Solution Manual For Cell and Molecular Biology 8th Edition Gerald Karp Janet Iwasa Wallace Marshall

Solution Manual for Cell and Molecular Biology, 8th Edition, Gerald Karp, Janet Iwasa, Walla
Solution Manual for Cell and Molecular Biology, 8th

Edition, Gerald Karp, Janet Iwasa, Wallace Marshall
To download the complete and accurate content document, go to:

https://testbankbell.com/download/solution-manual-for-cell-and-molecular-biology-8th-
edition-gerald-karp-janet-iwasa-wallace-marshall/
Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

Package Title: Test Bank
Course Title: Karp 8e
Chapter Number: 11
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) Who was the first to report that certain rare inherited diseases were caused by the absence of
specific enzymes?
a) Charles Darwin
b) Archibald Garrod
c) George Beadle
d) Vernon Ingram
e) James Watson
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.1 Describe the flow of information in a cell from DNA to RNA to
protein. Section Reference: Section 11.1 The Relationship Between Genes, Proteins, and RNAs
2) Alcaptonuria is a genetic disease that is characterized by _________.
a) urine turning dark upon exposure to the air

b) mental retardation
c) paralysis
d) urine smelling and tasting like maple syrup
e) high fevers
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
3) An alcaptonuric lacks the enzyme that oxidizes what metabolite?
a) phenylalanine
b) tyrosine
c) homogentisic acid
d) asparagine
e) pantothenic acid
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
4) What did Archibald Garrod call diseases like alcaptonuria?
a) deadly diseases
b) inborn errors of transcription
c) homogentisms
d) errors
e) inborn errors of metabolism
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
5) What did Beadle and Tatum use to generate mutations in their experimental organism?
a) mustard gas
b) irradiation with ultraviolet light
c) fluorescent dyes
d) ethidium bromide
e) Coomassie blue
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
6) Beadle and Tatum's research suggested that __________.
a) a gene carries the information to build lipids

b) a gene carries the information to build carbohydrates
c) a gene carries the information for the construction of a particular enzyme
d) a gene is made of RNA
e) a gene is made of DNA
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
7) What was the new name of Beadle and Tatum's hypothesis after it was discovered that some
enzymes were composed of more than one polypeptide chain?
a) the One Gene – One Enzyme hypothesis

b) the One Gene – One Polypeptide hypothesis
c) the One Polypeptide – One Enzyme hypothesis
d) the One Polypeptide – One Gene hypothesis
e) the One Gene – Two Gene hypothesis
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
8) Why has the One Gene – One Polypeptide hypothesis had to be modified?
a) It was totally wrong.

b) Genes can be spliced differently to generate a variety of related polypeptides.
c) Enzymes sometimes consist of more than one polypeptide, each of which is coded for by its
own gene.
d) Enzymes actually code for genes.
e) Polypeptides code for genes.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
9) A sense RNA for a particular targeted protein is ___________.
a) an RNA having a sequence complementary to the mRNA of the targeted protein

b) an RNA having the sequence of the mRNA that encoded the protein being targeted
c) a small RNA with a clover shape
d) an RNA with catalytic activity
e) an RNA generally found in ribosomes that forges the peptide bond
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
10) The enzyme in eukaryotes that is responsible for the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
is called _______.
a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

b) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
c) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
d) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
e) ribonuclease
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.2 Describe the actions of RNA polymerase in transcription. Section
Reference: Section 11.2 The Role of RNA Polymerases in Transcription
11) In what direction is mRNA produced?
a) 3' to 5' direction

b) 5' to 3' direction
c) N-terminal to C-terminal direction
d) C-terminal to N-terminal direction
e) N-terminal to 3' direction
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
12) The site on DNA to which RNA polymerases bind before initiating transcription is called the
______.
a) terminator
b) operator
c) promoter
d) enhancer
e) silencer
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
13) What provides the energy that drives the polymerization of RNA from a DNA template?
a) nitrogenous bases
b) deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs)
c) ribonucleoside triphosphates (NTPs)
d) ribose sugars
e) ribosomes
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
14) The reverse reaction of nucleic acid synthesis almost never happens. What prevents it?
a) The enzyme does not work in reverse.

b) Polynucleotides are too stable to depolymerize.
c) H bonds holding the strands together are too strong.
d) Nucleic acid synthesis is coupled to the highly exergonic pyrophosphate hydrolysis.
e) There is a large uptake of free energy.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
15) While RNA polymerase is a processive enzyme that remains attached to the DNA over long
stretches of template, it must be associated _______ enough so that it can move from nucleotide
to nucleotide along the template.
a) tightly
b) loosely
c) angularly
d) rapidly
e) linearly
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
16) Once the  factor leaves the core enzyme, what happens?
a) Transcription begins.
b) The core enzyme continues synthesis.
c) The core enzyme discontinues synthesis.
d) Transcription terminates.
e) The core enzyme backs up 25 nucleotides.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 11.3 Compare and contrast the process of transcription in prokaryotic
cells and in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference: Section 11.3 An Overview of Transcription in
Both Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
17) The nucleotide at which transcription is initiated is called _____.
a) 0
b) +1
c) –1
d) +2
e) –2
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
18) Sequences of DNA that are similar, seemingly conserved and seen in association with genes
in roughly the same location from gene to gene in bacteria are called ________. They are
generally the most common version of such a conserved DNA sequence, but some variation in
the sequence can occur from one gene to another.
a) familiar sequences
b) conserved sequences
c) consensus sequences
d) avatars
e) consensons
Answer: c
Difficulty: EasyLearning Objective: LO 11.3 Compare and contrast the process of transcription in
prokaryotic cells and in eukaryotic cells. Section Reference: Section 11.3 An Overview of
Transcription in Both Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
19) The _______ is located about 10 bases upstream from the initiation site. It has the
consensus sequence ______ and is responsible for identifying the precise nucleotide at which
________ begins.
a) Pribnow box, TATAAT, transcription

b) Pribnow box, TTGACA, transcription
c) Pribnow box, TATAAT, translation
d) Portnoy box, TATAAT, transcription
e) Portnoy box, TATAAT, translation
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
20) Once bound to the promoter, RNA polymerase ________.
a) breaks the DNA chain in the start site region

b) melts the two DNA strands in the start site region
c) degrades the two DNA strands in the start site region
d) melts the two DNA strands in the termination site region
e) chemically alters the DNA template
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
21) The corresponding segment of DNA from which the primary transcript is transcribed is
called a _____.
a) sedimentation unit
b) transcription unit
c) translation unit
d) coding unit
e) transcriptosome
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
22) What percentage of cellular RNA is rRNA?
a) less than 20%

b) more than 90%
c) more than 80%
d) exactly 75%
e) 36.5%
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.4 Describe the processing of ribosomal and transfer RNA molecules.
Section Reference: Section 11.4 Synthesis and Processing of Eukaryotic Ribosomal and Transfer
RNAs
23) Most of the cellular RNA is in what form?
a) hnRNAs
b) snoRNAs
c) mRNAs
d) rRNAs
e) hmRNAs
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
RNAs
24) The snoRNA genes are found in the ______ of genes coding for polypeptides involved in
_______.
a) exons, structural genes

b) introns, ribosome assembly and function
c) exons, ribosome assembly and function
d) introns, structural genes
e) introns, RNA synthesis
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
25) What kind of DNA is the DNA that codes for rRNA?
a) highly repetitive DNA

b) moderately repetitive DNA
c) unique sequence DNA
d) single copy DNA
e) single-stranded DNA
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
26) The chromosome regions containing rDNA are located in.
a) terminators
b) nucleoli
c) nucleosomes
d) ribostores
e) telomeres
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
RNAs
27) You are looking at an electron micrograph of several transcriptional units for rRNA. How
can you tell where the transcription initiation site is?
a) It is near the longest nascent transcripts.

b) It is near the middle of the Christmas tree.
c) It is near the shortest nascent transcripts.
d) It is always 40 µm from the center of the Christmas tree.
e) It is near the centromere.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
28) The naked regions seen on the DNA fiber between transcriptional units are called ________.
a) spacelies
b) nontranscribed spacers
c) nontranslated spacers
d) untranslated spacers
e) naked genes
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
29) A larger S value for an RNA specifically indicates that the RNA __________.
a) migrates more rapidly through a field of force during centrifugation

b) migrates less rapidly through a field of force during centrifugation
c) migrates more rapidly through a field of force during gel filtration
d) migrates more rapidly through a field of force during SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
e) migrates less rapidly through a field of force during SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
30) What features set pre-rRNAs apart from other RNA transcripts?
a) pseudouridine residues and thymidine residues

b) thymidine residues and methylated nucleotides
c) pseudouridine residues and methylated nucleotides
d) pseudouridines and pseudocytosines
e) methylated nucleotides and pseudocytosines
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
31) Modifications to the nucleotides of pre-rRNAs are made _________?
a) posttranslationally
b) pretranscriptionally
c) posttranscriptionally
d) postmitotically
e) premitotically
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
RNAs
32) Evidence of the importance of the conversion of uridine to pseudouridine comes from a rare,
fatal disease in which the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion is mutated. Symptoms of the
disease are skin abnormalities, bone marrow failure and elevated susceptibility to cancer. The
name of the disease is _________.
a) dysplasia
b) keratinosis
c) dyskeratosis
d) lupus erythematosus
e) dyspareunia
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
RNAs
33) In mammalian cells, radiolabeled methyl groups appear first in what size RNA molecule that
is a precursor to rRNA?
a) 45S RNA
b) 28S RNA
c) 18S RNA
d) 5.8S RNA
e) 65S RNA
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
RNAs
34) What is the name of the RNA-degrading machine that consists of nearly a dozen different
exonucleases and is thought to execute some of the enzymatic cleavages that occur during
pre-rRNA processing?
a) endosome
b) exosome
c) nucleosome
d) heliosome
e) degradosome
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
RNAs
35) Where are the snoRNAs encoded?
a) within their own genes

b) within the exons of other genes
c) within the telomeres
d) within the intervening sequences of other genes
e) within the intervening sequences of their own genes
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
36) How would you describe the arrangement of the 5S rRNA genes?
a) tandem array with spacers

b) continuous genes
c) tandem array without spacers
d) 4 introns between each protein
e) quartile array with duplex spacers
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
37) A cluster of genes coding for tRNAs is often referred to as ______.
a) tDNA
b) transferase
c) rDNA
d) t clusters
e) tDNase
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
RNAs
38) The promoter for tRNA genes (tDNA) is located ________.
a) at the gene's 3' end

b) within the coding section of the gene rather than in the 5' flank
c) at the 5' end of the gene
d) far downstream of the gene
e) far upstream of the gene
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
RNAs
39) You incubate eukaryotic cells for 30 minutes in 3H-uridine and then immediately kill the
cells and extract the RNA. Where does the radiolabel appear after this experiment?
a) in larger RNAs in the cytoplasm

b) in smaller RNAs in the mitochondria
c) in smaller RNAs in the cytoplasm
d) in larger RNAs in the mitochondria
e) in moderately sized RNAs in the Golgi complex
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 11.5 Describe the steps in assembly and the characteristics of eukaryotic
mRNA. Section Reference: Section 11.5 Assembly Apparatus and Structure of Eukaryotic
Messenger RNAs
40) Heterogeneous nuclear RNAs are _________.
a) tRNA precursors
b) mRNA precursors
c) rRNA precursors
d) snoRNA precursors
e) mature snRNAs
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
41) How would you describe the half-lives of rRNAs and tRNAs?
a) days or weeks long

b) minutes long
c) seconds long
d) hours long
e) years long
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
42) What is responsible for synthesizing hnRNAs?
a) RNA polymerase I
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase III
d) reverse transcriptase
e) general transcription factors
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
43) RNA polymerase II promoters are located on the ____ side of each transcription unit.
a) 3'
b) 5'
c) N-terminal
d) C-terminal
e) internal
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
44) Why are general transcription factors (GTFs) referred to as "general?"
a) The same transcription factors are required for the accurate initiation of transcription of a
diverse array of genes in a wide variety of different organisms.
b) The same transcription factors are required for the accurate initiation of translation of a
c) The same transcription factors are required for the accurate termination of transcription of a
d) The same transcription factors are required for the accurate termination of translation of a
e) They are called "general" because they outrank "major."
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
45) What molecule is TFIIH known to phosphorylate?
a) a G protein
b) RNA polymerase II
c) RNA polymerase IV
d) peptidyltransferase
e) DNA helicase
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
46) Where is the RNA polymerase II phosphorylated during its activation?
a) on the N-terminal end of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit

b) on the central 20 amino acids of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit
c) on the 3' end of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit
d) on the 5' end of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit
e) in the carboxyl-terminal domain (CTD) of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
47) Which of the following is not a normal property of eukaryotic mRNAs?
a) They contain a continuous nucleotide sequence encoding a specific polypeptide.

b) They are found in the cytoplasm and inside the Golgi complex.
c) They are attached to ribosomes when they are translated.
d) Most have a significant noncoding segment that does not direct assembly of amino acids.
e) Eukaryotic mRNAs have special modifications at their 5' and 3' termini.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
48) The 3' end of most eukaryotic mRNAs contains a ______, while the 5' end has a _________.
a) poly(A) tail, methylated guanosine cap

b) poly(U) tail, methylated guanosine cap
c) methylated guanosine cap, poly(A) tail
d) poly(A) tail, sulfonated guanosine cap
e) methylated guanosine cap, poly(U) tail
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
49) Which of the following binds to the TATA box?

a) CTD
b) tRNA
c) corticosteroid binding protein
d) TBP
e) PBT
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Messenger RNAs
50) The intermediate stage that the group II introns pass through while undergoing self-splicing
is called the _____.
a) langolier
b) lanyard
c) lariat
d) lasso
e) elsesser
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.7 Explain the steps in processing of eukaryotic messenger RNA.
Section Reference: Section 11.7 The Processing of Eukaryotic Messenger RNAs
51) The macromolecular complex that associates with each intron and splices it is called a(n)
_____.
a) splicer
b) acrosome
c) spliceosome
d) splicing body
e) splice engine
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.7 Explain the steps in processing of eukaryotic messenger RNA.
Section Reference: Section 11.7 The Processing of Eukaryotic Messenger RNAs
52) As life was first evolving, what molecule is thought to have performed double duty as the
genetic material and performing catalysis of chemical reactions?
a) RNA
b) proteins
c) polypeptides
d) DNA
e) both proteins and polypeptides
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.8 Explain the processes of alternative splicing and exon shuffling.
Section Reference: Section 11.8 Evolutionary Implications of Split Genes and RNA Splicing
53) Which of the phenomena below is responsible for the ability of one gene to code for more
than one polypeptide?
a) transcription
b) alternative splicing
c) transposition
d) hybridization
e) exon shuffling
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.8 Explain the processes of alternative splicing and exon shuffling.
Section Reference: Section 11.8 Evolutionary Implications of Split Genes and RNA Splicing
54) RNA interference can be used to _____ the production of a particular enzyme so that the
effect of the enzyme _______ on the organism's _________ can be determined.
a) stop, deficiency, phenotype

b) enhance, deficiency, phenotype
c) stop, deficiency, genotype
d) enhance, overexpression, phenotype
e) stop, overexpression, genotype
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 11.10 Explain the role of RNA interference in the regulation of gene
expression. Section Reference: Section 11.10 RNA Interference
55) RNAi or dsRNA-mediated RNA interference is an example of a broader phenomenon that

occurs widely in eukaryotes called __________.
a) RNA activation
b) RNA ascension
c) RNA silencing
d) RNA sussuration
e) RNA quieting
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
56) Why does it make sense that cells would be able to recognize dsRNAs as undesirable using a
mechanism such as RNAi?
a) dsRNAs are not produced by the cell's normal genetic activities.

b) dsRNAs are produced by the cell's normal genetic activities.
c) dsRNAs adversely affect mitochondria.
d) dsRNAs could cause degradation of nuclear DNA.
e) dsRNAs have a very abnormal interaction with proteins.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
57) What is the name of the enzyme that cleaves dsRNA into the small, double-stranded
fragments known as small-interfering RNAs (siRNAs)?
a) riboendonuclease
b) Dicer ribonuclease
c) deoxyribonuclease
d) RNA helicase
e) reverse transcriptase
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
58) What appears to be the role of siRNA in destroying the target mRNA upon which it and its
associated proteins act?
a) It cleaves the target mRNA.

b) It stabilizes the target mRNA.
c) It destabilizes the target mRNA's binding to its associated proteins.
d) It guides the RISC that cleaves the target mRNA to that target mRNA due to its
complementarity to that molecule.
e) It activates the RISC complex ribonuclease.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
59) Which strand of the double-stranded siRNA is cut in two and then dissociates from the
pre-RISC?
a) the active strand

b) the passenger strand
c) the siRNA strand
d) the pedestrian strand
e) the silencer strand
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
60) How is the RISC directed to the target mRNA that it is destined to destroy?
a) The ribonuclease slicer directs the RISC to the cleavage site.

b) The single-stranded siRNA is complementary to the target mRNA and directs the RISC to it.
c) The passenger strand acts like a guide to direct the RISC to the target.
d) The siRNA is complementary to the slicer ribonuclease.
e) The siRNA is magnetically attracted to the target mRNA.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
61) It is generally accepted that vertebrates do not utilize RNAi as a defense against viruses for
what reason?
1) Vertebrates have no serious viral infections.
2) Vertebrate cell membranes resist viral attachment.
3) Vertebrate cell walls resist viral attachment.
4) Vertebrates rely instead on a well-developed immune system.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 2 and 3
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
62) Mammalian oocytes have recently been shown to produce siRNAs. What are they called?
a) exo-siRNAs
b) endo-siRNAs
c) endoRNAs
d) mamma-siRNAs
e) oo-siRNAs
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
63) What is the presumed function of the siRNAs produced by mammalian oocytes?
a) They aid in fertilization.

b) They may be the mechanism of defense against the movement of transposable elements in the
female germ cell line.
c) They may be the mechanism of defense against the movement of chromosomes in the female
germ cell line.
d) They play a role in the regulation of meiosis.
e) They play a role in the regulation of oogenesis.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
64) A small RNA encoded by the lin-4 gene was found in the nematode C. elegans. It was
nearly complementary to segments in ________. These small RNAs were able to bind to the
complementary mRNA blocking its translation, which apparently triggers a transition to the next
developmental stage.
a) the 3' untranslated region of specific mRNAs produced by the organism

b) the 5' untranslated region of specific mRNAs produced by the organism
c) the promoter of specific genes
d) the poly(A) tail of specific mRNAs
e) the 5'-methylguanosine cap of the mRNA
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 11.12 Contrast the roles of miRNAs and piRNAs. Section Reference:
Section 11.12 Small RNAs: miRNAs and piRNAs
65) A pri-mRNA is cleaved within the nucleus by an enzyme called _______ into a shorter,
double-stranded, hairpin-shaped precursor called a ________.
a) Drosha, pre-miRNA
b) Drosha, pri-miRNA
c) Dicer, pre-miRNA
d) Dicer, pri-miRNA
e) Slicer, pre-miRNA
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
66) Where is the pre-miRNA converted to miRNA by Dicer?
a) the nucleus
b) the cytoplasm
c) the mitochondria
d) the plasma membrane
e) the lysosome
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
67) With what protein does the double-stranded miRNA become associated? The RNA duplex
then is disassembled and one of the single strands is incorporated into a RISC complex.
a) slicer
b) Mincer
c) an Argonaute protein
d) riscin
e) ribonuclease
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
68) Which enzyme, also responsible for siRNA formation, carves miRNAs from their
double-stranded, fold-back RNA precursor (pre-miRNA)?
a) RNA polymerase
b) reverse transcriptase
c) Dicer ribonuclease
d) DNA polymerase
e) Mincer ribonuclease
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
69) What are the differences between piRNAs on the one hand and si/miRNAs on the other
hand?
a) piRNAs are longer than si/miRNAs.

b) The majority of mammalian piRNAs can be mapped to a small number of huge genomic loci,
unlike si/mi RNAs.
c) The formation of piRNAs does not involve the formation of dsRNA precursors, unlike si/mi
RNAs.
d) Formation of piRNAs does not involve cleavage by Dicer ribonuclease, but instead it depends
on the endonuclease activity of the PIWI protein acting on a long, single stranded primary
transcript.
e) All of these are correct.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
70) The CRISPR-cas9 system uses ___ as a template to locate and cleave ____ targets.
a) siRNA, DNA
b) siRNA, RNA
c) dsDNA, RNA
d) sgRNA, RNA
e) sgRNA, DNA
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.13 Describe the transcriptome and its relationship to noncoding RNAs.
Section Reference: Section 11.13 CRISPR and other Noncoding RNAs
71) Which of the following is not a potential application of the CRISPR-cas9 system?
a) DNA insertions
b) DNA deletions
c) chromosome rearrangements
d) RNA interference
e) genome editing
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
72) You travel to another planet and discover that its genetic system is based on DNA, but it has
6 bases instead of 4 as happens on Earth. The proteins on the planet have 30 amino acids.
What would be the likely number of letters in each codon on this planet?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 6
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 11.14 Explain how the redundancy of the genetic code can provide
protection from mutation. Section Reference: Section 11.14 Encoding Genetic Information
73) What evidence shows that the genetic code is not overlapping?
a) Mutant proteins whose genes experience a change in only one nucleotide, have a
corresponding change in 3 consecutive amino acids.
b) Mutant proteins whose genes experience a change in only one nucleotide, have a
corresponding change in only 1 amino acid.
c) Mutant proteins are greatly increased in length relative to the gene coding for them.
d) Mutant proteins are greatly decreased in length relative to the gene coding for them.
e) Mutant proteins whose genes experience a change in only one nucleotide, have a
corresponding change in 6 consecutive amino acids.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
74) The genetic code has 64 codons, while there are only 20 amino acids. Thus, some amino
acids are coded for by more than one codon. As a result, the genetic code is said to be
________.
a) regenerate
b) degenerate
c) overlapping
d) nonoverlapping
e) nonspecific
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
75) If there were one tRNA for every codon that codes for an amino acid, how many different
tRNAs should there be?
a) 20
b) 3
c) 64
d) 61
e) 21
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
76) What is the maximum number of tRNAs that a cell would be likely to have?
a) 20
b) 3
c) 64
d) 61
e) 21
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
77) Before the genetic code was actually known, Francis Crick predicted that it was degenerate.
What piece of evidence led him to make this prediction?
a) All proteins looked the same.

b) All proteins were made of amino acids.
c) He noted that the base composition of the DNAs of various bacteria varied greatly while the
amino acid composition of their proteins varied very little overall.
d) He noted that the base composition of the DNAs of various bacteria varied little while the
amino acid composition of their proteins varied greatly overall.
e) The code was non-overlapping.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
78) What is meant by referring to the genetic code as universal?
a) The genetic code is the same everywhere in the Universe.

b) All of the organisms on Earth use the same genetic code with only minor variations.
c) The genetic code is found in all organisms but varies extensively.
d) The genetic code is minimal.
e) The genetic code is multiphasic.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
79) Another name for protein synthesis is _________.
a) transcription
b) transition
c) transubstantiation
d) translation
e) transition state
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.15 Describe the role of transfer RNAs in protein synthesis. Section
Reference: Section 11.15 Decoding the Codons: The Role of Transfer RNAs
80) Where are the unusual bases of tRNAs predominantly concentrated?
a) in the stems
b) in the loops
c) at the 3' end
d) at the 5' end
e) in double-stranded regions
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
81) What is the supposed function of the loops in tRNAs?

a) They bind to amino acids.
b) They bind to other tRNAs.
c) They bind to mRNAs.
d) They serve as potential recognition sites for various proteins.
e) They increase the buoyant density of tRNAs.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
82) How do the unusual bases of the loops in tRNA influence tRNA structure?
a) They disrupt H bond formation in the loop regions causing the loops to form.
b) They bind to proteins that hold the loops open.
c) They disrupt hydrophobic interactions in the loop regions causing the loops to form.
d) They prevent van der Waals interactions which prevents loop formation.
e) They disrupt H bond formation which causes complementary pairing in the stem regions.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
83) A tRNA has an anticodon with the sequence 3'-UAC-5'. What would be the sequence of
the complementary codon? For the moment do not consider the wobble hypothesis.
a) 3'-UAC-5'
b) 3'-AUG-5'
c) 5'-AUG-3'
d) 5'-AUC-3'
e) 5'-ATG-3'
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
84) The greatest similarities among codons that specify the same amino acid occur _________.
a) in the first two nucleotides of the triplet

b) in the last two nucleotides of the triplet
c) in the first and third nucleotides of the triplet
d) in the third nucleotide of the triplet
e) in the middle nucleotide of the triplet
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
85) The greatest variability among codons that specify the same amino acid occurs _________.
a) in the first two nucleotides of the triplet

b) in the last two nucleotides of the triplet
c) in the first and third nucleotides of the triplet
d) in the third nucleotide of the triplet
e) in the middle nucleotide of the triplet
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
86) What is the significance of the variability of the third nucleotide in a codon?
a) Each tRNA can recognize and bind its own codon.

b) Each tRNA can recognize and bind its own amino acid.
c) The same tRNA can recognize more than one codon.
d) The same tRNA can recognize more than one anticodon.
e) The same anticodon can recognize more than one amino acid.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
87) Based on the interchangeability of the nucleotide at the third position, Francis Crick
proposed that the same tRNA may be able to recognize more than one tRNA. What was his
proposal called?
a) the tRNA theory

b) the wobble hypothesis
c) the steric hindrance hypothesis
d) the chemiosmotic hypothesis
e) the endosymbiotic hypothesis
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
88) What enzyme is responsible for covalently linking amino acids to the 3'-end of the cognate
tRNA?
a) peptidyltransferase
b) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
c) glutamine synthetase
d) RNA polymerase
e) ATP synthase
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
89) Why does the isoleucyl-tRNA synthetase use two types of proofreading mechanisms to
ensure its accurate aminoacylation?
a) It is not a very precise enzyme.

b) It is a very big enzyme.
c) Isoleucine is very hard to distinguish from valine, since they differ only by a single methylene
group.
d) Isoleucine is very difficult to distinguish from glycine.
e) Isoleucine can spontaneously turn into phenylalanine.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
90) Which of the following is not required for protein synthesis?
a) All of the various tRNAs with their attached amino acids

b) Ribosomes
c) mRNA
d) anions
e) GTP
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: LO 11.16 List the steps of initiation of translation in prokaryotes and in
eukaryotes, explaining the role of the ribosome. Section Reference: Section 11.16 Translating
Genetic Information: Initiation
91) What are the three distinct activities of protein synthesis in the correct order?
a) initiation, elongation, termination

b) termination, initiation, elongation
c) initiation, termination, elongation
d) elongation, initiation, termination
e) elongation, termination, initiation
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
92) Which codon below usually serves as the initiation codon?
a) 5'-AUG-3'
b) 5'-GUG-3'
c) 3'-AUG-5'
d) 3'-GUG-3'
e) 3'-UAC-5'
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
93) What is the name of the nucleotide sequence that helps the 30S ribosomal subunit find the
initiation codon on bacterial mRNAs?
a) the Watson-Crick sequence

b) the Hershey-Chase sequence
c) the Hatch-Slack sequence
d) the Shine-Dalgarno sequence
e) the Franklin sequence
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
94) Which bacterial initiation factor facilitates attachment of the 30S subunit to the mRNA and
may prevent the aminoacyl-tRNA from entering the wrong site on the ribosome?
a) IF2
b) IF1
c) IF3
d) eIF2
e) IF4
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
95) What is always the first amino acid incorporated at the N-terminus of a nascent polypeptide
chain?
a) cysteine
b) cystine
c) methionine
d) asparagine
e) glycine
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
96) What chemical group is attached to the first methionine in a polypeptide chain in
prokaryotes?
a) a formyl group
b) a methyl group
c) an acetyl group
d) a phosphate group
e) a glutamyl group
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
97) The initiator tRNA enters the 30S ribosomal subunit at the ____ during prokaryotic protein
synthesis.
a) A site
b) P site
c) E site
d) Q site
e) 50S attachment point
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
98) What is probably responsible for driving the conformational shift that is required for the
release of the IF2-GDP initiation factor from the initiation complex?
a) hydrolysis of ATP bound to IF2

b) hydrolysis of the GTP bound to IF2
c) binding of IF1
d) degradation of IF3
e) GDP condensation
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
99) The mechanical changes that ribosomes undergo are driven by energy from ______.
a) GTP hydrolysis
b) ATP hydrolysis
c) ADP hydrolysis
d) an electrochemical gradient
e) a concentration gradient
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 11.17 List the events that occur during the elongation and termination
stages of translation. Section Reference: Section 11.17 Translating Genetic Information:
Elongation and Termination
100) The surfaces of the two ribosomal subunits that face one another contain the binding sites
for the mRNA and incoming tRNAs and are thus of key importance for the function of the
ribosomes. The fact that these surfaces consist largely of RNA supports what proposal?
a) the proposal that primordial ribosomes were composed solely of proteins

b) the proposal that primordial ribosomes were composed exclusively of RNA
c) the proposal that primordial ribosomes were composed exclusively of DNA
d) the proposal that prokaryotes gave rise to eukaryotes
e) the proposal that endosymbiosis gave rise to eukaryotes
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
101) It has been discovered that some mRNAs have a signal that causes the ribosome to change
its reading frame by backing up or moving ahead one base. This can, in some cases, defend
against a frameshift mutation. Such a sequence is called a(n) _________.
a) recentering signal
b) recoding signal
c) acentric signal
d) acentric sequence
e) allopatric sequence
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
102) What amino acid is converted to selenocysteine after its attachment to its tRNA?
a) serine
b) alanine
c) phenylalanine
d) cysteine
e) cystine
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
104) You have set up a cell-free transcription system in a test tube. By mixing DNA, RNA
polymerase, sigma factors, ribonucleotides and other essential substances, you are able to make
mRNAs identical to those made under a variety of conditions in the cells from which these
components were isolated. What would happen if you were able to remove the sigma factor
first added to the tube and replace it with another sigma factor?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: Since sigma factors often can cause transcription from different genes with different
promoters, the population of mRNAs made would be likely to change.
105) Cells from a tremendously weakened embryo are examined and found to have seriously
depleted levels of a number of tRNAs. If the defect resides in an RNA polymerase, which
polymerase is most likely to be affected?
Answer:
Difficulty: Easy
Solution: RNA polymerase III is most likely affected, since this polymerase is responsible for
synthesizing tRNAs in eukaryotes.
106) What appears to be the original form of most cellular mRNAs?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Messenger RNAs
Solution: Messenger RNAs are first produced as extremely large heterogeneous nuclear RNAs.
They are then edited into shorter molecules in which portions are excised and the remaining
pieces reconnected to make mature mRNA.
107) A space probe brings back a new life form. It is carbon-based and its genetic material is
similar to Earth DNA except that it uses 6 different nucleotide bases instead of 4. Its proteins
are also similar to those on Earth, but there are 28 amino acids instead of 20. You hypothesize
about the genetic code for this organism. How many "letters" would you propose in each codon
of the genetic code for this organism? The code should be unambiguous and may be
degenerate.
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: Since there are 36 possible codons, if each codon contains two letters, a two-letter
codon would be possible. It would allow for some degeneracy and stop signals and would be
unambiguous.
108) In an experiment, you purify a cysteine-charged tRNA and chemically alter the amino acid
attached to it converting it to alanine. You place this charged tRNA in a cell-free
protein-synthesizing system with all of the other charged tRNAs, mRNA and other substances
needed for the synthesis of proteins. What, if anything, will be different from the normal
protein coded for by the mRNA in the mixture?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: The protein will be identical except that in at least some positions where cysteine
would normally be inserted, alanine will have been inserted into the protein instead of cysteine.
109) You are studying a particular tRNA. When charged with its amino acid, it is able to
participate in protein synthesis. When interacting with the ribosome, it always enters the
ribosome and associates with the P site. What amino acid is attached to the tRNA?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: Methionine or more correctly formylmethionine if the tRNA is from a bacterium.
110) Two-thirds of the human genome is normally transcribed to RNA, but only 10% is believed
to encode for proteins. How can this discrepancy be explained?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Solution: The human transcriptome (the collection of RNAs produced by an organism) contains
both coding and non-coding RNAs and is much more complex than previously thought. Genomic
regions that are normally thought of as “junk” may encode non-coding regulatory RNAs, many
of which have yet to be characterized.
111) The process of RNA synthesis and splicing can occasionally give rise to mutations that
introduce a termination codon in the middle of a coding sequence. How do cells detect and deal
with these mutations?
Answer:
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: LO 11.18 Explain how nonsense-mediated decay (NMD) protects a cell from
producing nonfunctional proteins. Section Reference: Section 11.18 mRNA Surveillance and
Quality Control
Solution: mRNAs containing such mutations are translated only once before they are selectively
destroyed by a process called nonsense‐mediated decay (NMD). Proteins at each exon–junction
complex stays with the mRNA until it is translated. As an mRNA undergoes its initial round of
translation, the EJCs are displaced or inactivated by the advancing ribosome. Any message with
an EJC left on it when the ribosome finishes translation is marked for degradation by
ribonucleases.
Solution Manual for Cell and Molecular Biology, 8th Edition, Gerald Karp, Janet Iwasa, Walla
Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

Solution Manual For Cell and Molecular Biology 8th Edition Gerald Karp Janet Iwasa Wallace Marshall

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Solution Manual For Cell and Molecular Biology 8th Edition Gerald Karp Janet Iwasa Wallace Marshall

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Solution Manual for Cell and Molecular Biology, 8th Edition, Gerald Karp, Janet Iwasa, Walla

Solution Manual for Cell and Molecular Biology, 8th

To download the complete and accurate content document, go to:

Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

Question Type: Multiple Choice

2) Alcaptonuria is a genetic disease that is characterized by _________.

a) urine turning dark upon exposure to the air

3) An alcaptonuric lacks the enzyme that oxidizes what metabolite?

4) What did Archibald Garrod call diseases like alcaptonuria?

6) Beadle and Tatum's research suggested that __________.

a) a gene carries the information to build lipids

a) the One Gene – One Enzyme hypothesis

a) It was totally wrong.

a) an RNA having a sequence complementary to the mRNA of the targeted protein

a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase

11) In what direction is mRNA produced?

a) 3' to 5' direction

a) The enzyme does not work in reverse.

17) The nucleotide at which transcription is initiated is called _____.

a) Pribnow box, TATAAT, transcription

a) breaks the DNA chain in the start site region

22) What percentage of cellular RNA is rRNA?

a) less than 20%

23) Most of the cellular RNA is in what form?

a) exons, structural genes

a) highly repetitive DNA

26) The chromosome regions containing rDNA are located in.

a) It is near the longest nascent transcripts.

a) migrates more rapidly through a field of force during centrifugation

a) pseudouridine residues and thymidine residues

35) Where are the snoRNAs encoded?

a) within their own genes

a) tandem array with spacers

37) A cluster of genes coding for tRNAs is often referred to as ______.

38) The promoter for tRNA genes (tDNA) is located ________.

a) at the gene's 3' end

a) in larger RNAs in the cytoplasm

40) Heterogeneous nuclear RNAs are _________.

a) days or weeks long

42) What is responsible for synthesizing hnRNAs?

45) What molecule is TFIIH known to phosphorylate?

46) Where is the RNA polymerase II phosphorylated during its activation?

a) on the N-terminal end of the largest RNA polymerase II subunit

47) Which of the following is not a normal property of eukaryotic mRNAs?

a) They contain a continuous nucleotide sequence encoding a specific polypeptide.

a) poly(A) tail, methylated guanosine cap

49) Which of the following binds to the TATA box?

a) stop, deficiency, phenotype

55) RNAi or dsRNA-mediated RNA interference is an example of a broader phenomenon that

a) dsRNAs are not produced by the cell's normal genetic activities.

a) It cleaves the target mRNA.

a) the active strand

a) The ribonuclease slicer directs the RISC to the cleavage site.

a) They aid in fertilization.

a) the 3' untranslated region of specific mRNAs produced by the organism

66) Where is the pre-miRNA converted to miRNA by Dicer?

a) piRNAs are longer than si/miRNAs.

a) All proteins looked the same.

78) What is meant by referring to the genetic code as universal?

a) The genetic code is the same everywhere in the Universe.

79) Another name for protein synthesis is _________.

80) Where are the unusual bases of tRNAs predominantly concentrated?