validity of information gathered.
74. Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for
his review of literature?
A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients”
B. “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms”
C. “Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health Care Institutions”
D. “Environmental Manipulation and Client Outcomes”
Rationale: The article is for pediatric patients and may not be
relevant for adult patients.
75. Which of the following variables will he likely EXCLUDE in his
study?
A. Competence of nurses
B. Caring attitude of nurses
C. Salary of nurses
D. Responsiveness of staff
Rationale: Salary of staff nurses is not an indicator of patient
satisfaction, hence need not be included as a variable in the study.
76. He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine
A. degree of agreement and disagreement
B. compliance to expected standards
C. level of satisfaction
D. degree of acceptance
Rationale: Likert scale is a 5-point summated scale used to
determine the degree of agreement or disagreement of the
respondents to a statement in a study.
77. He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation.
Which of the following criteria refers to the consistency or the ability
to yield the same response upon its repeated administration?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Objectivity
Rationale: Reliability is repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit
the same responses even with varied administration of the
instrument.
78. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine
differences among the subjects being studied?
A. Sensitivity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Objectivity
Rationale: Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allow the
respondents to distinguish differences of the options where to
choose from
79. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an
instrument measures what it is supposed to be measure?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Meaningfulness
D. Sensitivity
Rationale: Validity is ensuring that the instrument contains
appropriate questions about the research topic
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
80. He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling method
gives equal chance to all units in the population to get picked?
A. Random
B. Accidental
C. Quota
D. Judgment
Rationale: Random sampling gives equal chance for all the
elements in the population to be picked as part of the sample.
81. Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing
because he is assigned at the family suites where most patients
come from different cultures and countries. Which of the following
designs is appropriate for this study?
A. Grounded theory
B. Ethnography
C. Case study
D. Phenomenology
Rationale: Ethnography is focused on patterns of behavior of
selected people within a culture.
82. The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory
is
A. Dorothea Orem
B. Madeleine Leininger
C. Betty Newman
D. Sr. Callista Roy
Rationale: Madeleine Leininger developed the theory on
transcultural theory based on her observations on the behavior of
selected people within a culture.
83. Which of the following statements best describes a
phenomenological study?
A. Involves the description and interpretation of cultural behavior
B. Focuses on the meaning of experiences as those who
experience it
C. Involves an in-depth study of an individual or group
D. Involves collecting and analyzing data that aims to develop
theories grounded in real-world observations
Rationale: Phenomenological study involves understanding the
meaning of experiences as those who experienced the
phenomenon.
84. He systematically plans his sampling plan. Should he decides
to include whoever patients are admitted during the study he uses
what sampling method?
A. Judgment
B. Accidental
C. Random
D. Quota
Rationale: Accidental sampling is a non-probability sampling
method which includes those who are at the site during data
collection.
85. He finally decides to use judgment sampling. Which of the
following actions of Raphael is correct?
A. Plans to include whoever is there during his study.
B. Determines the different nationality of patients frequently
admitted and decides to get representations samples from
each.
C. Assigns numbers for each of the patients, place these in a
fishbowl and draw 10 from it.
D. Decides to get 20 samples from the admitted patients
Rationale: Judgment sampling involves including samples
according to the knowledge of the investigator about the
participants in the study.
86. He knows that certain patients who are in a specialized
research setting tend to respond psychologically to the conditions
of the study. This is referred to as
A. Bias
B. Hawthorne effect
C. Halo effect
D. Horns effect
Rationale: Hawthorne effect is based on the study of Elton Mayo
and company about the effect of an intervention done to improve
the working conditions of the workers on their productivity. It
resulted to an increased productivity but not due to the intervention
but due to the psychological effects of being observed. They
performed differently because they were under observation.
87. Which of the following items refer to the sense of closure that
Raphael experiences when data collection ceases to yield any new
information?
A. Saturation
B. Precision
C. Limitation
D. Relevance
Rationale: Saturation is achieved when the investigator cannot
extract new responses from the informants, but instead, gets the
same responses repeatedly.
88. In qualitative research the actual analysis of data begins with:
A. search for themes
B. validation of thematic analysis
C. weave the thematic strands together
D. quasi statistics
Rationale: The investigator starts data analysis by looking for
themes from the verbatim responses of the informants.
89. Raphael is also interested to know the coping abilities of
patients who are newly diagnosed to have terminal cancer. Which
of the following types of research is appropriate?
A. Phenomenological
B. Ethnographic
C. Grounded Theory
D. Case Study
Rationale: Grounded theory inductively develops a theory based
on the observed processes involving selected people.
90. Which of the following titles of the study is appropriate for this
study?
A. Lived Experiences of Terminally-Ill Cancer Patients
B. Coping Skills of Terminally-Ill Cancer Patients in a Selected
Hospital
C. Two Case Studies of Terminally-Ill Patients in Manila
D. Beliefs & Practices of Patients with Terminal Cancer
Rationale: The title has a specific phenomenon, sample and
research locale.
91. Ms. Montana plans to conduct a research on the use of a new
method of pain assessment scale. Which of the following is the
second step in the conceptualizing phase of the research process?
A. Formulating the research hypothesis
B. Review related literature
C. Formulating and delimiting the research problem
D. Design the theoretical and conceptual framework
Rationale: After formulating and delimiting the research problem,
the researcher conducts a review of related literature to determine
the extent of what has been done on the study by previous
researchers.
92. Which of the following codes of research ethics requires
informed consent in all cases governing human subjects?
A. Helsinki Declaration
B. Nuremberg Code
C. Belmont Report
D. ICN Code of Ethics
Rationale: Helsinki Declaration is the first international attempt to
set up ethical standards in research involving human research
subjects.
93. Which of the following ethical principles was NOT articulated in
the Belmont Report?
A. Beneficence
B. Respect for human dignity
C. Justice
D. Non-maleficence
Rationale: Non-maleficence is not articulated in the Belmont
Report. It only includes beneficence, respect for human dignity and
justice.
39. Which one of the following criteria should be considered as a
top priority in nursing care?
A. Avoidance of destructive changes
B. Preservation of life
C. Assurance of safety
D. Preservation of integrity
Rationale: The preservation of life at all cost is a primary
responsibility of the nurse. This is embodied in the Code of Ethics
for registered nurses ( BON Resolution 220 s. 2004).
40. Which of the following procedures ensures that the investigator
has fully described to prospective subjects the nature of the study
and the subject's rights?
A. Debriefing
B. Full disclosure
C. Informed consent
D. Cover data collection
Rationale: Full disclosure is giving the subjects of the research
information that they deserve to know prior to the conduct of the
study.
94. After the review session has been completed, Karen and the
staff signed the document. Which of the following is the purpose of
this?
A. Agree about the content of the evaluation.
B. Signify disagreement of the content of the evaluation.
C. Document that Karen and the staff reviewed the evaluation.
D. Serve as basis for future evaluation.
Rationale: Signing the document is done to serve as a proof that
performance review was conducted during that date and time.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
95. A nurse who would like to practice nursing in the Philippines
can obtain a license to practice by:
A. Paying the professional tax after taking the board exams
B. Passing the board exams and taking the oath of
professionals
C. Paying the examination fee before taking the board exams
D. Undergoing the interview conducted by the Board of Nursing and
taking the board exams
Rationale: For a nurse to obtain a license to practice nursing in the
Philippines, s/he must pass the board examinations and then take
the oath of professionals before the Board of Nursing.
96. Reciprocity of license to practice requires that the country of
origin of the interested foreign nurse complies with the following
conditions:
A. The country of origin has similar preparation for a nurse
and has laws allowing Filipino nurses to practice in their
country.
B. The Philippines is recognized by the country of origin as one that
has high quality of nursing education
C. The country of origin requires Filipinos to take their own board
examination
D. The country of origin exempts Filipinos from passing their
licensure examination
Rationale: According to the Philippine Nurses Act of 2002, foreign
nurses wanting to practice in the Philippines must show proof that
his/her country of origin meets the two essential conditions: a) the
requirements for registration between the two countries are
substantially the same; and b) the country of origin of the foreign
nurse has laws allowing the Filipino nurse to practice in his/her
country just like its own citizens.
97. Nurses practicing the profession in the Philippines and are
employed in government hospitals are required to pay taxes
such as:
A. Both income tax and professional tax
B. Income tax only since they are exempt from paying
professional tax
C. Professional tax which is paid by all nurses employed in both
government and private hospitals
D. Income tax which paid every March 15 and professional tax
which is paid every January 31.
Rationale: According to the Magna Carta for Public Health
Workers, government nurses are exempted from paying
professional tax. Hence, as an employee in the government, s/he
will pay only the income tax.
98. According to RA 9173 Philippine Nursing Act of 2002, a
graduate nurse who wants to take must licensure examination must
comply with the following qualifications:
A. At least 21 years old, graduate of BSN from a recognized school,
and of good moral character
B. At least 18 years old, graduate of BSN from a recognized school
and of good moral character
C. At least 18 years old, provided that when s/he passes the board
exams, s/he must be at least 21 years old; BSN graduate of a
recognized school, and of good moral character
D. Filipino citizen or a citizen of a country where we have
reciprocity; graduate of BSN from a recognized school and of
good moral character
Rationale: RA 9173 section 13 states that the qualifications to take
the board exams are: Filipino citizen or citizen of a country where
the Philippines has reciprocity; of good moral character and
graduate of BSN from a recognized school of nursing. There is no
explicit provision about the age requirement in RA 9173 unlike in
RA7164 (old law).
99. Which of the following is TRUE about membership to the
Philippine Nurses Association (PNA)?
A. Membership to PNA is mandatory and is stipulated in the
Philippine Nursing Act of 2002
B. Membership to PNA is compulsory for newly registered nurses
wanting to enter the practice of nursing in the country
C. Membership to PNA is voluntary and is encouraged by the
PRC Code of Ethics for Nurses
D. Membership to PNA is required by government hospitals prior to
employment
Rationale: Membership to any organization, including the PNA, is
only voluntary and this right to join any organization is guaranteed
in the 1987 constitution of the Philippines. However, the PRC Code
of Ethics states that one of the ethical obligations of the
professional nurse towards the profession is to be an active
member of the accredited professional organization.
100. When the license of the nurse is revoked, it means that the
nurse:
A. Is no longer allowed to practice the profession for the rest of her
life
B. Will never have her/his license re-issued since it has been
revoked
C. May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on
certain conditions stipulated in RA 9173
D. Will remain unable to practice professional nursing
Rationale: RA 9173 sec. 24 states that for equity and justice, a
revoked license maybe re-issued provided that the following
conditions are met: a) the cause for revocation of license has
already been corrected or removed; and, b) at least four years has
elapsed since the license has been revoked.
101. According to the current nursing law, the minimum educational
qualification for a faculty member of a college of nursing is:
A. Only a Master of Arts in Nursing is acceptable
B. Master’s degree in Nursing or in the related fields
C. At least a doctorate in nursing
D. At least 18 units in the Master of Arts in Nursing Program
Rationale: According to RA 9173 sec. 27, the educational
qualification of a faculty member teaching in a college of nursing
must be master’s degree which maybe in nursing or related fields
like education, allied health professions, psychology.
102. The educational qualification of a nurse to become a
supervisor in a hospital is:
A. BSN with at least 9 units of post graduate studies in nursing
administration
B. Master of Arts in Nursing major in administration
C. At least 2 years of experience as a head nurse
D. At least 18 units of post graduate studies in nursing
administration
Rationale: According to RA 9173 sec. 29, the educational
qualification to be a supervisor in a hospital is at least 9 units of
postgraduate studies in nursing administration. A masters’ degree
in nursing is required for the chief nurse of a secondary or tertiary
hospital.
103. The Board of Nursing has quasi-judicial power. An example of
this power is:
A. The Board can issue rules and regulations that will govern the
practice of nursing
B. The Board can investigate violations of the nursing law and
code of ethics
C. The Board can visit a school applying for a permit in
collaboration with CHED
D. The Board prepares the board examinations
Rationale: Quasi-judicial power means that the Board of Nursing
has the authority to investigate violations of the nursing law and
can issue summons, subpoena or subpoena duces tecum as
needed.
104. When a nurse causes an injury to the patient and the injury
caused becomes the proof of the negligent act, the presence of the
injury is said to exemplify the principle of:
A. Force majeure
B. Respondeat superior
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Holdover doctrine
Rationale: Res ipsa loquitur literally means the thing speaks for
itself. This means in operational terms that the injury caused is the
proof that there was a negligent act.
105. Ensuring that there is an informed consent on the part of the
patient before a surgery is done, illustrates the bioethical principle
of:
A. Beneficence
B. Autonomy
C. Truth telling/veracity
D. Non-maleficence
Rationale: Informed consent means that the patient fully
understands what will be the surgery to be done, the risks involved
and the alternative solutions so that when s/he give consent it is
done with full knowledge and is given freely. The action of allowing
the patient to decide whether a surgery is to be done or not
exemplifies the bioethical principle of autonomy.
106. When a nurse is providing care to her/his patient, s/he must
remember that she is duty bound not to do doing any action that
will cause the patient harm. This is the meaning of the bioethical
principle:
A. Non-maleficence
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Solidarity
Rationale: Non-maleficence means do not cause harm or do any
action that will cause any harm to the patient/client. To do good is
referred as beneficence.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
107. When the patient is asked to testify in court, s/he must abide
by the ethical principle of:
A. Privileged communication
B. Informed consent
C. Solidarity
D. Autonomy
Rationale: All confidential information that comes to the knowledge
of the nurse in the care of her/his patients is considered privileged
communications. Hence, s/he is not allowed to just reveal the
confidential information arbitrarily. S/he may only be allowed to
break the seal of secrecy in certain conditions. One such condition
is when the court orders the nurse to testify in a criminal or medico-
legal case.
108. When the doctor orders “do not resuscitate”, this means that
A. The nurse need not give due care to the patient since s/he is
terminally ill
B. The patient need not be given food and water after all s/he is
dying
C. The nurses and the attending physician should not do any
heroic or extraordinary measures for the patient
D. The patient need not be given ordinary care so that her/his dying
process is hastened
Rationale: Do not resuscitate” is a medical order which is written
on the chart after the doctor has consulted the family and this
means that the members of the health team are not required to give
extraordinary measures but cannot withhold the basic needs like
food, water, and air. It also means that the nurse is still duty bound
to give the basic nursing care to the terminally ill patient and ensure
that the spiritual needs of the patient is taken care of.
109. Which of the following statements is TRUE of abortion in the
Philippines?
A. Induced abortion is allowed in cases of rape and incest
B. Induced abortion is both a criminal act and an unethical act
for the nurse
C. Abortion maybe considered acceptable if the mother is
unprepared for the pregnancy
D. A nurse who performs induced abortion will have no legal
accountability if the mother requested that the abortion done on her.
Rationale: Induced abortion is considered a criminal act which is
punishable by imprisonment which maybe up to a maximum of 12
years if the nurse gets paid for it. Also, the PRC Code of Ethics
states that the nurse must respect life and must not do any action
that will destroy life. Abortion is an act that destroys life albeit at the
beginning of life.
110. Which of the following is NOT true about a hypothesis?
Hypothesis is:
A. testable
B. proven
C. stated in a form that it can be accepted or rejected
D. states a relationship between variables
Rationale: Hypothesis is not proven; it is either accepted or
rejected. Hypothesis is testable and is defined as a statement that
predicts the relationship between variables
111. Which of the following measures will best prevent manipulation
of vulnerable groups?
A. Secure informed consent
B. Payment of stipends for subjects
C. Protect privacy of patient
D. Ensure confidentiality of data
Rationale: Securing informed consent will free the researcher from
being accused of manipulating the subjects because by so doing
he/she gives ample opportunity for the subjects to weigh the
advantages/disadvantages of being included in the study prior to
giving his consent. This is done without any element of force,
coercion, threat or even inducement.
112. Which of the following procedures ensures that Ms. Montana
has fully described to prospective subjects the nature of the study
and the subject’s rights?
A. Debriefing
B. Full disclosure
C. Informed consent
D. Covert data collection
Rationale: Full disclosure is giving the subjects of the research
information that they deserve to know prior to the conduct of the
study.
113. This technique refers to the use of multiple referents to draw
conclusions about what constitutes the truth:
A. Triangulation
B. Experiment
C. Meta-analysis
D. Delphi technique
Rationale: Triangulation makes use of different sources of
information such as triangulation in design, researcher and
instrument.
114. The statement, “Ninety percent (90%) of the respondents are
female staff nurses validates previous research findings (Santos,
2001; Reyes, 2005) that the nursing profession is largely a female
dominated profession is an example of
A. implication
B. interpretation
C. analysis
D. conclusion
Rationale: Interpretation includes the inferences of the researcher
about the findings of the study.
115. The study is said to be completed when Ms. Montana achieved
which of the following activities?
A. Published the results in a nursing journal.
B. Presented the study in a research forum.
C. The results of the study is used by the nurses in the hospital
D. Submitted the research report to the CEO.
Rationale: The last step in the research process is the utilization
of the research findings.
116. Situation : Stephanie is a nurse researcher of the Patient Care
Services Division. She plans to conduct a literature search for her
study.
Which of the following is the first step in selecting appropriate
materials for her review?
A. Track down most of the relevant resources
B. Copy relevant materials
C. Organize materials according to function
D. Synthesize literature gathered.
Rationale: The first step in the review of related literature is to track
down relevant sources before copying these. The last step is to
synthesize the literature gathered.
117. She knows that the most important categories of information
in literature review is the:
A. research findings
B. theoretical framework
C. methodology
D. opinions
Rationale: The research findings is the most important category of
information that the researcher should copy because this will give
her valuable information as to what has been discovered in past
studies about the same topic.
118. She also considers accessing electronic data bases for her
literature review. Which of the following is the most useful electronic
database for nurses?
A. CINAHL
B. MEDLINE
C. HealthSTAR
D. EMBASE
Rationale: This refers to Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied
Health Literature which is a rich source for literature review for
nurses. The rest of the sites are for medicine, pharmacy and other
health-related sites.
119. While reviewing journal articles, Stephanie got interested in
reading the brief summary of the article placed at the beginning of
the journal report. Which of the following refers to this?
A. Introduction
B. Preface
C. Abstract
D. Background
Rationale: Abstract contains concise description of the
background of the study, research questions, research objectives,
methods, findings, implications to nursing practice as well as
keywords used in the study.
120. She notes down ideas that were derived from the description
of an investigation written by the person who conducted it. Which
type of reference source refers to this?
A. Footnote
B. Bibliography
C. Primary source
D. Endnotes
Rationale: This refers to a primary source which is a direct account
of the investigation done by the investigator. In contrast to this is a
secondary source, which is written by someone other than the
original researcher.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
121. She came across a study which is referred to as meta-
analysis. Which of the following statements best defines this type
of study?
A. Treats the findings from one study as a single piece of data
B. Findings from multiple studies are combined to yield a data set
which is analyzed as individual data
C. Represents an application of statistical procedures to findings
from each report
D. Technique for quantitatively combining and thus integrating
the results of multiple studies on a given topic.
Rationale: Though all the options are correct, the best definition is
option D because it combines quantitatively the results and at the
same time it integrates the results of the different studies as one
finding.
122. This kind of research gathers data in detail about a individual
or groups and presented in narrative form, which is
A. Case study
B. Historical
C. Analytical
D. Experimental
Rationale: Case study focuses on in-depth investigations of single
entity or small number of entities. It attempts to analyze and
understand issues of importance to history, development or
circumstances of the person or entity under study.
123. Stephanie is finished with the steps in the conceptual phase
when she has conducted the LAST step, which is
A. formulating and delimiting the problem.
B. review of related literature
C. develop a theoretical framework
D. formulate a hypothesis
Rationale: The last step in the conceptualizing phase of the
research process is formulating a hypothesis. The rest are the first
three steps in this phase.
124. She states the hypothesis of the study. Which of the following
is a null hypothesis?
A. Infants who are breastfed have the same weight as those
who are bottle fed.
B. Bottle-fed infants have lower weight than breast-fed infants
C. Cuddled infants sleep longer than those who are left by
themselves to sleep.
D. Children of absentee parents are more prone to experience
depression than those who live with both parents.
Rationale: Null hypothesis predicts that there is no change, no
difference or no relationship between the variables in the study
125. She notes that the dependent variable in the hypothesis
“Duration of sleep of cuddled infants is longer than those infants
who are not cuddled by mothers” is
A. Cuddled infants
B. Duration of sleep
C. Infants
D. Absence of cuddling
Rationale: Duration of sleep is the ‘effect’ (dependent variable) of
cuddling ‘cause’ (independent variable).
126. Situation: Aretha is a nurse researcher in a tertiary hospital.
She is tasked to conduct a research on the effects of structured
discharge plan for post-open heart surgery patients. She states the
significance of the research problem. Which of the following
statements is the MOST significant for this study?
A. Improvement in patient care
B. Development of a theoretical basis for nursing
C. Increase the accountability of nurses.
D. Improves the image of nursing
Rationale: The ultimate goal of conducting research is to improve
patient care which is achieved by enhancing the practice of nurses
when they utilize research results in their practice.
127. Regardless of the significance of the study, the feasibility of
the study needs to be considered. Which of the following is
considered a priority?
A. Availability of research subjects
B. Budgetary allocation
C. Time frame
D. Experience of the researcher
Rationale: Availability is the most important criteria to be
considered by the researcher in determining whether the study is
feasible or not. No matter how significant the study may be if there
are no available subjects/respondents, the study cannot push
through.
128. Aretha knows that a good research problem exhibits the
following characteristics; which one is NOT included?
A. Clearly identified the variables/phenomenon under
consideration.
B. Specifies the population being studied.
C. Implies the feasibility of empirical testing
D. Indicates the hypothesis to be tested.
Rationale: Not all studies require a hypothesis such as qualitative
studies, which does not deal with variables but with phenomenon
or concepts.
129. She states the purposes of the study. Which of the following
describe the purpose of a study?
1. Establishes the general direction of a study
2. Captures the essence of the study
3. Formally articulates the goals of the study
4. Sometimes worded as an intent
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
Rationale: The purposes of a research study covers all the options
indicated.
130. She opts to use interviews in data collection. In addition to
validity, what is the other MOST serious weakness of this method?
A. Accuracy
B. Sensitivity
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Rationale: Accuracy and validity are the most serious weaknesses
of the self-report data. This is due to the fact that the respondents
sometimes do not want to tell the truth for fear of being rejected or
in order to please the interviewer.
131. She plans to subject her instrument to pretesting. Which of the
following is NOT achieved in doing pretesting?
A. Determines how much time it takes to administer the instrument
package
B. Identify parts that are difficult to read or understand
C. Determine the budgetary allocation for the study
D. Determine if the measures yield data with sufficient variability
Rationale: Determining budgetary allocation for the study is not a
purpose of doing a pretesting of the instruments. This is done at an
earlier stage of the design and planning phase.
132. She tests the instrument whether it looks as though it is
measuring appropriate constructs. Which of the following refers to
this?
A. Face validity
B. Content validity
C. Construct Validity
D. Criterion-related validity
Rationale: Face validity measures whether the instrument appears
to be measuring the appropriate construct. It is the easiest type of
validity testing.
133. Which of the following questions would determine the
construct validity of the instrument?
A. “What is this instrument really measuring?”
B. “How representative are the questions on this test of the
universe of questions on this topic?”
C. “Does the question asked looks as though it is measuring the
appropriate construct?”
D. “Does the instrument correlate highly with an external criterion?
Rationale: Construct validity aims to validate what the instrument
is really measuring. The more abstract the concept, the more
difficult to measure the construct.
134. Which of the following experimental research designs would
be appropriate for this study if she wants to find out a cause and
effect relationship between the structured discharge plan and
compliance to home care regimen among the subjects?
A. True experiment
B. Quasi experiment
C. Post-test only design
D. Solomon four-group
Rationale: Post-Test only design is appropriate because it is
impossible to measure the compliance to home care regimen
variable prior to the discharge of the patient from the hospital.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH
135. One hypothesis that she formulated is “Compliance to home
care regimen is greater among patients who received the
structured discharge plan than those who received verbal
discharge instructions.’ Which is the independent variable in this
study?
A. Structured discharge plan
B. Compliance to home care regimen
C. Post-open heart surgery patients
D. Greater compliance
Rationale: Structured discharge plan is the intervention or the
‘cause’ in the study that results to an ‘effect’, which is compliance
to home care regimen or the dependent variable.
136. Situation: Alyssa plans to conduct a study about nursing
practice in the country. She decides to refresh her knowledge about
the different types of research in order to choose the most
appropriate design for her study. She came across surveys, like the
Social Weather Station and Pulse Asia Survey. Which of the
following is the purpose of this kind of research?
A. Obtains information regarding the prevalence, distribution
and interrelationships of variables within a population at a
particular time
B. Get an accurate and complete data about a phenomenon.
C. Develop a tool for data gathering.
D. Formulate a framework for the study
Rationale: Surveys are done to gather information on people’s
actions, knowledge, intentions, opinions and attitudes.
137. She will likely use self-report method. Which of the following
self-report methods is the most respected method used in surveys?
A. Personal interviews
B. Questionnaires
C. Telephone interviews
D. Rating Scale
Rationale: Personal interviews is the best method of collecting
survey data because the quality of information they yield is higher
than other methods and because relatively few people refuse to be
interviewed in person.
138. Alyssa reads about exploratory research. Which of the
following is the purpose of doing this type of research?
A. Inductively develops a theory based on observations about
processes involving selected people
B. Makes new knowledge useful and practical.
C. Identifies the variables in the study
D. Finds out the cause and effect relationship between variables
Rationale: Exploratory research is the first level of investigation
and it deals with identifying the variables in the study.
139. She reviews qualitative design of research. Which of the
following is true about ethnographic study?
A. Develops theories that increase the knowledge about a certain
phenomenon.
B. Focuses on the meanings of life experiences of people
C. Deals with patterns and experiences of a defined cultural
group in a holistic fashion
D. In-depth investigation of a single entity
Rationale: Ethnographic research deals with the cultural patterns
and beliefs of certain culture groups.
140. She knows that the purpose of doing ethnographic study is to:
A. Understand the worldview of a cultural group
B. Study the life experiences of people
C. Determine the relationship between variables
D. Investigate intensively a single entity
Rationale: The aim of ethnographers is to learn from the members
of a cultural group by understanding their way of life as they
perceive and live it.
141. Alyssa wants to learn more about experimental design. Which
is the purpose of this research?
A. Test the cause and effect relationship among the variable
under a controlled situation
B. Identify the variables in the study
C. Predicts the future based on current intervention
D. Describe the characteristics, opinions, attitudes or behaviors of
certain population about a current issue or event
Rationale: Experimental research is a Level III investigation which
determines the cause and effect relationship between variables.
142. She knows that there are three elements of experimental
research. Which is NOT included?
A. Manipulation
B. Randomization
C. Control
D. Trial
Rationale: Trial is not an element of experimental research.
Manipulation of variables, randomization and control are the three
elements of this type of research
143. Alyssa knows that there are times when only manipulation of
study variables is possible and the elements of control or
randomization are not attendant. Which type of research is referred
to this?
A. Field study
B. Quasi-experiment
C. Solomon-Four group design
D. Post-test only design
Rationale: Quasi-experiment is done when randomization and
control of the variables are not possible.
144. One of the related studies that she reads is a
phenomenological research. Which of the following questions is
answered by this type of qualitative research?
A. ” What is the way of life of this cultural group?”
B. “What is the effect of the intervention to the dependent variable?”
C. “What the essence of the phenomenon is as experienced
by these people?”
D. “What is the core category that is central in explaining what is
going on in that social scene?”
Rationale: Phenomenological research deals with the meaning of
experiences as those who experienced the phenomenon
understand it.
145. Other studies are categorized according to the time frame.
Which of the following refers to a study of variables in the present
which is linked to a variable that occurred in the past?
A. Prospective design
B. Retrospective design
C. Cross sectional study
D. Longitudinal study
Rationale: Retrospective studies are done in order to establish a
correlation between present variables and the antecedent factors
that have caused it.
146. Situation : Harry a new research staff of the Research and
Development Department of a tertiary hospital is tasked to conduct
a research study about the increased incidence of nosocomial
infection in the hospital.
Which of the following ethical issues should he consider in the
conduct of his study?
1. Confidentiality of information given to him by the subjects
2. Self-determination which includes the right to withdraw from the
study group
3. Privacy or the right not to be exposed publicly
4. Full disclosure about the study to be conducted
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
Rationale: This includes all the options as these are the four basic
rights of subjects for research.
147. Which of the following is the best tool for data gathering?
A. Interview schedule
B. Questionnaire
C. Use of laboratory data.
D. Observation
Rationale: Incidence of nosocomial infection is best collected
through the use of biophysiologic measures, particularly in vitro
measurements, hence laboratory data is essential.
148. During data collection, Harry encounters a patient who refuses
to talk to him. Which of the following is a limitation of the study?
A. Patient’s refusal to fully divulge information.
B. Patients with history of fever and cough
C. Patients admitted or who seeks consultation at the ER and
doctor’s offices
D. Contacts of patients with history of fever and cough
Rationale: Patient’s refusal to divulge information is a limitation
because it is beyond the control of Harry.
149. What type of research is appropriate for this study?
A. Descriptive-correlational
B. Experiment
C. Quasi-experiment
D. Historical
Rationale: Descriptive-correlational study is the most appropriate
for this study because it studies the variables that could be the
antecedents of the increased incidence of nosocomial infection.
150. In the statement, “Frequent hand washing of health workers
decreases the incidence of nosocomial infections among post-
surgery patients”, the dependent variable is
A. incidence of nosocomial infections
B. decreases
C. frequent hand washing
D. post-surgery patients
Rationale: The dependent variable is the incidence of nosocomial
infection, which is the outcome or effect of the independent
variable, frequent hand washing.
 PREVIOUS BON FILES: LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH

151. Harry knows that he has to protect the rights of human

research subjects. Which of the following actions of Harry ensures
anonymity?
A. Keep the identities of the subject secret
B. Obtain informed consent
C. Provide equal treatment to all the subjects of the study.
D. Release findings only to the participants of the study
Rationale: Keeping the identities of the research subject secret will
ensure anonymity because this will hinder providing link between
the information given to whoever is its source.

152. He is oriented to the use of electronic databases for nursing

research. Which of the following will she likely access?
A. MEDLINE
B. National Institute of Nursing Research
C. American Journal of Nursing
D. International Council of Nurses
Rationale: National Institute for Nursing Research is a useful
source of information for nursing research. The rest of the options
may be helpful but NINR is the most useful site for nurses.

153. He develops methods for data gathering. Which of the

following criteria of a good instrument refers to the ability of the
instrument to yield the same results upon its repeated
administration?
A. Validity
B. Specificity
C. Sensitivity
D. Reliability
Rationale: Reliability is consistency of the research instrument. It
refers to the repeatability of the instrument in extracting the same
responses upon its repeated administration.

154. Harry is aware of the importance of controlling threats to

internal validity for experimental research, which include the
following examples EXCEPT:
A. History
B. Maturation
C. Attrition
D. Design
Rationale: Design is not a threat to internal validity of the
instrument just like the other options.

155. His colleague asks about the external validity of the research
findings. Which of the responses of Harry is appropriate? The
research findings can be
A. generalized to other settings or samples
B. shown to result only from the effect of the independent variable
C. reflected as results of extraneous variables
D. free of selection biases
Rationale: External validity refers to the generalizability of
research findings to other settings or samples. This is an issue of
importance to evidence-based nursing practice.