University of Basrah M.

A Program
College of Education for Human Sciences Time Allowed: Three Hours
rd
Department of English Date: June 23 , 2019

Entrance Exam 2019-2020

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Instructions to the Candidates:
1. Use black/blue ball point pen only for (i) filling in your personal information
(ii) answering the exam questions.
2. Do not reveal your identity in any manner in any part inside the answer book.
3. No additional answer book will be given.
4. At the end of the examination return the question paper and the answer book to the
invigilator.
5. Attempt ALL questions.
6. Maximum Marks: 100. (40 Marks for Part I and 60 Marks for Part II)
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PART I
Q1/ Why are sounds /w/ and /j/ called semi-vowels? (4 Marks)

Q2/ Describe the syllable structure of the word ‘rose’. (4 Marks)

Q3/ Meaning is one of the most problematic topic in linguistics.(comment). (4 Marks)

Q4/ In semantic analysis, there is always an attempt to focus on what the words
conventionally mean, rather than on what an individual speaker might want them to mean on
a particular occasion. Discuss (4 Marks)

Q5/ In Lord of the Flies, the animal and primitive instincts, hidden behind a thin veneer of
civilization, are unleashed. Discuss in a well-formed essay. (4 Marks)

Q6/ Throughout Bronte's Wuthering Heights, revenge is a main theme. Discuss. (4 Marks)
Q7/ "Throughout Great Expectations, Dickens explores the class system of Victorian
England." Elaborate a little bit further shedding more light on the social discriminations and
class barriers in the Victorian Period as echoed in the novel above-mentioned. (4 Marks)

Q8/ "Until recently, Listening Comprehension was not given its due role as an interactive
communicative process; it was regarded as a means to end rather than an end by itself."
Discuss, then attempt the following:
a) Make a brief comparison between Listening and Reading Skills.
b) What are the main causes affecting the listening comprehension skill?
c) State only the methods that, principally, paid much attention to the listening
comprehension skill. (6 Marks)
Q9/ Write a brief account on the different functions of the nominal That clause . (6 Marks)

PART II
Q10/ Write the number of the item and the letter of the correct choice: (10 Marks)
1. An example of a minimum syllable is ---------- .
a. are b. arch c. tea d. seat
2. The word ‘entertainment’ is stressed on the ---------- syllable.
a. first b. second. C. third d. fourth
3. The phoneme /r/ does not occur in ---------- position in the BBC accent.
a. syllable-initial b. syllable-final c. syllable-medial d. syllabic
4. Usually English statements are uttered with a ---------- tone.
a. falling b. rising c. level d. complex
5. The syllable that carries the tone in a tone-unit is called the --------- syllable.
a. pre-head b. head c. tonic d. tail

Q11/ Write the number of the item and the letter of the correct choice: (6 Marks)
1- Velar sounds are those produced by:
a- the tongue and the teeth b- the tongue and the soft palate
c- the lower-lip and the teeth d- the two lips
2- Voiceless plosive consonants (stops) are produced by going through .............. phases:

a- 4 b- 5 c- 6 d- 7
3- Nasals are the only sounds produced by:
a- having vibration in the vocal cords b- obstructing the air-flow
c- having three places of articulation d- lowering the soft-palate

Q12/ Fill in the blanks: (6 Marks)

1. Two or more words with related meanings are called…………………….
2. Two forms with opposite meanings are called ……………………………
3. When the meaning of one form is included in the meaning of another, the relationship is described
as……………………
4. When two forms or more different written forms have the same pronunciation, they are described
as……………………
5. We use the term …………. when one form has two or more unrelated meanings.
6. We use the term …………. when one form has two or more related meanings.

Q13/ Are these underlined words best described as examples of polysemy or metonymy?
a- The pen is mightier than the sword.
b- I had to park on the shoulder of the road.
c- Yes, I love those. I ate a whole box of Sunday!
d- The bookstore has some new titles in linguistics.
e- Computer chips created an important new technology. (5 Marks)

Q14/ Choose which character is most likely to make the following statements, relying on
your reading of Lord of the Flies. (4 Marks)
1. “I used to live with my auntie. She kept a candy store. I used to get ever so many candies.”
(a) Piggy (b) Simon (c) Ralph (d) Bill
2. “Seems to me we ought to have a chief to decide things.”
(a)Simon (b) Jack (c) Ralph (d) Piggy

3. “I tried to get over that hill to see if there was water all around. But your shell called us.”
(a) Ralph (b) Simon (c) Bill (d) Jack

4. “You’re chief. You tell ’em off.”

(a) Ralph (b) Bill (c) Simon (d) Jack

Q15/ Choose the correct answer: (4 Marks)

1. Who is the dearest character in the life of Catherine?
A. Edgar B. Mr. Lockwood C. Heathcliff D. Nelly
2. Who is Catherine's brother?
A. Hindley B. Edgar C. Mr. Lockwood D. Heathcliff
3. At his father's funeral, Hindley brings ---------- with him.
A. A friend B. His beloved C. A Wife D. Nobody
4. Who always gives moral advice?
A. Mr. Kenneth B. Edgar C. Nelly D. Joseph
Q16/ Choose the letter of the most appropriate option of the following items: (4 Marks)
1. ....avoids anyone who might undermine his reputation as a sophisticated young gentleman.
a. Joe Gargery b. Pip c. Abel Magwitch d. Herbert Pocket
2. ---------- tries his best to evade the law and the police.
a. Wemmick b. Dolge Orlick c. Biddy d. Magwitch
3. One day Pip is taken by his Uncle Pumblechook to play at --------, the home of the
wealthy dowager Miss Havisham.
a. Satis House b. the church c. London d. the Pockets’ house
4. A lawyer named ---------- appears with strange news: a secret benefactor has given the
orphan boy a large fortune.
a. Compeyson b. Bentley Drummle c. Molly d. Miss Skiffins

Q17/ Write TRUE or FALSE, then correct the FALSE ones: (10 Marks)
1. In the Grammar Translation Method, grammar was taught inductively.
2. In the Direct Method, grammar is emphasized over vocabulary.
3. In the Direct Method, a distinguished principle is that learning is performed through
the habit formation process.
4. Peer correction is a technique used in the Total Physical Response.
5. Peripheral learning means learning from what is present in the environment, even if
the learner's attention is not directed to it.
6. In the Whole-person learning, teachers should concentrate on their learners'
intellectual abilities.
7. The imperative is a powerful linguistic device in the Total Physical Response Method.
8. Role- reversal is a technique used in Suggestopedia Method.
9. The strong version of the communicative approach stresses "Learning to use
language".
 10.In ELT, there are two types of syllabi-synthetic syllabus, developed by Dell Hymes.

Q18/ Fill in the blanks with the most suitable words or phrases: (6 Marks)

1. The semantic role of the indirect object in the sentence 'She gave me a push.' is
……………
2. There are three principles of concord in English; they are
1………….2…………3…………
3. Collective nouns are notionally …………. but grammatically …………..
4. A yes/no question may have either a …………. or a …………… orientation.
5. The clause structure of the headline "Ozone depletion increasing" is ………………..
6. The illocutionary force of the imperative sentence "Look out!" is that of …………...

Q19/ Choose the term (from list B) that best describes the underlined items in (list A):

List A List B
1. They left the house empty. a. C Current
2. The cold killed the trees. b. C Resulting
3. The bell rang loudly. c. S Agentive
4. We laid him on the sofa. d. S Affected
5. I found those books interesting. e. S Recipient
f. O Affected
g. O Recipient
h. S Instrumental

(5 Marks)

Entrance Exam Committee