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Brock Biology of Microorganisms, 14e (Madigan et al.)
Chapter 7 Metabolic Regulation
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Regulation of an enzyme's activity occurs

A) transcriptionally.
B) translationally.
C) posttranslationally.
D) at any point on the enzymatic production pathway.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension
Chapter Section: 7.18
2) When arginine is added to a culture growing exponentially in a medium without arginine,

what occurs?
A) All cellular growth ceases.
B) Growth continues, but the production of enzymes required for the synthesis of arginine
ceases.
C) Growth continues, but the production of enzymes required for the synthesis of arginine
increases.
D) The cell returns to the lag stage of growth to synthesize the proteins necessary for the
metabolism of arginine.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application
3) Regulatory proteins
A) are influenced by small molecules.
B) bind to specific DNA sites.
C) regulate transcription.
D) regulate transcription, bind specific DNA sites, and can be influenced by small molecules.
Answer: D
4) A protein region with a specific function and structure is called a

A) conserved site.
B) domain.
C) locale.
D) motif.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge
1
© Pearson Education Limited 2015
5) Transcriptional regulators bind most frequently at the ________ site of DNA.
A) major groove
B) minor groove
C) histone complex
D) primary supercoil
Answer: A
6) Which type of regulator(s) specifically bind to operator regions of DNA?

A) activators
B) activators and inducers
C) repressors
D) repressors and corepressors
Answer: C
7) The lac operon is an example of ________ control in which the presence of an ________ is
required for transcription to occur.
A) negative / activator
B) negative / inducer
C) positive / activator
D) positive / inducer
Answer: B
8) Enzyme induction occurs

A) when the substrate is present.
B) when the organism is environmentally stressed.
C) continuously.
D) when the substrate is depleted.
Answer: A
9) Considering the catabolite repression mechanism, which observation would make you suspect
it is NOT occurring?
A) CRP bound to promoter sites
B) elevated levels of transcripts for maltose and sucrose catabolism
C) relatively low intracellular cyclic AMP levels
D) RNA polymerase bound to biosynthetic promoter sequences
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluation
2
10) During a growth curve of Aliivibrio fischeri, when would you expect to see the strongest
bioluminescence?
A) lag phase
B) early to middle log phase
C) late log to early stationary phase
D) middle to late stationary phase
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analysis
11) What occurs when an inducer is added to an environment containing an organism with a
metabolic pathway controlled by a repressor?
A) The inducer combines with the repressor and activates the pathway.
B) The inducer combines with the repressor and inactivates the pathway.
C) The inducer combines with the substrate and blocks induction.
D) The inducer does not combine with, but functions as a chaperone molecule for, the enzyme-
substrate complex.
Answer: B
12) Which of the following do NOT bind to the promoter sequence during regulation?
A) activators
B) inducers
C) repressors
D) activators, inducers, and repressors
Answer: D
13) Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by an enzyme called ________ which is involved in
________.
A) adenylate cyclase / catabolite repression
B) adenylate cyclase / transcriptional activation
C) cAMP receptor protein (CRP) synthase / catabolite repression
D) cAMP receptor protein (CRP) synthase / transcriptional activation
Answer: A
3
14) In negative control of transcription, how does the presence of an inducer affect transcription?
A) The inducer binds to the operator.
B) The inducer does not bind to the operator.
C) The inducer causes the repressor to bind to the operator.
D) The inducer prevents the repressor from binding to the operator.
Answer: D
15) Which type of regulatory protein(s) is/are present in Archaea?

A) Activators that stimulate RNA polymerase activity are present in Archaea.
B) Repressors that block RNA polymerase activity are present in Archaea.
C) Both activators and repressors are present in Archaea.
D) Similar to regulation in Eukarya, Archaea lack bacterial-like regulators such as activators and
repressors and use transcription factors instead.
Answer: B
16) The function of a kinase is

A) methylation.
B) response regulation.
C) phosphorylation.
D) glycosylation.
Answer: C
17) The promoters of positively controlled operons require activator proteins, because
A) RNA polymerase easily recognizes the consensus sequence.
B) they are required to inactivate the repressor proteins.
C) the promoters have nucleotide sequences that bind RNA polymerase weakly, which are not
close matches to the consensus sequence.
D) they are needed to bind to the allosteric site of RNA polymerase.
Answer: C
18) To be most sensitive to a repellant, a methyl-accepting chemotaxis protein must be ________

methylated to initiate a ________.
A) fully / run
B) fully / tumble
C) not / run
D) not / tumble
Answer: B
4
19) The most frequent way in which regulatory RNA molecules exert their effects is by
A) base pairing with other RNA molecules that have regions of complementary sequence.
B) binding to a repressor and repressing enzyme transcription.
C) acting as an inducer that then binds to an activator protein to allow transcription to proceed.
D) signal transduction.
Answer: A
20) When a Bacillus anthracis population suddenly must form spores to survive a harsh nutrient
poor environment, how do the cells obtain energy?
A) Cells in a growth phase that have not used up all of their energy will be the only ones to make
endospores, which is why relatively few endospores are often made from a large population.
B) Intracellular energy reserves are quickly made available to produce endospores.
C) Slow responding cells are cannibalized by others that already began spore formation.
D) Global regulation is initiated to minimize energy waste in biosynthetic pathways and
catabolic pathways are increased to consume remaining usable substrates to fuel spore formation.
Answer: C
21) Interpret the results to the following experiment. Transcriptional activity of chemotactic
genes showed a high expression level during the following conditions: repelling away from
compound 1, moving towards compound 2, and remaining sessile when presented compounds 3
and 4.
A) Activity during movement in any direction led to high measurements observed, and the
sessile population responded equally to both a chemoattractant and a chemorepellant but
remained in the same location for their net movement.
B) Gene expression by itself cannot distinguish between cells responding to both an attractant
and repellent, so this ambiguity makes transcriptomics unfavorable but nonetheless indicates
activity.
C) The activity observed during a sessile existence suggests the molecular probe was targeting a
chemotactic gene that is also involved in other non-chemotactic functions due to the activity
observed.
D) Transcriptomics as a whole cannot be used for chemotaxis genes because they are not
regulated at the transcriptional level (i.e., they are constitutive), which is why activity is observed
on all three conditions.
Answer: D
5
22) Based on their abundance and location in bacterial genomes, deduce which is LEAST likely
to horizontally transfer into another bacterium while maintaining its identical function and
regulatory roles.
A) heat shock protein-encoding gene
B) lac operon
C) catabolic regulon
D) quorum sensing operon
Answer: C
23) In Bacteria, sensor kinases that respond to extracellular signals transfer this signal to the
cytoplasmic machinery by typically phosphorylating the ________ residues.
A) histidine
B) serine
C) threonine
D) tyrosine
Answer: A
24) Which enzyme would be BEST to include in a protein extract to refold and denature
improperly folded proteins?
A) DnaK
B) RepA
C) RpoH
D) Spo0A
Answer: C
25) Bacteria from the genus Caulobacter are used to model cellular differentiation in eukaryotes.
The abundance of CtrA, DnaA, and GcrA separately control activity of other genes necessary for
differentiation in Caulobacter. Thus, these three proteins can be classified as
A) activating sensors.
B) heterologous regulators.
C) differentiating regulons.
D) transcriptional regulators.
Answer: D
6
26) Which statement is TRUE of two separate regulators controlling one individual operon?
A) The two regulators themselves must respond to different signals, which enables both to
control the operon differently.
B) One regulator will likely control the transcription of one section of the operon, whereas the
other regulator will control the other component.
C) One regulator will bind to the operator region whereas the other will bind to the promoter
region so they can co-occur and co-regulate the operon.
D) Two regulators trying to control the same operon will likely result in only one being
maintained after several generations.
Answer: A
27) How would you design an sRNA to bind to a sequence?

A) select six continuous nucleotides from the sequence
B) take the complementary sequence of six continuous nucleotides
C) select 200 continuous nucleotides from the sequence
D) take the complementary sequence of 200 continuous nucleotides
Answer: D
28) Which of the following mechanisms leads to INCREASED transcriptional activity?

A) An sRNA binds to the ribosome binding site.
B) Ribonuclease activity is blocked by sRNA complementary binding to the end of a transcript.
C) The ribosome binding site is made available from sRNA binding to part of it.
D) Recruitment of RNA polymerase is enhanced when sRNA binds to and removes a repressor.
Answer: C
29) When the nontemplate strand of a gene is transcribed into RNA, what is likely to result?
A) A complementary sRNA will bind to it and form a functional ribozyme with secondary
structure.
B) It will complementary bind to the gene sequence, form a hairpin loop, and transcriptionally
repress the gene.
C) The complementary mRNA also transcribed from the template strand will bind to it and halt
its translation.
D) A global regulator will identify this as a stress, respond by inducing ribonuclease production,
and it will degraded.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis
7
30) How could you identify potential riboswitches with bioinformatics tools?
A) Advanced 3D modeling techniques of mRNA folding would be necessary because
complementary nucleotide binding predictions would not be useful.
B) Locate short regions of an individual transcript with several complementary sites.
C) Identify homologous sRNAs in other organisms.
D) Identify several complementary mRNAs encoded in the genome.
Answer: A
31) Based on our understanding of the early stages of life, ________ is/are thought to be one of
the earliest forms of metabolic regulation that evolved.
A) attenuation
B) feedback inhibition
C) riboswitches
D) transcription factors
Answer: C
32) Attenuation is a type of regulation that can control

A) allosteric enzyme activity.
B) transcriptional activity exclusively.
C) translational activity exclusively.
D) both transcriptional and translational activity.
Answer: B
33) Post-translational regulation of an enzyme's activity, such as glutamine synthetase, can be

finely controlled at varied levels due to
A) the varied strengths metabolite-regulating compounds can have with the enzyme such as
hydrogen bonding, covalent bonding, and van der Waals attractions.
B) having multiple independently functional subunits.
C) the structural strength enzymes have once properly folded compared to short-lived and easily
degradable transcripts during translational regulation.
D) weak chemical modifications of the enzyme rather than harsh protein-protein or protein-DNA
interactions.
Answer: B
8
34) Which of the following IS a characteristic of an isoenzyme?
A) More than one enzyme is regulated by the same mechanism.
B) The same reaction can be catalyzed by multiple enzyme variants.
C) Multiple binding sites on the same enzyme enable multiple regulation mechanisms.
D) More than one gene makes the same enzyme.
Answer: B
35) Which regulatory mechanism does NOT depend on a conformational change in

protein/enzyme structure to change activity?
A) attenuation
B) catabolite repression
C) feedback inhibition
D) negative control
Answer: A
36) An organism grown in a high nutrient liquid broth to high turbidity always appears to
produce a blue pigment and even when a large inoculum is transferred to a nutrient rich agar
plate it appears blue. When the researcher noticed it never appears blue when very small colonies
were grown in low nutrient agar plates. What is the most plausible conclusion?
A) Large populations enabled the differentiation of a subpopulation of cells that created the blue
pigment.
B) Only high nutrient conditions provide enough energy for cells to produce this secondary
metabolite that appears blue.
C) The blue pigment production is linked to quorum sensing.
D) The strong gradient from very high to low nutrient bioavailability induces production of the
blue metabolite.
Answer: C
37) A bacterium that either partially or fully catabolizes an acyl-homoserine lactone will likely
disrupt
A) attenuation.
B) chemotaxis.
C) endospore formation.
D) quorum sensing.
Answer: D
9
38) Phosphorylation of ________ regulates which direction a flagellum rotates, thus controlling
whether an organism runs or tumbles.
A) CheAW
B) CheB
C) CheY
D) CheZ
Answer: C
39) What are the primary regulator units that control endospore formation?
A) allosteric proteins
B) antisense RNAs
C) riboswitches
D) sigma factors
Answer: D
40) During the biotransformation of a large molecular weight compound, two major products are
formed. While one of the products is catabolized, the other compounds accumulation represses
the biotransformation of the large compound. Which approach is MOST likely to artificially
enhance the biotransformation beyond this point in a batch culture?
A) addition of an isoenzyme for the biotransformation route to increase its transcription
B) addition of inducer molecules into the medium to increase transcriptional repression
C) inclusion of more of an intermediate compound in the catabolic pathway
D) spike in additional activator proteins that control the transcription of this pathway
Answer: A
41) Quorum sensing generally follows the mechanism of which type of regulation?
A) feedback inhibition
B) negative transcriptional regulation
C) positive transcriptional regulation
D) two-component regulation system
Answer: D
10
42) What type of sRNA often requires a chaperon protein for strong regulation activity?
A) antisense RNA
B) riboswitches
C) siRNA
D) trans-sRNA
Answer: D
43) Which organism would likely harbor the MOST two-component regulatory systems?
A) an archaeon living in an extreme environment
B) a bacterium occupying a heterogeneous niche will high nutrient mixing
C) an organism capable of quorum sensing
D) a parasitic bacterium living inside another organism
Answer: B
44) How is the activity of a riboswitch controlled?

A) by other riboswitches
B) metabolite binding can change its structure
C) sigma factor binding alters its structure
D) small RNA complementary binding disrupts its function
Answer: B
45) Transcriptomics is a common approach to infer which metabolic pathways are actively
functioning, but which regulation process can MOST significantly complicate or even abolish
conclusions from this approach?
A) activity of a catabolite repressor protein on multiple pathways
B) antisense RNA silencing
C) feedback inhibition with allosteric proteins
D) presence of corepressors and inducers which are molecules undetected by transcriptomics
Answer: B
11
True/False Questions
1) Proteins required at approximately the same level throughout a cell's growth cycle are often
not subject to regulatory mechanisms and are constitutively synthesized.
Answer: TRUE
2) Short regions at the beginning and end of gene sequences are not translated into proteins.
Answer: TRUE
3) Small molecules usually act directly (rather than indirectly) in regulating transcription.
Answer: FALSE
4) A common structure for proteins that bind DNA is helix-turn-helix.

Answer: TRUE
5) The actual residues in a DNA-binding protein that interacts with DNA usually correspond to
each other according to the amino acids encoded by the DNA. For example, a DNA sequencing
containing AGC-AGA-CAG which encodes for Ser-Arg-Gln would likely have a DNA-binding
protein with Ser-Arg-Gln bind to it.
Answer: FALSE
6) Some proteins that bind to DNA block transcription, whereas other proteins can activate
transcription.
Answer: TRUE
7) The biodegradation pathway for benzoate is likely to be subject to induction rather than
repression.
Answer: TRUE
8) A repressor is a molecule that represses biosynthesis of an mRNA transcript.

Answer: FALSE
12
9) Once the regulatory proteins and effector molecules are made, the actual mechanisms for
regulation rarely require net energy input.
Answer: TRUE
10) Depending on the type of regulatory mechanism, activators and repressors can bind to
operator regions which control transcription.
Answer: FALSE
11) A regulon always includes at least two operons.

Answer: TRUE
12) Transcriptional regulation is considered negative when an inducer binds to and deactivates a
repressor.
Answer: TRUE
13) The preferential use of glucose over other available carbon substrates for growth is
mechanistically explained by catabolite repression.
Answer: TRUE
14) Proteins and RNA molecules that are needed in the cell, at about the same level under all
growth conditions, require constitutive expression.
Answer: TRUE
15) Studying the transcriptional activity of flagellar genes would not likely reveal differential
changes when the cells are actively motile compared to nonmotile activity, because a two-
component regulatory system is sufficient to control flagellar activity.
Answer: TRUE
13
16) A two-component regulatory system usually involves both the sensor and response proteins
being subject to phosphorylation.
Answer: TRUE
17) DNA-binding proteins typically affect translation of a protein.

Answer: FALSE
18) Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is involved in the global regulation of catabolic pathways in
Escherichia coli, including the lac operon, and a low activity of adenylate cyclase that makes
cAMP is suggestive of catabolite repression.
Answer: FALSE
19) Once cytoplasmic sensor proteins involved in chemotaxis regulation are phosphorylated, a
cascade of other phosphate-transferring mechanisms provide ATP energy to rotate flagella.
Answer: FALSE
20) In most cases, the first product of a particular biosynthetic pathway represses the enzymes of
the pathway.
Answer: FALSE
21) In catabolic repression, cells use the least abundant carbon source first.
Answer: FALSE
22) Quorum sensing requires a strong gradient to be reached before the signaling molecules are
transported into the cytoplasm.
Answer: FALSE
23) During chemotaxis, attractants increase the rate of autophosphorylation whereas repellants
decrease this rate.
Answer: FALSE
14
24) Multiple sigma factors are essential to induce the biosynthesis of endospores, all of which are
encoded by genes, so a complex regulatory mechanism such as this likely has a higher chance of
mutations leading to incorrect functioning compared to a simple repression mechanism.
Answer: TRUE
25) Heat shock proteins are produced at high numbers to minimize damaging effects during high
heat conditions as well as other stress signals unrelated to heat such as ultraviolet radiation.
Answer: TRUE
26) Multiple mechanisms for small RNA (sRNA)-mediated translational regulation exist but all
are unified by inactivating protein synthesis of the target mRNA.
Answer: FALSE
Essay Questions
1) What is the difference between an operator and a promoter?

Answer: A promoter sequence is found upstream of all genes and is the site where RNA
polymerase binds for transcription to begin. An operator is again a nucleotide sequence but is
found only in operons and regulons. The operator region, depending on a cell's regulatory
mechanisms, is where an activator and repressor bind to either turn on or off transcription.
2) How is the leucine zipper formed, and what is its function?

Answer: The leucine zipper is a specific domain, or a specific region within a protein,
containing leucine amino acids repeated every seven residues, which do not directly bind to
DNA. Its formation occurs abiotically once the protein is translated and functions by containing
two DNA recognition helices within the protein that bind to DNA.
3) Describe the function and the functional components of the maltose regulon system.
Answer: The textbook shows each component of the maltose regulon in Figure 7.9, where the
activator binds to the operator only when the inducer is present and bound to the activator. RNA
polymerase can then bind to the promoter region to transcribe the structural genes into mRNA.
15
4) Using the tryptophan operon as a model, explain a transcription pause site and the formation
of a stem-loop.
Answer: A pause in mRNA transcription occurs when tryptophan is in short supply and
therefore requires the additional recruitment of a charged tryptophan tRNA for its synthesis. This
lag or pause time provides the already synthesized mRNA component to bind to a different part
of the transcript than would occur if there were no pause time. This different hairpin loop formed
does not interact with the DNA sequence and therefore permits RNA polymerase to continue
transcribing the entire mRNA, unlike what would occur if a lag time were absent.
5) Explain the translational attenuation mechanism.

Answer: Attenuation is a mechanism that controls translation of DNA into mRNA. Once the
mRNA transcript begins being synthesized, this leader region's capacity to base pair with itself
and form a hairpin loop structure results in premature termination of the mRNA transcript. In the
end, RNA polymerase cannot bind if there is a physical barrier on its binding site.
6) Explain the phenomenon known as diauxic growth. Hypothesize why this type of regulation
might be important for survival of a microbe in a community as well as a situation where lacking
it might be advantageous.
Answer: As an example, Escherichia coli exposed to two highly labile substrates such as
glucose and lactose will preferentially use the most labile glucose substrate before lactose.
Diauxie therefore explains how cells control gene expression, often as operons and regulons, to
achieve the fastest growth rate. If a cell were to not have this mechanism, they might be
outcompeted in the environment by other quicker growing and replicating cells. Lacking a global
catabolite regulation system might be advantageous for cells occurring in a heterogenous mixture
where specializing on an individual substrate provides poor growth yields.
7) Describe the basic two-component regulatory system, and compare the function of each
component.
Answer: The first component of the system involves sensing a signal from the environment
using a sensor kinase protein bound within the cell's membrane exposed to the environment. The
kinase autophosphorylates itself once signaled and creates a phosphate ion for the second
component. A response regulator protein occurring within the cell's cytoplasm then binds the
phosphate ion and finally binds DNA. The regulation in response to this DNA binding can either
be positive or negative, depending on the system.
16
8) Compare and contrast chemical, spatial, and temporal gradients as found in bacterial
regulatory systems.
Answer: Bacteria cannot sense spatial gradients of chemicals due to their small size, so they are
capable only of determining a chemical gradient over time. The temporal changes of a chemical
are sensed with a two-component system. In the example of chemotaxis, an attractant or
repellant's presence, results in a change in activity of pre-existing flagella.
9) Explain why regulation of enzyme synthesis is more time consuming than regulation of
enzymatic activity.
Answer: Regulating enzyme synthesis requires either controlling transcription, translation, or
both. The controlling mechanisms themselves do not take an especially long time, but because
already translated proteins will still be able to catalyze reactions, a sudden halt in enzyme
synthesis has a phenotypic lag. On the other hand, enzyme activity can occur in the timeframe of
seconds because once posttranslational modification is done to a protein, the effects are
essentially immediate.
10) Illustrate and explain an operon that is subject to both positive and negative control
containing the operator region, the operon, the promoter, the activator binding site, and the
functional genes in a DNA sequence. Also compare and contrast the roles activators and
repressors have in regulating the illustrated operon.
Answer: A combination of Figure 7.8 in the textbook illustrates the lac operon in the following
order: promoter, operator, and functional genes (5' to 3') and Figure 7.9 shows the mal operon
with the activator binding site, promoter, and functional genes (5' to 3'). The complete order for
both control systems is: activator binding site, promoter, operator, and functional genes (5' to 3').
For the operon to be subject to a repressor blocking RNA polymerase activity, it must be
downstream of the promoter site. The positive control (activator) does not necessarily have to be
proximal to the promoter and can be distant so long as the sequence can fold to recruit RNA
polymerase. In both cases these regulators can also be controlled by other (inducer and
corepressor) molecules. They are both unified in their overall control of functional gene
transcription.
11) Explain the sequence of events that would follow the transfer of an organism from a complex
medium to a minimal medium.
Answer: Answers will vary but should include the overall need for an increased number of
genes to be turned on, which were not necessary in a complex medium. For example, tRNA
synthetases for amino acids would need to be made if the minimal medium did not contain
sufficient quantities of each amino acid required during translation of peptides.
17
12) Defend why is it unsurprising that two-component regulatory systems are all but absent in
bacteria that live at the expense of a host?
Answer: Answers will vary, but a possible explanation is that an organism that has adapted to
living inside of a host has such a narrow metabolic capacity that responses to nutrient limitation
are less necessary than a bacterium growing in a dynamic community.
13) Explain why one cell of a pathogenic bacterium by itself typically does not secrete a toxin,
despite the species as a whole being characterized as toxin producing. To help in your
explanation, predict what would happen to an individual pathogen that secreted a toxin inside a
human.
Answer: One pathogenic bacterium is unlikely to be able to produce a sufficient number of toxin
molecules to cause a disease. If one cell did this by itself in a human, it would likely be killed off
quickly by the immune system. Once the bacterium grows to a sufficient quantity that it can
cause disease through the production of toxins, coordination of toxin production by the
population is performed in the example of quorum sensing. The production of a toxin by a single
cell would likely alert the immune system a foreign bacterium is present and would be killed by
a healthy immune system.
14) How is transcription in Archaea controlled?

Answer: Archaea have mechanisms to control transcription, which are most similar to those
found in Bacteria rather than other mechanisms such as those in Eukarya. They contain both
activators and repressors, which can regulate RNA polymerase activity in either a positive or
negative way.
15) Contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic regulation of gene expression.

Answer: Transcription and translation are coordinately performed in both Archaea and Bacteria,
whereas the processes occur separately in Eukarya.
16) Explain the function of cAMP in catabolite repression.

Answer: Adenylate cyclase synthesizes the regulatory nucleotide cAMP, and when the substrate
glucose is present this process is inhibited (or repressed). This means glucose is a preferred
substrate for catabolism in cells that contain this mechanism, such as E. coli. Once glucose has
been used up, cAMP is then produced, which forms a cAMP–CAP–DNA complex, resulting in
transcription of the genes that the CAP correspond to, and catabolism of an additional substrate
can be performed.
18
Test Bank for Brock Biology of Microorganisms 14th Edition Michael T Madigan Download
17) A cocktail of 30 compounds was identified to harbor a corepressor, and subsequent

separation and purification was performed to test individual compounds. Describe an experiment
that would enable you to identify the specific compound that acts as a corepressor for a catabolic
pathway. Be certain to explain what will be measured and how you could conclude which
compound is a corepressor.
Answer: Experimental designs will vary, especially in whether transcripts, proteins, or enzyme
function is quantified, all of which would enable measuring activity of the repressor. In all cases,
a compound added to the system which shows significantly lower (basal) activity would indicate
it is a corepressor. Compounds that do not act as a corepressor would result in no change in
activity, meaning transcripts, proteins, and enzyme function would still be observed.
18) In considering the function of heat shock proteins, why is it not a surprise that these proteins
are both highly conserved and very ancient? Provide your reasoning.
Answer: Answers will vary, but one idea is for an organism to survive in the environment, it
must be able to survive unfavorable conditions. Recognizing that heat shock proteins generally
facilitate the refolding or removal of misfolded proteins, whether it be from heat or other
conditions, it makes sense these are so critical for a cell to survive that they would have needed
to be present even in ancient organisms to survive. Additionally, whether a protein is misfolded
in a eukaryote or a prokaryote, it seems likely a heat shock protein to refold it could be the same
and therefore might explain its high conservation throughout all life forms.
19) Explain why cellular cannibalism is beneficial for sporulating Bacillus subtilis.
Answer: A cell that undergoes sporulation in response to unfavorable environmental conditions
still requires nutrient sources during the process, so some cells are lysed to free up essential,
scarce nutrients. After a five sensor kinase phosphorylates Spo0A that activates sporulation and
also induces the release of toxic proteins, lysis of other non-activated Spo0A cells occurs. So,
any cells that have Spo0A activated are not lysed, can pick up these available nutrients, and
sporulate.
20) Provide evidence that supports the hypothesis that riboswitches are remnants of the RNA
world when catalytic RNAs were the only self-replicating life forms.
Answer: Answers will vary, but one focus could be on their presence in bacteria that are
considered to have evolved well before Eukarya, yet riboswitches are generally lacking in
eukaryotes. If no other life forms were around and RNA was the only replicating form, the
function of riboswitches could explain a (primitive) mechanism to control its own synthesis.
19
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Multiple Choice Questions

1) Regulation of an enzyme's activity occurs

2) When arginine is added to a culture growing exponentially in a medium without arginine,

4) A protein region with a specific function and structure is called a

6) Which type of regulator(s) specifically bind to operator regions of DNA?

8) Enzyme induction occurs

15) Which type of regulatory protein(s) is/are present in Archaea?

16) The function of a kinase is

18) To be most sensitive to a repellant, a methyl-accepting chemotaxis protein must be ________

27) How would you design an sRNA to bind to a sequence?

28) Which of the following mechanisms leads to INCREASED transcriptional activity?

32) Attenuation is a type of regulation that can control

33) Post-translational regulation of an enzyme's activity, such as glutamine synthetase, can be

35) Which regulatory mechanism does NOT depend on a conformational change in

44) How is the activity of a riboswitch controlled?

4) A common structure for proteins that bind DNA is helix-turn-helix.

8) A repressor is a molecule that represses biosynthesis of an mRNA transcript.

11) A regulon always includes at least two operons.

17) DNA-binding proteins typically affect translation of a protein.

1) What is the difference between an operator and a promoter?

2) How is the leucine zipper formed, and what is its function?

5) Explain the translational attenuation mechanism.

14) How is transcription in Archaea controlled?

15) Contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic regulation of gene expression.

16) Explain the function of cAMP in catabolite repression.

17) A cocktail of 30 compounds was identified to harbor a corepressor, and subsequent

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