Test Bank for Brock Biology of Microorganisms 12th Edition by Madigan

Test Bank for Brock Biology of Microorganisms 12th

Edition by Madigan

To download the complete and accurate content document, go to:

https://testbankbell.com/download/test-bank-for-brock-biology-of-microorganisms-12t
h-edition-by-madigan/

Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) The functional unit of genetic information is called the

A) gene. B) nucleotide. C) chromosome. D) protein.
Answer: A

2) The process whereby RNA specifies a DNA sequence is known as

A) RNA translation. B) the central dogma of molecular biology.
C) RNA transcription. D) reverse transcription.
Answer: D

3) Proteins interact predominantly within which portion of the DNA molecule?

A) major groove B) supercoil C) minor groove D) telomere
Answer: A

4) AT-rich DNA will melt

A) at a lower temperature than GC-rich DNA.
B) usually at the same temperature as GC-rich DNA, with some minor variations.
C) in accordance with the animal or plant from which it was taken.
D) at a higher temperature than GC-rich DNA.
Answer: A

5) In Bacteria and most Archaea, the enzyme that introduces negative supercoils into DNA is known as
A) prokaryotic supercoilase. B) supercoiling gyrase.
C) prokaryotic gyrase. D) DNA gyrase.
Answer: D

6) Novobiocin in an effective antibiotic because it inhibits

A) prokaryotic supercoilase. B) reverse gyrase.
C) RNA topoisomerase. D) DNA gyrase.
Answer: D

7) Regarding plasmids,
A) most are double-stranded DNA, though a few are not.
B) most are found in eukaryotic cells, though a few are found in prokaryotic cells.
C) most replicate in conjunction with the chromosome.
D) most are linear, though a few are circular.
Answer: A

8) Housekeeping genes would be found as part of

A) the plasmid. B) the chromosome.
C) both the chromosome and the plasmid. D) neither the chromosome nor the plasmid.
Answer: B

9) The precursor of each new nucleotide in a strand of DNA is a

A) deoxyribonucleoside 3 -biphosphate. B) deoxyribonucleoside 5 -triphosphate.
C) deoxyribonucleoside 3 -triphosphate. D) deoxyribonucleoside 5 -biphosphate.
Answer: B

1
10) DNA replication always proceeds from the __________ of the incoming nucleotide to the __________ of the
previously added nucleotide.
A) 3 -phosphate / 5 -hydroxyl B) 5 -hydroxyl / 3 -phosphate
C) 3 -hydroxyl / 5 -phosphate D) 5 -phosphate / 3 -hydroxyl
Answer: D

11) An RNA primer is removed by a(n)

A) DNA ligase. B) exonuclease. C) Okazaki fragment. D) replisome.
Answer: B

12) The template for RNA polymerase is __________ and the RNA chain growth is __________ the chain growth of
DNA.
A) an independent RNA segment / the opposite of B) DNA / identical to
C) an independent RNA segment / identical to D) DNA / the opposite of
Answer: B

13) Promoters are specific sequences of __________ that are recognized by __________.
A) RNA / DNA polymerase B) DNA / sigma factor
C) DNA / RNA polymerase D) RNA / RNA polymerase
Answer: B

14) At the wobble position, pairing is allowed between

A) T and U. B) G and U. C) C and U. D) A and T.
Answer: B

15) Stop codons are sometimes called

A) nonsense codons. B) degeneracy codons.
C) reading frame codons. D) conversion codons.
Answer: A

16) There are about __________ different tRNAs in bacterial cells and about __________ in mammalian cells.
A) 100 110 / 140 B) 60 / 100 110 C) 40 / 70 D) 200 / 200
Answer: B

17) tRNA is released from the ribosome at the

A) E site. B) A site. C) P site. D) R site.
Answer: A

18) Which statement is generally true?

A) The 23S rRNA plays a role in elongation; the 16S rRNA plays a role in translocation.
B) The 23S rRNA plays a role in translocation; the 16S rRNA plays a role in initiation.
C) The 23S rRNA plays a role in termination; the 16S rRNA plays a role in elongation.
D) The 23S rRNA plays a role in translocation; the 16S rRNA plays a role in elongation.
Answer: B

19) Streptomycin inhibits __________ of protein synthesis, whereas tetracycline inhibits __________ of protein
synthesis.
A) initiation / elongation B) maturation / protein folding
C) initiation / maturation D) elongation / protein folding
Answer: A

2
 20) In all cells genes are composed of
A) RNA. B) proteins. C) chaperones. D) DNA.
Answer: D

21) Which of the following is an example of one codon?

A) CCGUAA B) AUG C) ATT D) GCCATT
Answer: B

22) In all cells a gene is a segment of DNA that specifies

A) a tRNA. B) an rRNA.
C) a protein (via mRNA). D) all of the above.
Answer: D

23) Which of the following is incorrect regarding DNA and RNA synthesis?
A) Both processes require an RNA primer to begin.
B) DNA is the template for both DNA and RNA synthesis.
C) The overall direction of chain growth is from the 5 end to the 3 end.
D) The template strand is antiparallel to the newly synthesized strand.
Answer: A

24) Termination of RNA synthesis is ultimately determined by

A) specific nucleotide sequences on the DNA.
B) CG-rich sequences followed by AT-rich sequences.
C) common termination sequences.
D) special protein factors.
Answer: A

25) GTP provides energy for

A) translation. B) DNA replication. C) transcription. D) protein folding.
Answer: A

26) Transcription of chaperones is greatly accelerated when a cell is stressed by

A) lack of oxygen. B) excessive heat.
C) extremes in pH value. D) excessive osmotic pressure.
Answer: B

27) The flow of biological information begins with

A) mRNA translation. B) transcriptional regulation.
C) DNA replication. D) RNA transcription.
Answer: C

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

28) Most, but not all, cellular organism genomes are double-stranded DNA.
Answer: True False

29) Inverted repeats can lead to stem-loop structures in the DNA molecule.
Answer: True False

3
 30) In nature, the predominant form of DNA is supercoiled in a negative direction.
Answer: True False

31) Most prokaryotes and eukaryotes are distinguishable because prokaryotes have circular chromosomes and
eukaryotes have linear chromosomes.
Answer: True False

32) The genetic material in a virus is technically called a plasmid.

Answer: True False

33) DNA replication is bidirectional in prokaryotes with circular chromosomes.

Answer: True False

34) RNA acts at both the genetic and the functional levels.
Answer: True False

35) Appearances can be deceiving. As a result, sometimes it appears that bases in tRNA loops are actually paired
with bases in other tRNA loops. This is not the case because all pairing occurs within a given loop.
Answer: True False

36) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase catalyzes the reaction between the appropriate amino acid and ATP to form an activated
amino acid:
amino acid + ATP aminoacyl-AMP + P P
Answer: True False

37) One high-energy phosphate bond is required for the activation of an amino acid.
Answer: True False

38) rRNA plays a critical functional role in all stages of protein synthesis.
Answer: True False

39) Proteins known as chaperones are found only in Bacteria and their sequences vary from organism to organism.
Answer: True False

40) Throughout the living world, the genetic code is generally universal; however, there are some slight variations.
Answer: True False

41) DNA replication involves the synthesis of an RNA primer on one strand of the DNA.
Answer: True False

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.

42) DNA participates in protein synthesis through a(n) __________.

Answer: RNA intermediate

43) The term double helix when used with DNA means __________.
Answer: two long antiparallel polynucleotide chains whose purine and pyrimidine bases are held together by
hydrogen bonds

4
44) The artificial construction of a double-stranded nucleic acid by complementary base pairing of two
single-stranded nucleic acids is known as __________.
Answer: hybridization

45) In Bacteria, a chromosome can be distinguished from a plasmid because by definition a chromosome is a genetic
element whose genes __________.
Answer: code for products necessary for essential cellular functions

46) A transposable element is the general term for __________.

Answer: a molecule of DNA that can move from one site on a DNA molecule to another site on the same molecule
or on a different DNA molecule

47) In complementary base pairing, adenine always pairs with __________ (or __________) and cytosine always
pairs with __________.
Answer: thymine / uracil (uracil if the student argues for RNA) / guanine

48) The function of the DNA polymerase is to __________.

Answer: catalyze the addition of deoxyribonucleotides

49) A new DNA chain is started with a(n) __________, which, in most cases, is a short stretch of __________.
Answer: primer / RNA

50) The function of RNA polymerase is to __________.

Answer: catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between ribonucleotides

51) If a transcription unit contains two or more genes, these genes are then __________, giving a single RNA
molecule.
Answer: cotranscribed

52) A mRNA encoding a group of cotranscribed genes is called a(n) __________.

Answer: polycistronic mRNA

53) A group of related genes that are transcribed together to give a single polycistronic mRNA is known as a(n)
__________.
Answer: operon

54) The genetic code is conventionally written as __________ rather than __________ because that is the molecule
with which the translation process occurs.
Answer: mRNA / DNA

55) The virtually universal start codon is __________ and it codes for __________ in Bacteria.
Answer: AUG / N-formylmethionine

56) The structure and function of a protein are determined by its __________.
Answer: amino acid sequence

57) The sequence of three to nine nucleotides just preceding the start codon that helps bind the mRNA to the
ribosome is known as the __________.
Answer: Shine Dalgarno sequence

5
 58) When several ribosomes are simultaneously translating a single mRNA molecule, the complex is called a(n)
__________.
Answer: polysome

59) In order to fold properly or to assemble into larger complexes, many proteins require assistance from other
proteins called __________.
Answer: molecular chaperones

60) The twenty-first and twenty-second genetically encoded amino acids are __________ and __________.
Answer: selenocysteine / pyrrolysine

61) The protein that stabilizes single-stranded DNA and prevents the formation of intrastrand hydrogen bonds and
reversion to the double helix during DNA synthesis is known as __________.
Answer: single-strand DNA-binding protein

62) A triplet of bases on an mRNA molecule is known as a(n) __________.

Answer: codon

63) Each adenine-thymine base pair has __________ hydrogen bonds, while each guanine-cytosine base pair has
__________ hydrogen bonds.
Answer: two / three

64) On the __________ strand, DNA synthesis occurs continuously, while on the __________ strand DNA synthesis
occurs discontinuously.
Answer: leading / lagging

65) Name and give one characteristic feature of each of the three major types of transposable elements.
Answer: Insertion sequence - smallest, no genetic information other than what is required to move about the
chromosome. Transposons - larger with other genes. Viruses - inserted into DNA.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

66) Define genome in terms of the various DNA components of the cell or virus.
Answer: Answers will vary but should include a statement that the genome includes the complement of genes in a
cell or virus and that it includes the chromosome and other genetic elements.

67) Explain why DNA, RNA, and proteins are often called informational molecules.
Answer: Answers will vary.

68) Explain the difference between transcription and translation.

Answer: Answers will vary.

69) Explain the concept of semiconservative replication.

Answer: Answers will vary.

70) Discuss the initiation of DNA synthesis in Bacteria using the terms origin of replication, replication fork, and
theta structures.
Answer: Answers will vary.

6
Test Bank for Brock Biology of Microorganisms 12th Edition by Madigan

71) Explain the function of the helicases.

Answer: Answers will vary.

72) In DNA replication, relate the leading strand to the lagging strand.
Answer: Answers will vary.

73) Explain the role of sigma factors in RNA synthesis.

Answer: Answers will vary.

74) Explain the process of RNA transcription using the terms "upstream," "Pribnow box," and "consensus sequence."
Answer: Answers will vary.

75) Explain the difference between an intrinsic terminator and a Rho-dependent termination site.
Answer: Answers will vary.

76) How can open reading frames be used to determine the location of protein-encoding genes?
Answer: Answers will vary.

77) Describe protein synthesis in terms of initiation, elongation, and termination/release.

Answer: Answers will vary.

78) Explain the A site, the P site, and the E site in terms of the ribosomal subunits.
Answer: Answers will vary.

79) Explain the role of the signal recognition particle (SRP) in protein secretion.
Answer: Answers will vary.

80) Explain how Escherichia coli can grow with a doubling time of 20 minutes when chromosome replication takes
40 minutes.
Answer: Answers will vary.

81) Speculate on why the half-life of mRNA is short, while the half-lives of rRNA and tRNA are long.
Answer: Answers will vary.

82) Speculate on why it may be problematic to clone a gene from a prokaryote into a eukaryote.
Answer: Answers will vary.

83) Explain why DNA with a high percentage of CG pairs melts at a higher temperature than DNA with a high
percentage of AT pairs.
Answer: Answers will vary.

84) Explain why a cell needs both type I and type II topoisomerases.
Answer: Answers will vary.

85) Explain the differences between viruses and plasmids.

Answer: Answers will vary.

Visit TestBankBell.com to get complete for all chapters