Test Bank For Abnormal Psychology Ninth Edition

Test Bank For Abnormal Psychology Ninth Edition

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1. When dealing with a new client, the clinical practitioner's major focus is to gather what
type of information?
A) diagnostic
B) nomothetic
C) idiographic
D) dispassionate

2. A mental health practitioner attempts to learn about the behavior and emotional state of
each client. This approach to abnormal psychology is called:
A) behavioral.
B) nomothetic.
C) idiographic.
D) psychodynamic.

3. When graduate schools choose students based on test scores, college grades, and
relevant experience, they are engaging in:
A) assessment.
B) diagnosis.
C) treatment.
D) classification.

4. The process of evaluating a person's progress after being in treatment is called a:

A) nomothetic approach.
B) clinical assessment.
C) behavioral diagnosis.
D) functional analysis.

5. A functional analysis involves:

A) using projective tests.
B) learning about a person's behaviors.
C) learning about unconscious conflicts in the client.
D) obtaining information about the components of a person's personality.

6. One of the assumptions of a functional analysis is that:

A) abnormal behaviors are learned.
B) abnormal behaviors are maladaptive.
C) learning about unconscious conflicts will explain a person's abnormal behavior.
D) learning the structure of a person's personality will explain his or her abnormal
behavior.

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 7. Another term for developing norms for an assessment tool is:
A) reliability.
B) face validity.
C) predictive validity.
D) standardization.

8. If a new test for anxiety is normed on individuals who are waiting to take introductory
psychology final exams, the new test is surely lacking:
A) reliability.
B) adequate standardization.
C) validity.
D) structure.

9. A new test for anxiety shows consistent levels of anxiety across time for people, but
very few people have taken the test, and accurate norms don't exist. The test has:
A) high reliability, but inadequate standardization.
B) high reliability, and adequate standardization.
C) low reliability, and inadequate standardization.
D) low reliability, but adequate standardization.

10. A clinician has developed a new assessment tool. Clients write stories about their
problems, and then two different judges independently evaluate the stories in terms of
how logically they are written. For this assessment technique to be useful, there must be:
A) high interrater reliability.
B) low observer reliability.
C) high split-half reliability.
D) low test–retest reliability.

11. A panel of psychologists and psychiatrists evaluates the test results and clinical
interviews of a client in a sanity hearing. They all arrive at the same diagnosis. The
panel has high:
A) internal validity.
B) predictive validity.
C) interrater reliability.
D) test–retest reliability.

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12. A campus newspaper publishes an “Exam Anxiety” test, which newspaper staffers put
together one evening just before their publishing deadline. Despite its hasty
construction, the test MOST likely has:
A) standardization.
B) predictive validity.
C) face validity.
D) a standardization sample.

13. To measure tendencies toward depression, an assessment tool asks individuals to record
all the times they feel sad. However, individuals report wide variation in the number of
“sad” episodes from day to day. This assessment tool has:
A) high test–retest reliability and high face validity.
B) high test–retest reliability and low face validity.
C) low test–retest reliability and high face validity.
D) low test–retest reliability and low face validity.

14. Because people who exhibit mania have very elevated moods, a new test for mania
includes questions about how happy a person feels and how often he or she laughs. This
test has:
A) face validity.
B) content validity.
C) construct validity.
D) concurrent validity.

15. A test is constructed to identify people who will develop schizophrenia. Of the 100
people the test identifies, 93 show signs of developing schizophrenia within five years.
The test may be said to have high:
A) internal reliability.
B) predictive validity.
C) concurrent validity.
D) test–retest reliability.

16. A new assessment tool does a good job of differentiating those who later will be
depressed and those who will not be depressed, and it produces results similar to those
of other tools measuring depression. Therefore, the new assessment tool has good:
A) predictive validity.
B) face validity.
C) interjudge reliability.
D) test–retest reliability.

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17. If a new test for assessing anorexic tendencies produces scores comparable to those of
other tests for assessing anorexic tendencies, then the new test has high:
A) predictive validity.
B) standardization criteria.
C) concurrent validity.
D) performance criteria.

18. Clinical interviews are the preferred assessment technique of many practitioners. One
particular strength of the interview process is:
A) validity.
B) the reliability of the technique.
C) the chance to get a general sense of the client.
D) that it asks only open-ended questions.

19. The clinical interviewer MOST interested in stimuli that trigger abnormal responses
would have what orientation?
A) cognitive
B) psychodynamic
C) humanistic
D) behavioral

20. A patient complains of a phobia. Two lines of questioning by the clinician concern the
specific object of the phobia and what the person does when he or she confronts that
object. This clinician's orientation is probably:
A) biological.
B) behavioral.
C) humanistic.
D) sociocultural.

21. Among other questions, a clinical interviewer asks, “How do you feel about yourself
today? How do you feel about what's going on in your life?” MOST likely, the clinical
interviewer's orientation is:
A) biological.
B) behavioral.
C) psychodynamic.
D) humanistic.

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22. Dr. Martin has just asked a potential client to talk about herself. As she responds, the
doctor's next question is based on some interesting point the client made. There are few
constraints on the conversation. Dr. Martin has just:
A) used free association.
B) conducted an unstructured interview.
C) used a behavioral assessment technique.
D) employed (Rogers') nondirective therapy.

23. If a clinician begins by asking, “Would you tell me about yourself?,” the clinician is
MOST likely conducting a(n):
A) mental status exam.
B) interview schedule.
C) structured interview.
D) unstructured interview.

24. If a clinician is particularly interested in a client's family background and community

influences, MOST likely that clinician's orientation is:
A) biological.
B) behavioral.
C) sociocultural
D) cognitive.

25. If a clinician is particularly interested in a client's family medical history, that clinician's
orientation is MOST likely:
A) behavioral.
B) biological.
C) sociocultural.
D) cognitive.

26. An interviewer who asks a client questions such as “Where are you now?,” “Why do
you think you're here?,” or even “Who are you?” is probably conducting a(n):
A) mental status exam.
B) behavioral interview.
C) sociocultural interview.
D) intelligence test.

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27. One limitation of the clinical interview as an assessment tool is that:
A) each client is different.
B) the approach is too rigid.
C) the client may give an overly positive picture.
D) the clinician sees the client too infrequently.

28. Which statement is a reason to question the validity of clinical interviews?

A) People respond differently to different interviewers.
B) People may respond differently to clinicians who are not of their race.
C) On different days, people might describe themselves differently.
D) Interviewers may make mistakes in how they interpret the information they gather.

29. A person says, “I always trust my first impressions, especially when my first impression
of someone is negative.” Based on research dealing with clinical interviews, the BEST
response to this statement would be:
A) “You're absolutely right; that's what the research shows.”
B) “Be careful; the research shows that first impressions, especially negative ones,
may be inaccurate.”
C) “You're partly right; first impressions are usually pretty accurate but only with
favorable first impressions.”
D) “You're partly right; first impressions usually aren't very accurate, except for
unfavorable first impressions.”

30. Using projective tests for personality assessment is designed to:

A) perform a functional analysis of the client.
B) learn about unconscious conflicts in the client.
C) obtain detailed information about specific dysfunctional behaviors.
D) obtain detailed information about specific dysfunctional cognitions.

31. The assumption behind the use of projective tests as assessment tools is that:
A) they are relatively easy to score.
B) the responses come from the client's unconscious.
C) they stimulate abnormal behaviors that the clinician can observe.
D) patient responses to specific stimuli will uncover specific disorders.

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32. A clinician has developed a test that requires test-takers to tell stories about a series of
pictures of city skylines. MOST likely, this new test is a:
A) neuropsychological test.
B) personality inventory.
C) response inventory.
D) projective test.

33. When Rorschach testers ask questions like, “Did the person respond to the whole picture
or to specific details, and to the colors or the white spaces?,” they are interested in the
_____ of the response.
A) theme
B) content
C) style
D) images

34. When a clinician using the Rorschach focuses on the actual images that a person “sees,”
the clinician is emphasizing:
A) style.
B) theme.
C) color.
D) latency to respond.

35. Which test is NOT a projective test?

A) Rorschach
B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
C) Draw-a-Person Test
D) Thematic Apperception Test

36. A patient looks at a series of black-and-white pictures, making up a dramatic story about
each. The patient is taking:
A) the Rorschach.
B) the Thematic Apperception Test.
C) the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
D) an affective inventory.

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37. If a clinician focused on where a person placed a drawing on a page, the size of the
drawing, and the parts omitted, the person MOST likely took which test?
A) Rorschach
B) TAT
C) MMPI
D) Draw-a-Person

38. Use of projective tests has decreased in the past few decades because projective tests
often have:
A) interrater reliability that is too high.
B) poor validity.
C) rigid scoring standards.
D) bias in favor of minority groups.

39. Which statement about the use of projective techniques by today's clinicians is true?
A) Projective tests are not used anymore.
B) The centrality of projective tests has declined since their introduction.
C) Current clinicians rely on projective tests as a primary source of insight about their
patients.
D) Projective tests have a more prominent place in the clinician's repertoire than they
did 50 years ago.

40. Which test is a personality inventory?

A) Draw-a-Person
B) MMPI-2
C) Rorschach
D) Thematic Apperception Test

41. Who is MOST at risk for misinterpreting a cultural response as pathology?

A) an immigrant client
B) an ethnic-minority client
C) a dominant-culture assessor
D) an ethnic-minority assessor

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42. Clients check off either “Applies” or “Does Not Apply” to a series of 200 items dealing
with what they do and what they think in a variety of situations. The kind of test they
are taking MOST likely is a:
A) projective test.
B) personality inventory.
C) neuropsychological battery.
D) sentence-completion test.

43. The test that reports one's results on clinical scales such as “hypochondriasis” (HS) and
“Psychopathic deviate” (PD) is the:
A) Sentence-Completion Test.
B) Thematic Apperception Test.
C) Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test.
D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.

44. Randolph is the kind of person who breaks laws and rules with no feeling of guilt and is
emotionally shallow. He would probably score high on the MMPI-2 scale called:
A) paranoia.
B) schizophrenia.
C) psychasthenia.
D) psychopathic deviate.

45. George is consumed with concern that his house will burn down. Before he leaves, he
makes sure that all his appliances are unplugged. He often has to go back home and
check to make sure he did not leave any plugged in. Which MMPI-2 scale would he
MOST likely score high on?
A) schizophrenia
B) psychasthenia
C) social introversion
D) psychopathic deviate

46. Many consider the MMPI-2 to be superior to the original MMPI because the MMPI-2:
A) was tested on a more diverse group of people.
B) produces results that are not comparable to the results of the original MMPI.
C) has fewer items.
D) produces only one score.

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47. Compared to projective tests, personality inventories generally have:
A) greater reliability and greater validity.
B) greater reliability and poorer validity.
C) poorer reliability but greater validity.
D) poorer reliability and poorer validity.

48. Compared to projective tests, personality inventories:

A) have higher validity.
B) are less standardized.
C) have lower reliability.
D) are more difficult to administer and evaluate.

49. Among the following, the test with the highest validity in identifying psychological
disturbances is the:
A) Thematic Apperception Test.
B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test.
C) Rorschach.
D) Draw-a-Person test.

50. If a clinician wanted to know more detailed information about a person's functioning in
a specific area, the clinician would use:
A) a response inventory.
B) a validity assessment.
C) a measure of reliability.
D) standardization.

51. A(n) _____ inventory asks about one's level of anxiety, depression, or anger.
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) social skills
D) functional

52. A(n) _____ inventory asks about how one would act with others in a variety of
situations.
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) social skills
D) functional

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53. A response inventory that asks individuals to provide detailed information about their
typical thoughts and assumptions is a(n):
A) social skill inventory.
B) cognitive inventory.
C) affective inventory.
D) behavioral inventory.

54. Which tool is designed to disclose a patient's thoughts and assumptions?

A) the MMPI-2
B) the Rorschach
C) an affective inventory
D) a cognitive inventory

55. Which statement is a valid critique of the use of response inventories?

A) Response inventories don't have good face validity.
B) Response inventories are not used much these days.
C) Response inventories are standardized too rigidly.
D) Response inventories are improvised as the need arises and are not well tested.

56. A person taking a polygraph test is suspected of lying when measures of physiological
variables such as heart rate and perspiration are:
A) higher for control than test questions.
B) higher for test than control questions.
C) evenly high for test and control questions.
D) unchanging for test and control questions.

57. A client is hooked up to an apparatus that measures galvanic skin response and blood
pressure, after which the client verbally answers a series of questions. This is a(n):
A) projective test.
B) psychophysiological test.
C) neuropsychological test.
D) affective response inventory.

58. Which procedure is NOT a form of neuroimaging?

A) MRI
B) CAT scan
C) DEXA scan
D) PET

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59. Which statement is the BEST response about a scientific opinion on the use of
polygraphic evidence?
A) “Although they are used widely, polygraph results are not particularly reliable.”
B) “The APA endorses their use.”
C) “On average, 50 out of 100 truths are categorized as lies.”
D) “Most courts admit evidence from polygraphs in criminal trials.”

60. If a person had his brain waves recorded to measure electrical activity, he MOST likely
had a(n):
A) PET scan.
B) MRI.
C) CAT scan.
D) EEG.

61. The technique that uses X rays of the brain taken at different angles to create a static
picture of the structure of the brain is called:
A) electroencephalography.
B) magnetic resonance imaging.
C) position emission tomography.
D) computerized axial tomography.

62. How does an MRI make a picture of the brain?

A) It measures the degree of activity in the various areas scanned.
B) It uses X rays and takes pictures at several different angles.
C) It relies on the magnetic properties of the atoms in the cells scanned.
D) It uses a recording of the electrical impulses produced by the neurons in the brain.

63. A person is required to take a polygraph test as part of a job application. This
requirement is:
A) illegal; polygraph tests can't be used as part of a job application.
B) very rare; 20 years ago, such polygraph testing was common but has almost
disappeared today.
C) uncommon;. the U.S. Congress voted to restrict polygraph use in employment
screenings.
D) legal; in recent years, polygraph use has increased in both public and private sector
job applications.

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64. A prisoner eligible for parole is required to take a polygraph test. Although the prisoner
tells the truth in response to one question, the polygraph operator records the response
as a lie. According to recent research, this kind of error is:
A) extremely common; more than one-third of true statements are interpreted as lies.
B) unusual; less than 10 percent of true statements are interpreted as lies.
C) rare; less than 3 percent of true statements are interpreted as lies.
D) very rare; less than 1 percent of true statements are interpreted as lies.

65. To obtain the clearest and most accurate picture of the physical anatomy of the brain to
aid in the diagnosis of a psychological disorder, the method of choice would be:
A) MMPI-2.
B) fMRI.
C) DAP.
D) PET.

66. The assessment instrument MOST likely to be used to detect subtle brain abnormalities
is the:
A) neuropsychological test.
B) intelligence test.
C) psychophysiological test.
D) projective test.

67. A person with organic brain impairment would MOST likely have difficulty
completing:
A) a CAT scan.
B) an EEG.
C) the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test.
D) an MRI.

68. A clinical diagnostician is dissatisfied with tests that cannot specify the type of brain
damage or brain impairment that clients have. The BEST suggestion for that
diagnostician would be to use:
A) the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test.
B) the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale.
C) the Beck Inventory.
D) a battery of neuropsychological tests.

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69. Binet and Simon are known for their work in creating a(n):
A) projective test.
B) personality inventory.
C) intelligence test.
D) brain scan.

70. A person with a mental age of 10 and a chronological age of 8 has an IQ of:
A) 125.
B) 80.
C) 150.
D) 40.

71. Which category of clinical tests tends to have the BEST standardization, reliability, and
validity?
A) projective tests
B) intelligence tests
C) response inventories
D) personality inventories

72. A strength of intelligence tests include their:

A) lack of racial or cultural bias.
B) accuracy even when test-takers have high anxiety.
C) relatively low reliability.
D) large standardization sample.

73. How difficult is it for a typical person to buy an intelligence test or view Rorschach
cards?
A) Not difficult at all; one can buy intelligence tests and view Rorschach cards online.
B) Somewhat difficult; one can buy intelligence tests online and can sometimes view
Rorschach cards online.
C) Somewhat difficult; one can view Rorschach cards online but cannot buy
intelligence tests online.
D) Difficult; only those in the medical or psychological professions can view
Rorschach cards online and buy intelligence tests online.

74. The MOST legitimate criticism of intelligence tests concerns their:

A) validity.
B) cultural fairness.
C) reliability.
D) standardization.

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75. A therapist's preferred method of assessing abnormal behavior is to watch clients in
their everyday environments and record their activities and behaviors. This approach is
known as:
A) self-monitoring.
B) battery observation.
C) structured observation.
D) naturalistic observation.

76. Which action would a clinician who is using naturalistic observation be MOST likely to
take?
A) observe parent–child interactions in an office setting
B) observe parent–child interactions in the family's home
C) have a parent self-monitor family interactions in an office setting
D) have a parent self-monitor family interactions at home

77. Under the instructions of a psychologist, Tina's mother records the number of times
Tina hits her brother at home and what happens immediately before the hitting. In this
situation, Tina's mother is:
A) a participant observer.
B) demonstrating observer bias.
C) conducting structured observations.
D) engaging in self-monitoring behavior.

78. A clinician having knowledge that a person about to be interviewed has already been
diagnosed as having an anxiety disorder could lead to:
A) reactivity.
B) observer bias.
C) observer drift.
D) increased accuracy of the diagnosis.

79. One way a clinician might try to reduce observer drift would be to:
A) increase the number of different behaviors being monitored.
B) try to focus on different aspects of one behavior being monitored.
C) decrease the lengths of the observation periods.
D) try not to learn too much about a client before making observations.

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80. “I've just experienced overload,” says the participant observer. “I simply can't:
A) write down all the important things I'm seeing.”
B) concentrate on my observations anymore.”
C) be impartial anymore.”
D) be sure the person I'm observing is acting like she usually would.”

81. A person knows he is being observed and changes his behavior to make a good
impression. This is known as:
A) observer drift.
B) observer bias.
C) reactivity.
D) naturalistic change.

82. A student who is quiet in class might be the life of the party on the weekend. Clinical
observation of that student in class would lack:
A) observer bias.
B) validity.
C) reactivity.
D) an analog.

83. When someone is watching, Jennifer actually eats fewer sweets than usual. This
tendency to decrease a behavior while being observed is an example of:
A) reactivity.
B) observer bias.
C) observer drift.
D) poor reliability.

84. An adult frequently displays symptoms of depression at home but seldom does so at
work. In this case, clinical observations of this person at home would lack:
A) observer bias.
B) observer drift.
C) structure.
D) cross-situational validity.

85. A client reports having infrequent, but extremely disturbing, tactile hallucinations. The
MOST useful way to gather information about this person would involve:
A) self-monitoring.
B) naturalistic observations.
C) structured observations.
D) a neuropsychological battery.

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86. The term used to refer to the comprehensive view of the causes and the maintenance of
a person's abnormal behavior that a psychologist develops is:
A) a model.
B) a diagnosis.
C) an interpretation.
D) the clinical picture.

87. Deciding that a client's psychological problems represent a particular disorder is called:
A) psychotherapy.
B) assessment.
C) diagnosis.
D) triage.

88. Symptoms such as sadness, loss of appetite, and low energy cluster together to form a:
A) treatment.
B) classification system.
C) syndrome.
D) medical condition.

89. A cluster of symptoms that go together and define a mental disorder is called a:
A) syndrome.
B) classification system.
C) DSM axis.
D) treatment approach.

90. Which statement is MOST accurate?

A) The DSM in some form has been in use for more than 100 years.
B) The DSM was originally developed by the American Psychoanalytic Association.
C) The DSM served as the model for the classification system Emile Kraepelin later
developed.
D) The classification system Emil Kraepelin developed served as the model for the
DSM.

91. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (presently DSM-5) was
developed by:
A) the American Psychoanalytic Association.
B) the American Psychiatric Association.
C) the American Psychological Association.
D) the American Phrenological Association.

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92. If a clinician is using the ICD to make a diagnosis, MOST likely that clinician is:
A) old-fashioned; the ICD has been outdated for more than 30 years.
B) cognitive-behavioral in orientation; the ICD was developed by
cognitive-behavioral psychologists.
C) practicing outside the United States.
D) practicing in the United States.

93. DSM-5 is the classification system for abnormal behaviors that is:
A) used by the World Health Organization.
B) most widely used in the United States.
C) used for medical disorders.
D) used exclusively for children.

94. Approximately how many mental disorders does the DSM-5 list?
A) 100 mental disorders
B) 200 mental disorders
C) 300 mental disorders
D) 400 mental disorders

95. A person wonders, “How likely am I to qualify for a DSM diagnosis in my lifetime?”
Assuming this person is “typical,” the MOST accurate answer (based on survey results)
would be:
A) “Unlikely; about 10 percent of people will ever qualify for a DSM diagnosis.”
B) “Somewhat unlikely; about 20 percent of people will ever qualify for a DSM
diagnosis.”
C) “Pretty likely; about one-third of people will ever qualify for a DSM diagnosis.”
D) “Likely; almost half of people will ever qualify for a DSM diagnosis.”

96. Of the people who would qualify for a DSM diagnosis in their lifetime, surveys show
what percent would show comorbidity?
A) about 28 percent
B) about 10 percent
C) about 8 percent
D) less than 5 percent

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 97. A clinician can include three kinds of information in making a diagnosis: a diagnostic
category, a severity rating for the disorder, and additional information about possibly
relevant psychosocial factors. According to the DSM-5, a clinician is required to
include:
A) all three kinds of information.
B) a diagnostic category and additional information but not a severity rating.
C) a diagnostic category and a severity rating but not additional information.
D) a diagnostic category and a severity rating but only additional psychosocial
information.

98. The DSM-5 is the first edition of the DSM that requires clinicians to provide:
A) both categorical information and dimensional information.
B) only categorical information.
C) only dimensional information.
D) neither categorical information nor dimensional information.

99. Which differentiates the DSM-5 from earlier versions of the DSM?
A) Psychologists, not psychiatrists, are primarily responsible for the DSM-5.
B) Psychiatrists, not psychologists, are primarily responsible for the DSM-5.
C) The DSM-5 does not require both dimensional and categorical information.
D) The DSM-5 requires both dimensional and categorical information.

100. The existence of disorders such as koro, susto, amok, and windigo remind us that:
A) people in other cultures experience much worse disorders than we do.
B) people experience the same disorders around the world but call them different
things.
C) culture and diagnosis should be entirely independent.
D) classifications applied in one culture may not be appropriate in another.

101. Assessment tools such as the Cross-Cutting Symptom Measure are used to provide what
kind of information for making a diagnosis?
A) categorical
B) dimensional
C) psychosocial
D) sociocultural

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102. Dr. Ross and Dr. Carman agree that Suzette is suffering from posttraumatic stress
disorder. Their judgment is said to have:
A) reliability.
B) generalizability.
C) external validity.
D) internal validity.

103. The reliability concerns of the DSM-5 are MOST likely because of its:
A) inability to predict the outcome of disorders more accurately.
B) negligence of minority populations.
C) greater reliance on labeling mental disorders.
D) lack of adequate field trials of new criteria and categories.

104. Which is NOT a procedure that DSM-5 developers relied on to improve reliability?
A) conducting field trials for new criteria and categories
B) reducing substantially the number of different diagnostic categories
C) conducting extensive research reviews
D) increasing the number of diagnostic categories and criteria

105. Which was NOT used by the framers of the DSM-5 to ensure the validity of the new
edition?
A) decreasing the number of diagnostic categories
B) using clinical work groups
C) consulting with clinical advisors
D) conducting extensive research reviews

106. Compared to the original DSM, which appeared in the 1950s, the DSM-5 has:
A) more than five times as many diagnostic categories.
B) about twice as many diagnostic categories.
C) slightly more diagnostic categories.
D) slightly fewer diagnostic categories.

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107. Concerns about the reliability and validity of the DSM-5 diagnoses are MOST likely to
center on which factors?
A) categories based on weak research and reflecting bias (for example, gender or
racial bias)
B) categories based on field research and reflecting bias (for example, gender or racial
bias)
C) categories that reflect overly restrictive descriptions
D) categories too few in number to represent the breadth of human psychological
disorders

108. The DSM-5 task force and various work groups:

A) began working within a year of the publication of the DSM-IV.
B) began their work in 2006.
C) began their work in 2010.
D) won't start their work until 2016 at the earliest.

109. In DSM-5, which diagnostic category is no longer considered an anxiety disorder?

A) Asperger's syndrome
B) binge eating disorder
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) specific phobia

110. In the DSM-5, Asperger's syndrome would now be classified under which new
category?
A) autistic disorder
B) disruptive mood dysregulation
C) autism spectrum disorder
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

111. A present-day clinician uses terms like “dementia” and “mental retardation” for
diagnostic categories. That clinician is using terms:
A) common to both the DSM-5 and previous forms of the DSM.
B) not used in the DSM-5 but used in previous forms of the DSM.
C) used in the DSM-5 but not used in previous forms of the DSM.
D) not used in either the DSM-5 or in previous forms of the DSM.

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112. Studies show that errors in diagnosis MOST commonly involve information gathered:
A) early in the assessment process and in a hospital setting.
B) late in the assessment process and in a hospital setting.
C) early in the assessment process and in a private office setting.
D) late in the assessment process and in a private office setting.

113. Studies of diagnostic conclusions made by clinicians show that:

A) they don't emphasize information gathered early in the assessment process.
B) they pay too much attention to some information and too little to other information.
C) they don't allow enough of their own expectations to enter into the decision.
D) they do not allow their own biases to play a role in their decisions.

114. Recently, a client diagnosed with schizophrenia has begun to exhibit more symptoms,
often saying, “They tell me I'm crazy, so I must be crazy.” MOST likely, this is an
example of:
A) self-fulfilling prophecy.
B) therapist bias.
C) learned helplessness.
D) nomothetic disturbance.

115. An institutionalized individual behaving abnormally says, “The doctor claims I'm
schizophrenic! How else would you expect me to act?” The individual's comments
reflect:
A) misdiagnosis.
B) reading-in syndrome.
C) a misunderstanding of multiaxial diagnosis.
D) self-fulfilling prophecy.

116. After a client is told his or her DSM diagnosis, others may treat the client differently,
and the client may act accordingly. Many theorists would attribute this to the
development of:
A) generalized anxiety.
B) self-fulfilling prophecies.
C) somatic symptom disorders, as opposed to psychiatric disorders.
D) crises of faith.

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117. “Let's just do away with diagnoses,” says a clinician. “All we do is make things worse.”
That clinician's viewpoint is:
A) shared by a strong majority of those working in the area of abnormality.
B) shared by almost nobody working in the area of abnormality.
C) shared by some of those working in the area of abnormality.
D) represented in the DSM-5, which does not require a specific diagnosis.

118. A clinical psychologist says, “How do I decide on the best treatment? Simple: I make
sure to read the most recent research studies in therapy and follow their advice.” This
clinical psychologist is:
A) typical; almost all therapists read about and use the most current forms of therapy.
B) common; most therapists read about and use the most current forms of therapy.
C) unusual; most therapists base therapy decisions on something other than what they
can read in research journals.
D) rare; almost all therapists make treatment decisions based on what's available on
websites.

119. A clinical psychologist says, “How do I decide on the best treatment? Simple: I make
sure to read the most recent research studies in therapy and follow their advice.” This
clinical psychologist believes in using:
A) intuitively based treatment.
B) culture-constrained treatment.
C) evidence-based treatment.
D) meta-analytical treatment.

120. Studies show that most therapists are MOST likely to learn about the latest information
on treatment of psychological disorders from:
A) reading research articles.
B) talking with professional colleagues.
C) conducting their own research.
D) writing grants.

121. Therapies that have received clear research support are called:
A) meta-analyses.
B) idiographic.
C) evidence-based.
D) outcome complex.

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122. Support for the use of evidence-based forms of psychotherapy:
A) has declined in recent years.
B) has increased in recent years.
C) has been stable for many years.
D) increased a few years ago but is now declining.

123. Surveys show that more than one-third (33 percent) of Americans:
A) think they should be able to deal with their psychological problems on their own.
B) would not tell their boss they were receiving mental health treatment.
C) would rather take medications than seek therapy.
D) would not seek counseling for fear of being labeled “mentally ill.”

124. A person says, “I'm not going to the counseling center; my friends will think I'm
mentally ill!” This person's attitude is:
A) common: about one-third of people surveyed expressed a similar opinion.
B) very common: more than half of people surveyed expressed a similar opinion.
C) not very common: about one-tenth of people surveyed expressed a similar opinion.
D) rare: only about 2 out of 100 people surveyed expressed a similar opinion.

125. Standardizing and combining the findings of many different studies is called:
A) outcome study.
B) rapprochement.
C) eclecticism.
D) meta-analysis.

126. To study the general effectiveness of treatment, Smith and Glass and their colleagues
performed a(n):
A) meta-analysis of many studies.
B) analysis of their clinical cases.
C) survey of many clients who had received therapy.
D) controlled study that involved random assignment of subjects to treatment
conditions.

127. On average, patients receiving therapy for a psychological problem improves more than
do _____ of people with similar problems who do not receive treatment.
A) 25 percent
B) 75 percent
C) 100 percent
D) 0 percent

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128. Approximately _____ percent of Americans would NOT tell their employer if they were
seeking mental health care treatment.
A) 32
B) 84
C) 67
D) 14

129. “You know, it really doesn't matter. One kind of psychotherapy is generally just about
as good as any other.” One who agrees with this statement is:
A) making an accurate statement about what we know about psychotherapy.
B) falling victim to the uniformity myth.
C) accurately reflecting the findings of most meta-analyses.
D) failing to notice therapeutic rapprochement.

130. The movement that has tried to find the common factors and strategies that “good”
therapists use is called:
A) uniformity.
B) particularity.
C) rapprochement.
D) idiosyncatics.

131. A psychiatrist says, “I'm a strong believer in a combined approach to therapy. In fact, I
frequently participate in combined approaches, although I don't do psychotherapy.”
Based on this statement, this psychiatrist's specialty is MOST likely:
A) eclecticism.
B) psychopharmacology.
C) rapprochement.
D) cognitive-behavioral.

132. A person who primarily prescribes medication but does not conduct psychotherapy is
called a:
A) pharmacist.
B) psychopharmacologist.
C) clinical psychologist.
D) family practice nurse.

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133. The three kinds of common factors that help contribute to a positive treatment outcome
are:
A) client factors, therapist factors, and the client-therapist relationship.
B) client factors, evidence-based treatment, and treatment support.
C) treatment support, evidence-based treatment, and family involvement.
D) therapist factors, evidence-based treatment, and treatment support.

134. A client factor that helps result in positive treatment outcome is:
A) educational attainment.
B) income level.
C) high motivation.
D) discipline.

135. Which factors in the client-therapist relationship are NOT related to positive treatment
outcomes?
A) strong agreement on goals
B) therapist empathizes with the client
C) therapist uses humor
D) therapist offers accurate interpretations

136. A college graduate is:

A) more likely to seek therapy than someone who goes on to graduate school.
B) equally likely to seek therapy as someone with a high school education.
C) less likely than someone with a postgraduate degree to seek therapy.
D) less likely than someone with a high school degree to seek therapy.

137. Those who are MOST likely to have been in therapy at some time in their lives are
those:
A) with graduate education and the elderly.
B) from the Northeast and men.
C) who are middle-aged and women.
D) who are from the West and those with a high school diploma only.

138. Which statement is the BEST conclusion about the various assessment techniques?
A) There is one standard assessment battery used by all clinicians in every situation.
B) Respect for assessment is on the rise.
C) Clinicians have abandoned the use of assessment.
D) Assessment is used at the beginning of therapy but not thereafter.

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139. Which factor leads to increased respect for assessment and diagnosis?
A) the ability to identify disorders without assessment
B) more global and less precise DSM-IV-TR categories
C) increased assessment research
D) decreased emphasis on clinical studies involving “real” patients

140. There has been a recent increase in attention to and research in assessment. That said,
use of effective assessment tools may be decreasing because:
A) today's clinicians simply aren't trained well enough in their uses.
B) most assessment tools are too simplistic, and patients can figure out the “right”
answers.
C) there are too many from which to choose.
D) they are expensive to administer and evaluate.

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Answer Key
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. A
11. C
12. C
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. B
21. D
22. B
23. D
24. C
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. B
31. B
32. D
33. C
34. B
35. B
36. B
37. D
38. B
39. B
40. B
41. C
42. B
43. D
44. D

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45. B
46. A
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. A
51. B
52. C
53. B
54. D
55. D
56. B
57. B
58. C
59. A
60. D
61. D
62. C
63. C
64. B
65. B
66. A
67. C
68. D
69. C
70. A
71. B
72. D
73. B
74. B
75. D
76. B
77. A
78. B
79. C
80. A
81. C
82. B
83. A
84. D
85. A
86. D
87. C
88. C
89. A
90. D

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 91. B
92. C
93. B
94. D
95. D
96. A
97. C
98. A
99. D
100. D
101. B
102. A
103. D
104. B
105. A
106. A
107. A
108. B
109. C
110. C
111. B
112. A
113. B
114. A
115. D
116. B
117. C
118. C
119. C
120. B
121. C
122. B
123. D
124. A
125. D
126. A
127. B
128. C
129. B
130. C
131. B
132. B
133. A
134. C
135. C
136. C

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Test Bank For Abnormal Psychology Ninth Edition

137. C
138. B
139. C
140. D

Page 31

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