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Test Bank For Surgical Technology For The Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 4th Edition
Test Bank For Surgical Technology For The Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 4th Edition
Test Bank For Surgical Technology For The Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
3. What term describes an instrument, such as a retractor or uterine probe, that can be bent or modified to
accommodate for variances in anatomy?
a. alterable
b. changeable
c. malleable
d. shapable
ANS: C PTS: 1
6. What is the term for the cut-in lines in the jaws or hemostatic clamps and tissue forceps?
a. secretions
b. serrations
c. striations
d. suppressions
ANS: B PTS: 1
7. Which suction tip is indicated for use in the nasopharynx and often called a “tonsil” or “oral”
suction?
a. Adson
b. Frazier
c. Poole
d. Yankauer
ANS: D PTS: 1
8. The joint of a hemostat where one half of the instrument passes through the other is called the:
a. articulation
b. box lock
c. jaw
d. ratchets
ANS: B PTS: 1
9. Which scissors are often called “suture scissors” and are typically straight and relatively blunt tipped?
a. Castroviejo
b. Jorgenson
c. Mayo
d. Westcott
ANS: C PTS: 1
10. The #12 blade is used almost exclusively for which surgical procedure?
a. arthroscopy
b. craniotomy
c. laparotomy
d. tonsillectomy
ANS: D PTS: 1
11. Which classification of instruments can be of a tweezer-like or ringed and ratcheted configuration?
a. cutting and dissecting
b. dilating and probing
c. grasping and holding
d. retracting and exposing
ANS: C PTS: 1
13. Which type of endoscope would be appropriate for examination of the renal pelvis via a natural body
orifice?
a. flexible ureteroscope
b. flexible colonoscope
c. rigid hysteroscope
d. rigid sigmoidoscope
ANS: A PTS: 1
14. All of the following are examples of types of movement of powered surgical instruments EXCEPT:
a. operating
b. oscillating
c. reciprocating
d. rotary
ANS: A PTS: 1
15. Which part of the operating microscope is most proximal to the target tissue?
a. beam splitter
b. hand controls
c. objective lens
d. ocular lenses
ANS: C PTS: 1
16. Which type of surgical device provides a bloodless surgical field by way of extremity compression?
a. phaco-emulsifier
b. pneumatic tourniquet
c. sequential compression device
d. suction system
ANS: B PTS: 1
17. Which type of surgical drape is designed to expose small anatomical structures such as the eyes and
ears?
a. aperture
b. incise
c. nonfenestrated
d. stockinette
ANS: A PTS: 1
18. Which suction tip is designed with multiple rows of perforations to prevent occlusion by the intestines
in a laparotomy?
a. Baron
b. Frazier
c. Poole
d. Yankauer
ANS: C PTS: 1
19. Which device can be used sterilely by an ENT or neurosurgeon or unsterilely by an anesthesia
provider to determine location, function, or conduction of certain anatomical structures?
a. bayonet ESU bipolar forceps
b. cryotherapy unit
c. nerve stimulator
d. phaco-emulsifier
ANS: C PTS: 1
20. Which fine, pointed-tip scalpel blade could be used to incise a blood vessel or create a stab wound for
drain placement?
a. #10
b. #11
c. #12
d. #20
ANS: B PTS: 1
21. What type of surgical specialty rooms would be most likely equipped with three or four overhead
operating lights?
a. bariatrics
b. open heart
c. plastic reconstructive
d. urology and cystoscopy
ANS: B PTS: 1
22. What is the term for the opening in a surgical drape that is placed over the operative site?
a. fenestration
b. orifice
c. slot
d. window
ANS: A PTS: 1
23. The thin, compressed sponges used during neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate neural
structures are called:
a. Cottonoids
b. Kitners
c. laps
d. Ray-Tecs
ANS: A PTS: 1
24. Into which classification of dressings would body and Minerva jackets and walking and spica casts
fall?
a. bulky
b. one-layer
c. pressure
d. rigid
ANS: D PTS: 1
25. A drain dressing is cut into which letter shape to accommodate the drain tube exiting the patient’s
body?
a. T
b. V
c. X
d. Y
ANS: D PTS: 1
28. By what action does a “cigarette” drain remove fluid from a wound?
a. active
b. capillary
c. suction
d. wicking
ANS: D PTS: 1
29. Bougie, Heaney, Hegar, and Van Buren are types of:
a. dilators
b. dissectors
c. drains
d. dressings
ANS: A PTS: 1
30. Which type of instrument often has a tungsten carbide insert and crosshatch serrations for
stabilization?
a. handheld retractor
b. needle holder
c. pneumatic drill
d. vascular clamp
ANS: B PTS: 1
31. What is the name of the paired parts of a hemostat that span between the box lock and the finger rings?
a. jaws
b. ratchets
c. shanks
d. tips
ANS: C PTS: 1
32. Metzenbaum, tenotomy, and Potts-Smith are examples of which type of instrument?
a. hemostats
b. retractors
c. scissors
d. tissue forceps
ANS: C PTS: 1
33. Which of the following is NOT a source of power for surgical powered instruments?
a. alternating current
b. direct current
c. nitrogen
d. solar
ANS: D PTS: 1
34. Which of the following types of surgical sponges are prepackaged in units of five?
a. Cottonoids
b. dissectors
c. laparotomy
d. Ray-Tecs
ANS: B PTS: 1
35. Op-site, collodion, adhesive gels, and Steri-strips are examples of which type of surgical dressing?
a. one-layer
b. pressure
c. rigid
d. three-layer
ANS: A PTS: 1
36. Kerlix fluffs, ABD pads, and plain 4 x 4 gauze sponges are examples of which part of a three-layer
dressing?
a. absorbent intermediate layer
b. binding outer layer
c. occlusive contact layer
d. permeable contact layer
ANS: A PTS: 1
37. A patient with a major abdominal wound requiring frequent dressing changes might have which type
of binding layer to prevent excoriation of the skin by constant removal of adhesive tape?
a. bolster
b. Montgomery straps
c. Minerva jacket
d. Queen Anne collar
ANS: B PTS: 1
38. Normal saline, antibiotic, and Dakin’s solution are used to facilitate mechanical debridement in which
type of dressing?
a. bolster
b. perineal
c. pressure
d. wet-to-dry
ANS: D PTS: 1
39. What is the term for the tread or tape sewn into a countable sponge that makes it visible on x-rays to
prevent a retained item?
a. radiofrequency
b. radiographic
c. radiolucent
d. radiopaque
ANS: D PTS: 1
40. What is the geometric shape usually achieved by the placement of the first layer of sterile surgical
drapes?
a. circle
b. rectangle
c. square
d. triangle
ANS: C PTS: 1
42. Which device is used unsterilely in surgery for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis?
a. intravascular catheter
b. nerve stimulator
c. pneumatic tourniquet
d. sequential compression device
ANS: D PTS: 1
43. The choice of wound dressing is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT:
a. location of the incision or wound
b. type and amount of drainage expected
c. ambulatory status of the patient post-op
d. condition of the incision/wound upon closure
ANS: C PTS: 1
44. Which type of surgical supply does NOT come with an option for being impregnated with iodine or
other antimicrobial agent?
a. gauze packing strips
b. incise drapes
c. occlusive contact dressing
d. radiopaque surgical sponges
ANS: D PTS: 1
45. Which of the following catheters is used to drain the kidney and is placed with the aid of a cystoscope?
a. Foley
b. Pezzer
c. ureteral
d. Malecot
ANS: C PTS: 1
46. The three lumens of a three-way Foley catheter are used for balloon inflation, urinary drainage, and:
a. continuous irrigation
b. decompression of the urethra
c. extraction of calculi
d. insufflation of carbon dioxide
ANS: A PTS: 1
47. Which type of urinary drainage catheter requires an incision and anchoring to the skin to prevent
dislodgement?
a. Coude´
b. Foley
c. red Robinson
d. suprapubic
ANS: D PTS: 1
49. Which of the following self-retaining retractors does NOT require attachment to the OR table?
a. Balfour
b. Bookwalter
c. Greenburg
d. Thompson
ANS: A PTS: 1
50. During laparoscopic procedures where carbon dioxide gas is used for insufflation, the intra-abdominal
pressure in the average healthy adult patient is kept at:
a. 8 –10 mm Hg
b. 10–12 mm Hg
c. 12–15 mm Hg
d. 15–20 mm Hg
ANS: C PTS: 1
51. What is the minimum number of suction systems or units required in an operating room?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
ANS: B PTS: 1
52. In general, after what length of continuous pneumatic tourniquet use should the extremity be allowed
to reperfuse before reinflating the tourniquet?
a. 30 minutes
b. one hour
c. 90 minutes
d. two hours
ANS: B PTS: 1
53. How are Ray-Tec sponges used during laparotomy procedures when the peritoneum is open?
a. They cannot be used at all.
b. They should be opened to full length.
Test Bank for Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist A Positive Care Approach, 4t
TRUE/FALSE
1. When passing suture to the surgeon, the next step should be to pass straight Mayo scissors to the
assistant.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. Syringes can be made of plastic, glass, metal, rubber, or a combination of any of these.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. Penrose drains are active drains that are connected to a reservoir called a J-P bulb or “grenade.”
ANS: F PTS: 1
4. One-layer dressings are used on large draining wounds to facilitate frequent dressing changes.
ANS: F PTS: 1
5. Instruments should be handed to the surgeon in a functional manner that allows the surgeon to use it
without repositioning.
ANS: T PTS: 1