DISASTER NURSING

SESSION 1 TRIAGE AND EMERGENCY CARE

1. It is the most commonly involved aspect during Triage.
A. Patient Care
B. Assessment
C. Patient Competency
D. Training
Answer: A
Rationale: Triage is a lifesaving process that will determine effective management of care. Patient care and
saving of life is its most commonly involved aspect.
2. A triage tag is a label placed on each patient in order to accomplish the following, except:
A. To bear record of the assessment findings
B. Identify the priority of the patient's need for medical treatment and transport from the emergency scene.
C. Identify additional hazards such as contamination.
D. It is a lifesaving intervention to sort patient’s needs
Answer: D
Rationale: All items above are correct except for choice letter D as it is the definition of Triage
3. The following personnel can be involved in the care during disaster and emergency, select all that apply (SATA):
A. Nursing Medic
B. Health care practitioner
C. First Aid responder
D. Caregiver
Answer: ABCD
Rationale: All members of the healthcare team and volunteers can be involved as long as they have previous
training and competency to administer care during disaster.
4. When a major wave of patients arrive to a hospital, such as immediately after a natural disaster, a similar process can
be applied to discharging patients early when the medical system is stressed. This is a triage system known as:
A. Telephone Triage
B. Reverse Triage
C. SALT Triage
D.SMART Triage
Answer: B
Rationale: In reverse triage, injured people with fewer damages and minor injuries are at the priority of receiving
services. This is also used in cases, where the treatment team or soldiers, during the war, are injured. Those
patients with mild injuries and those supposed to be without any medical complications for at least 96 hours
after discharge are at the top of the discharge list.
5. This process begins by categorizing the patients into three groups based on simple voice commands, a slightly
different triage procedure that adjusts the principles in SMART.
A. Telephone Triage
B. Reverse Triage
C. SALT Triage
D.SMART Triage
Answer: C
Rationale: This is one of the latest triage systems, which was introduced and registered by the CDC in 2008 as
a national standard for mass casualty incidents. This process begins by categorising the patients into three
groups based on simple voice commands.
6. This triage is usually used in a scene of an accident or "mass-casualty incident" (MCI), in order to sort patients into
those who need critical attention and immediate transport to the hospital and those with less serious injuries. This step
can be started before transportation becomes available
A. Simple Triage
B. Reverse Triage
C. SALT Triage
D.SMART Triage
ANSWER: A
Rationale: At its most primitive, patients may be simply marked with coloured flagging tape or with marker pens.
Pre-printed cards for this purpose are known as triage tags.
7. During Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment, patients are placed in 1 of 4 color-coded categories:
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A
Rationale: START helps responders rapidly assess victims’ ability to walk and their mental status, blood flow,
and respiration. The evaluation is designed to work within 60 seconds. Based on the assessment, patients are
placed in 1 of 4 color-coded categories.
8. The term walking wounded usually refers to the non-ambulatory patients:
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Found in green color coded category are those with minor injury, who are ambulatory and also termed
as the walking wounded casualties.
9. The red color coded tag in patients under Simple Triage and Rapid Assessment will determine:
A. Stable patients who do not need to be treated or transported immediately.
B. Patients with minor injuries, or the “walking wounded.”
C. Severely injured patients who will receive the most care and fastest transportation.
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 resources available.
ANSWER: C
Rationale: In the START TRIAGE the Red color coded tag determines the severely injured patients who will
receive the most care and fastest transportation.
10. This method is one of the fastest triage methods, which takes only 15 seconds to test each patient
A. Simple Triage
B. Reverse Triage
C. SALT Triage
D. CareFlight Triage
ANSWER: D
Rationale: The noteworthy point is that in this method the criterion of obeying the commands is examined before
the evaluation of breathing and pulse rate. This method is one of the fastest triage methods, which takes only 15
seconds to test each patient.

SESSION 2 NURSING MANAGEMENT FOR AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION

1. This procedure is used in emergency situations in which endotracheal intubation is either not possible or
contraindicated:
A. Cricothyroidotomy
B. Laryngeal Mask Airway
C. Oropharyngeal airway insertion
D. Endotracheal Intubation
Answer: A
Rationale: Cricothyroidotomy is the opening of the cricothyroid membrane to establish an airway. This
procedure is used in emergency situations in which endotracheal intubation is either not possible or
contraindicated
2. JAW-THRUST MANEUVER is a nursing management for patient with suspected neck injury.
A. TRUE
B. False
Answer: A
Rationale JAW-THRUST MANEUVER is a nursing management for patient with suspected neck injury
3. If the patient is not hospitalized and cannot be intubated in the field, emergency medical personnel may insert this,
which rapidly provides pharyngeal ventilation. When the tube is inserted into the trachea, it functions like an endotracheal
tube.
A. Cricothyroidotomy
B. Laryngeal Mask Airway
C. Oropharyngeal airway insertion
D. Endotracheal Intubation
Answer: B
Rationale: If it is difficult to establish an airway, a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) may be inserted as an interim
airway device when the tube is inserted into the trachea; it functions like an endotracheal tube.
4. If the patient cannot SPEAK, BREATHE, and COUGH and is CLUTCHING THE NECK, we immediately perform CPR:
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Rationale: If the patient cannot SPEAK, BREATHE, and COUGH and CLUTCHING THE NECK, perform Heimlich
maneuver.
5. An oropharyngeal airway is a semicircular tube or tubelike plastic device that is inserted over the back of the
tongue into the lower posterior pharynx in a patient:
A. Who is breathing spontaneously but who is unconscious.
B. Who is breathing spontaneously but who is conscious.
C. Who is not breathing spontaneously but is conscious.
D. Who is not breathing spontaneously but who is unconscious.
Answer: A
Rationale: An oropharyngeal airway is a semicircular tube or tubelike plastic device that is inserted over
the back of the tongue into the lower posterior pharynx in a patient who is breathing spontaneously but
who is unconscious
6. The following are nursing management to control hemorrhage, except:
A. Application of direct pressure;
B. Elevation of the bleeding site above the heart;
C. Compression of a pressure point (femoral, brachial or temporal)
D. Elastic bandage is used only as a last resort
Answer: D
Rationale: Nursing management to control hemorrhage is as follows: Application of direct pressure; Elevation of
the bleeding site above the heart; Compression of a pressure point (femoral, brachial or temporal), and Use of a
tourniquet – only as a last resort (if all the above measures fail)
7. This is a form of shock that most commonly occurs during Trauma:
A. Cardiogenic
B. Neurogenic
C. Hypovolemic
D. Hemorrhagic
Answer: C
Rationale: Hypovolemic Shock is most common in Trauma where large volume of blood may be hidden in
abdominal and pleural cavity
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8. In this form of shock, a penetrating wound in the heart may be present:

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 A. Cardiogenic
B. Neurogenic
C. Hypovolemic
D. Hemorrhagic
Answer: A
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock may be due to myocardial contusion, cardiac tamponade and penetrating wound in
the heart
9. Circulatory Resuscitation measures may include the following, SATA:
A. Aims to restore oxygen delivery to tissues
B. Avoid solutions containing glucose
C. Monitor urine output 0.5ml per kg per hour to be adequate
D. Arrange and cross match blood
Answer: ABD
Rationale: Circulatory Resuscitation measures may include the following: Aims to restore oxygen delivery to
tissues, avoid solutions containing glucose, monitor urine output 0.5ml per kg per hour as minimum and
1ml/kg/hour to be adequate, arrange and cross match blood.
10. We perform the following step for infant or child CPR, select all that applies:
A. Perform 2 rescue breaths with heads tilted backward and chin raised
B. Pinch nose shut and place mouth over theirs.
C. Breath into their mouth twice.
D. A&B only
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Rationale: If the child or infant is not breathing, perform two rescue breaths with their head tilted backward and
their chin raised. For a child, pinch their nose shut and place your mouth over theirs. Breathe into their mouth
twice.

SESSION 3 – WOUND CARE MANAGEMENT

1. Involves the instillation of 1 liter of warm Lactated Ringer’s or NSS into the abdominal cavity
A. Peritoneal lavage
B. Fluid Resuscitation
C. Gastric lavage
D. Peritoneal gavage
Answer: A
Rationale: Peritoneal lavage involves the instillation of 1 liter of warm Lactated Ringer’s or NSS into the
abdominal cavity. After a minimum of 400cc has been returned, a fluid specimen is sent to the laboratory for
analysis
2. In performing a wound dressing, the nurse needs to assess for risk of delayed or poor wound healing.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse aassesses for risk of delayed or poor wound healing when performing wound dressing.
3. The nurse will plan a dressing change 30-60 minutes following administration of analgesia.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Rationale: Plan dressing change 30-60 minutes following administration of analgesia.
4. If a dressing sticks on dry dressing, moisten with saline and then remove it gently.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Rationale: If dressing sticks on dry dressing, moisten with saline and then remove it gently.
5. Clean the wound with a solution using gauze or antiseptic swab, clean from the most- contaminated area, which is the
incision and surrounding skin.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Rationale: Clean wound with solution. Using gauze or antiseptic swab, clean from least- contaminated area,
which is the incision and surrounding skin.
6. In this type of trauma the nurse will assess for any active bleeding, open fracture, compartment syndrome and
amputated extremity.
A. Limb Trauma
B. Head Trauma
C. Spinal Trauma
D. Abdominal Trauma
Answer: A
Rationale: In limb trauma the nurse will assess for any active bleeding, open fracture, compartment syndrome
and amputated extremity.
7. For this type of trauma, examination must be done in neutral position.
A. Limb Trauma
B. Head Trauma
C. Spinal Trauma
D. Abdominal Trauma
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Answer: C

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 Rationale: In Spinal Trauma, examination must be done in neutral position. It is also mobilized by log rolling the
patient and transport in neutral position in the spinal board.
8. The following are considered as management for Abdominal Trauma, select all that applies:
A. CT Scan
B. Laparotomy
C. Observation
D. All choices above
E. A&B only
Answer: D
Rationale: ABC is correct. Management for Abdominal Trauma includes Observation and CT scan for those that
are stable and DPL/FAST Scan and Laparotomy for those unstable cases.
9. This results from motors vehicle crashes, falls blows, or explosions
A. BLUNT ABDOMINAL TRAUMA
B. PENETRATING ABDOMINAL INJURY
C. INTRA-ABDOMINAL INJURY
D. PERITONEAL TRAUMA
Answer: A
Rationale: BLUNT ABDOMINAL TRAUMA results from motors vehicle crashes, falls blows, or explosions. It can
lead to massive blood loss into the peritoneal cavity.
10. The following are nursing management for wound, except one:
A. Hair around the wound may be shaved or clipped
B. Providone Iodine or Hydrogen Peroxide should be allowed to get deep in the wound.
C. Tetanus prophylaxis
D. Debridement
Answer: B
Rationale: Nursing Management for wounds include: hair around the wound may be shaved or clipped; PNSS to
clean the wound area; Providone Iodine or Hydrogen Peroxide should not be allowed to get deep in the wound. It
is used only for initial cleansing; Debridement, Dressing application; Suture; Sterile strips of microporous tape;
Skin glue; Tetanus prophylaxis.

SESSION 4 ENVIRONMENTAL EMERGENCIES

1. A patient suffering from heat exhaustion will experience a strong pulse.

A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Rationale: For a patient suffering from heat exhaustion a rapid, weak pulse is experienced.
2. Those with heat stroke may have a cool, pale, and clammy skin
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Rationale: A patient with heat stroke manifests body temperature above 103 degrees, red, hot and dry skin
3. Frostbite is a trauma from exposure to freezing temperatures and actual freezing of the tissue fluids in the cell and
intercellular spaces. The following are the affected body parts, select all that apply:
A. Feet
B. Hands
C. Nose
D. Ears
Answer: ABCD
Rationale: Frosbite frequently affects specific body parts such as: Feet, Hands, Nose & Ears
4. The following are the methods used for water rescue during near drowning incidents, SATA:
A. REACHING ASSIST
B. THROWING ASSIST
C. ROWING ASSIST
D. SWADDING ASSIST
Answer: ABC
Rationale: There are 4 methods of water rescue, namely: REACHING ASSIST, THROWING ASSIST, ROWING
ASSIST & WADING ASSIST
5. The following are manifestations of decompression sickness, except:
A. Staggering
B. Bizarre behaviour
C. Dizziness
D. Consciousness
Answer: D
Rationale: Manifestations of decompression syndrome includes: Unusual fatigue, Skin itch, Pain in joints and / or
muscles of the arms, legs or torso, Dizziness, vertigo, ringing in the ears, Numbness, tingling and paralysis,
Shortness of breath, Paralysis, muscle weakness, Difficulty urinating, Confusion, personality changes, bizarre
behaviour, Amnesia, tremors, Staggering, Coughing up bloody, frothy sputum, Collapse or unconsciousness.
The most common manifestations of DCS are joint pain and numbness or tingling. Next most common are
muscular weakness and inability to empty a full bladder.

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 6. This is a special type of wound that can lead to staphylococcus and streptococcus infection.
A. Animal Bite
B. Snake Bite
C. Human Bite
D. Sting Bite
Answer: C
Rationale: HUMAN BITES– staphylococcus and streptococcus infection
7. In this wound, infection can be neurotoxic or hemotoxic
A. Animal Bite
B. Snake Bite
C. Human Bite
D. Sting Bite
Answer: B
Rationale: SNAKE BITE– Infection can be neurotoxic or hemotoxic
8. Category II exposure of the previously immunized individuals related to dog bites includes the following, except:
A. Wash exposed skin surfaces No PEP required.
B. Wound washing and immediate vaccination is 2-sites ID on days 0, 3 and 76
C. 1-site ID on days 0 and 3
D. At 4-sites ID on day 0
Answer: B
Rationale: Item letter B is included in the Category II of Immunologically naïve individuals of all age groups.
9. In case of a life threatening poisoning, emergency treatment begins with the initial rapid assessment and resuscitation.
A. This statement is TRUE
B. This is FALSE
Answer: A
Rationale: In case of a life threatening poisoning, emergency treatment begins with the initial rapid assessment
and resuscitation
10. This is produced from carbonaceous substances such as peat or wood that have been pulverized and specially
treated
A. Syrup of Ipecac
B. Cathartics
C. Activated Charcoal
D. Hydrocarbons
Answer: C
Rationale: Activated Charcoal is produced from carbonaceous substances such as peat or wood that have been
pulverized and specially treated.

SESSION 5 – MASS CASUALTY INCIDENTS

1. When the hospital is flooded to its capacity, this process may be performed:
A. Triage selection and Patient Care
B. Hospital Referral and Transfer
C. Mass Casualty Incident Management
D. Observation and Holding Area
Answer: B
Rationale: When the hospitals become flooded to its full capacity during a disaster and emergency, the process
of hospital referral and transfer must be considered.
2. It is a procedure performed to obtain history and physical examination after the initial assessment is done assuming
that emergency and life threatening problems have been stabilized.
A. Triage Care
B. Secondary Survey
C. Primary Survey
D. It is a lifesaving intervention to sort patient’s needs
Answer: B
Rationale: A focused history and physical exam should be performed after the initial assessment. It is assumed
that the life threatening problems have been found and corrected. If that process involved CPR you may not get
to this stage.
3. The following are considered the identifiable Mass casualty incident competencies or most likely health care role of a
nurse during disaster, select all that apply (SATA):
A. Mental Health Counselor
B. Member of decontamination team
C. Generalist Nurse
D. Onsite director of care management
Answer: ABCD
Rationale: Researcher, Investigator/epidemiologist, EMT or first responder, Direct care provider, generalist
nurse, Direct care provider, advanced practice nurse (APN), Director/coordinator of care in hospital/nurse
administrator or emergency department nurse manager, Onsite coordinator of care/incident commander, Onsite
director of care management, Information provider or educator, particularly the role of the generalist nurse,
Mental health counselor, Member of planning response team, Member of community assessment team, Manager
or coordinator of shelter, Member of decontamination team, Triage officer
4. Nurses often facilitate communication and coordinate care among members of the health care team, patients, and
their families during a disaster:
A. This is statement is True
B. study
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 Answer: A
Rationale: Nurses often facilitate communication and coordinate care among members of the health care team,
patients, and their families during a disaster. This includes formal and informal communication (verbal and
written) and electronic and paper documentation
5. These are considered the signs and symptoms of an abdominal trauma following disaster, except:
A. Penetrating wound
B. Abdominal distention
C. Tensed and tenderness of the abdomen
D. Chest penetration
Answer: D
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of abdominal trauma includes penetrating wound, abdominal distention, tensed
and tenderness of the abdomen, bowel sounds but not chest pain and penetration.
6. Renee, a pizza parlor crew suffered an abdominal trauma following a blast incident just outside her work station and
pantry. She is conscious, in severe pain and panic when Nurse Troy arrived in the scene. Following a disaster, during a
mass casualty incident management, the first step will most likely start with:
A. Display patient name and Status
B. Incident command
C. Trauma team mobilization
D. Hospital Command
E. Transportation and documentation
ANSWER: B
Rationale: The First step during a mass casualty incident management is incident command followed by
hospital command, trauma team mobilization, initiate triage and categorize, display patient name and status,
mobilize health person in triage, coordinate and communicate with police, media and family, and transportation
and documentation.
7. What is the initial nursing action Nurse Troy will perform after arriving at the scene as mentioned in the previous item?
A. Perform CPR
B. Ensure safety
C. Call for help
D. Activate AED
ANSWER: B
Rationale: The hazard involved in the accident could still be a danger to the casualty, as well as other people
nearby, and even yourself as the first responder. You therefore need to make sure the area is safe before you
begin administering first aid. For example, if it's a road traffic accident, you may need to try to block traffic,
while if the incident involved a machine, it will need switching off.
8. A spinal trauma was suffered by Patient Nini in an earthquake affecting their locality. In what position can we place a
patient during examination?
A. Neutral
B. High fowler’s
C. Log roll
D. Reversed supine
ANSWER: A
Rationale: During a spinal trauma, examination must be done in neutral position. Mobilization is performed by
logrolling and transport in neutral position in spinal board.
9. In performing the primary survey approach, the emergency responder will check the patient’s response by doing the
following steps, except:
A. Assess level of consciousness
B. Gently shaking the casualty’s shoulders
C. Call out, “are you alright?”
D. Ensure safety at all times
ANSWER: D
Rationale: During RESPONSE – Assess level of consciousness. by gently shaking the casualty shoulders and
call out, “are you alright”. Ensuring safety is found in the first approach, Danger.
10. The last phase of mass casualty incident management refers to:
A. Display patient name and Status
B. Incident command
C. Trauma team mobilization
D. Hospital Command
E. Transportation and documentation
ANSWER: E
Rationale: The Final step during a mass casualty incident management is transportation and documentation.
Other steps include: incident command followed by hospital command, trauma team mobilization, initiate triage
and categorize, display patient name and status, mobilize health person in triage, coordinate and communicate
with police, media and family.

SESSION 6 – BURN MANAGEMENT

1. The following are considered as Burn Interventions, select all that apply (SATA):
A. PREVENT STRESS ULCERATION
B. MAINTAIN AIRWAY
C. RELIEVE PAIN PREVENT INFECTION
D. PROVIDE NUTRITION
Answer: ABCD
Rationale:
This study sourceBURN INTERVENTIONS
was downloaded ARE
by 100000869455681 ASCourseHero.com
from FOLLOWS:onMAINTAIN AIRWAY,
08-08-2023 15:39:03 FLUID RESUSCITATION, RELIEVE
GMT -05:00

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 PAIN PREVENT INFECTION, PROVIDE NUTRITION, PREVENT STRESS ULCERATION, PROVIDE PSYCHOLOGIC
SUPPORT, PREVENT CONTRACTURES.
2. Bioterrorism is a result of the effects of thermal injury on the skin and other tissues as a result of destruction of the skin
from direct or indirect thermal force.
A. This statement is TRUE
B. This is FALSE
Answer: B
Rationale: Burns are result of the effects of thermal injury on the skin and other tissues as a result of destruction
of the skin from direct or indirect thermal force.
3. Patient Emma suffered a Minor Burn after a bombing that occurred 10 meters away from her location. NURSE Ben will
do the following measures, except:
A. Irrigate the area with cool/cold running water for 20 minutes
B. Keep non-burn area warm
C. Keep patient warm to prevent hyperthermia
D. Do not delay transfer
Answer: C
Rationale: All items above are treatment for minor burns, but we keep the patient warm to prevent hypothermia.
4. It is a substance produced through the distillation of crude oil that is known for its waterproofing and adhesive
properties.
A. Asphalt
B. Molasses
C. Diesel
D. Plaster of Paris
Answer: A.
Rationale: Bitumen, also known as asphalt in the United States, is a substance produced through the distillation
of crude oil that is known for its waterproofing and adhesive properties. Bitumen production through distillation
removes lighter crude oil components, such as gasoline and diesel, leaving the “heavier” bitumen behind.
5. Patient NOLI suffered from a Chemical Burn after his exposure to the chemical laboratory where he worked. The
following measures for this type of burn maybe applied, except:
A. Make sure to be wearing protective clothing before beginning treatment.
B. Powdered agents should be brushed from the skin with care
C. Areas of contact should be irrigated with copious amounts of cool running water
D. Avoid washing chemical over unaffected skin.
E. Remove footwear to avoid retention of the chemical in the shoes
Answer: C.
Rationale: The following are measures for Chemical Burns: Make sure to be wearing protective clothing before
beginning treatment, remove all contaminated clothing immediately, powdered agents should be brushed from
the skin with care, areas of contact should be irrigated with copious amounts of tepid/ lukewarm running water
(this is decontamination not cooling), avoid washing chemical over unaffected skin., remove footwear to avoid
retention of the chemical in the shoes, chemical eye injuries require continuous irrigation until ophthalmological
review is available – always ensure that the unaffected eye is uppermost when irrigating to avoid contamination.
Special cautions exist with the use of hydrogels.
6. Management for Flame Burns may include the following, except:
A. Instruct the person to ‘stop, cover, drop and roll’ in order to extinguish flames with a blanket
B. Remove the heat source (PPE) as soon as safe
C. Apply tepid/lukewarm running water to the burn until the burned skin feels cool (20mins)
D. Perform Resuscitation if necessary
E. Remove non-adherent clothing and potentially constricting jewelry
Answer: C.
Rationale: The following are measures for Flame Burns: instruct the person to ‘stop, cover, drop and roll’ –
extinguish flames with a blanket, remove the heat source (PPE) as soon as safe, apply cool running water to
the burn until the burned skin feels cool (20mins), perform Resuscitation if necessary, remove non-adherent
clothing and potentially constricting jewelry.
7. Electrical Burns management includes the following items, SATA:
A. Turn off the source of electricity – mains power, power point or generator.
B. Remove patient from electricity source, remembering your own safety
C. Ensure C-spine protection is in place – this is of particular importance as fractures of the spine may occur following
the violent muscular contractions that occur during the conduction of electrical current through the body
D. Cervical spine protection is mandatory
Answer: ABCD.
Rationale: The following are measures for Electrical Burns: Turn off the source of electricity – mains power,
power point or generator, remove patient from electricity source, remembering your own safety, ensure C-spine
protection is in place – this is of particular importance as fractures of the spine may occur following the violent
muscular contractions that occur during the conduction of electrical current through the body, cervical spine
protection is mandatory.
8. The acronym FACADE for Burn wound management comprises the following:
A. First aid, Analgesia, Clean, Assess, Dress, Elevate
B. First aid, Analgesia, Cure, Assess, Dress, Elevate
C. First refer, Analgesia, Clean, Assess, Debride, Elevate
D. First aid, Antibiotic, Clean, Assess, Dress, Examine
Answer: A.

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 Rationale: The acronym FACADE for Burn wound management includes: First
aid, Analgesia, Clean, Assess, Dress, Elevate
9. The Modified Parkland Formula provides a guide to resuscitation fluids to compensate for excess fluid losses in the
first 24 hours after burn.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A.
Rationale: The Modified Parkland Formula provides a guide to resuscitation fluids to compensate for excess fluid
losses in the first 24 hours after burn.
10. For the assessment of total body surface area (TBSA) in burns, we follow measures the below:
A. Expose whole body, remove clothing and log roll to visualize posterior surfaces
B. Use Lund & Browder Chart
C. A&B.
D. A only
Answer: C.
Rationale: For the assessment of total body surface area (TBSA) in burns, we expose whole body, remove
clothing and log roll to visualize posterior surfaces. We also use the Lund & Browder Chart.

SESSION 8 – PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT

1. Hospitals or institutions requiring personnel to care for casualties affected by disasters and emergency need to:
A. Provide certain types of PPE at no cost to the personnel
B. Provide training on the proper use and disposal of PPE
C. Monitor and enforce the use of required PPE
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Rationale: It is the main responsibility of the institution to provide needed materials and supplies in order to
ensure safety of health care personnel caring for casualties during disaster and emergency.
2. Eye protection should be:
A. Durable
B. Not interfere with vision
C. Kept in good repair
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: Eye protection needs to be durable, does not interfere with vision, kept in good repair and fitted
properly to protect the health care worker’s eyes and vision.
3. Foam earplugs provide greater protection than earmuffs.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Rationale: Foam earplugs provide greater protection than earmuffs.
4. Personal protective equipment can protect health care personnel from all workplace hazards.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Rationale: Personal protective equipment cannot protect health care personnel from all workplace hazards.
They too can be contaminated even if they wear PPE.
5. Personal Protective Equipment was meant to be comfortable at all times.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Rationale: Personal protective equipment is made to ensure the health care personnel’s safety and protection
but it is always uncomfortable to wear especially for long periods of time.
6. Sunscreen is a form of PPE
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Rationale: Like other PPE, sunscreen also provides protection against burns from severe exposure to heat and
working outdoor may damage the skin as we also use this as prevention to cancer.

7. What pieces of equipment do I need to protect myself for contact/droplets precautions?

A. Gloves, gown and mask
B. Gown, gloves and goggles
C. Gown, gloves, mask and goggles or face shield
D. Only gloves
Answer: C
Rationale: Droplet precautions prevents transmission of diseases spread by large respiratory droplets through
coughing, sneezing, or talking.
8. When deciding to put on PPE for contact/droplets precautions, what should be my very first step?
A. Put on the gown and secure it on the back
B. Wash my hands with ABHR or soap and water if visibly soiled
C. Put on gloves
D. Place the mask covering my mouth and nose
Answer:
This B was downloaded by 100000869455681 from CourseHero.com on 08-08-2023 15:39:03 GMT -05:00
study source
Rationale: Handwashing is the universal precautionary measure that we perform and is the first step to do
https://www.coursehero.com/file/164178584/DISASTER-NURSING-CFUS-ARsdocx/
 before donning a PPE.
9. Once my hands are washed, the first of PPE I put on is/are:
A. The gloves
B. The mask
C. The goggles or face shield
D. The gown
Answer: D
Rationale: The first equipment to put on after handwashing is the gown.
10. Once my gown is on and tied on the back, I will then cover:
A. My eyes with goggles or face shield and nose and mouth with a mask
B. My hands with the gloves
Answer: A
Rationale: The first equipment to put on for PPE after handwashing is the gown.

This study source was downloaded by 100000869455681 from CourseHero.com on 08-08-2023 15:39:03 GMT -05:00

https://www.coursehero.com/file/164178584/DISASTER-NURSING-CFUS-ARsdocx/

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