#SUBJECT#NAVIGATION01

#LESSON#GENERALNAVIGATION32
@$#SINGLE#
difficulty:medium
language:English
1. On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line
joins position A (S70° E065°) to position B (S70° W025°). What is the approximate
true course on departure from position A?
(a)315°
(b)250°
(c)225°
(d)135°
Ans: C
Exp:
2. What is the definition of True North for any observer?
(a)The direction of the observer’s meridian to the North Pole
(b)The reading of the observer’s compass corrected for deviation and local variation
(c)The direction of the observer’s Magnetic North corrected for local variation
(d)The direction of the Greenwich meridian to the North Pole
Ans: A
Exp:
3. An aircraft descends from FL250 to FL100 at a rate of descent of 1,000 fpm and a
groundspeed of 360 kt. What is the flight path angle?
(a)1.6°
(b)3.2°
(c)2.4°
(d)2.8°
Ans: A
Exp:
4. Given : Mach number : 0.8 Flight Level : 330 OAT : ISA + 15°C. compressibility
factor 0.94. What is the approximate TAS?
(a)420 kt
(b)480 kt
(c)450 kt
(d)265 kt
Ans: B
Exp:
5. Fuel flow per hour is 22 US Gal, total fuel on board is 71 Imp. Gal. What is the
endurance?
(a)3 hr 12 min
(b)3 hr 52 min
(c)2 hr 42 min
(d)4 hr 32 min
Ans: B
Exp:
6. An aircraft flies on a compass heading of 124°C. Compass deviation = -3° and
magnetic variation = 4°W. What is the true heading being flown?
(a)123°T
(b)117°T
(c)131°T
(d)125°T
Ans: B
Exp:
7. The coordinates of the heliport at Issy Ies Moulineaux, near Paris, France, are
N48°50’ E002°16.5’. What are the antipodal coordinates of the position (directly on
the opposite side of the Earth)?
(a)S48°50’ W177°43.5’
(b)S41°10’ E177°43.5’
(c)S41°10’ W177°43.5’
(d)S48°50’ E177°43.5’
Ans: A
Exp:
8. Route from A at N44° E024° to B at N46° E026° forms an angle of 35° with
longitude E024°. The magnetic variation at A is 3°E. What is the initial magnetic track
from A to B?
(a)322°
(b)032°
(c)328°
(d)038°
Ans: B
Exp:
9. A VFR flight is navigated by dead reckoning. Flying from B to C, the position of the
aircraft is fixed and a change of heading calculated. The 1:60 rule is used to
determine the heading from the fix position to be back on track in approximately the
same it has taken from B to the fix position. Using the following information, what
heading is required?
Planned DR heading from B to C: 313°C
Cross track error: 3 nm left
Along track distance from B: 45 nm
(a)317°C
(b)305°C
(c)321°C
(d)315°C
Ans: C
Exp:
10. Considering the data: Time between fixes: 8 minutes, distance travelled: 18 nm,
TAS: 125 kt, true track between fixes: 342°T, true heading flown between fixes:
348°T, variation 7°W. What is the average true wind direction and velocity between
both fixes?
(a)111°/17 kt
(b)225°/17 kt
(c)118°/17 kt
(d)039°/17 kt
Ans: A
Exp:
11. Two vectors which have different magnitude are added. What information can be
determined from the resultant vector?
(a)Direction only
(b)Neither direction or magnitude
(c)Magnitude and direction
(d)Magnitude only
Ans: C
Exp:
12. An aircraft is departing from an airport which has an elevation of 2000 ft and the
QNH is 1003 hPa. The TAS is 100 kt, the head wind component is 20 kt and the rate
of climb is 1000 ft/min. top of climb is FL 100. At what distance from the airport will
this be achieved?
(a)13.3 nm
(b)15.4 nm
(c)11.1 nm
(d)10.3 nm
Ans: D
Exp:
13. An aircraft is making a VFR flight under freezing conditions after recent heavy
snow fall. Which of the following land marks will provide the most reliable
reference?
(a)A railway track (without an overhead line)
(b)A river
(c)A country road
(d)A high-tension power line (with towers)
Ans: D
Exp:
14. An aircraft descends from FL250 TO FL100. The rate of descent is 1000 ft/min, the
groundspeed is 360 kt. What is the flight path angle?
(a)2.8°
(b)3.2°
(c)1.6°
(d)2.4°
Ans: C
Exp:
15. The flight log gives the following data: True Track, Drift, True Heading, Magnetic
Variation, Magnetic Heading, Compass Deviation, Compass Heading What is the right
solution, in the same order?
(a)119°, 3°L, 122°, 2°E, 120°, +4°, 116°
(b)125°, 2°R, 123°, 2°W, 121°, -4°, 117°
(c)115°, 5°R, 120°, 3°W, 123°, +2°, 121°
(d)117°, 4°L, 121°, 1°E, 122°, -3°, 119°
Ans: A
Exp:
16. What is the standard time and date in Ecuador (UTC – 5 hours) if it is 03:25 UTC
on the 21st of January?
(a)08:25 on 21st of January
(b)22:25 on 21st of January
(c)01:35 on 20th of January
(d)22:25 on 20th of January
Ans: D
Exp:
17. What is the value of the convergence factor on a polar stereographic chart?
(a)0
(b)1
(c)0.866
(d)0.5
Ans: B
Exp:
18. Where on a Director Mercator projection is the chart convergency correct
compared to the earth convergency?
(a)At the equator
(b)At the poles
(c)At the two parallels of tangency
(d)All over the chart
Ans: A
Exp:
19. What is the chart distance between longitudes E179° and W175° on a Direct
Mercator chart with a scale of 1:5,000,000 at the Equator?
(a)106 nm
(b)133 nm
(c)167 nm
(d)72 nm
Ans: B
Exp:
20. In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the
apparent Sun and mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?
(a)March and September
(b)February and November
(c)June and December
(d)April and August
Ans: B
Exp:
21. Given the following information, what is the deviation? True Track : 245°, Drift:
5°R, Variation: 3°E, Compass Heading: 242°
(a)11°E
(b)5°W
(c)1°E
(d)5°E
Ans: B
Exp:
22. What is the approximate circumference of the parallel of latitude at N60°?
(a)18,706 nm
(b)10,800 nm
(c)10,800 km
(d)21,600 nm
Ans: B
Exp:
23. Which of the following statements is correct when crossing the International
Date Line?
(a)The date will remain the same when crossing from a westerly longitude to an
easterly longitude
(b)The date will decrease when crossing on an easterly heading
(c)The date will decrease when crossing on a westerly heading
(d)The date will always be the same
Ans: B
Exp:
24. True directions are measured as an angle in degrees………..?
(a)Anticlockwise from true north
(b)Clockwise from the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
(c)Clockwise from true north
(d)Anticlockwise from the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
Ans: C
Exp:
25. Given the following information, what is the true bearing of the line of position
plotted from an NDB to the aircraft on a Polar Stereographic Chart.
 Aircraft position: N70° E035°
 NDB position: N70° E050°
 Variation at the aircraft: 32°E
 Variation at the NDB: 60°E
 Deviation: +2°
(a)229°T
(b)049°T
(c)278°T
(d)083°T
Ans: C
Exp:
26. Given the following information, what is the wind velocity: True Track: 239°, True
Heading: 229°, TAS: 555 kt, Groundspeed: 577 kt.
(a)310°T/100 kt
(b)165°T/100 kt
(c)130°T/100 kt
(d)300°T/100 kt
Ans: C
Exp:
27. Heading = 307°T, TAS = 230 kt, Track = 313°T. Aircraft travels 168 nm in 48
minutes. Calculate the W/V?
(a)005°/30 kt
(b)355°/30 kt
(c)250°/30 kt
(d)260°/30 kt
Ans: D
Exp:
28. How many nautical air miles are flown in 12.5 minutes, given that you are flying
with a TAS of 105 kt and a groundspeed of 90 kt?
(a)19
(b)20
(c)22
(d)25
Ans: C
Exp:
29. Deviation is -6°, Variation is 12°W, True heading is 186°T. What are the correct
headings?
(a)168°C, 174°M
(b)198°M, 204°C
(c)198°M, 192°C
(d)180°C, 174°M
Ans: B
Exp:
30. Wind correction angle:
(a)All three answers below are correct
(b)Will arise whenever the drift is changing during a flight along a fixed track
(c)Will be established whenever a crosswind is experienced and desired track is kept
(d)Is the angle in distance between the desired track and the track made good
Ans: C
Exp:
31. On a polar stereographic chart, a straight line is drawn from A to B (S80° W010°).
The initial track at A is 103°T and the final track at B is 060°T. What is the longitude of
A?
(a)E012°
(b)W032°
(c)W053°
(d)E033°
Ans: C
Exp:
32. What is the angle between the true great circle track and the true rhumb line
track joining positions A (S60° W165°) and B (S60° E177°), measured at the point of
departure A?
(a)5.2°
(b)7.8°
(c)15.6°
(d)9°
Ans: B
Exp:
33. TAS = 100 kts, TRK = 000°, HDG = 354°, GS = 100 kts. What is the Wind Vector?
(a)090°/10 kt
(b)006°/00 kt
(c)085°/10 kt
(d)265°/10 kt
Ans: D
Exp:
34. An aircraft travels at a Ground Speed of 160 kts for 20 minutes. Approximately,
how far does it travel in this time?
(a)53 NM
(b)75 NM
(c)48 NM
(d)125 NM
Ans: A
Exp:
35. An aircraft travels at a Ground Speed of 190 kts for 1 hour 42 minutes.
Approximately, how far does it travel in this time?
(a)535 NM
(b)450 NM
(c)112 NM
(d)323 NM
Ans: D
Exp:
36. Which is correct about locators?
1. High powered NDBs used for en route and airways navigation
2. Low powered NDBs used for airfield or runway approach
3. Beacons with a usual range of 10 to 250 nm
4. Beacons with a usual range of 10 to 25 nm
(a)1, 3
(b)1, 4
(c)2, 3
(d)2, 4
Ans: D
Exp:
37. A weather radar, set to the 100 nm scale, shows a squall at 50 nm. By changing
the scale to 50 nm, what should happen to the return on the radar screen?
(a)Increase in area and move to the top of the screen
(b)Decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
(c)Decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
(d)Increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
Ans: A
Exp:
38. Range of VDF depends on:
1. Line of sight formula
2. Power of transmitters
3. Intervening high ground.
What is the combination regrouping all the correct statements?
(a)1 and 2
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c)2
(d)1 and 3
Ans: B
Exp:
39. Use the 1 in 60 rule to determine the approximate height of an aircraft 3 nm from
touchdown on a 2.9° glide slope?
(a)880 ft
(b)765 ft
(c)825 ft
(d)840 ft
Ans: A
Exp:
40. What is the effect of multipath signals (coming from the same aircraft) at the
Ground VHF Direction Finder station?
(a)Regardless of the difference in distance travelled by these signals, it results in their
extinction of the signals at the Ground VHF Direction Finder station
(b)It reduces the range at which the Ground VHF Direction Finder station receives
signals from the aircraft
(c)It may result in an increase of the distance at which the Ground VHF Direction
Finder station receives signals from the aircraft, if the Ground Station is situated in
the skip zone
(d)They may result in bearing errors
Ans: D
Exp:
41. What is a limitation of MLS not equipped with DME/P?
(a)Provides basically the same approach capabilities as ILS.
(b)Provides the capability for CAT 3 approaches.
(c)Provides the capability for segmented approaches but not curved approaches.
(d)Provides the capability for curved approaches but not of segmented approaches.
Ans: A
Exp:
42. There are two NDBs, one 20 nm and the other 50 nm inland from the coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both
propagations, what can be said about the extent of the error in a position line plotted
by an aircraft that is over water?
(a)The same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and
270°
(b)The same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and
360°
(c)Greater from the beacon that is 50 nm inland
(d)Greater from the beacon that is 20 nm inland
Ans: C
Exp:
43. What are the MLS frequencies and available channels?
(a)In the VHF- and UHF band, 40 available channels
(b)In the SHF band for the MLS elements and the VHF band for the DME, 100
available channels
(c)In the SHF band, 300 kHz frequency separation giving 200 available channels
(d)In the range 5060 – 5090 MHz, 200 kHz separation giving 150 available channels
Ans: C
Exp:
44. On the RMI the tip of a VOR needle indicates 060. With the CRS set on 055 the
indications on the HSI are:
(a)TO, half scale deflection to the left
(b)FROM, half scale deflection to the right
(c)TO, half scale deflection to the right
(d)FROM, half scale deflection to the left
Ans: C
Exp:
45. When may garbling in mode A and C occur?
(a)With two or more aircraft in different directions from the ground station, at the
same altitude and a slant range of less than 1.7 nm
(b)When two or more aircraft are in approximately the same direction from the
ground station with a difference in slant range of more than 1.7 nm
(c)With two or more aircraft in different directions from the interrogator, at the
same altitude and a slant range of more than 1.7 nm
(d)When two or more aircraft are in approximately the same direction from the
interrogator with a difference in slant range of less than 1.7 nm
Ans: D
Exp:
46. What is the principle behind the windshear-warning capability of an Airborne
Weather Radar?
(a)The aircraft’s groundspeed is measured in the MAP mode and this is compared to
the airspeed
(b)The Doppler shift of detectable precipitation is measured
(c)The change in intensity of detectable precipitation is measured
(d)The Doppler shift of particles of dust, sand, and soot is measured
Ans: B
Exp:
47. Given : Aircraft position S52°09’ E024°, magnetic variation 14°W, FL 310. BIT
VOR/DME position S40°42’ E024°, magnetic variation 14°E. In order to read the most
accurate ground speed given by the DME receiver from the present position, what
magnetic track must be flown by the aircraft?
(a)0.14°
(b)346°
(c)194°
(d)166°
Ans: B
Exp:
48. What is the wavelength of a radio signal with a frequency of 121.50 MHz?
(a)24.70 m
(b)24.70 cm
(c)2.47 m
(d)2.47 cm
Ans: C
Exp:
49. Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with
the LAAS (Local Area Augmentation System) of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
(a)A LAAS cannot correct for satellite timing and orbital position error.
(b)A LAAS corrects the position of the aircraft by relaying the information via a geo-
stationary satellite.
(c)The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the aircraft position in
relation to the LAAS ground reference station.
(d)The closer the receiver is to a LAAS ground reference station, the more accurate is
the aircraft position fix.
Ans: D
Exp:
50. In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple
RNAV system, the VOR/DME:
(a)Has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
(b)Does not have to be in range when entered or used
(c)Does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
(d)Must be in range
Ans: C
Exp:
51. Why is the pencil shaped beam of airborne weather radar used in preference to
the mapping mode for the determination of ground features?
(a)Beyond 150 nm because the wider beam gives better definition
(b)Beyond 50 to 60 nm because more power can be concentrated in the narrower
beam
(c)When approaching coast-lines in polar regions
(d)Beyond 100 nm because insufficient antenna tilt angel is available with the
mapping mode
Ans: B
Exp:
52. Which ILS component uses the UHF band as its assigned frequency band?
(a)All 3 ILS marker beacons
(b)ILS localizer transmitter
(c)Outer marker beacon
(d)ILS glidepath transmitter
Ans: D
Exp:
53. How is the transmission of the glide slope beacon characterized?
(a)300 to 3,000 Hz Amplitude Modulation for the ATIS
(b)VHF frequency modulated with a 90 Hz AM and 150 Hz AM navigation signal
(c)UHF carrier frequency with a possible ‘voice ident’
(d)UHF frequency with a minimum range of 10 nm
Ans: D
Exp:
54. In an ILS, concerning the localizer principle of operation, which of the following is
correct regarding the difference in depth of modulation (DDM)?
(a)Decrease with displacement from the centerline
(b)Increase with displacement from the centerline
(c)Increase with left displacement from the centerline and decrease with right
displacement from the centerline
(d)Increase from center position to half full scale of the needle of the indicator and
decrease until full scale of the needle
Ans: B
Exp:
55. How can a DME interrogator distinguish between its own reply pulse-pairs and
the reply pulse-pairs of other aircraft in the area, using the same DME- station?
(a)The pulse repetition frequency of the pulse-pairs transmitted by the interrogator
varies, for each interrogator, in a unique rhythm
(b)On the Y-channel the time-interval between the pulses of an interrogator pulse-
pair is 36 msec and of a transponder pulse-pair 30 msec
(c)The DME-transponder uses a slightly different, randomly varying, delay for each
interrogating aircraft
(d)The time-interval between both pulses of consecutive pulse-pairs transmitted by
the interrogator varies, for each interrogator, in a unique pattern
Ans: A
Exp:
56. An aircraft is flying on a MH of 210°. Magnetic Variation at the VOR is 10°W and
at the aircraft 5°W. which RMI corresponds to the indications shown on the HSI ?

(a)Figure A
(b)Figure B
(c)Figure C
(d)Figure D
Ans: B
Exp:
57. In which phases of flight may RNAV 2 be used?
(a)In all phases of flight except final approach
(b)In en-route continental, arrival and departure phases of flight
(c)In all phases of flight
(d)Only in arrival and departure phases of flight
Ans: C
Exp:
58. Aircraft heading 160°M. The aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, The selected
course on the HSI is 250°. Where does the HSI deviation bar appear?
(a)Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
(b)Ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
(c)Behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
(d)Behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
Ans: C
Exp:
59. The reading of the RMI bearing is 300° at the tip of the needle. The magnetic
variation at the DR position is 24°W, the magnetic variation at the NDB is 22°W and
the deviation is -2°. The compass heading is 020°. What is the true bearing to the
NDB?
(a)094°
(b)294°
(c)272°
(d)274°
Ans: D
Exp:
60. How does a locator beacon differ from an NDB?
1. Presentation in the cockpit
2. Transmission power
3. Operational use
4. Frequency band
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)1 and 4
(d)3 and 4
Ans: B
Exp:
61. On which bearings do the errors caused by the shoreline/coastal effect reach
their maximum?
(a)Bearings 0° to 30° to the coastline
(b)Bearings perpendicular to the coastline
(c)Bearing 30° to 60° to the coastline
(d)Any bearing in the HF band
Ans: A
Exp:
62. What is the effect of FM broadcast stations that transmit on frequencies just
below 108 MHz on the performance of ILS.
(a)These transmissions may activate the FM immune filter which results in the
appearance of the localizer and glide path failure flag.
(b)These transmissions may interfere with the ILS localizer and glide path signals
which may lead to erroneous deviation indications.
(c)These transmissions may interfere with the ILS localizer signal which may lead to
errorneous localizer deviation indication.
(d)These transmissions may activate the FM immune filter which results in the
appearance of the localizer failure flag.
Ans: C
Exp:
63. Which of the following summaries lists only directional antennae?
(a)Sense antenna, parabolic antenna, slotted planar array antenna, helical antenna
(b)Dipole antenna, sense antenna, parabolic antenna, helical antenna
(c)Dipole antenna, loop antenna, parabolic antenna, slotted planar array antenna
(d)Loop antenna, parabolic antenna, slotted planar array antenna, helical antenna
Ans: D
Exp:
64. Given a wire fed with alternating current and a second wire parallel to, but
remote from it. The results will be:
(a)The first wire will radiate electromagnetic waves into space and direct current will
be induced in the second wire
(b)The first wire will radiate electromagnetic waves into space and the second wire
will double the transmission power of the first one
(c)The first wire will radiate electromagnetic waves into space but the transmitted
energy will be completely absorbed by the second wire
(d)The first wire will radiate electromagnetic waves into space and alternating
current will be induced in the second wire.
Ans: D
Exp:
65. A radio signal may be classified by three symbols in accordance with the ITU radio
regulation e.g. A1A. which statement is true?
(a)The three symbols together indicate which device is transmitting on the carrier.
(b)The third symbol indicates the nature of the signal modulating the main carrier.
(c)The first symbol indicates the type of modulation of the main carrier.
(d)The second symbol indicates the nature of information to be transmitted.
Ans: C
Exp:
66. An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given: Compass heading
270° At the aircraft the deviation = 2°W and the variation = 30°E. at the station the
variation = 28°E, What is the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft?
(a)074°
(b)252°
(c)254°
(d)072°
Ans: C
Exp:
67. A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying
away from the beacons on a radial of 090° through an area where magnetic variation
is changing rapidly. Which statement is correct?
(a)Both VOR and ADF needles move
(b)The ADF needle moves, the VOR needle does not
(c)The VOR needle moves, the ADF needle does not
(d)Neither the VOR or the NDB needles move
Ans: B
Exp:
68. A VOR and an NDB are located in the same position. Both the VOR and the ADF
readings are displayed on the RMI. The aircraft is tracking away from the beacons
along the 090 radial, where the magnetic variation is changing rapidly. Which of the
following is correct?
(a)The direction of the ADF pointer will change, the direction of the VOR pointer will
not change
(b)Neither the direction of the ADF pointer nor the direction of the VOR pointer will
change
(c)The direction of the VOR pointer will change, the direction of the ADF pointer will
not change
(d)Both the direction of the ADF pointer and the direction of the VOR pointer will
change
Ans: A
Exp:
69. A VOR and an NDB are co-located. You cross the VOR radial of 160° on a heading
of 220°(M). in the vicinity of the station you should read a relative bearing on the
ADF Relative Bearing Indicator of:
(a)200°
(b)120°
(c)340°
(d)020°
Ans: B
Exp:
70. Given: W/V (T) 295°/20 kt, Variation 6°E, TAS 80 kt. What relative bearing should
be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from a NDB?
(a)172°
(b)008°
(c)188°
(d)352°
Ans: A
Exp:
71. Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in
:
(a)Lower TAS because air density decreases.
(b)Higher TAS because air density decreases.
(c)Higher TAS because air density increases.
(d)Lower TAS because air density increases
Ans: D
Exp:
72. An aeroplane is cruising at FL60 with TAS of 100 knots in standard atmosphere. In
these conditions :
1. The TAS is approximately 10% higher than the IAS.
 2. The difference between EAS and CAS is negligible.
3. The speed displayed on the airspeed indicator is a CAS if position error and
instrument error are zero.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
(a)11, 2.
(b)2, 3.
(c)1, 2, 3.
(d)1, 3.
Ans: C
Exp:
73. With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always
takes off at the same?
(a)Calibrated airspeed.
(b)Ground speed.
(c)True airspeed.
(d)Equivalent airspeed
Ans: A
Exp:
74. The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in ?
(a)True airspeed (TAS).
(b)Computed airspeed (COAS).
(c)Calibrated airspeed (CAS).
(d)Equivalent airspeed (EAS).
Ans: C
Exp:
75. The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white
hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the ?
(a)Speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box, versus temperature.
(b)Speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box versus altitude.
(c)Maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude.
(d)Maximum speed in VMO operation. Versus temperature.
Ans: C
Exp:
76. An aeroplane is in steady descent below the tropopause in the ISA. The auto-
throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains
constant, he Mach number?
(a)Increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature,
decreases if higher.
(b)Decreases.
(c)Increases.
(d)Remains constant.
Ans: B
Exp:
77. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the ?
(a)Time passed a given altitude.
(b)Mach number of the aircraft.
(c)Aircraft altitude.
(d)Static temperature.
Ans: A
Exp:
78. At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated
must not exceed?
(a)+/- 60 fee.
(b)+/- 75 feet.
(c)+/- 30 feet.
(d)+/- 70 feet.
Ans: C
Exp:
79. The altitude indicated on board and aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is?
(a)Equal to the standard altitude.
(b)Lower than the real altitude. The same as the real altitude.
(c)The same as the real altitude.
(d)Higher than the real altitude.
Ans: D
Exp:
80. What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a
static vent at each side of the fuselage, but the left one is blocked?
(a)Over read.
(b)Under read.
(c)No change.
(d)Depends on altitude.
Ans: B
Exp:
81. What will be the effect if the drain hole and pitot tapping in a pitot probe are
blocked, whilst the static source remains open ?
(a)The ASI will respond to changes in pressure altitude only.
(b)The ASI will not respond.
(c)The ASI will under read at all speeds.
(d)The ASI will over read when accelerating, decelerating, climbing or descending.
Ans: A
Exp:
82. When descending through an inversion at constant TAS?
(a)Mach number increases.
(b)Mach number decreases.
(c)Mach number remains constant.
(d)CAS decreases.
Ans: A
Exp:
83. When turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic
artificial horizon indicate?
(a)Too much nose up and too little bank angle.
(b)Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
(c)Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
(d)Too little nose up and too much bank angle.
Ans: B
Exp:
84. The latitude nut ……… an artificial horizon?
(a)Compensates for transport error.
(b)Is not fitted to.
(c)Compensates for latitude error.
(d)Compensates for earth rate errors.
Ans: B
Exp:
85. The aural alert associated with the mode 4 (unsafe terrain clearance while not in
the landing configuration) of the GPWS is :
(a)TOO LOW “CHECK FLAPS” “CHECK GEAR”
(b)TOO LOW FLAPS “TOO LOW GEAR” “GLIDE SLOPE”
(c)TOO LOW, TERRAIN only.
(d)TOO LOW GAR “TOO LOW FLAPS” “TOO LOW TERRAIN”
Ans: D
Exp:
86. The EGPWS:
(a)Is an enhanced GPWS, which warn the crew if the aircraft is not in the appropriate
configuration for take – off.
(b)Is an enhanced GPWS, which is able to provide resolution advisories in the lateral
plane.
(c)Is an enhanced GPWS, which has its own world terrain database.
(d)Has nothing to do with GPWS.
Ans: C
Exp:
87. Concerning the directional gyro, the apparent drift rate due to the Earth’s
rotation is a function of :
(a)Longitude.
(b)Latitude and longitude.
(c)Magnetic longitude.
(d)Latitude.
Ans: D
Exp:
88. The indications of the directional gyro when used as an on-board instrument are
valid only for a short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are ?
 a. The earth’s rotation.
b. The longitudinal acceleration.
c. The aircraft’s motion over the surface of the earth.
d. The mechanical defects of the gyro.
e. The gyro’s weight.
f. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings.
The combination of correct statements is?
(a)1, 3, 4.
(b)1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
(c)2, 5, 6.
(d)1, 3, 4, 6.
Ans: D
Exp:
89. The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors,
due to :
1. Rotation of Earth.
2. Aeroplane motion on Earth.
3. Lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4. North change.
5. Mechanical defects.
Chose the combination with true statements only?
(a)2, 3, 5.
(b)1, 2, 3, 5.
(c)3, 4, 5.
(d)1, 2, 4, 5.
Ans: B
Exp:
90. When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle and ball indicator are on the right,
the aircraft is?
(a)Turning left with too much bank.
(b)Turning left with not enough bank.
(c)Turning right with too much bank.
(d)Turning right with not enough bank.
Ans: C
Exp:
91. The combination of factors that most requires a low-angled flap setting for take-
off is:
(a)High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature
and short runway
(b)Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a
high ambient temperature
(c)High field elevation, distance obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a
high ambient temperature
(d)Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low
ambient temperature
Ans: C
Exp:
92. The relationship of the reference landing speed (VREF) to the reference stalling
speed in the landing configuration (VSRO) is that VREF may not be below:
(a)1.23 Vsro
(b)1.32 Vsro
(c)Vsro
(d)1.1 Vsro
Ans: A
Exp:
93. Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows:
Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine, g = 10 m/s2, Drag = 75 569 N, Minimum gross
gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7% sin (Angle of climb) = (Thrust – Drag) / Weight. What is
the maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions?
(a)74 064 kg
(b)101 596 kg
(c)209 064 kg
(d)286 781 kg
Ans: B
Exp:
94. If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new
crossover altitude will be
(a)Higher
(b)Lower
(c)Only affected by the aeroplane gross mass
(d)Unchanged
Ans: B
Exp:
95. If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet
runway; the landing distance must be increased by:
(a)15%
(b)5%
(c)10%
(d)20%
Ans: A
Exp:
96. The best climb performance is usually obtained with high power setting and
which of the following?
(a)High flap setting, and high aeroplane mass
(b)Low flap setting, and low aeroplane mass
(c)High flap setting, and low aeroplane mass
(d)Low flap setting, and high aeroplane mass
Ans: B
Exp:
97. To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
(a)Postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists
(b)Use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique
(c)Make a “positive” landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as
quickly as possible
(d)Use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning
speed
Ans: C
Exp:
98. With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is
correct?
(a)An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because
optimum altitude increases continuously during flight
(b)An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically
seen as the most attractive altitude
(c)An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might
occur
(d)An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this
yields the most economic result
Ans: A
Exp:
99. Given:
TORA: 3,380 m
Clearway: 780 m
Stopway: 1,250 m
What is the TODA if the pilot wants to calculate the RLLTOM (Runway Length Limited
Take-Off Mass) for an unbalanced field?
(a)3,770 m
(b)5,410 m
(c)4,160 m
(d)4,630 m
Ans: C
Exp:
100. On a twin engine piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass
and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel
burn per hour) is 95 kt. At what speed will the best rate of climb speed be obtained?
(a)Less than 95 kt
(b)Equal to 95 kt
(c)Equal to 125 kt
(d)Between 95 kt and 125 kt
Ans: D
Exp: