FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST

By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN

1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the
A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health
2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to
assist him in his recovery is theorized by
8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH,
DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.
A. Benner C. Leininger
B. Watson D. Swanso
9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the
consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared
for. It allows access to higher human spirit.

A. Nightingale C. Swanson A. Benner C. Leininger

B. Benner D. King B. Watson D. Swanson

3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge 10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things
that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options.
care of the ill person Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of
nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover
A. King C. Roy in the face of the illness.
B. Henderson D. Leininger
A. Benner C. Leininger
4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive B. Watson D. Swanson
profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent
or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no 11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession
longer able to give care. according to Marie Jahoda?

A. Henderson C. Swanson A. A profession is an organization of an occupational

B. Orem D. Neuman
5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the
variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors,
which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.
group based on the application of special knowledge
B. It serves specific interest of a group
C. It is altruistic
D. Quality of work is of greater importance than the
rewards

A. Neuman C. Watson 12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a

B. Johnson D. Parse professional?

6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the A. Concerned with quantity
individual, sick or well, in the performance of those B. Self directed
activities contributing to health that he would perform C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and D. Independent
knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain
independence as rapidly as possible. 13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a
profession is
A. Henderson C. Levin
B. Abdellah D. Peplau A. Education C. Caring
B. Theory D. Autonomy
7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant
domain that distinguishes nursing from other health 14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that
disciplines. Care is an essential human need. differentiate a person to another

A. Benner C. Leininger A. Philosophy C. Charm

B. Watson D. Swanson B. Personality D. Character
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as 23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to
guides to personal behavior and actions maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits.

A. Philosophy C. Charm A. Functional nursing C. Primary nursing

B. Personality D. Character B. Team nursing D. Total patient care

16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best 24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?
describes this function?
A. Hammurabi C. Fabiola
A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle B. Alexander D. Nightingale
B. Protect client’s right
C. Coordinates the activities of other members of the 25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.
health team in managing patient care
D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate A. Henderson C. Parse
nursing audit, formulate philosophy and vision of the B. Nightingale D. Orlando
institution
26. She described the four conservation principle.
17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?
A. Levin C. Orlando
A. Determine client’s need B. Leininger D. Parse
B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful 27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL.
psychological situation
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in
A. Henderson C. Parse
patient’s care
B. Orem D. Neuman
18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine
28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM MODEL
sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role
best fit that statement?
A. Orem C. Henderson
B. Johnson D. Parse
A. Change agent C. Case manager
B. Client advocate D. Collaborator
29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART
MODEL
19. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge,
skills and expertise of multiple health professionals.
A. Swanson C. Weidenbach
B. Hall D. Zderad
A. Dependent C. Interdependent
B. Independent D. Intradependent
30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory
20. What type of patient care model is the most common
for student nurses and private duty nurses? A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain C. Newman
B. Neuman D. Benner and Wrubel
A. Total patient care C. Primary Nursing
31. Jake is complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse
B. Team nursing D. Case management
assesses his respiratory rate to be 30 breaths per minute
and documents that Jake is tachypneic. The nurse
21. This is the best patient care model when there are
understands that tachypnea means:
many nurses but few patients.

A. Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute

A. Functional nursing C. Primary nursing
B. Blood pressure of 140/90
B. Team nursing D. Total patient care
C. Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute
D. Frequent bowel sounds
22. This patient care model works best when there are
plenty of patient but few nurses
32. The nurse listens to Mrs. Sullen’s lungs and notes a
hissing sound or musical sound. The nurse documents this
A. Functional nursing C. Primary nursing as:
B. Team nursing D. Total patient care
A. Wheezes C. Gurgles
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
B. Rhonchi D. Vesicular
40. What is the disadvantage of computerized
33. The nurse in charge measures a patient’s temperature documentation of the nursing process?
at 101 degrees F. What is the equivalent centigrade
temperature? A. Accuracy C. Concern for privacy
B. Legibility D. Rapid communication
A. 36.3 degrees C C. 40.03 degrees C 41. The theorist who believes that adaptation and
B. 37.95 degrees C D. 38.01 degrees C manipulation of stressors are related to foster change is:

34. Which approach to problem solving tests any number of A. Dorothea Orem C. Imogene King
solutions until one is found that works for that particular B. Sister Callista Roy D. Virginia Henderson
problem?
42. Formulating a nursing diagnosis is a joint function of:
A. Intuition C. Scientific method
B. Routine D. Trial and error A. Patient and relatives C. Doctor and family
B. Nurse and patient D. Nurse and doctor
35. What is the order of the nursing process?
43. Mrs. Caperlac has been diagnosed to have hypertension
A. Assessing, diagnosing, implementing, evaluating, since 10 years ago. Since then, she had maintained low
planning sodium, low fat diet, to control her blood pressure. This
B. Diagnosing, assessing, planning, implementing, practice is viewed as:
evaluating
C. Assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, A. Cultural belief C. Health belief
evaluating B. Personal belief D. Superstitious belief
D. Planning, evaluating, diagnosing, assessing,
implementing 44. Becky is on NPO since midnight as preparation for blood
test. Adreno-cortical response is activated. Which of the
36. During the planning phase of the nursing process, which following is an expected response?
of the following is the outcome?
A. Low blood pressure
A. Nursing history C. Nursing care plan B. Warm, dry skin
B. Nursing notes D. Nursing diagnosis C. Decreased serum sodium levels
D. Decreased urine output
37. What is an example of a subjective data?
45. What nursing action is appropriate when obtaining a
A. Heart rate of 68 beats per minute sterile urine specimen from an indwelling catheter to
B. Yellowish sputum prevent infection?
C. Client verbalized, “I feel pain when urinating.”
D. Noisy breathing A. Use sterile gloves when obtaining urine.
B. Open the drainage bag and pour out the urine.
38. Which expected outcome is correctly written? C. Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and get
urine.
A. “The patient will feel less nauseated in 24 hours.” D. Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile
B. “The patient will eat the right amount of food daily.” syringe.
C. “The patient will identify all the high-salt food from a
prepared list by discharge.” 46. A client is receiving 115 ml/hr of continuous IVF. The
D. “The patient will have enough sleep.” nurse notices that the venipuncture site is red and swollen.
Which of the following interventions would the nurse
39. Which of the following behaviors by Nurse Jane Robles perform first?
demonstrates that she understands well th elements of
effecting charting? A. Stop the infusion
B. Call the attending physician
A. She writes in the chart using a no. 2 pencil. C. Slow that infusion to 20 ml/hr
B. She noted: appetite is good this afternoon. D. Place a clod towel on the site
C. She signs on the medication sheet after administering 47. The nurse enters the room to give a prescribed
the medication. medication but the patient is inside the bathroom. What
D. She signs her charting as follow: J.R should the nurse do?
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
A. Leave the medication at the bedside and leave the
room.
B. After few minutes, return to that patient’s room and
do not leave until the patient takes the medication.
C. Instruct the patient to take the medication and leave
it at the bedside.
D. Wait for the patient to return to bed and just leave
the medication at the bedside.
48. Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action
when administering NGT feeding?
A. Place the feeding 20 inches above the pint if insertion
of NGT.
B. Introduce the feeding slowly.
C. Instill 60ml of water into the NGT after feeding.
D. Assist the patient in fowler’s position.
49. A female patient is being discharged after
thyroidectomy. After providing the medication teaching.
The nurse asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The
nurse is performing which professional role?
A. Manager C. Patient advocate
B. Caregiver D. Educator
50. Which data would be of greatest concern to the nurse
when completing the nursing assessment of a 68-year-old
woman hospitalized due to Pneumonia?
A. Oriented to date, time and place
B. Clear breath sounds
C. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds and buccal
cyanosis
D. Hemoglobin of 13 g/dl
51. During a change-of-shift report, it would be important
for the nurse relinquishing responsibility for care of the
patient to communicate. Which of the following facts to the
nurse assuming responsibility for care of the patient?
53. Which of the following is the most important purpose
of planning care with this patient?
A. Development of a standardized NCP.
B. Expansion of the current taxonomy of nursing
diagnosis
C. Making of individualized patient care
D. Incorporation of both nursing and medical diagnoses
in patient care
54. Using Maslow’s hierarchy of basic human needs, which
of the following nursing diagnoses has the highest priority?
A. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pain, as
evidenced by shortness of breath.
B. Anxiety related to impending surgery, as evidenced by
insomnia.
C. Risk of injury related to autoimmune dysfunction
D. Impaired verbal communication related to
tracheostomy, as evidenced by inability to speak.
55. When performing an abdominal examination, the
patient should be in a supine position with the head of the
bed at what position?
A. 30 degrees C. 45 degrees
B. 90 degrees D. 0 degree
56. Nurse Brenda is teaching a patient about a newly
prescribed drug. What could cause a geriatric patient to
have difficulty retaining knowledge about prescribed
medications?
A. Decreased plasma drug levels
B. Sensory deficits
C. Lack of family support
D. History of Tourette syndrome
57. When examining a patient with abdominal pain the
nurse in charge should assess:

A. That the patient verbalized, “My headache is gone.” A. Any quadrant first
B. That the patient’s barium enema performed 3 days B. The symptomatic quadrant first
ago was negative C. The symptomatic quadrant last
C. Patient’s NGT was removed 2 hours ago D. The symptomatic quadrant either second or third
D. Patient’s family came for a visit this morning.
58. The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult patient.
52. Which statement is the most appropriate goal for a Which of the following should the nurse document as
nursing diagnosis of diarrhea? subjective data?

A. “The patient will experience decreased frequency of A. Vital signs

bowel elimination.” B. Laboratory test result
B. “The patient will take anti-diarrheal medication.” C. Patient’s description of pain
C. “The patient will give a stool specimen for laboratory D. Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveforms
examinations.”
D. “The patient will save urine for inspection by the 59. A male patient has a soft wrist-safety device. Which
nurse. assessment finding should the nurse consider abnormal?
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
A. A palpable radial pulse C. Cool, pale fingers 66. A female patient is being discharged after cataract
B. A palpable ulnar pulse D. Pink nail beds surgery. After providing medication teaching, the nurse
asks the patient to repeat the instructions. The nurse is
60. Which of the following planes divides the body performing which professional role?
longitudinally into anterior and posterior regions?
A. Manager C. Caregiver
A. Frontal plane C. Midsagittal plane B. Educator D. Patient advocate
B. Sagittal plane D. Transverse plane
67. A female patient exhibits signs of heightened anxiety.
61. A female patient with a terminal illness is in denial. Which response by the nurse is most likely to reduce the
Indicators of denial include: patient’s anxiety?

A. Shock dismay C. Stoicism A. “Everything will be fine. Don’t worry.”

B. Numbness D. Preparatory grief B. “Read this manual and then ask me any questions you
may have.”
62. The nurse in charge is transferring a patient from the C. “Why don’t you listen to the radio?”
bed to a chair. Which action does the nurse take during this D. “Let’s talk about what’s bothering you.”
patient transfer?
68. A scrub nurse in the operating room has which
A. Position the head of the bed flat responsibility?
B. Helps the patient dangle the legs
C. Stands behind the patient A. Positioning the patient
D. Places the chair facing away from the bed B. Assisting with gowning and gloving
63. A female patient who speaks a little English has C. Handling surgical instruments to the surgeon
emergency gallbladder surgery, during discharge D. Applying surgical drapes
preparation, which nursing action would best help this
patient understand wound care instruction? 69. A patient is in the bathroom when the nurse enters to
give a prescribed medication. What should the nurse in
A. Asking frequently if the patient understands the charge do?
instruction
B. Asking an interpreter to replay the instructions to the A. Leave the medication at the patient’s bedside
patient. B. Tell the patient to be sure to take the medication. And
C. Writing out the instructions and having a family then leave it at the bedside
member read them to the patient C. Return shortly to the patient’s room and remain there
D. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient until the patient takes the medication
return the demonstration D. Wait for the patient to return to bed, and then leave
the medication at the bedside
64. Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed
medication, the nurse on the evening shift finds an 70. The physician orders heparin, 7,500 units, to be
unlabeled, filled syringe in the patient’s medication drawer. administered subcutaneously every 6 hours. The vial reads
What should the nurse in charge do? 10,000 units per millilitre. The nurse should anticipate
giving how much heparin for each dose?
A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error
B. Obtain a label for the syringe from the pharmacy A. ¼ ml C. ¾ ml
C. Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the B. ½ ml D. 1 ¼ ml
same medication the nurse was prepared to give
D. Call the day nurse to verify the contents of the syringe 71. The nurse in charge measures a patient’s temperature
at 102 degrees F. what is the equivalent Centigrade
65. When administering drug therapy to a male geriatric temperature?
patient, the nurse must stay especially alert for adverse
effects. Which factor makes geriatric patients to adverse A. 39 degrees C C. 38.9 degrees C
drug effects? B. 47 degrees C D. 40.1 degrees C

A. Faster drug clearance 72. To evaluate a patient for hypoxia, the physician is most
B. Aging-related physiological changes likely to order which laboratory test?
C. Increased amount of neurons
D. Enhanced blood flow to the GI tract A. Red blood cell count
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
B. Sputum culture
C. Total hemoglobin
D. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
73. The nurse uses a stethoscope to auscultate a male
patient’s chest. Which statement about a stethoscope with
a bell and diaphragm is true?
A. The bell detects high-pitched sounds best
B. The diaphragm detects high-pitched sounds best
C. The bell detects thrills best
D. The diaphragm detects low-pitched sounds best
74. A male patient is to be discharged with a prescription
for an analgesic that is a controlled substance. During
discharge teaching, the nurse should explain that the
patient must fill this prescription how soon after the date
on which it was written?
A. Within 1 month C. Within 6 months
B. Within 3 months D. Within 12 months
75. Which human element considered by the nurse in
charge during assessment can affect drug administration?
A. The patient’s ability to recover
B. The patient’s occupational hazards
C. The patient’s socioeconomic status
D. The patient’s cognitive abilities
76. When explaining the initiation of I.V. therapy to a 2-
year-old child, the nurse should:
A. Ask the child, “Do you want me to start the I.V. now?”
B. Give simple directions shortly before the I.V. therapy
is to start
C. Tell the child, “This treatment is for your own good”
D. Inform the child that the needle will be in place for 10
days
77. All of the following parts of the syringe are sterile
except the:
A. Barrel C. Needle tip
B. Inside of the plunger D. Barrel tip
78. The best way to instill eye drops is to:
A. Instruct the patient to lock upward, and drop the
medication into the center of the lower lid
B. Instruct the patient to look ahead, and drop the
medication into the center of the lower lid
C. Drop the medication into the inner canthus regardless
of eye position
D. Drop the medication into the center of the canthus
regardless of eye position
79. The difference between an 18G needle and a 25G
needle is the needle’s:
A. Length C. Thickness
B. Bevel angle D. Sharpness
80. A patient receiving an anticoagulant should be assessed
for signs of:
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. An elevated hemoglobin count
D. An increased number of erythrocytes
81. The most appropriate nursing order for a patient who
develops dyspnea and shortness of breath would be…
A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as
needed
C. Administer oxygen by Venturi mask at 24%, as
needed
D. Allow a 1 hour rest period between activities
82. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have
increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the
bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his
respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
A. Tachypnea C. Orthopnea
B. Eupnea D. Hyperventilation
83. The physician orders a platelet count to be performed
on Mrs. Smith after breakfast. The nurse is responsible for:
A. Instructing the patient about this diagnostic
test
B. Writing the order for this test
C. Giving the patient breakfast
D. All of the above
84. Mrs. Mitchell has been given a copy of her diet. The
nurse discusses the foods allowed on a 500-mg low sodium
diet. These include:
A. A ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole
wheat bread
B. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken
C. A tossed salad with oil and vinegar and olives
D. Chicken bouillon
85. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units
of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing
responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:
A. Reviewing daily activated partial
thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin
time.
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the A. Assault and battery C. Malpractice
physician B. Negligence D. None of the above
C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms
of frank and occult bleeding 92. If patient asks the nurse her opinion about a particular
D. All of the above physicians and the nurse replies that the physician is
incompetent, the nurse could be held liable for:
86. The four main concepts common to nursing that appear
in each of the current conceptual models are: A. Slander C. Assault
B. Libel D. Respondent superior
A. Person, nursing, environment, medicine
B. Person, health, nursing, support systems 93. A registered nurse reaches to answer the telephone on
C. Person, health, psychology, nursing a busy pediatric unit, momentarily turning away from a 3
D. Person, environment, health, nursing month-old infant she has been weighing. The infant falls off
87. In Maslow’s hierarchy of physiologic needs, the human the scale, suffering a skull fracture. The nurse could be
need of greatest priority is: charged with:

A. Love C. Nutrition A. Defamation C. Battery

B. Elimination D. Oxygen B. Assault D. Malpractice

88. The family of an accident victim who has been declared
brain-dead seems amenable to organ donation. What
should the nurse do?
A. Discourage them from making a decision until
their grief has eased
B. Listen to their concerns and answer their
questions honestly
C. Encourage them to sign the consent form right
away
D. Tell them the body will not be available for a wake
or funeral
89. A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor
staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?
A. Complain to her fellow nurses
B. Wait until she knows more about the unit
C. Discuss the problem with her supervisor
D. Inform the staff that they must volunteer to rotate
90. Which of the following principles of primary nursing has
proven the most satisfying to the patient and nurse?
A. Continuity of patient care promotes efficient, cost-
effective nursing care
B. Autonomy and authority for planning are best
delegated to a nurse who knows the patient
well
C. Accountability is clearest when one nurse is
responsible for the overall plan and its
implementation.
D. The holistic approach provides for a therapeutic
relationship, continuity, and efficient nursing
care.
91. If nurse administers an injection to a patient who
refuses that injection, she has committed:
94. Which of the following is an example of nursing
malpractice?
A. The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a
documented history of allergy to the drug. The
patient experiences an allergic reaction and has
cerebral damage resulting from anoxia.
B. The nurse applies a hot water bottle or a heating
pad to the abdomen of a patient with abdominal
cramping.
C. The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed
locked in position; the patient slips and fractures
his right humerus.
D. The nurse administers the wrong medication to a
patient and the patient vomits. This information is
documented and reported to the physician and the
nursing supervisor.
95. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the
nurse expect to find when assessing an Asian patient for
postoperative pain following abdominal surgery?
A. Decreased blood pressure and heart rate and
shallow respirations
B. Quiet crying
C. Immobility, diaphoresis, and avoidance of deep
breathing or coughing
D. Changing position every 2 hours
96. A patient is admitted to the hospital with complaints of
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and severe abdominal pain.
Which of the following would immediately alert the nurse
that the patient has bleeding from the GI tract?
A. Complete blood count C. Vital signs
B. Guaiac test D. Abdominal girth
97. The correct sequence for assessing the abdomen is:
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
A. Tympanic percussion, measurement of abdominal C. Pulse rate and temperature
girth, and inspection D. Temperature and respiratory rate
B. Assessment for distention, tenderness, and
discoloration around the umbilicus. 106. All of the following can cause tachycardia except:
C. Percussions, palpation, and auscultation
D. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation A. Fever
B. Exercise
98. High-pitched gurgles head over the right lower C. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
quadrant are: D. Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation

A. A sign of increased bowel motility 107. Palpating the midclavicular line is the correct
B. A sign of decreased bowel motility technique for assessing
C. Normal bowel sounds
D. A sign of abdominal cramping A. Baseline vital signs
B. Systolic blood pressure
99. A patient about to undergo abdominal inspection is best C. Respiratory rate
placed in which of the following positions? D. Apical pulse

A. Prone C. Supine 108. The absence of which pulse may not be a significant
B. Trendelenburg D. Side-lying finding when a patient is admitted to the hospital?
100. For a rectal examination, the patient can be directed
to assume which of the following positions? A. Apical C. Pedal
B. Radial D. Femoral
A. Genupecterol C. Horizontal recumbent
B. Sims D. All of the above 109. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for
developing pressure ulcers?
101. During a Romberg test, the nurse asks the patient to
assume which position? A. An alert, chronic arthritic patient treated with
steroids and aspirin
A. Sitting C. Genupectoral B. An 88-year old incontinent patient with gastric
B. Standing D. Trendelenburg cancer who is confined to his bed at home
C. An apathetic 63-year old COPD patient receiving
102. If a patient’s blood pressure is 150/96, his pulse nasal oxygen via cannula
pressure is: D. A confused 78-year old patient with congestive
heart failure (CHF) who requires assistance to get
A. 54 C. 150 out of bed.
B. 96 D. 246
110. The physician orders the administration of high-
103. A patient is kept off food and fluids for 10 hours before humidity oxygen by face mask and placement of the patient
surgery. His oral temperature at 8 a.m. is 99.8 F (37.7 C) in a high Fowler’s position. After assessing Mrs. Paul, the
This temperature reading probably indicates: nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: Impaired gas
exchange related to increased secretions. Which of the
following nursing interventions has the greatest potential
A. Infection C. Anxiety
for improving this situation?
B. Hypothermia D. Dehydration

104. Which of the following parameters should be checked A. Encourage the patient to increase her fluid
when assessing respirations? intake to 200 ml every 2 hours
B. Place a humidifier in the patient’s room.
C. Continue administering oxygen by high
A. Rate C. Symmetry
humidity face mask
B. Rhythm D. All of the above
D. Perform chest physiotheraphy on a regular
schedule
105. A 38-year old patient’s vital signs at 8 a.m. are axillary
111. The most common deficiency seen in alcoholics is:
temperature 99.6 F (37.6 C); pulse rate, 88; respiratory
rate, 30. Which findings should be reported?
A. Thiamine C. Pyridoxine
B. Riboflavin D. Pantothenic acid
A. Respiratory rate only
B. Temperature only
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
112. Which of the following statement is incorrect about a
patient with dysphagia? 117. Mrs. Lim begins to cry as the nurse discusses hair loss.
The best response would be:
A. The patient will find pureed or soft foods,
such as custards, easier to swallow than A. “Don’t worry. It’s only temporary”
water B. “Why are you crying? I didn’t get to the bad
B. Fowler’s or semi Fowler’s position reduces news yet”
the risk of aspiration during swallowing C. “Your hair is really pretty”
C. The patient should always feed himself D. “I know this will be difficult for you, but your
D. The nurse should perform oral hygiene hair will grow back after the completion of
before assisting with feeding. chemotheraphy”

113. To assess the kidney function of a patient with an 118. An additional Vitamin C is required during all of the
indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter, the nurse measures his following periods except:
hourly urine output. She should notify the physician if the
urine output is: A. Infancy C. Childhood
B. Young adulthood D. Pregnancy
A. Less than 30 ml/hour
B. 64 ml in 2 hours 119. A prescribed amount of oxygen s needed for a patient
C. 90 ml in 3 hours with COPD to prevent:
D. 125 ml in 4 hours
A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial
114. Certain substances increase the amount of urine pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
produced. These include: (PaCO2)
B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
A. Caffeine-containing drinks, such as coffee C. Respiratory excitement
and cola. D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus
B. Beets
C. Urinary analgesics 120. After 1 week of hospitalization, Mr. Gray develops
D. Kaolin with pectin (Kaopectate) hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most significant
symptom of his disorder?
115. A male patient who had surgery 2 days ago for head
and neck cancer is about to make his first attempt to A. Lethargy
ambulate outside his room. The nurse notes that he is B. Increased pulse rate and blood pressure
steady on his feet and that his vision was unaffected by the C. Muscle weakness
surgery. Which of the following nursing interventions would D. Muscle irritability
be appropriate?
121. Which of the following nursing interventions promotes
A. Encourage the patient to walk in the hall patient safety?
alone
B. Discourage the patient from walking in the A. Asses the patient’s ability to ambulate and
hall for a few more days transfer from a bed to a chair
C. Accompany the patient for his walk. B. Demonstrate the signal system to the patient
D. Consuit a physical therapist before allowing C. Check to see that the patient is wearing his
the patient to ambulate identification band
D. All of the above
116. A patient has exacerbation of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) manifested by shortness of 122. Studies have shown that about 40% of patients fall out
breath; orthopnea: thick, tenacious secretions; and a dry of bed despite the use of side rails; this has led to which of
hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be: the following conclusions?

A. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, A. Side rails are ineffective

tenacious secretions. B. Side rails should not be used
B. Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, C. Side rails are a deterrent that prevent a
hacking cough. patient from falling out of bed.
C. Ineffective individual coping to COPD. D. Side rails are a reminder to a patient not to
D. Pain related to immobilization of affected get out of bed
leg.
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
123. Examples of patients suffering from impaired B. Placing one pillow under the body’s head and
awareness include all of the following except: shoulders
C. Removing the body’s clothing and wrapping
A. A semiconscious or over fatigued patient the body in a shroud
B. A disoriented or confused patient D. Allowing the body to relax normally
C. A patient who cannot care for himself at
home 130. When a patient in the terminal stages of lung cancer
D. A patient demonstrating symptoms of drugs begins to exhibit loss of consciousness, a major nursing
or alcohol withdrawal priority is to:

124. The most common injury among elderly persons is: A. Protect the patient from injury
B. Insert an airway
A. Atheroscleotic changes in the blood vessels C. Elevate the head of the bed
B. Increased incidence of gallbladder disease D. Withdraw all pain medications
C. Urinary Tract Infection
D. Hip fracture 131. The most important nursing intervention to correct
skin dryness is:
125. The most common psychogenic disorder among
elderly person is: A. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition
is remedied, and notify the physician
A. Depression B. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a
B. Sleep disturbances (such as bizarre dreams) dermatologist, and suggest that the patient
C. Inability to concentrate wear home-laundered sleepwear
D. Decreased appetite C. Consult the dietitian about increasing the
E. patient’s fat intake, and take necessary
126. Which of the following vascular system changes results measures to prevent infection
from aging? D. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid
intake, use nonirritating soap when bathing
the patient, and apply lotion to the involved
A. Increased peripheral resistance of the blood
areas
vessels
B. Decreased blood flow
132. When bathing a patient’s extremities, the nurse should
C. Increased work load of the left ventricle
use long, firm strokes from the distal to the proximal areas.
D. All of the above
This technique:
127. Which of the following is the most common cause of
dementia among elderly persons? A. Provides an opportunity for skin assessment
B. Avoids undue strain on the nurse
C. Increases venous blood return
A. Parkinson’s disease
D. Causes vasoconstriction and increases
B. Multiple sclerosis
circulation
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gerhig’s
disease)
133. Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of sleep?
D. Alzheimer’s disease

128. The nurse’s most important legal responsibility after a A. Stage I non-REM
patient’s death in a hospital is: B. Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
C. Stage II non-REM
D. Delta stage
A. Obtaining a consent of an autopsy
B. Notifying the coroner or medical examiner
134. The natural sedative in meat and milk products
C. Labeling the corpse appropriately
(especially warm milk) that can help induce sleep is:
D. Ensuring that the attending physician issues
the death certification
A. Flurazepam C. Tryptophan
129. Before rigor mortis occurs, the nurse is responsible for: B. Temazepam D. Methotrimeprazine

135. Nursing interventions that can help the patient to relax

A. Providing a complete bath and dressing
and sleep restfully include all of the following except:
change
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
A. Have the patient take a 30- to 60-minute nap
in the afternoon
B. Turn on the television in the patient’s room
C. Provide quiet music and interesting reading
material
D. Massage the patient’s back with long strokes
136. Restraints can be used for all of the following purposes
except to:
A. Prevent a confused patient from removing
tubes, such as feeding tubes, I.V. lines, and
urinary catheters
B. Prevent a patient from falling out of bed or a
chair
C. Discourage a patient from attempting to
ambulate alone when he requires assistance
for his safety
D. Prevent a patient from becoming confused
or disoriented
137. Which of the following is the nurse’s legal
responsibility when applying restraints?
A. Document the patient’s behavior
B. Document the type of restraint used
C. Obtain a written order from the physician
except in an emergency, when the patient
must be protected from injury to himself or
others
D. All of the above
138. Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying
are:
A. Anger, bargaining, denial, depression,
acceptance
B. Denial, anger, depression, bargaining,
acceptance
C. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression
acceptance
D. Bargaining, denial, anger, depression,
acceptance
139. A terminally ill patient usually experiences all of the
following feelings during the anger stage except:
A. Rage C. Numbness
B. Envy D. Resentment
140. Nurses and other health care provides often have
difficulty helping a terminally ill patient through the
necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of
the following strategies is most helpful to the nurse in
achieving this goal?
A. Taking psychology courses related to
gerontology
B. Reading books and other literature on the
subject of thanatology
C. Reflecting on the significance of death
D. Reviewing varying cultural beliefs and
practices related to death
141. Which of the following symptoms is the best indicator
of imminent death?
A. A weak, slow pulse
B. Increased muscle tone
C. Fixed, dilated pupils
D. Slow, shallow respirations
142. A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease
who requires isolation should refers to guidelines published
by the:
A. National League for Nursing (NLN)
B. Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
C. American Medical Association (AMA)
D. American Nurses Association (ANA)
143. To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the
nurse must first know the:
A. Organism’s mode of transmission
B. Organism’s Gram-staining characteristics
C. Organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics
D. Patient’s susceptibility to the organism
144. Which is the correct procedure for collecting a sputum
specimen for culture and sensitivity testing?
A. Have the patient place the specimen in a
container and enclose the container in a
plastic bag
B. Have the patient expectorate the sputum
while the nurse holds the container
C. Have the patient expectorate the sputum
into a sterile container
D. Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash
just before he expectorate the sputum
145. An autoclave is used to sterilize hospital supplies
because:
A. More articles can be sterilized at a time
B. Steam causes less damage to the materials
C. A lower temperature can be obtained
D. Pressurized steam penetrates the supplies
better
146. The best way to decrease the risk of transferring
pathogens to a patient when removing contaminated
gloves is to:
A. Wash the gloves before removing them
 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN
B. Gently pull on the fingers of the gloves when
removing them
C. Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the
gloves when removing them
D. Remove the gloves and then turn them
inside out

147. After having an I.V. line in place for 72 hours, a patient

complains of tenderness, burning, and swelling. Assessment
of the I.V. site reveals that it is warm and erythematons.
This usually indicates:

A. Infection
B. Infiltration
C. Phlebitis
D. Bleeding

148. To ensure homogenization when diluting powdered

medication in a vial, the nurse should:

A. Shake the vial vigorously

B. Roll the vial gently between the palms
C. Invert the vial and let it stand for 1 minute
D. Do nothing after adding the solution to the
vial

149. The nurse is teaching a patient to prepare a syringe

with 40 units of U-100 NPH insulin for self-injection. The
patient’s first priority concerning self-injection in this
situation is to:

A. Assess the injection site

B. Select the appropriate injection site
C. Check the syringe to verify that the nurse has
removed the prescribed insulin dose
D. Clean the injection site in a circular manner
with and alcohol sponge

150. The physician’s order reads “Administer 1 g cefazolin

sodium (Ancef) in 150 ml of normal saline solution in 60
minutes.” What is the flow rate if the drop factor is 10 gtt =
1 ml?

A. 25 gtt/minute C. 50 gtt/minute
B. 37 gtt/minute D. 60 gtt/minute
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST
By: RUSELL FERNANDEZ PERALTA, RN, MAN