IAS Prelims - 2022

PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02

ANSWER BOOKLET

ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK TEST

GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I

RE
Answer Key

Q. 1 (c) Q. 26 (c) Q. 51 (a) Q. 76 (b)

Q. 2 (d) Q. 27 (b) Q. 52 (a) Q. 77 (b)
Q. 3 (b) Q. 28 (d) O Q. 53 (b) Q. 78 (d)
Q. 4 (a) Q. 29 (b) Q. 54 (a) Q. 79 (b)
Q. 5 (a) Q. 30 (a) Q. 55 (d) Q. 80 (a)
Q. 6 (b) Q. 31 (d) Q. 56 (b) Q. 81 (a)
SC
Q. 7 (c) Q. 32 (b) Q. 57 (a) Q. 82 (b)
Q. 8 (d) Q. 33 (c) Q. 58 (b) Q. 83 (c)
Q. 9 (b) Q. 34 (c) Q. 59 (d) Q. 84 (a)
Q. 10 (a) Q. 35 (c) Q. 60 (d) Q. 85 (b)
Q. 11 (d) Q. 36 (b) Q. 61 (a) Q. 86 (b)
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Q. 12 (d) Q. 37 (a) Q. 62 (c) Q. 87 (b)

Q. 13 (b) Q. 38 (a) Q. 63 (c) Q. 88 (d)
Q. 14 (a) Q. 39 (c) Q. 64 (c) Q. 89 (d)
Q. 15 (b) Q. 40 (a) Q. 65 (c) Q. 90 (d)
Q. 16 (c) Q. 41 (d) Q. 66 (c) Q. 91 (b)
Q. 17 (d) Q. 42 (d) Q. 67 (b) Q. 92 (b)
Q. 18 (b) Q. 43 (a) Q. 68 (a) Q. 93 (c)
Q. 19 (c) Q. 44 (c) Q. 69 (a) Q. 94 (a)
Q. 20 (b) Q. 45 (c) Q. 70 (a) Q. 95 (b)
Q. 21 (d) Q. 46 (a) Q. 71 (d) Q. 96 (d)
Q. 22 (b) Q. 47 (c) Q. 72 (d) Q. 97 (b)
Q. 23 (c) Q. 48 (d) Q. 73 (a) Q. 98 (a)
Q. 24 (a) Q. 49 (a) Q. 74 (d) Q. 99 (a)
Q. 25 (b) Q. 50 (d) Q. 75 (c) Q. 100 (a)

1 PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
1. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
VENESAT-1
 Venezuela’s only geostationary
communications satellite, VENESAT-1
(also known as Simon Bolivar-1), has
been tumbling in an unusable orbit since
13 March 2020 after it made a number of
manoeuvres.
 According to Space News, Venezuela’s
satellite, VeneSat-1 satellite has been
stuck for 11 days in an elliptical orbit
above the geostationary arc. This has
been observed two US companies that
track satellites.
 VeneSat-1 satellite was built by Venezuelan
space agency ABAE in association with
China Great Wall Industry Corp. and
launched in late 2008.

O
The launch of VeneSat-1 satellite was
intended to provide television and
broadband services to Venezuela.
 VeneSat-1 is CGWIC’s first satellite in-
SC
orbit delivery contract signed with a Latin
American customer, and also marks the
first space cooperation project between
China and Venezuela.
 The VeneSat-1 Communications Satellite
was designed and manufactured by China
Academy of Space Technology (CAST).
GS
 It is a communications satellite based
on the DFH-4 satellite platform, and is
fitted with 28 transponders, including
14 C-band, 12 Ku-band and 2 Ka-band
transponders.
 To meet the complicated coverage
requirements, VeneSat-1 is fitted with four
shaped communication antennas covering
South America and the Caribbean.
 The lift-off mass of VeneSat-1 is about
5050kg. Its end-of-life power exceeds 7.75
KW and the satellite has a service life
span of 15 years.
 The website further reported that both
Venezuela and China planned in January
this year to develop a replacement satellite
titled VeneSat-2, which would continue
service after VeneSat-1 retired. The first
one was expected to remain in service till
atleast 2024.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
2. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Nile River
 A decade long dispute between Egypt and
Ethiopia over water supply on the Nile
River has time again created tension in
the region post USC research forecasting
water supply and economic risks mounting
over Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam.
 Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam, or
Gerd formerly known as the Millennium
Dam, is under construction in the
Benishangul-Gumuz region of Ethiopia,
RE
on the Blue Nile River, which is located
about 40km east of Sudan. The project
is owned by Ethiopian Electric Power
Corporation (EEPCO).
 The Blue Nile, whose sources are in
Ethiopia, emerges from Lake Tana and
accounts for more than 80 per cent of the
Nile River’s water. It meets the White
Nile, which is longer of the two, outside
Khartoum, Sudan’s capital and forms
Nile River.
 The Nile River flows from south to north
through eastern Africa.
 It’s three main tributaries are the White
Nile, the Blue Nile, and the Atbara.
 It begins in the rivers that flow into Lake
Victoria located in modern-day Uganda,
Tanzania, and Kenya, and empties into
the Mediterranean Sea via its two
distributaries namely the Rosetta
Branch to the west and the Damietta
to the east, forming the Nile Delta.
 In addition to Egypt, the Nile runs through
or along the border of 10 other African
countries, namely, Burundi, Tanzania,
Rwanda, the Democratic Republic of the
Congo, Kenya, Uganda, Sudan, Ethiopia,
and South Sudan.
3. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Quikik
 To aid students with online self-study
solutions during these testing times,
2
 Pearson, the world’s leading learning
company, announced the launch of
“Quikik”, a new AI-based Math learning
app which helps students reinforce their
Math skills and feeds your 10-14 year
old’s appetite for snack-size learning in a
fun & engaging manner.
 In addition to this, the company also
announced support for IIT-JEE students
and institutes in the form of free access to
its MyInsights Online Mock Test Series
to ensure seamless preparation time &
resources to the students in the form of
personalized digital assessment tool.
 Quikik is the innovative AI-assisted
Mathematics app which identifies math
challenges, gaps in learning and creates
a quick route to math mastery.
 Developed by Pearson professionals,
Quikik is speedy, engaging, thorough &
stress-free and provides a series of simple
bite sized videos which will not only aid
learners to strengthen their concepts in
Math, but also help them use their time
4. Correct Option: (a)
O
productively during social distancing.
SC
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The functions
of the Diwani and Nizamat came under
the control of EIC after the Battle of
Buxar.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: Awadh
turning into a buffer state was the result
GS
of the Treaty of Allahabad (1765), after
the Battle of Buxar.
Supplementary notes:
Battle of Plassey
 The beginnings of British political sway
over India may be traced to the battle of
Plassey in 1757, when the English East
India Company’s forces defeated Siraj-ud-
Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal.
 Causes of the battle:
 The Company had secured valuable
privileges in 1717 ‘under a royal
farman’ by the Mughal Emperor,
which had granted the Company
the freedom to export and import
their goods in Bengal without paying
taxes and the right to issue passes
or dastaks for the movement of such
goods. The Company’s servants were
also permitted to trade but were not
3 PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
covered by this Farman and were
required to pay the same taxes as
Indian merchants.
 This Farman was a perpetual source
of conflict between the Company and
the Nawabs of Bengal. For one, it
meant loss of revenue to the Bengal
Government. ‘Secondly, the power
to issue dastaks for the Company’s
goods was misused by the Company’s
servants to evade taxes on their private
trade.
 Without taking the Nawab’s permission,
the Company began to fortify Calcutta
in expectation of the coming struggle
with the French, who were stationed
at this time at Chandernagore.
RE
 Siraj·ud·Daulah interpreted this
as an attack on his sovereignty and
ordered both the English and French
to demolish their fortifications.
 While the French obliged, English
refused to do so. This set the stage for
a battle which took place on the field of

Plassey on 23rd June, 1757.
The fateful battle of Plassey was a battle
only in name. In all, the English lost 29
men while the Nawab lost nearly 500. The
major part of the Nawab’s army, led by
the traitors Mir Jafar and Rai Durlabh,
took no part in the fighting.
 After the battle, Mir Jafar was proclaimed
the Nawab of Bengal and the company
was granted undisputed right to free
trade in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. It also
received the zamindari of the 24 Parganas
near Calcutta.
 The Battle of Plassey had political
significance for it laid the foundation of
the British Empire in India.
 The battle established the military
supremacy of the English in Bengal. Their
main rivals, the French, were ousted.
5. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Gulf of Fonseca
 Gulf of Fonseca located in the Pacific
Ocean is bounded northwest by El
Salvador, northeast by Honduras,
and southeast by Nicaragua.
  The gulf is fed by the Goascorán,
Choluteca, and Negro rivers of Honduras
and the Estero Real River of Nicaragua.
 The city will be built near the Conchagua
volcano to take advantage of the country’s
geothermal energy— to power both the
city and cryptocurrency mining —an
energy consuming process.
 El Salvador, the only country to recognise
Bitcoin as a legal tender, is planning to
build an entire city based on the largest
cryptocurrency Bitcoin.
 El Salvador’s “Bitcoin City” would be
funded with the issuance of a $1 billion
Bitcoin Bond. The city will be located along
the Gulf of Fonseca near a Conchagua
volcano.
6. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It was released
virtually by the United States Geological
Survey (USGS), National Aeronautics
and Space Administration (NASA) and
O Explanation:
the Lunar Planetary Institute.
Supplementary notes:
SC
Unified Geologic Map of the Moon
 Called the ‘Unified Geologic Map of the
Moon’, it is a ‘seamless, globally consistent,
1:5,000,000-scale geologic map’.
 The moon the closest cosmic body to
Earth through which space discovery can
be attempted and documented has always
GS
piqued the interest of humanity.
 The researchers built on the original
digital renovation of the six 1:5,000,000-
scale lunar geologic maps comprising of
the near, central far, east, west, north and
south sides that was released in 2013.
 The final map consists of 43 geologic units
across the entire lunar surface, broken
down into groups based on characteristics
like materials of craters, basins, terra,
plains and volcanic units.
 Data from recent satellite missions to the
moon and resources data from NASA’s
Apollo Missions were used to come up
with the map.
 This version of the map is a digital
release only available in GIS and PDF
formats. The map can be downloaded
from the Unified Geologic Map of the
Moon website.
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 The mapping process:
 To make the digital map a reality,
scientists used information gathered
from six Apollo-days regional maps,
interpolated with more recent satellite
missions to lunar space.
 The existing historical maps were
redrawn to line them up with more
modern datasets. This preserved
previous observations and geological
interpretations.
 In addition to merging new and old
data, USGS researchers also worked
on a unified description of stratigraphy
— also called rock layers — on the
surface of the moon.
RE
 This helped resolve issues from
previous maps, when rock names, ages,
and descriptions were periodically
inconsistent.
7. Correct Option: (c)
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Chakmas and Hajongs
 The Rights and Risks Analysis Group
(RRAG) urged Prime Minister Narendra
Modi to intervene with the Government
of Arunachal Pradesh against massive
hunger and starvation among 65,875
Chakmas and Hajongs, who are citizens
of India, because of their exclusion from
the “economic package for vulnerable
sections in these difficult times of Covid-
19 pandemic.
 The Chakmas and Hajongs are citizens
of India. The Chakmas and Hajongs are
ethnic people who lived in the Chittagong
Hill Tracts, most of which are located in
Bangladesh.
 The Chakmas and Hajongs, originally
residents of the Chittagong Hill Tracts
of the former East Pakistan, had to flee
when their land was submerged by the
Kaptai dam project in the 1960s.
 Buddhists by faith, the Chakmas faced
religious persecution in East Pakistan
along with the Hajongs, who are Hindus.
 Out of those who reached India, most of
them were Chakmas and only 2,000 were
Hajongs.
4
  The groups entered India through what
was then the Lushai Hills district of
Assam (today’s Mizoram).
 While some stayed back with Chakmas
already living in the Lushai Hills, the
Indian government moved a majority of
the refugees to present-day Arunachal
Pradesh.
8. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Languages and Literature
 The Vijayanagara period was the golden
age of Telugu literature.
 Nachana Somanatha, a court poet of
Bukka I, produced a poetical work titled
Uttaraharivamsam.
 Krishnadevaraya (1509-1529), the

was a poet of great merit.
O
greatest of the Vijayanagar emperors,
His work Amukta Malyada is regarded
as an excellent prabandha in Telugu
SC
literature.
 Eight Telugu literary luminaries,
popularly known as ashtadiggajas
adorned Krishnadevaraya’s court.
 Among them, Allasani Peddana, the
author of Manucharitram, was the
greatest.
GS
 He was known as Andhra
kavitapitamaha.
 The other seven poets of the group
were Nandi Timmana, the author of
Parijathapaharanam, Madayagari
Mallana, Dhurjati, Ayyalaraju
Ramabhadra Kavi, Pingali Surana,
Ramaraja Bhushana and Tenali
Ramakrishna.
 Pampa, known as the father of
Kannada wrote his great poetic
works Adi Purana and Vïkramarjiva
Vijaya in the tenth century AD.
 Pampa lived in the court of Chalukya
Arikesari.
 In his poetic skill, beauty of
description, delineation of character
and development of rasa, Pampa is
unrivalled.
5 PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 The other eminent poet of this period
was the great Sarvajna, popularly
known as the people’s poet.
 His aphoristic tripadi (three-lined)
compositions serve as a source of
wisdom and ethics.
9. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a highly
contagious viral disease of domestic and
wild pigs.
Supplementary notes:
African swine fever (ASF)
 African swine fever (ASF) is a highly
RE
contagious haemorrhagic viral disease
of domestic and wild pigs, which is
responsible for serious economic and
production losses.
 It is a transboundary animal disease
(TAD) which can be spread by live or
dead pigs, domestic or wild, and pork

products.
It is caused by a large DNA virus of the
Asfarviridae family, which also infects
ticks of the genus Ornithodoros.
 Its transmission can also occur via
contaminated feed and fomites (non-living
objects) such as shoes, clothes, vehicles,
knives, equipment etc., due to the high
environmental resistance of ASF virus.
 The epidemiology of ASF is complex and
varies depending on the environment,
types of pig production systems, presence/
absence of competent tick vectors, human
behaviour, and the presence/absence of
wild pigs.
10. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The
domestically produced natural gas will
not be sold at the IGX Platform.
Supplementary notes:
Indian Gas Exchange (IGX)
 The IGX is a digital trading platform that
will allow buyers and sellers of natural
gas to trade both in the spot market
and in the forward market for imported
natural gas across three hubs —Dahej
and Hazira in Gujarat, and Kakinada in
Andhra Pradesh.
  Imported Liquified Natural Gas (LNG)
will be regassified and sold to buyers
through the exchange, removing the
requirement for buyers and sellers to find
each other.
 It will mean that buyers do not have to
contact multiple dealers to ensure they
find a fair price.
 The exchange also allows much shorter
contracts – for delivery on the next day,
and up to a month – while ordinarily
contracts for natural gas supply are as
long as six months to a year.
 The price of domestically produced natural
gas is decided by the government. It will
not be sold on the gas exchange.
 Domestic production of gas has been
falling over the past two fiscals as current
sources of natural gas have become less
productive.
 Domestically produced natural gas
currently accounts for less than half
the country’s natural gas consumption;
imported LNG accounts for the other
half.
O (CO),
 Currently, the pipeline infrastructure
necessary for the transportation of natural
gas is controlled by the companies that
SC
own the network.
 State-owned GAIL owns and operates
India’s largest gas pipeline network,
spanning over 12,000 km.
11. Correct Option: (d)
GS
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Gallantry Awards
Post-independence, first three gallantry

awards namely Param Vir Chakra,
Maha Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra were
instituted by the Government of India on
26th January, 1950 which were deemed to
have effect from the 15th August, 1947.
 Thereafter, other three gallantry
awards i.e. Ashoka Chakra Class-I,
Ashoka Chakra Class-II and Ashoka
Chakra Class-III were instituted by the
Government of India on 4th January,
1952, which were deemed to have effect
from the 15th August, 1947.
 These awards were renamed as Ashoka
Chakra, Kirti Chakra and Shaurya
Chakra respectively in January, 1967.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 These gallantry awards are announced
twice in a year - first on the occasion of the
Republic Day and then on the occasion of
the Independence Day.
 Order of precedence of these awards is the
Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra,
the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra,
the Vir Chakra and the Shaurya Chakra.
12. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Air pollutants from Vehicular
emissions:
RE
 The release of pollutants from vehicles
also includes fugitive emissions of the
fuel and the source and level of these
emissions depending upon the vehicle
type, its maintenance, etc.
 The major pollutants released as vehicle/
fuel emissions are, carbon monoxide
nitrogen oxides (NOx),
photochemical oxidants, air toxics,
namely benzene (C6H6), aldehydes,
1,3 butadiene (C4H6), lead (Pb),
particulate matter (PM), hydrocarbon
(HC), oxides of sulphur (SO2) and
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
(PAHs).
 It has been reported that vehicles in idling
or in driving mode, fuelled with gasoline
or diesel or liquefied petroleum gas, emit
mercury in the air.
 Mercury (Hg) emissions from gasoline,
diesel, and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)
vehicles were measured and speciated
(particulate, oxidized, and elemental
mercury).
13. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Niccolao
Manucci is famous for his work “Storia do
Mogor”, an account of Mughal history and
life.
Supplementary notes:
Travelers of Medieval India
 François Bernier, a Frenchman, was
a doctor, political philosopher and
historian. François Bernier wrote Travels
in the Mughal Empire, which is mainly
about the reigns of Dara Shikoh and
Aurangzeb.
6
  Niccolao Manucci (19 April 1638–1717)
was a Venetian writer, doctor and
traveller, who wrote a first-hand account of
the Mughal Empire. Niccolao Manucci
is famous for his work “Storia do
Mogor”, an account of Mughal history
and life.
 Al-Biruni was born in 973, in Khwarizm
in present day Uzbekistan. Al-Biruni’s
Kitab-ul-Hind, written in Arabic,
is simple and lucid. Hence Pair 1 is
correctly matched.
 Ibn Battuta’s book of travels, called
Rihla, written in Arabic, provides
extremely rich and interesting details
about the social and cultural life in
the subcontinent in the fourteenth
century. Unlike most other members
of his class, Ibn Battuta considered
experience gained through travels to be a
more important source of knowledge than
books.
14. Correct Option: (a) O land degradation by the end of the
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
SC
Post-Independence India: Important
events
 Railway network nationalisation:
Railways network was nationalised
in 1951 and was initially divided into
three zones. Indian Railways is now one
of the world’s largest railway networks
GS
comprising 119,630 km of tracks and
7,216 stations.
 Asia’s first nuclear reactor: India
designed and built Asia’s first nuclear
reactor Apsara nuclear reactor on August
4, 1956.
 Shimla Agreement: India and Pakistan
signed the pact in 1972 “to settle their
differences by peaceful means through
bilateral negotiations”.
 First Indian satellite made: India designed
first space satellite in 1975, named it after
astronomer Aryabhata.
15. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Methane
Pledge was launched by the European
Union and USA, which aims to reduce
7 PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
methane emissions by 30% below 2020
levels by 2030.
Supplementary notes:
UNFCCC COP 26
 The CoP26 global climate conference was
held in Glasgow, Scotland.
 Methane Pledge:
 The European Union (EU) and
the US have launched a landmark
pledge to slash emissions of the
powerful greenhouse gas methane, a
commitment that could prevent 0.2
degrees Celsius of global warming.
 The alliance’s members will seek to
lower global emissions of methane - the
second-largest contributor to climate
RE
change after carbon dioxide - by 30%
below 2020 levels by 2030.
 Deforestation Pledge:
 More than 100 national leaders pledged
to halt and reverse deforestation and
decade, underpinned by USD 19 billion
in public and private funds to invest in
protecting and restoring forests.
 Infrastructure for Resilient Island
States:
 India launched this initiative as a
part of the CDRI that would focus on
building capacity, having pilot projects,
especially in small island developing
states.
 As OSOWOG is a specific work
programme to realize the objectives of
the ISA, IRIS seeks to operationalize
the CDRI initiative.
 Small island states are the most
vulnerable to the impacts of climate
change. As sea levels rise, they face a
threat of being wiped off the map.
 According to CDRI, several small
island states have lost 9 per cent of
their GDPs in single disasters during
the last few years.
 One Sun One World One Grid Group
(OSOWOG)
 It is an initiative by India and the
United Kingdom to tap solar energy
and have it travel seamlessly across
borders.
 Call for Climate Finance:
 India noted that climate finance cannot
continue at the levels decided in 2009
 (100 billion USD), and emphasised
that it should be at least USD 1 trillion
to meet the goals of addressing climate
change.
16. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbohydrates
in the food serve as the primary sources of
energy but in a situation of ‘low energy’ or
low glucose level or prolonged starvation
any carbon-containing nutrient especially
fats and proteins (in the same order) can
serve as an energy source.
 Statement 4 is incorrect: Human body
can synthesize only vitamin B3 (niacin)
and vitamin D, other vitamins must be
supplied by the diet.
Supplementary notes:
Nutrients in the human diet
 The nutrients that provide energy are
commonly referred to as macronutrients
O
(carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins).
 Carbohydrates (CHOs) and proteins
provide a similar amount of energy per
gram of food. Lipids are a concentrated
SC
source of energy and provide almost twice
the amount of energy supplied by proteins
and carbohydrates.
 CHOs = 16 kJ per gram of CHO
 Protein = 17 kJ per gram of protein.
 Lipids = 37 kJ per gram of lipid.
GS
Water-soluble vitamins (B complex
group and vitamin C)
 Eight of the water-soluble vitamins are
known as the vitamin B-complex group:
thiamin (vitamin B1), riboflavin (vitamin
B2), niacin (vitamin B3), vitamin B6
(pyridoxine), folate (folic acid), vitamin
B12, biotin, and pantothenic acid. The B
vitamins are widely distributed in foods,
and their influence is felt in many parts
of the body. They function as coenzymes
that help the body obtain energy from
food.
 The body needs vitamin C, also known
as ascorbic acid or ascorbate, to remain
in proper working condition. Vitamin C
benefits the body by holding cells together
through collagen synthesis; collagen is
a connective tissue that holds muscles,
bones, and other tissues together.
Vitamin C also aids in wound healing,
bone, and tooth formation, strengthening
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
blood vessel walls, improving immune
system function, increasing absorption
and utilization of iron, and acting as
an antioxidant. Vitamin C works with
vitamin E as an antioxidant.
 Humans cannot synthesize vitamins
A, B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B5
(pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7
(biotin), B9 (folate), B12 (cobalamin), E,
and K but can synthesize some vitamin
B3 (niacin) and D.
Food digestion in the oral/buccal
cavity
 The extensive chemical process of
digestion begins in the mouth.
 As food is chewed, saliva, produced by
the salivary glands, mixes with the food.
RE
Saliva is a watery substance produced in
the mouths of many animals. Three major
glands secrete saliva: the parotid, the
submandibular, and the sublingual.
 Saliva contains mucus that moistens food
and buffers the pH of the food. Saliva also
contains immunoglobulins and lysozymes,
which have antibacterial action to reduce
tooth decay by inhibiting the growth of
some bacteria. In addition, saliva contains
an enzyme called salivary amylase that
begins the process of converting starches
in the food into a disaccharide called
maltose.
 Another enzyme, lipase, is produced by
the cells in the tongue. It is a member of
a class of enzymes that can break down
triglycerides. Lingual lipase begins the
breakdown of fat components in the food.
The chewing and wetting action provided
by the teeth and saliva shape the food into
a mass called the bolus for swallowing.
 The tongue aids in swallowing by moving
the bolus from the mouth into the pharynx.
The pharynx opens to two passageways:
the trachea, which leads to the lungs,
and the esophagus, which leads to the
stomach.
 The tracheal opening, the glottis, is
covered by a cartilaginous flap, the
epiglottis. When swallowing, the epiglottis
closes the glottis, allowing food to pass
into the esophagus, not into the trachea,
preventing food from reaching the lungs.
17. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
8
 Supplementary notes:
Code on Wages, 2019
 The Code on Wages Bill was passed by
the Parliament in 2019.
 The Wages Code seeks to regulate wage
and bonus payments in all employments
where any industry, business, trade or
manufacture is carried out.
 This code replaces the following laws:
 Minimum Wages Act, 1948
 Payment of Wages Act, 1936
 Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
 Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
 Coverage of the Code on Wages:
 The code will apply to all employees.
 The Central Government will take
decisions on wages for employments in
mines, railways, oil fields, etc.
 For all other types, the state
governments will make the decisions.
 Wages include salary, allowance or
not include bonuses and travelling
allowances.
O
any other monetary component. It does
SC
18. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In Shanti
Bhushan case, the Supreme Court held
that CJI is the master of roaster.
GS
Supplementary notes:
Important Judicial Judgements
 Shanti Bhushan v Supreme Court of India
through its Registrar and another in Writ
Petition refused pointblank to declare
that the function of allocating cases and
assigning benches should be exercised by
the collegium of five senior Judges instead
of the Chief Justice of India.
 The Supreme Court has held that the
office of the Chief Justice of India comes
under the definition of ‘public authority’
in the Right to Information Act, upholding
the 2010 landmark judgment of the Delhi
high court bringing the CJI’s office under
the RTI.
19. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
9 PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
Supplementary notes:
Concept associated to Citizenship
 Most countries follow one of the two
following systems: jus soli or jus
sanguinis.
 Jus soli is a Latin term meaning law of
the soil. Many countries follow jus soli,
more commonly known as birthright
citizenship.
 Under this concept, citizenship of an
individual is determined by the place
where the individual was born.
 So, a child of an immigrant is a citizen
as long as he/she is born in the country
of immigration. The US follows the jus
soli system to determine citizenship.
RE
 Therefore, whoever is born in the US and is
subject to its jurisdiction is automatically
granted US citizenship.
 Jus sanguinis is when a person acquires
citizenship through descent, i.e., through
their parents or ancestors independent of
where he/she is born.
 For example, a child born in India must
have at least one parent who is an Indian
citizen to be conferred citizenship. Prior
to an amendment to the Citizenship Act,
1955 on December 3, 2004, people born in
India were given citizenship regardless of
the citizenship held by parents.
 After the commencement of the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act, 2003, anyone born
in India must have at least one Indian
parent to get citizenship by birth.
 A person born outside India can obtain
citizenship by descent through parents
and a foreigner married to an Indian
citizen can obtain Indian citizenship after
being ordinarily resident in India for seven
years before making the application.
20. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: The roots of the
enactment of the Environment Protection
Act,1986 and not Forest Conservation Act
lies in the United Nations Conference
on the Human Environment held at
Stockholm in June, 1972
Supplementary notes:
Forest Conservation Act, 1980
 The Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980
(FCA, 1980) is an act by the Parliament
 of India which ensures the conservation
of forest and its resources.
 The aim of the Forest is to preserve the
forest ecosystem of India by fulfilling the
following objectives:
 Protect the forest along with its
flora, fauna, and other diverse
ecological components while
preserving the integrity and
territory of the forests.
 Arrest the loss of forest
biodiversity
 Prevent forest lands from being
converted into agricultural,
grazing, or for any other
commercial purposes and
intentions.
 The Forest Conservation Act of 1980 come
with the following features:
 The Act restricts the state government
and other authorities to take decisions
first without permission from the
central government.
 The Forest Conservation Act gives
O
complete authority to the Central
government to carry out the objectives
of the act.
SC
 The Act levies penalties in case of
violations of the provisions of FCA.
 The Forest Conservation Act will have
an advisory committee that will help
the Central government with regard to
forest conservation.
GS
21. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Once a player
becomes a chess grandmaster, the title is
held for life.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The record
for the youngest grandmaster is currently
held by Abhimanyu Mishra. He is an
American chess prodigy from New
Jersey.
Supplementary notes:
Regulations to Become a Chess
Grandmaster
 The chess title Grandmaster is awarded
to chess players by the world chess
organization, FIDE.
 Apart from becoming World Chess
Champion, being a Grandmaster is the
highest title a chess player can reach.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 Other official FIDE titles are Candidates
Master (CM), FIDE Master (FM) and
International Master (IM).
 To achieve a GM title, chess players usually
need to achieve norms in internationally
rated tournaments. In order to get 1 GM-
norm, a player has to fulfill the following
criteria:
 The player must play at least 9 games
in the tournament.
 The player has to play against at least
two players from federations other
than his own chess federation.
 At least 50% of the player’s opponents
have to be titled-players. On top of
that, at least 1/3 (with a minimum of 3
opponents) of the opponents have to be
RE
Grandmasters.
 The minimum rating of the player’s
opponents is 2380.
 The Performance Rating of the player
who wants to achieve the GM-norm
has to be at least 2600.
 The record for the youngest grandmaster
is currently held by Abhimanyu Mishra,
who beat out the former World Chess
Championship Contender Sergey
Karjakin.
 Abhimanyu was only 12 years 4 months
and 25 days old when he earned his
grandmaster title. Sergey earned the
Grandmaster title at the age of 12 years
and 7 months.
22. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
World Investment Report
 According to a UN report, India received
$64 billion in Foreign Direct Investment
in 2020, the fifth largest recipient of
inflows in the world.
 The World Investment Report 2021
by the UN Conference on Trade and
Development (UNCTAD) said that global
FDI flows have been severely hit by the
pandemic and they plunged by 35 per cent
in 2020 to $1 trillion from $1.5 trillion the
previous year.
 The report said in India, FDI increased 27
per cent to $64 billion in 2020 from $51
10
 billion in 2019, pushed up by acquisitions
in the information and communication
technology (ICT) industry, making the
country the fifth largest FDI recipient in
the world.
 The report said FDI in South Asia rose by
20 per cent to $71 billion, driven mainly
by strong M&As in India.
 FDI outflows from South Asia fell 12 per
cent to $12 billion, driven by a drop in
investment from India.
 India ranked 18 out of the world’s top
20 economies for FDI outflows, with 12
billion dollars of outflows recorded from
the country in 2020 as compared to 13
billion dollars in 2019.
23. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
India’s first lichen park
 Uttarakhand Forest Department has
O
developed India’s ‘First’ Lichen Park in
Munsiyari of Pithoragarh district of the
Uttarakhand.
SC
 This park is spread across 1.5 acres and
its development began in 2019.
 The forest department has sent a proposal
to the state government for securing
permission to open the park for the public
and researchers.
GS
 In Uttarakhand lichens are found in
Chamoli, Champawat, Pithoragarh,
Nainital, Dehradun region.
 Some lichen species found in the state
include Parmotrema pertatum, Usnea
lognissima, Lecanora subfuseescens,
Sarcogyne privigna, Arthonia impolitella,
Acarospora fusca, Acarospora oxytona,
Polysporina dubia and so on.
What is a lichen?
 A lichen is a composite organism that
arises from algae or cyanobacteria living
among filaments of multiple fungi species
in a mutualistic relationship.
 They come in many colours, sizes and
forms.
 The properties are sometimes plant-like
but lichens are not plants. Lichens may
have tiny, leafless branches, flat leaf-like
structures.
11
 They are one of the oldest living things,
grow in a wide range of habitat including
some of the most extreme conditions like
the arctic, tundra, hot dry desert rocky
coasts, toxic heaps, roofs bare rocks,
walls, exposed soil surfaces are some of
the places where it can be easily found.
24. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Dinder
National Park is a designated
UNESCO biosphere reserves located in
Sudan.
Supplementary notes:
Sudan
RE
 Recently Sudan witnessed a military coup
led by General Abdel Fattah al-Burhan
who took control of the government by
ousting Prime Minister Abdalla Hamdok.
 Officially the Republic of the Sudan, its
capital is Khartoum and it is located south

of the Sahara, stretching from Western
Africa to eastern Central Africa.
Geographically, Sudan is mainly
composed of vast plains and plateaus
that are drained by the Nile River and its
tributaries.
 All the 3 tributaries of Nile River namely
Blue Nile, White Nile and Atbara have
their confluence in Sudan.
 This country is bounded on the north
by Egypt, on the east by the Red
Sea, Eritrea, and Ethiopia, on the
south by South Sudan, on the west by
the Central African Republic and Chad,
and on the northwest by Libya.
 Darfur plateau covers the most of
western part of Sudan.
 Marrah Mountains, a rugged volcanic
chain rise out of the Darfur Plateau.
 These mountains form the Nile-Congo
watershed and the western boundary of
the clay plain. In northeastern Sudan
the Red Sea Hills region is an uplifted
escarpment.
 Sudan has several protected nature areas,
including game reserves and national
parks. Dinder National Park, located
in the southeast, and Radom National
Park, in the southwest, have been
designated as UNESCO biosphere
reserves.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
25. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Gold
collar professionals are involved in
policymaking or highest level of decision
making. People engaged in intellectual
or knowledge-based economy are white
collar professionals.
Supplementary notes:
Quinary and Quaternary Activities
 Quinary activities are services that focus
on the creation, re-arrangement and
interpretation of new and existing ideas;
data interpretation and the use and
evaluation of new technologies.
 Often referred to as ‘gold collar’
professions, they represent another
subdivision of the tertiary sector
representing special and highly paid
skills of senior business executives,
government officials, etc.
Their importance in the structure of

O
advanced economies far outweighs their
numbers.
 On the other hand Quaternary
sector or quaternary industry is
SC
the economic activity based on the
intellectual or knowledge-based
economy.
 This involves work that conceives,
creates, interprets, organizes, directs and
transmits with the help and support of
scientific and technical knowledge.
GS
 Some industries in the quaternary sector
are consultancy, financial planning,
designing, information technologies and
generation of information.
 While the services under quaternary
activities can also be outsourced,
services under the quinary sector can’t
be completely outsourced as they involve
critical decision making processes as
well.
 Quaternary type of economy is not tied to
resources, affected by the environment, or
necessarily localised by market.
26. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike the
Arya Samaj, the Ramakrishna Mission
recognises the utility and value of image
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 12
worship in developing spiritual fervor and
worship of the eternal omnipotent God,
although it emphasizes on the essential
spirit and not the symbols or rituals.
Supplementary notes:
Arya Samaj
 The Arya Samaj undertook the task
of reforming Hindu religion In North
India. It was founded in 1875 by Swami
Dayanand Saraswati (1824-1883).
 The Arya Samaj has always had its
largest following in western and
northern India. It is organized in
local samajas (“societies”) that send
representatives to provincial samajas
and to an all-India samaja.
RE
 The Arya Samaj opposed worship
of murtis (images), animal sacrifice,
shraddha (rituals on behalf of
ancestors), basing caste upon
birth rather than upon merit,
untouchability, child marriage,
pilgrimages, priestly craft, and
temple offerings.
 He regarded Vedas as infallible and as
the fountain of all knowledge being the
inspired word of God.
 He rejected all later religious thought
if it conflicted with the Vedas. This
total dependence on the Vedas and
their infallibility gave his teachings an
orthodox coloring, for infallibility meant
that human reason was not to be the final
deciding factor.
 However his approach had a rationalist
aspect because the Vedas were to be
interpreted by human beings themselves;
thus human reason was the decisive
factor.
 Moreover, instead of supporting Hindu
orthodoxy, he attacked it and led a revolt
against it. He was opposed to idolatry,
ritual, and priesthood and particularly to
the prevalent caste practices and popular
Hinduism as preached by Brahmins.
 He also favored the study of western
sciences. Some of Swami Dayanand’s
followers later started a network of
schools and colleges in the country to
impart education on western lines.
 The Arya Samajists were vigorous
advocates of social reform and worked
actively to improve the condition of
women, and to spread education among
them.
  It has been criticized, however, as
overly dogmatic and militant and
as having exhibited an aggressive
intolerance toward both Christianity
and Islam.
 One of the Arya Samaj’s objectives
was to prevent the conversion of
Hindus to other religions. This led
it to start a crusade against other
religions.
is more than pCO2 in the inhaled air in
normal conditions, but pO2 is larger than
pCO2 in both inhaled and exhaled air.
Supplementary notes:
Gaseous exchange in the lungs
 pO2 in the air is approx. 159 mmHg while
pCO2 is 0.3 mmHg, this is the air that is
inhaled by every organism breathing in
the air.

27. Correct Option: (b)  In the alveoli of human lungs, pO2 is

reduced to 104 mmHg and pCO2 is
Explanation: increased to 40 mmHg due to gaseous
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Partial exchange. This alveolar air is also exhaled
pressure of CO2 (pCO2) in exhaled air air.

RE
Respiratory Gases Atmospheric (mmHg) Alveoli (mmHg) Blood Tissue
(mmHg) (mmHg)
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
O2 (pO2) 159 104 40 95 40
CO2 (pCO2) 0.3 O 40 45 40 45

CO2 production during cellular therefore it is called the aerobic phase of

respiration cellular respiration.
 There are two phases of cellular  Glycolysis produces two pyruvate ions
SC
respiration, one is cytoplasmic (glycolysis)
after the partial oxidation of one glucose
and the other is mitochondrial (Krebs
cycle). molecule and this process does not require
O2, therefore, it is called the anaerobic
 CO2 is produced during the Krebs cycle
phase of cellular respiration.
in the mitochondria, this process uses O2,
GS

13 PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 Lactate production in the muscles
 During strenuous work, muscles do not
get as much oxygen as they need to do the
complete oxidation of the pyruvate ion, so
they produce lactate ions.
 Accumulation of lactate ions in the muscle
cells causes fatigue.
 After heavy breathing and rest, the
lactate ions undergo a process called
gluconeogenesis to produce glucose
molecules in the liver.
28. Correct Option: (d)
O the Queen, as in the British Army. This
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The right to
property was abolished by 44th amendment
SC
1978.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 31B
saves the acts and regulations included
in IX schedule from being invalidated
on ground of contravention of any of the
fundamental rights.
GS
Supplementary notes:
Fundamental Rights under Constitution
of India
 The 44th Amendment of 1978 deleted
the right to property from the list of
fundamental rights. After that, Article
300-A was added to the Constitution that
states that the no one shall be deprived of
his property, except by authority of law.
 According to the Doctrine of Eminent
Domain, the state will acquire any
personal property for public use; property
is taken for public use and compensation
is paid to the owner.
 After 1978, in the area of property, there
were only four constitutional provisions
i.e., A. 31, 31B, 31C and 300A.
 Though Articles 31A, 31B and 31C are
included in the chapter of fundamental
rights they cannot be called as
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
fundamental rights in the real sense,
as they do not confer fundamental right
but impose certain restriction on right
to property. The main object of these
provisions was to provide immunity to
various laws curtailing property rights.
29. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is incorrect: It occurred
after the Revolt of 1857 among a section
of European forces employed under the
Company.
Supplementary notes:
White Mutiny
RE
 In the wake of the transfer of power from
the British East India Company to the
British Crown, a section of European
forces employed under the Company
resented the move that required the
three Presidency Armies to transfer their
allegiance from the defunct Company to
resentment resulted in some unrest
termed as White Mutiny (1859).
 It was the biggest revolt faced by the
British army from their own people.
 Prior to 1861, there were two separate
military forces in India, operating under
the British rule. One was the Queen’s
army and the other comprised the units of
the East India Company. The Company’s
troops received batta, extra allowances of
pay to cover various expenditures related
to operations in areas other than the home
territories while the British army did not
get any extra payment. The officers of
British army were senior to those of the
same rank in the EIC unit.
 The dissimilarities in the physical
makeup of these two forces led to many
cultural differences in how they operated
and how they viewed each other.
These cultural differences lead to deep
misunderstandings between the two
forces.
 The transfer which took place was
done without giving any prior
notice to the European troops of
EIC. With transfer of power, the
batta was stopped. Lord Canning’s
legalistic interpretation of the
laws surrounding the transfer
also infuriated the affected White
soldiers.
14
  The White Mutiny was seen as a potential
threat to the already precarious British
position in India with a potential of
inciting renewed rebellion among the
‘still excited population in India’.
 The demands of the ‘European
Forces’ included an enlistment bonus
or a choice of release from their
obligations. Finally, the demand
for free and clear release with free
passage home was accepted, and men
opted to return home.
30. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect:
RE
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) do not deplete
the stratospheric ozone layer but are a
potent greenhouse gas.
Supplementary notes:
Kigali Amendment, Montreal protocol
O systematically brings about the release of
 Under the Kigali Amendment; Parties
to the Montreal Protocol will phase
down production and consumption of
Hydrofluorocarbons, commonly known as
HFCs.
SC
 Hydrofluorocarbons were introduced as
non-ozone depleting alternatives to
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). While HFCs
do not deplete the stratospheric ozone
layer, they have high global warming
potential ranging from 12 to 14,000,
which have adverse impacts on climate.
GS
32. Correct Option: (b)
 India will complete its phase down of
HFCs in 4 steps from 2032 onwards with
cumulative reduction of 10% in 2032, 20%
in 2037, 30% in 2042 and 85% in 2047.
 All amendments and adjustments of the
Montreal Protocol, prior to the Kigali
Amendment, have Universal support.
 India ratified the Kigali agreement
in 2016.
31. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Vaisheshika
system is considered as the realistic and
objective philosophy of the universe.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Nyaya is
considered as a technique of logical
thinking
15
Supplementary notes:
Vedic Philosophy
 Nyaya is considered as a technique
of logical thinking. According to
Nyaya, valid knowledge is defined as real
knowledge, that is, one knows about the
object as it exists. For example, it is when
one knows a snake as a snake or a cup as
a cup.
 Vaisheshika system is considered as
the realistic and objective philosophy
of the universe. The reality according
to this philosophy has many bases or
categories which are substance, attribute,
action, genus, distinct quality and
inherence.
 Yoga literally means the union of the
two principal entities. The origin of
yoga is found in the Yoga sutra of Patanjali
believed to have been written in the second
century BC. By purifying and controlling
changes in the mental mechanism, yoga
purusha from prakriti.
 Vedanta implies the philosophy of the
Upanishad, the concluding portion
of the Vedas. Shankaracharya wrote
the commentaries on the Upanishads,
Brahma sutras and the Bhagavad Gita.
Advaita literally means non-dualism or
belief in one reality. Shankaracharya
expounded that ultimate reality is one, it
being the Brahman.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The half-life
can be determined for any reaction of
any order, since it is defined as “the time
consumed for half of the reactant to be
converted in to the product”. In a zero-
order reaction the amount of reactant
decreases linearly with the progress of
the reaction, so the half-life of the zero-
order reaction varies directly with the
initial amount of the reactant.
Supplementary notes:
Half-life of a zero-order reaction
 For a zero-order reaction, the units of the
rate constant are mol L-1s-1. The expression
for a zero-order rate constant is:
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
  Substituting t = t1/2, at which point [R]
= [R]0/2 (at the half-life of a reaction,
reactant concentration is half of the initial
concentration).
 Rearranging the equation, the expression
for the half-life of a zero-order reaction is
found to be:
 Nuclear decay is an example of first-order
reaction because rate of the decay varies
directly with initial amount of the parent
nuclei.
Half-life of nuclear decay
 The half-life of a first-order reaction
under a given set of reaction conditions
is a constant. This is not true for zeroth-
and second-order reactions. The half-life
of a first-order reaction is independent
of the concentration of the reactants.
This becomes evident when we rearrange
O more and more urban populations arise
the integrated rate law for a first-
order reaction to produce the following
equation:
SC
 Substituting [A]0/2 for [A] and t1/2 for t (to
indicate a half-life) into above Equation
gives:
GS
 The natural logarithm of 2 (to three
decimal places) is 0.693. Substituting this
value into the above equation, we obtain
the expression for the half-life of a first-
order reaction:
33. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Photochemical smog
 Photochemical smog is a type of smog
produced when ultraviolet light from
the sun reacts with nitrogen oxides in
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 16
the atmosphere. It is visible as a brown
haze, and is most prominent during the
morning and afternoon, especially in
densely populated, warm cities. Cities
that experience this smog daily include
Los Angeles, Sydney, Mexico City, Beijing,
and many more.
 It forms in the morning when a
tremendous number of people are driving
their vehicles to work. Nitrogen oxides
produced in the car engine are introduced
into the atmosphere, which may combine
with water to form nitric acid or react
with sunlight to produce singular oxygen
atoms, which then combine with molecular
oxygen to produce ozone. The nitric acid
may precipitate to the Earth resulting in
RE
acid rain, or remain in the smog. Due to
the direct production of it by vehicles, the
smog forms over cities where many people
may encounter its adverse health effects.
 Hotter days mean more photochemical
smog, especially in the densely populated
cities such as those mentioned above. As
around the globe, this problem is only
expected to increase.
 When exposed to ultraviolet radiation,
NO2 goes through a complex series of
reactions with hydrocarbons to produce
the components of photochemical
smog—a mixture of ozone, nitric acid,
aldehydes, peroxyacyl nitrates (PANs)
and other secondary pollutants.
 NO2, ozone and PANs are called
photochemical oxidants because they
can react and oxidize certain compounds
in the atmosphere or within a person’s
lungs that are not normally oxidized.
Even small traces of these chemicals can
affect the respiratory tract of humans and
animals, and damage crops and trees.
Formation and decomposition of
stratospheric ozone
Following photochemical reactions show

the solar formation and destruction of O3
in the stratosphere.
34. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Space Hurricane
 For the first time, astronomers have
detected a powerful nearly 1,000 kilometers
wide hurricane of plasma in Earth’s upper
atmosphere — a phenomenon they’re
calling a “space hurricane.
 It is made from a tangled mess
of magnetic field lines and fast-flying
solar wind.
 The hurricane was invisible to the
naked eye — however; four weather
satellites that passed over the North Pole
detected a formation not unlike a typical
terrestrial hurricane.
 The space hurricane was shaped like a
funnel with a quiet “eye” at the center,
surrounded by several counter clockwise-
O will also supply natural gas for the Patna
spinning spiral arms of plasma.
 Plasma is the ionized gas found all over
the solar system, including in Earth’s
atmosphere.
SC
 Instead of raining water, the space
hurricane rained electrons directly into
Earth’s upper atmosphere.
 These are resulted from a complex
interaction between incoming solar wind
and the magnetic field over the North
Pole.
GS
 The upper-atmosphere phenomenon poses
little threat to our planet, the researchers
noted, but it could impact existing space
weather effects, for instance by increasing
drag on satellites, or disrupting GPS and
radio communications systems.
35. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Pipeline Network of India
 Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HBJ) is
India’s first cross state gas pipeline.
 The project was started in 1986 after the
incorporation of GAIL (India) Limited to
supply gas to the fertilizer plants located
in the state of Uttar Pradesh .
17
 This pipeline passes through Hazira,
Kawas in Gujarat, Bijapur in Madhya
Pradesh, Auriya, Jagdishpur,
Saharanpur, Aonla, Babrala in Uttar
Pradesh, Anta, Sawai Madhopur and
Kota in Rajasthan.
 Dahej-Vijaipur Gas Pipeline is part of
the Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur & Gas
Rehabilitation and Expansion Project
which links Dahej LNG terminal in
Gujarat to GAIL’s compressor station in
Vijaipur, Madhya Pradesh.
 Combined together they comprise a length
of 4953 Km.
 Jagdishpur-Haldia and Bokaro-Dhamra
Pipeline (JHBDPL) is another pipeline
project being developed to connect the
RE
eastern and north-eastern part of India
with the national natural gas transmission
network.
 The pipeline route will cover the
Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal. It
City Gas Distribution (CGD) network.
 Barauni-Guwahati pipeline (BGPL) is
also being developed as an integral part
of the JHBDPL project to connect the
seven north-eastern states of India to the
national gas grid via the JHBDPL.
36. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Conquest of Sindh
 The conquest of Sindh occurred as a result
of the growing Anglo-Russian rivalry
in Europe and Asia and the consequent
British fears that Russia might attack
India through Afghanistan or Persia. To
counter Russia, the British Government
decided to increase its influence in
Afghanistan and Persia.
 It further felt that this policy could be
successfully pursued only if Sindh was
brought under British control. The
commercial possibilities of the river
Sindh were an additional attraction.
 The roads and rivers of Sindh were opened
to ‘British trade by a treaty in 1832.
 The chiefs of Sindh, known as Amirs,
were made to sign a Subsidiary Alliance
in 1839.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
  And finally, in spite of previous assurances
that its territorial integrity would be
respected, Sindh was annexed in 1843
under the governor-generalship of
Lord Ellenborough.
 Sindh accepted subsidiary alliance in
1839. Despite this, it was annexed in
1843.
37. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: A person
not already in the service of the Union
or of the state shall only be eligible to be
appointed a district judge if he has been
an advocate or a pleader for not less than
seven years.
Supplementary notes:
Subordinate Courts
 India has a single integrated judicial
system. The judiciary in India has a
pyramidal structure with the Supreme
Court (SC) at the top.
O location will reduce logistics cost of
 High Courts are below the SC, and below
them are the district and subordinate
courts. The lower courts function under
SC
the direct superintendence of the higher
courts.
 Apart from the above structure, there are
also two branches of the legal system,
which are:
 Criminal Law: These deal with the
GS
committing of a crime by any citizen/
entity. A criminal case starts when
the local police file a crime report. The
court finally decides on the matter.
 Civil Law: These deal with disputes
over the violation of the Fundamental
Rights of a citizen.
 The Governor of the State, in consultation
with the High Court, appoints, posts, and
promotes district judges in the State. The
following qualifications should be present
in anyone seeking to be appointed as a
district judge:
 He/she should not already be in the
service of the Central or the State
Government.
 He/she should have been an advocate
or a pleader for seven years.
 He/she should be recommended by the
High Court for the appointment.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 18
38. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The seven
PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and
Apparel (PM-MITRA) parks will be set up
at greenfield (fresh)/ brownfield (existing)
sites located in different willing states.
Supplementary notes:
PM MITRA scheme
 Inspired by the 5F vision of Hon’ble Prime
Minister - Farm to Fibre to Factory to
Fashion to Foreign
 World-class industrial infrastructure
would attract cutting age technology and
boost FDI and local investment in the
sector
RE
 PM MITRA Parks will offer an opportunity
to create an integrated textiles value
chain right from spinning, weaving,
processing/dyeing and printing to garment
manufacturing at 1 location
 Integrated Textile Value chain at 1
Industry
 Intended to generate ~1 lakh direct and2
lakh indirect employment per park
 Several states such as Tamil Nadu,
Punjab, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh,
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam, Karnataka,
Madhya Pradesh and Telangana have
expressed interest
 Sites for PM MITRA Parks will be selected
by a Challenge Method based on objective
criteria
39. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Although slightly
lower in energy content than petrol and
diesel, methanol can replace both these
fuels in the transport sector
Supplementary notes:
Methanol
 Methanol is a low carbon, hydrogen
carrier fuel produced from high ash
coal, agricultural residue, CO2 from
thermal power plants and natural
gas. It is the best pathway for meeting
India’s commitment to COP 21 (Paris
Agreement).
 Methanol vis-a-vis-Petrol and Diesel:
Although slightly lower in energy content
 than petrol and diesel, methanol can
replace both these fuels in the transport
sector (road, rail and marine), energy
sector (comprising boilers, process
heating modules, tractors and commercial
vehicles) and retail cooking (replacing
LPG [partially], kerosene and wood
charcoal).
 Blending of 15% methanol in gasoline can
result in at least 15% reduction in the
import of gasoline/crude oil. In addition,
this would bring down GHG emissions by
20% in terms of particulate matter, NOx,
and SOx, thereby improving the urban
air quality.
 Recently, the first Indigenously
Designed High Ash Coal Gasification
Based Methanol Production Plant
has been opened in Hyderabad.
40. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: The correct order
is Qanungo – Faujdar – Subadar.
Supplementary notes:
Mughal Court
O 
SC
 The nobility was recruited from diverse
ethnic and religious groups.
 This ensured that no faction was large
enough to challenge the authority of the
state.
 The officer corps of the Mughals was
described as a bouquet of flowers
GS
(guldasta) held together by loyalty to the
emperor.
 In Akbar’s imperial service, Turani and
Iranian nobles were present from the
earliest phase of carving out a political
dominion.
 Many had accompanied Humayun; others
migrated later to the Mughal court.
 The division of functions established at
the centre was replicated in the provinces
(subas) where the ministers had their
corresponding subordinates (diwan,
bakhshi and sadr).
 The head of the provincial
administration was the subadar
(governor) who reported directly to
the emperor.
 The sarkars, into which each suba
was divided, often overlapped
with the jurisdiction of faujdars
19
(commandants) who were deployed
with contingents of heavy cavalry
and musketeers in districts.
 The local administration was looked
after at the level of the pargana (sub-
district) by three semi-hereditary
officers, the qanungo (keeper of
revenue records), the chaudhuri (in
charge of revenue collection) and the
qazi.
41. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
RE
Major and Minor Minerals
 Ministry of Mines has notified the
Minerals (Other than Atomic and Hydro
Carbons Energy Mineral) Concession
(Fourth Amendment) Rules, 2021 to
amend The Minerals (Other than Atomic
and Hydro Carbons Energy Mineral)
Concession Rules, 2016.
New rules inserted to provide manner of
sale of 50% of mineral produced from the
captive leases.
 With this amendment, the Government
has paved the way for releasing of
additional minerals in the market by
greater utilization of mining capacities of
captive mines.
 Rules amended to allow transfer of
composite licence or mining lease of all
types of mine.
 Penalty provisions in the rules have been
rationalized related to rule violations for
both major and minor minerals.
 There is no official definition for “major
minerals” in the MMDR Act, 1957.
 Hence, whatever is not declared as a
“minor mineral” may be treated as the
major minerals.
 Some minor minerals include Barytes,
Bentonite, Calcite, Dolomite, Felspar,
Fuller’s Earth etc. and Chromite,
Kyanite and Sillimanite are examples
of major minerals.
 Under MMDR Act, 1957 state governments
have complete powers for making rules
for grant of concessions in respect of
extraction of minor minerals and levy and
collection of royalty on minor minerals.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
42. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Gandhi in South Africa
 From 1894-1906, Gandhi relied on
sending petitions and memorials to the
authorities in South Africa and in Britain
hoping that once the authorities were
informed of the plight of Indians, they
would take sincere steps to redress their
grievances as the Indians were, after
all, British subjects. To unite different
sections of Indians, he set up the Natal
Indian Congress in 1894 and started a
paper Indian Opinion in 1903.
 The second phase, which began in 1906,
was characterized by the use of the method
of passive resistance or civil disobedience,
which Gandhi named Satyagraha.
 Satyagraha was born when Gandhi
formed the Passive
O
Resistance
Association in 1906 to conduct the
campaign of defying the law that made it
compulsory for Indians there to carry at
SC
all times certificates of registration with
their fingerprints and suffering all the
penalties resulting from such defiance.
 The Tolstoy Farm was founded in 1910
and named as such by Gandhi’s associate,
Herman Kallenbach, after the Russian
writer and moralist, whom Gandhi
GS
admired and corresponded with. Besides
being an experiment in education, it was
to house the families of the Satyagrahis
and to give them a way to sustain
themselves.
 The Tolstoy Farm was the second of its
kind established by Gandhi. He had set
up the Phoenix Farm in 1904 in Natal,
inspired by a reading of John Ruskin’s
Unto This Last, a critique of capitalism,
and a work that extolled the virtues of the
simple life of love, labour, and the dignity
of human beings.
 Gandhi’s technique of Satyagraha was
based on truth and non-violence. He
combined some elements from Indian
tradition with the Christian requirement
of turning the other cheek and the
philosophy of Tolstoy, who said that evil
could best be countered by non-violent
resistance.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 20
43. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The CBD
Secretariat is based in Montreal, Canada
and it operates under the United Nations
Environment Programme.
Supplementary notes:
Convention on Biological Diversity
 The Convention on Biological Diversity
(CBD), a legally binding treaty to
conserve biodiversity has been in force
since 1993. It has 3 main objectives:
 The conservation of biological
diversity.
 The sustainable use of the components
RE
of biological diversity.
 The fair and equitable sharing of the
benefits arising out of the utilization of
genetic resources.
 Nearly all countries have ratified it
(notably, the US has signed but not
ratified).
 The CBD Secretariat is based
in Montreal, Canada and it
operates under the United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP).
 In 2000, a supplementary agreement to
the Convention known as the Cartagena
Protocol on Biosafety was adopted. It
came into force on 11th September 2003.
 The Protocol seeks to protect biological
diversity from the potential risks posed
by living modified organisms resulting
from modern biotechnology.
 The Nagoya Protocol on Access to
Genetic Resources and the Fair
and Equitable Sharing of Benefits
Arising from their Utilization (ABS)
was adopted in 2010 in Nagoya, Japan
at COP10. It entered into force on 12th
October 2014.
 It not only applies to genetic resources
that are covered by the CBD, and to the
benefits arising from their utilization
but also covers traditional knowledge
(TK) associated with genetic resources
that are covered by the CBD and the
benefits arising from its utilization.
 The COP-10 of CBD also adopted a ten-
year framework for action by all countries
to save biodiversity.
 Officially known as the “Strategic Plan
for Biodiversity 2011-2020”, it provided
 a set of 20 ambitious yet achievable found primarily in the Kutch district of
targets collectively known as the Aichi Gujarat, India.
Targets for biodiversity.
 The word ‘Banni’ is specific to not only
the buffaloes but also to the pasture grass
44. Correct Option: (c) species which are native to this region.
Explanation:  This breed of buffaloes is usually bred and
preserved by a local community found in
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Most
Kutch, called the ‘Maldharis’.
Harappan inscriptions are short, the
longest containing about 26 signs  An average Banni buffalo yields around
12 to 18 litres of milk each day.
Supplementary notes:
 The Banni buffalo has a different genetic
Harappa Art makeup as compared to more common
 Seals and sealing breeds, which allows for longer lactation
periods, higher milk production
 Seals and Sealings were used
to facilitate long distance potentials and also makes it disease
communication. resistant.

RE
 The sealing also conveyed the identity
of the sender.
 An enigmatic script
 Harappan seals usually have a line
of writing, probably containing
the name and title of the owner.O
 Scholars have also suggested that the
motif (generally an animal) conveyed a
46. Correct Option: (a)
meaning to those who could not read.
 Most Harappan inscriptions are short,
SC
the longest containing about 26 signs.
 Weights
 Exchanges were regulated by a
precise system of weights, usually
made of a stone called chert
and generally cubical, with no
markings.
GS
 The Banni buffalo is well-adapted to
survive the extreme weather conditions
such as water scarcity, frequent droughts,
low humidity and high temperatures.
 The IUCN status of Banni Buffalo is ‘not
defined’.
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Co-operative

banks in India are registered under the
States Cooperative Societies Act.
Supplementary notes:
Cooperative Banks
 A Co-operative bank is a financial entity
which belongs to its members, who are

 The lower denominations of
were binary (1, 2, 4, 8, 16,
up to 12,800), while the
denominations followed the
system.
 The smaller weights were probably
used for weighing jewellery and
beads.
 Metal scale-pans have also been
found.
weights at the same time the owners and the
32, etc. customers of their bank.
higher  Co-operative banks in India are registered
decimal under the States Cooperative Societies
Act. The Co-operative banks are also
regulated by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) and governed by the
 Banking Regulations Act 1949
 Banking Laws (Co-operative Societies)
Act, 1955.

45. Correct Option: (c) Features of Cooperative Banks

 Customer Owned Entities: Co-operative
Explanation:
bank members are both customer and
 Both statement are correct owner of the bank.
Supplementary notes:  Democratic Member Control:Co-operative
banks are owned and controlled by the
Banni Buffalo
members, who democratically elect a
 Banni buffalo, which are also known as board of directors. Members usually
“Kutchi” or “Kundi”, is a breed of buffalo have equal voting rights, according to the

21 PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 cooperative principle of “one person, one
vote”.
 Profit Allocation: A significant part of the
yearly profit, benefits or surplus is usually
allocated to constitute reserves and a part
of this profit can also be distributed to the
co-operative members, with legal and
statutory limitations.
 Financial Inclusion: They have played a
significant role in the financial inclusion
of unbanked rural masses.
47. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It also had
members from four chief commissioner’s
provinces.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The National
Anthem was adopted on January 24th
1950.
Supplementary notes:
Constituent Assembly
O on 24th January 1950. It was first sung
 The Constituent Assembly took almost
three years (two years, eleven months
and seventeen days to be precise) to
SC
complete its historic task of drafting the
Constitution for Independent India.
 During this period, it held eleven
sessions covering a total of 165 days.
Of these, 114 days were spent on the
consideration of the Draft Constitution.
As to its composition, members were
GS
chosen by indirect election by the members
of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies,
according to the scheme recommended by
the Cabinet Mission.
 The arrangement was: (i) 292 members
were elected through the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies; (ii) 93 members
represented the Indian Princely States;
and (iii) 4 members represented the Chief
Commissioners’ Provinces.
 The total membership of the Assembly
thus was to be 389. However, as a result of
the partition under the Mountbatten Plan
of 3 June, 1947, a separate Constituent
Assembly was set up for Pakistan and
representatives of some Provinces ceased
to be members of the Assembly. As a
result, the membership of the Assembly
was reduced to 299.
 On 29 August, 1947, the Constituent
Assembly set up a Drafting Committee
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution
for India. While deliberating upon the
draft Constitution, the Assembly moved,
discussed and disposed of as many as
2,473 amendments out of a total of 7,635
tabled.
 The Constitution of India was adopted
on 26 November, 1949 and the hon’ble
members appended their signatures to it
on 24 January, 1950.
 In all, 284 members actually signed
the Constitution. On that day when the
Constitution was being signed, it was
drizzling outside and it was interpreted
as a sign of a good omen.
 The Constitution of India came into force
RE
on 26 January, 1950. On that day, the
Assembly ceased to exist, transforming
itself into the Provisional Parliament
of India until a new Parliament was
constituted in 1952.
 The National Anthem of India was
adopted by the constituent assembly
on 27 December 1911 in the Kolkata
session of INC( Indian National
Congress).
48. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Interest Coverage Ratio
 Interest coverage ratio is one of the most
important ratios that need to be learned
when assessing risk management and
the possible reduction methods. Interest
coverage ratio plays a very important
role for stockholders and investors as it
measures the ability of a business to pay
interests on its outstanding debt.
 It acts as a solvency check for the business
organisation using which financial
advisors, business analysts and investors
can determine the ability of a business
or a company to pay off the accumulated
interest on the debt they are holding.
 Interest coverage ratio is also known as
debt service coverage ratio or debt service
ratio. It is determined by dividing the
earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT)
with the interest expenses payable by the
company during the same period.
22
  In other words, the interest coverage ratio
measures the number of times a company
is able to make payments on its existing
debt with the EBIT or earnings before
interest and taxes. It is also known as
the Times Interest Earned Ratio or TIE
ratio.
 Determining this ratio helps the lenders,
investors, stockholders and debenture
holders with the data on how efficiently
the business or the company is able to
make payment for interest due on the
long term borrowings of the business.
 An interest coverage ratio of 1.5 is
considered as healthy for a business.
In general, a higher interest coverage
ratio means that a company is earning
sufficient money in order to pay off the
interest due on long term loans, which
indicates that there is a very less chance
of a financial default.
 Similarly, a low interest coverage ratio
indicates a higher debt burden on the
company which increases the chances of
O Explanation:
bankruptcy. In such cases banks would
hesitate to provide credit to the business.
49. Correct Option: (a)
SC
Explanation:
 Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Kuno
National Park is in the state of Madhya
Pradesh.
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Raimona
National Park is in the state of Assam.
GS
Supplementary notes:
National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries in
news
 Kuno National Park in Madhya
Pradesh, is expecting to get 13 African
cheetahs, in what is being described
as the world’s largest intercontinental
animal translocation. Located in the
Chambal region of Madhya Pradesh, the
Kuno-Palpur National Park is spread
over an area of 750 square kilometres. It
currently has leopards, jackals, spotted
deer, sambhar, neelgai, chinkara, wild
boar and the four-horned antelope, a prey
base ideal for felids. The sanctuary was
also chosen for the lion reintroduction
project in 2013.
 Raimona in Kokrajhar district has
become Assam’s sixth national park.
The five national parks that existed
23
prior to the 422 sq. km Raimona are
Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Orang and
Dibru-Saikhowa. The Raimona National
Park is within the Bodoland Territorial
Region. The area of the park includes the
northern part of the notified Ripu Reserve
Forest (508.62 sq. km), which forms
the western-most buffer to the Manas
National Park that straddles the India-
Bhutan border. The Pekua River defines
Raimona’s southern boundary. Raimona
also shares contiguous forest patches of
the Phipsoo Wildlife Sanctuary and the
Jigme Singye Wangchuk National Park
in Bhutan.
 Guindy National Park is India’s eighth-
smallest national park and one of the very
few national parks located inside a city.
RE
It is located in the heart of Chennai’s
metropolitan area, in state of Tamil
Nadu.
50. Correct Option: (d)
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Difference between Civil Disobedience
and Non-Cooperation Movement
 There were certain aspects in which the
Civil Disobedience Movement differed
from the Non-Cooperation Movement.
 The stated objective this time was complete
independence and not just remedying two
specific wrongs and a vaguely-worded
Swaraj.
 The methods involved violation of law
from the very beginning and not just non-
cooperation with foreign rule.
 There was a decline in forms of protests
involving the intelligentsia, such as
lawyers giving up practice, students
giving up government schools to join
national schools and colleges.
 Muslim participation was nowhere near
that in the Non-Cooperation Movement
level because of appeals by Muslim
leaders to stay away from the movement
and because of active government
encouragement to communal dissension.
Still, some areas such as the NWFP saw an
overwhelming participation. Middle class
Muslim participation was quite significant
in Senhatta, Tripura, Gaibandha, Bagura
and Noakhali. In Dacca, Muslim leaders,
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 shopkeepers, lower class people and upper
class women were active. The Muslim
weaving community in Bihar, Delhi and
Lucknow were also effectively mobilized.
 No major labor upsurge coincided with the
movement during the Civil Disobedience
Movement.
 The massive participation of peasants and
business groups compensated for decline
of other features.
 The number of those imprisoned was
about three times more this time.
 The Congress was organizationally
stronger.
51. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: β particles
have 1 negative charge and zero mass
number. So emission of β particle from
the nucleus does not affect the atomic
mass of the atom.
O starts to grow rapidly.
Supplementary notes:
Alpha decay (α-decay)
Alpha particle (α-particle) has mass
SC

number of 4 and carries 2 positive charges.
Emission of α-particle from a nucleus
cause a decrease in the atomic number by
2 and mass number by 4, for example:
Beta decay (β decay)
GS
 Beta particle (β-particle) has 1 negative
charge and carries no mass so, emission
of β-particle from a radioactive nucleus
causes no change in the mass number.
One negative charge that comes from
the degradation of a neutron in to a
β-particle and a proton, due to increase in
the number of protons by one the atomic
number of the resulting atom increased
by one. For example:
52. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Malthusian
positive checks are associated with the
first stage of demographic transition
model which keeps the population levels
low.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 24
Supplementary notes:
Demographic Transition
 The demographic transition theory is a
generalized description of the changing
pattern of mortality, fertility and
growth rates as societies move from one
demographic regime to another.
 The term was first coined by the American
demographer Frank W. Notestein in the
mid-twentieth century.
 There are four stages to the classical
demographic transition model:
 First stage is called Pre-transition
stage and is characterized by high
birth rates, and high fluctuating
death rates. Here population
RE
growth was kept low by Malthusian
“preventative” (late age at
marriage) and “positive” (famine,
war, pestilence) checks.
 Second stage is early transition stage
where death rate begins to fall. As
birth rates remain high, the population
 Third stage is late transition where
birth rates start to decline. The rate of
population growth decelerates.
 Fourth stage is Post-transition where
societies are characterised by low
birth and low death rates. Population
growth is negligible, or even enters a
decline.
 India is presently located in third stage of
this transition.
 As per National Family Health Survey
– 5 (2019-21), the total fertility rate at
India level is 2.0 (Urban rate at 1.6
and rural at 2.1) which was 2.2 in the
NFHS-4 2015-16 survey.
 This is below replacement level of
2.1.
 Replacement level is the level of fertility
at which a population replaces itself
exactly from one generation to the next.
 According to the United Nations (UN), in
countries with a Total Fertility Rate lower
than 2.1, a generation is not producing
enough children to replace itself.
 The urban-rural gap has also narrowed
as per latest survey. Just five states
had a TFR exceeding the replacement
level: Bihar (3.0), Meghalaya (2.9), Uttar
Pradesh (2.4), Jharkhand (2.3) and
Manipur (2.2).
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  West Bengal had the lowest fertility
rate (1.6).
53. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: El Nino is
marked by warmer-than-average sea
surface temperatures across the central
and eastern Pacific Ocean near the
equator.
Supplementary notes:
Double Dip La Nina
 A La Nina system has formed for
the second year in a row, according
to the Climate Prediction Center of
the National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration (NOAA).
 The latest La Nina is expected to last
through the early spring of 2022.
 Previous La Ninas occurred during the
winter of 2020-2021 and 2017-2018. An
El Nino developed in 2018-2019. O 
 Two La Ninas happening one after
the other is not uncommon. It is
usually referred to as a ‘double-dip’.
La Nina is a natural ocean-atmospheric
SC

phenomenon. It is marked by cooler-than-
average sea surface temperatures across
the central and eastern Pacific Ocean
near the equator. It means ‘little girl’ in
Spanish.
 It is the opposite of El Nino which
means little boy, that is marked by
GS
warmer-than-average sea surface
temperatures across the central
and eastern Pacific Ocean near the
equator.
 Both, La Nina and El Nino are part of the El
Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle.
 ENSO is characterized by opposing warm
and cool phases of oceanic and atmospheric
conditions in the tropical Pacific Ocean.
 El Nino usually causes a decrease in
precipitation and has been found to
cause drought-like conditions in India.
On the other hand, La Nina causes an
increase in precipitation. It also
causes formation of low-pressure
areas.
54. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
25
Supplementary notes:
Red and yellow soil
 Red soil develops on crystalline
igneous rocks in areas of low
rainfall.
 The soil develops a reddish colour
due to a wide diffusion of iron in
crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
 It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated
form.
 The fine-grained red and yellow soils are
normally fertile, whereas coarse-grained
soils found in dry upland areas are poor
in fertility.
 They are generally rich in iron but poor in
RE
nitrogen, phosphorous and humus.
 They are porous and do not retain water.
They are not fertile but responsive to
fertilizers and become productive as they
are low in humus.
In India, it is found in the eastern and
southern part of the Deccan Plateau.
 Along the piedmont zone of the Western
Ghats, long stretch of area is occupied by
red loamy soil.
 Yellow and red soils are also found in
parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh and in
the southern parts of the middle Ganga
plain.
55. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
World Freedom Index
 The World Press Freedom Index compiled
by Reporters Without Borders (RSF)
shows that journalism, the main vaccine
against disinformation, is completely or
partly blocked in 73% of the 180 countries
ranked by the organisation.
 The Index data reflect a dramatic
deterioration in people’s access to
information and an increase in obstacles
to news coverage.
 The data shows that journalists are
finding it increasingly hard to investigate
and report sensitive stories, especially in
Asia, the Middle East and Europe.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
  Norway is ranked first in the Index for
the fifth year running even though its
media have complained of a lack of access
to state-held information about the
pandemic.
 Europe and the Americas (North, Central
and South) continue to be the most
favourable continents for press freedom,
even though the Americas registered
the biggest deterioration in its regional
violations score.
 The degree of freedom available to
journalists in 180 countries is determined
by pooling the responses of experts to a
questionnaire devised by RSF.
 This qualitative analysis is combined
with quantitative data on abuses and acts
of violence against journalists during the
period evaluated.
 The criteria evaluated in the questionnaire
are pluralism, media independence,
media environment and self-censorship,
legislative framework, transparency,
and the quality of the infrastructure
O
that supports the production of news and
information.
56. Correct Option: (b)
SC
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Puntius Sanctus
 Velankanni in Tamil Nadu has thrown up
GS
a new species of small freshwater fish of
the family Cyprinidae.
 The silver-hued fish has been christened
Puntius sanctus — ‘sanctus’ is Latin for
holy — after the popular pilgrim town.
 Encountered in a small waterbody in
Venlankanni, Puntius sanctus is small, it
grows to a length of 7 cm.
 It found use both as food and as an
aquarium draw.
 The Puntius species are known locally
as ‘Paral’ in Kerala and ‘Kende’ in Tamil
Nadu. They are purely freshwater fishes.
 While the genus shows great species
richness in Kerala and Tamil Nadu, the
specimen from Velankanni bears “distinct
differences” from its Puntius cousins.
 Its physical characteristics included a
protractible mouth, a pair of maxillary
barbels (a sensory organ near the snout),
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
24-25 lateral line scales and 10 pre-dorsal
scales.
 The identification of Puntius Sanctus
also indicated that many of our inland
waterbodies were still unexplored.
 Bioscience Research has published an
article on the discovery.
 The new fish is now deposited in
Government of India museum (Zoological
Survey of India) at Pune.
 It has also been registered with ZooBank
of the International Commission of
Zoological Nomenclature, the official
authority for naming animals
Cyprinidae family
 Cyprinidae family, also commonly called
RE
the carp family or the minnow family, is a
large family of freshwater fish containing
many of the carp-like fishes and minnow
types.
 They can be found throughout Asia, most
of Africa, Europe, and North America.
 The only place they are not to be found is
South America and Australia.
 They come in all sizes from giant game
fish to numerous small species less than
2 inches (5 cm).
 Examples Included in the Cyprinidae
family are well-known aquarium favorites
such as barbs, danios, rasboras, and
various freshwater sharks.
 One of the best fish in this group for algae
control is the Chinese Algae Eater.
 This family also includes minnows,
bitterlings, daces, asps, roachs, flying fox,
and chubs.
57. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
V.D. Savarkar
 He was born in a Hindu Marathi family
in Nashik, Maharashtra in 1883 and was
nicknamed ‘Veer’ for his courage from an
early age.
 He was popularly known as
Swatantrataveer Savarkar.
 In 1899, he formed Mitra Mela, a youth
organization to bring in national and
revolutionary ideas.
26
  Savarkar was against foreign goods and
propagated the idea of Swadeshi. In 1905,
he burnt all the foreign goods in a bonfire
on Dussehra.
 He was arrested in 1909 on charges of
plotting an armed revolt against the
Morley-Minto reform. In 1910, he was
arrested over his association with the
revolutionary group India House.
 He was sentenced to two life sentences i.e.
50 years in the cellular jail of Andaman,
also known as Kala Pani, in 1911 but was
released in 1924 under strict conditions of
not participating in politics for 5 years.
 He started one of the most powerful social
reform movements against untouchability
in India”, He built the Patit Pavan Mandir
in the Ratnagiri district to allow entry to
all Hindus, including Dalits.
 He wrote ‘The Indian War of
Independence, 1857’ during his jail
time in which he indicated the view
that the Indian Mutiny of 1857 was
the first expression of Indian mass

rebellion against British colonial
rule.
O
He also wrote ‘Hindutva: Who Is a Hindu?’
coining the term Hindutva (Hinduness’),
SC
which sought to define Indian culture
as a manifestation of Hindu values; this
concept grew to become a major tenet of
Hindu nationalist ideology.
 He opposed the Quit India Movement of
1942.
GS
 He was accused of having a role in the
conspiracy to assassinate Mahatma
Gandhi but was later acquitted by the
court.
 It was in 1964, when Savarkar declared
his wish to attain Samadhi and started
the hunger strike on February 1, 1966,
and passed away on February 26, 1966.
58. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Important Events
 Air India was founded by J. R. D. Tata
as Tata Airlines in 1932. After World
War II, regular commercial service was
restored in India and Tata Airlines
became a public limited company on 29
27
July 1946 under the name Air India.
After Indian independence in 1947,
49% of the airline was acquired by
the Government of India in 1948. In
1953 India nationalized all Indian
airlines, creating two corporations—
one for domestic service, called Indian
Airlines Corporation (merging Air-
India Limited with six lesser lines), and
one for international service, Air-India
International Corporation. The latter’s
name was abbreviated to Air-India in
1962. It was in news as the Tata Group
was recently selected as the winning
bidder for India’s flag carrier, ending
decades of attempts to privatize a money-
losing and debt-laden airline.
 The presidency Banks of Bengal, Bombay
RE
and Madras with their 70 branches were
merged in 1921 to form the Imperial Bank
of India. The All India Rural Credit Survey
Committee recommended the creation of
a state-partnered and state-sponsored
bank by taking over the Imperial Bank
of India, and integrating with it, the
former state-owned or state-associate
banks. An act was accordingly passed
in Parliament in May 1955 and the
State Bank of India was constituted
on 1 July 1955. It was in news as the
Reserve Bank of India recently imposed
a penalty of Rs 1 crore on State Bank of
India (SBI) for deficiencies in regulatory
compliance.
 The Kerala Legislative Assembly
election of 1957 was the first assembly
election in the Indian state of Kerala.
The Communist Party of India won the
election with 60 seats. The election led
to the formation of first democratically
elected communist government in India
and second in the world after San Marino.
It was in news as Pinarayi Vijayan,
leader of the Left Democratic Front
(LDF) recently became the first chief
minister from Kerala to be re-elected
after completing a full term (five years) in
office.
 India acquired Goa from the
Portuguese by means of a police action
in 1961. It was constituted as a union
territory by the 12th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1962. Later, in 1987,
Goa was conferred a statehood. It was in
news as the Chief Minister of Goa recently
called for debate over Indian government’s
delay in securing Goa’s liberation from
the Portuguese rule.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
59. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The
kingdom of Assaka or the Ashmaka was
located in Dakshinapatha or southern
India.
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Kambojas
were located in the Uttarapatha
Supplementary notes:
Early States
 Assaka: The kingdom of Assaka
or the Ashmaka was located in
Dakshinapatha or southern India.
 Kamboja: Kambojas and Gandhara
were located in the Uttarapatha.
In ancient literature, the Kamboja is
variously associated with the Gandhara,
Darada and the Bahlika (Bactria).
 Magadha: The Magadha was one of
the most prominent and prosperous
of Mahajanapadas. The capital city
Pataliputra (Patna, Bihar) was situated
O
on the confluence of major rivers like the
Ganga, Son, Punpun and Gandak.
 Vajji: Vajji or Vrijji was a confederacy
SC
of neighbouring clans including
the Licchavis and one of the principal
mahajanapadas of Ancient India.
GS
60. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All pairs are correctly matched
Supplementary notes:
Fiscal Deficit
 The excess of total expenditure over
total receipts excluding borrowings is
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
called Fiscal Deficit. In other words,
the Fiscal Deficit gives the amount
needed by the government to meet
its expenses. Thus a large Fiscal Deficit
means a large number of borrowings.
 Simply put a Fiscal Deficit is a measure of
how much the government needs to borrow
from the market to meet its expenditure
when its resources are inadequate.
 Various measures might be taken to
reduce the Fiscal Deficit, some of them can
be reducing public expenditure in the form
of subsidies, reduction in expenditure on
bonuses, LTC, Leaves encashment, etc.
 Alternatively, measures to increase
the revenue are also taken in form of
broadening tax base restructuring and
RE
sale of shares in public sector units, etc.
Revenue Deficit
 Revenue Deficit is the excess of the
government’s total revenue expenditure to
its total revenue receipts. Revenue Deficit
is only related to revenue expenditure
and revenue receipts of the government.
 The difference between total revenue
expenditure and the total revenue receipts
is Revenue Deficit.
 A revenue deficit indicates that the
government doesn’t have sufficient
revenue for the normal functioning of
the government departments. In other
words, when the government starts
spending more than it earns, it results in
a Revenue Deficit. Revenue Deficit forces
the government to disinvest or cover the
shortage by borrowing.
 In the case of Revenue Deficit the
government usually tries to curtail its
expenses or increase its tax and non-tax
receipts. This can be done by introducing
new taxes or increasing the tax on people
in higher-earning slabs.
Primary Deficit
 Primary Deficit is the Fiscal Deficit of the
current year minus interest payments
on previous borrowings. While Fiscal
Deficit represents the government’s total
borrowing including interest payments,
Primary Deficit shows the amount of
borrowing excluding interest payments.
 Primary Deficit shows the amount of
government borrowings specifically
to meet the expenses by removing the
interest payments. Therefore, a zero
Primary Deficit means the need for
borrowing to meet interest payments.
28
  A higher Primary Deficit reflects the
amount of new borrowings in the current
year. Since this is the amount on top
of already existing borrowings (Fiscal
Deficit) similar measures can be taken to
reduce the amount of borrowings.
61. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Inscriptions
found on the railings and pillars of stupas
record donations made for building and
decorating them.
Supplementary notes:
Stupa
The relics of the Buddha such as his
 in the Supreme Court’s Indra Sawhney
bodily remains or objects used by
him were buried as mounds known
as stupas.
 The early stupas at Sanchi and
Bharhut were plain except for the
stone railings, which resembled a
bamboo or wooden fence, and the
gateways, which were richly carved
and installed at the four cardinal
points.
O Classes, the court found it necessary to
SC
How were stupas built?
 Inscriptions found on the railings and
pillars of stupas record donations
made for building and decorating
them.
 Some donations were made by kings such
as the Satavahanas; others were made by
GS
guilds, such as that of the ivory workers
who financed part of one of the gateways
at Sanchi.
 Hundreds of donations were made by
women and men who mention their
names, sometimes adding the name of
the place from where they came, as well
as their occupations and names of their
relatives.
 Bhikkhus and bhikkhunis also contributed
towards building these monuments.
62. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Provisions for Revision
 Citing Constitution Bench precedents
that had settled the law, the court
29
said Articles 16 (4) and 16 (4-A) of
the Constitution did not confer
individuals with a fundamental right
to claim reservations in promotion.
 The Supreme Court reiterated in
a judgment that the reservation in
promotion in public posts cannot be
claimed as a fundamental right.
 The Articles empower the State
to make reservation in matters
of appointment and promotion in
favour of the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes only “if in
the opinion of the State they are
not adequately represented in the
services of the State”.
 The ‘creamy layer’ concept was introduced
RE
judgment, delivered by a nine-judge
Bench on November 16, 1992.
 Though it upheld the government’s
decision based on the Mandal
Commission’s report to give 27%
reservation to Other Backward
identify sections of backward classes
who were already “highly advanced
socially as well as economically and
educationally”.
 In Jarnail Singh case, the Supreme Court
ruled that “it is clear that when a Court
applies the creamy layer principle to
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes,
it does not in any manner tinker with the
Presidential List under Articles 341 or
342.
 It is only those persons within that group
or sub-group, who have come out of
untouchability or backwardness by virtue
of belonging to the creamy layer, who are
excluded from the benefit of reservation”.
63. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Yavana is
a Sanskrit word used for the Greeks
and other peoples who entered the
subcontinent from the northwest.
Supplementary notes:
Military administration in
Vijayanagara
 Among those who exercised power in
the empire were military chiefs who
usually controlled forts and had armed
supporters.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
  These chiefs often moved from one area
to another, and in many cases were
accompanied by peasants looking for
fertile land on which to settle.
 These chiefs were known as nayakas
and they usually spoke Telugu or
Kannada.
 The Amara-Nayaka system was a
major political innovation of the
Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely
that many features of this system were
derived from the Iqta system of the Delhi
Sultanate.
 The Amara-nayakas were military
commanders who were given territories
to govern by the raya.
 The Amara-nayakas sent tribute to the
king annually and personally appeared in
the royal court with gifts to express their
loyalty.
 Kings occasionally asserted their control
over them by transferring them from one
place to another.
O 
Yavana is a Sanskrit word used for the
Greeks and other peoples who entered the
subcontinent from the North West.
SC
64. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
GS
Interest Rate Growth Differential
 Growth leads to debt sustainability in the
Indian context but not necessarily vice-
versa.
 Debt sustainability depends on the
‘Interest Rate Growth Rate Differential’
(IRGD), i.e., the difference between the
interest rate and the growth rate.
 Negative IRGD in India – not due to lower
interest rates but much higher growth
rates – prompts a debate on fiscal policy,
especially during growth slowdowns and
economic crises.
 Fiscal policy that provides an impetus
to growth will lead to lower debt-to-GDP
ratio.
 Given India’s growth potential, debt
sustainability is unlikely to be a problem
even in the worst scenarios.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 30
 Desirable to use counter-cyclical fiscal
policy to enable growth during economic
downturns.
 Counter-cyclical fiscal policy refers to the
steps taken by the government that go
against the direction of the economic or
business cycle.
 Thus, in a recession or slowdown, the
government increases expenditure and
reduces taxes to create a demand that can
drive an economic boom.
65. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both the statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
RE
Lokpal and Lokayukta
 The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013
provided for the establishment of Lokpal
for the Union and Lokayukta for the
States.
These institutions are statutory
bodies without any constitutional
status.
 They perform the function of an
“ombudsman” and inquire into allegations
of corruption against certain public
functionaries and for related matters.
 Jurisdiction of Lokpal includes Prime
Minister, Ministers, members of
Parliament, Groups A, B, C, and D officers,
and officials of Central Government.
 Jurisdiction of the Lokpal included the
Prime Minister except on allegations
of corruption relating to international
relations, security, the public order,
atomic energy, and space.
 The Lokpal does not have jurisdiction
over Ministers and MPs in the matter
of anything said in Parliament or a
vote given there.
66. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Emergency Provisions
 A state of emergency in India refers
to a period of governance that can be
proclaimed by the President of India
during certain crisis situations.
  The emergency provisions are contained
in Part XVIII of the Constitution of India,
from Article 352 to 360. These provisions
enable the Central government to meet
any abnormal situation effectively.
 The Constitution stipulates three types of
emergencies-
 National Emergency
 Constitutional Emergency
 Financial Emergency
 National emergency can be declared on
the basis of war, external aggression
or armed rebellion. The Constitution
employs the expression ‘proclamation of
emergency’ to denote an emergency of
this type.
67. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Biopolymers
are polymers produced from natural
sources either chemically synthesized
from a biological material or entirely
biosynthesized by living organisms.
Silicones are not produced by living
organisms or synthesised by any material
that is biologically produced.
Supplementary notes:
Biopolymers
 Biopolymers are polymers produced
from natural sources either chemically
synthesized from a biological material

RE
 Article 355 imposes a duty on the centre
to ensure that the government of every
state is carried on in accordance with the
provisions of the constitution.
 Article 360 empowers the president to
proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is
O renewable.
satisfied that a situation has arisen due
to which the financial stability or credit
of India or any part of its territory is
threatened.
SC
 Suspension of Fundamental Rights
during Emergency has been borrowed
from the Weimar Constitution of
Germany.
or entirely biosynthesized by living
organisms.
 Although, many biopolymers can be
non-biodegradable but most of them are
biodegradable and since they are produced
from biological materials, all of them are
 Due to these above properties,
biopolymers have less environmental
impact unlike their synthetic or petroleum
counterparts.
 Below is the list of some biopolymers
classified on the basis of their sources and
degradability.

Biodegradable Non-biodegradable
Biobased Fossil based Biobased
GS

Plants Microorganism Animals

Cellulose and polyhydroxyal- Chitin Poly (alkylene high density polyeth-
its derivatives kanoate (polysaccha- dicarbon-xylate)s ylene, low density
(polysaccharide) ride) polyethylene, PVC
Lignin polyhydroxy fatty Chitosan poly (glycolic acid) poly (ethylene tereph-
acid (polysaccha- thalate), poly (trimeth-
ride) ylene terephthalate)

Starch and its Bacterial cellulose Hyaluronan poly polyurethane

derivatives (mon- (polysaccha- (ε-caprolactone)
osaccharide) ride)
Alginate Hyaluronan Casein (pro- poly (vinyl alco- polycarbonate
(polysaccharide) (polysaccharide) tein) hol)
Lipids (triglycer- Xanthan (polysac- Whey (pro- poly (ortho ester) Poly (ether-ester)s
ides) charide) tein)
Wheat, corn, Curdlan (polysac- Collagen Polyanhydrides Polyamides
pea, potato, soy, charide) (protein)
potato (protein)

31 PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 Gums (e.g., cis-1, Pullulan (polysac- Albumin
4-) charide) (protein)
polyisoprene
Carrageenan Silk (protein) Keratin (pro-
tein)
PLA (from starch Leather (pro-
or sugar cane) tein)
DNA of Things
 The concept of the DNA of Things (DoT)
was introduced in 2019 by a team of
researchers from Israel and Switzerland,
including Yaniv Erlich and Robert Grass.
DoT encodes digital data into DNA
molecules, which are then embedded into
RE
objects. This gives the ability to create
objects that carry their own blueprint,
similar to biological organisms. In contrast
to Internet of things, which is a system
of interrelated computing devices, DoT
creates objects which are independent
storage objects, completely off-grid.
 As a proof of concept for DoT, the
O domestic Income.
researcher 3D-printed a Stanford bunny
which contains its blueprint in the plastic
filament used for printing. By clipping
SC
off a tiny bit of the ear of the bunny,
they were able to read out the blueprint,
multiply it and produce a next generation
of bunnies. In addition, the ability of DoT
to serve for steganographic purposes was
shown by producing non-distinguishable
lenses which contain a YouTube video
integrated into the material.
GS
68. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Pair 1 is incorrect: GNP = GDP + ‘Net’
factor income from abroad
 Pair 2 is incorrect: Net National
Product @Market Price = Gross National
Product – Depreciation
Supplementary notes:
Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
 The size of a nation’s overall economy is
typically measured by its Gross Domestic
Product (GDP). It involves
 Counting of all the production of goods
and services (such as – smartphones,
laptops, cars etc) within the nation’s
boundary
 Finding their market value.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 32
polyphosphazenes Polyester amides
Unsaturated polyes-
ters
Epoxy
Phenolic resins
Definition
 GDP is the market value of all the final
goods and services produced within a
country for a given time period.
Gross National Product (GNP)
GNP is another measure for National

Income of the country.
 The Indian economy is not a closed
economy but an open economy. India has
transactions with the rest of the world
in the form of exports, imports loans etc.
This give rise to the concept of national or
 In the case of GDP, we calculate the
market value of all the final goods and
services produced within the country.
 However, it may be the case that residents
of India work and earn in some other
foreign countries. Similarly, conversely,
some production taking place within a
country may be attributed to temporary
and seasonal foreign labour.
 This is measured by the Gross National
product.
 It is measured as the GDP plus the Net
Factor income from Abroad
 GNP = GDP + ‘Net’ factor income from
abroad
 Net Factor income from abroad =
income earned by the domestic factors
of production employed in the rest of
the world – Factor income earned by the
factors of production of the rest of the
world employed in the domestic economy.
 For example, in case of India
 Net Factor Income from abroad will be
= income earned by Indian resident in
foreign countries – Income earned by
foreign resident in India.
Net National Product (NNP)
 Factors of production undergo wear
and tear. This wear and tear is called
 Depreciation. A part of capital is used for
this wear and tear which is not used in
production of goods and services.
 If we deduct depreciation from the GNP,
we get is NNP
 Net National Product (@Market Price) =
Gross National Product – Depreciation
 Now
 NNP (@Factor Cost) = NNP (@Market
Price) – Taxes + Subsidies
69. Correct Option: (a)
Personal Income (PI)
 Personal Income is the part of National
Income which is received by the
households.
The formula for calculating Personal
RE

Income (PI) is
 Personal income (PI) ≡ NI –
Undistributed profits – Net interest
payments made by households –
Corporate tax + Transfer payments to
the households from the government
O chromosomes in men, they have XXY, so
and firms.
Personal Disposable Income
 Personal Disposable Income refers to the
SC
income that is available to the households
that they can spend as they wish.
 All the Personal Income is not available
to individuals to spend. They have to
pay taxes (eg – Income tax) and non-tax
payment such as fines.
 The formula for Personal Disposable
GS
Income is
 Personal Disposable Income (PDI) ≡
PI – Personal tax payments – Non-tax
payments (such as fines etc.)
 Thus, Personal Disposable Income is the
part of aggregate income which belongs
to the households. They may decide to
consume a part of it, and save the rest.
National Disposable Income
 National Disposable Income gives us an
idea of what is the maximum amount of
goods and services the domestic economy
has at its disposal
 The formula for National Disposable
Income is
 National Disposable Income = Net
National Product at market prices +
other current transfers from the rest of
the world.
33
Private Income
 The formula for Private Income is
 Private Income = Factor income from
net domestic product accruing to the
private sector + National debt interest
+ Net factor income from abroad +
Current transfers from government
+ Other net transfers from the rest of
the world.
Explanation:
 Both the sentences are correct and R gives
a proper explanation for the assertion
made in statement A.
Supplementary notes:
Klinefelter syndrome
 Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic condition
in which a boy is born with an extra X
chromosome. Instead of the typical XY
this condition is sometimes called XXY
syndrome.
 Men with Klinefelter usually don’t know
they have it until they run into problems
trying to have a child. There’s no cure, but
it can be treated.
Turner syndrome
 Turner syndrome is a chromosomal
condition that affects development in
females. The most common feature of
Turner syndrome is short stature, which
becomes evident by about age 5.
 Turner syndrome is related to the X
chromosome, which is one of the two sex
chromosomes. People typically have two
sex chromosomes in each cell: females
have two X chromosomes, while males
have one X chromosome and one Y
chromosome. Turner syndrome results
when one normal X chromosome is
present in a female’s cells and the other
sex chromosome is missing or structurally
altered. The missing genetic material
affects development before and after
birth.
 About half of individuals with Turner
syndrome have monosomy X, which means
each cell in the individual’s body has only
one copy of the X chromosome instead of
the usual two sex chromosomes. Turner
syndrome can also occur if one of the
sex chromosomes is partially missing or
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 rearranged rather than completely absent.
Some women with Turner syndrome have
a chromosomal change in only some of
their cells, which is known as mosaicism.
Women with Turner syndrome caused by
X chromosome mosaicism are said to have
mosaic Turner syndrome.
70. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Brahmagupta’s
Brahmasputa Siddhanta is the first book
that mentioned ‘zero’ as a ‘number’, hence,
Brahmagupta is considered as the man
who found zero.
Supplementary notes:
Science and Technology in ancient
India
 Diseases, its cure and medicines were
mentioned for the first time in the Atharva
Veda.
 Fever, cough, consumption, diarrhoea,
O
dropsy, sores, leprosy and seizure are the
diseases mentioned.
 The diseases are said to be caused by the
demons and spirits entering one’s body.
SC
Hence Statement 2 is correct.
 Brahmagupta’s Brahmasputa
Siddhanta is the first book that
mentioned ‘zero’ as a number, hence,
Brahmagupta is considered as the man
who found zero.
 Aryabhata discovered algebra and also
GS
formulated the area of a triangle, which
led to the origin of Trigonometry.
 Varahamihira’s Brihatsamhita of
the sixth century AD is another
pioneering work in the field of
astronomy.
 His observation that the moon rotated
around the earth and the earth rotated
around the sun found recognition and later
discoveries were based on this assertion.
Hence Statement 1 is correct.
71. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All pairs are correctly matched
Supplementary notes:
Paintings
 Kalighat painting derives its name from
its place of origin Kalighat in Kolkata.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 34
Kalighat is a bazaar near the Kali temple
in Kolkata.
 Patua painters from rural Bengal came
and settled in Kalighat to make images of
gods and goddesses in the early nineteenth
century.
 Mithila painting, also known as
Madhubani folk art, is the traditional art
of the Mithila region of Bihar.
 They are produced by village women who
make three dimensional images using
vegetable colour with few earthen colours
and finished in black lines on cow dung
treated paper.
 Warli painting derives its name from a
small tribe inhabiting the remote, tribal
regions of Maharashtra.
RE
 These are decorative paintings on floors
and walls of ‘gond’ and ‘kol’ tribes’ homes
and places of worship.
 Trees, birds, men and women collaborate
to create a composite whole in a Warli
painting.
72. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: On the west coast
of India, mangroves, mostly scrubby and
degraded, occur along the intertidal region
of estuaries and creeks in Maharashtra,
Goa, and Karnataka.
Supplementary notes:
Mangroves
 A Mangrove is a small tree or shrub that
grows along coastlines, taking root in
salty sediments, often underwater.
 Saline environment: They can survive
under extreme hostile environments such
as high salt and low oxygen conditions.
 The Sundarbans Reserve Forest
(SRF), located in the southwest of
Bangladesh between the river Baleswar
in the East and the Harindanga in the
West, adjoining the Bay of Bengal, is the
largest contiguous mangrove forest in the
world.
 Low oxygen: Underground tissue of any
plant needs oxygen for respiration. But in
a mangrove environment, the oxygen in
soil is limited or nil.
 Hence the mangrove root system
absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere.
  Mangroves have special roots for this
purpose called breathing roots or
pneumatophores.
 These roots have numerous pores
through which oxygen enters the
underground tissues.
 The Mangrove Society of India (MSI) has
put two of Mumbai region’s mangroves
— Airoli and Vikhroli wetlands —
among 12 unique mangrove forests in the
country.
73. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
RE
Climate Resilience Information System
and Planning (CRISP-M) Tool
 The CRISP-M tool will help embed
climate information in the GIS-
based planning and implementation of
MGNREGS.

O
Geographical information system (GIS)
helps to visualize, analyze and explore
such asset-related data and also manage
them more effectively along with a better
SC
understanding of their impact/outcome.
 This tool will be used in seven states
wherein the Foreign Commonwealth
and Development Office (FCDO), the
Government of the UK and the
Ministry of Rural Development,
Government of India are jointly working
GS
towards climate resilience.
 The states are Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh,
Odisha and Rajasthan.
74. Correct Option: (d)
75. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Gangetic
dolphins are carnivores.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Dugongs are
found in warm coastal waters from the
western Pacific Ocean to the eastern coast
of Africa.
Supplementary notes:
Gangetic Dolphin:
 Ganges river dolphins live in the
Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and
Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of
Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
35
 The Ganges river dolphin can only live in
freshwater and is essentially blind.
 They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds,
which bounces off of fish and other prey,
enabling them to “see” an image in their
mind. They are also called ‘susu’.
 Indian Wildlife (Protection), Act 1972:
Schedule I.
 International Union for the Conservation
of Nature (IUCN): Endangered.
 Ganges river dolphins use echolocation
to find food. They eat crustaceans such
as prawns and fish including carp,
mahseer, and even sharks such as the
Ganges shark (Glyphis gangeticus)
Dugong dugon
 Dugong (Dugong dugon) also called
‘Sea Cow’ is one of the four surviving
species in the Order Sirenia and it is the
only existing species of herbivorous
mammal that lives exclusively in the sea
including in India.
 According to a 2013 survey report of the
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), there
were only about 200 dugongs in the
Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu, the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and
the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat.
 They are listed as Vulnerable on the
IUCN Red List and are protected in
India under Schedule I of the Wild (Life)
Protection Act, 1972.
 Dugongs are found in warm coastal
waters from the western Pacific
Ocean to the eastern coast of Africa,
along an estimated 140,000 kilometres
(87,000 mi) of coastline between 26° and
27° to the north and south of the equator.
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Kisan Credit Cards
 The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme
was introduced in 1998 for providing
adequate and timely credit support from
the banking system under a single window
with flexible and simplified procedure
to the farmers for their cultivation and
other needs like purchase of agriculture
inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 etc. and draw cash for their production
needs.
 This model scheme was prepared by
the National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development (NABARD) on
the recommendations of R.V.GUPTA
committee to provide term loans for
agricultural needs.
 The scheme was further extended for
the investment credit requirement
of farmers viz. allied and non-farm
activities in the year 2004.
 With the help of KCC, farmers are exempt
from the high interest rates of the regular
loans offered by banks as the interest rate
for KCC starts as low as 2% and averages
at 4%.
 KCC covers post-harvest expenses,
produce marketing loan, consumption
requirements of farmer households,
working capital for maintenance of farm
assets and activities allied to agriculture,
investment credit requirement for
agriculture and allied activities.
 The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is
O Explanation:
implemented by Commercial Banks,
RRBs, Small Finance Banks and
Cooperatives.
SC
76. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: The decision on
questions regarding disqualification on
ground of defection taken by the Chairman
GS
or the Speaker of such House is subject to
‘Judicial review’.
Supplementary notes:
Anti-defection law
 The anti-defection law punishes individual
Members of Parliament (MPs)/MLAs for
leaving one party for another.
 Parliament added it to the
Constitution as the Tenth Schedule in
1985. Its purpose was to bring stability to
governments by discouraging legislators
from changing parties.
 The Tenth Schedule - popularly
known as the Anti-Defection Act
- was included in the Constitution
via the 52nd Amendment Act,
1985 and sets the provisions for
disqualification of elected members
on the grounds of defection to another
political party.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 Grounds of Disqualification:
 If an elected member voluntarily
gives up his membership of a
political party.
 If he votes or abstains from voting in
such House contrary to any direction
issued by his political party or anyone
authorised to do so, without obtaining
prior permission.
 As a pre-condition for his
disqualification, his abstention from
voting should not be condoned by his
party or the authorised person within
15 days of such incident.
 If any independently elected member
joins any political party.
RE
 If any nominated member joins any
political party after the expiry of six
months.
77. Correct Option: (b)
 Statement 1 is incorrect: 5 of 7 species
of sea turtles are found in India.
Supplementary notes:
National Marine Turtle action plan
 The Indian coastal waters support five
species of sea turtles found worldwide.
These are the Olive ridley (Lepidochelys
olivacea), Green (Chelonia mydas),
Hawksbill (Eretmochelys imbricata),
Leatherback (Dermochelys coriacea)
and Loggerhead (Caretta caretta).
 These five species of sea turtles that
occur in Indian coastal waters are
protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
 Goal of Marine Turtle Action Plan
 Conserve Species, their habitat and
reduce negative impacts on survival of
marine turtles;
 Improve the understanding of marine
turtles and their habitats, through a
coordinated mechanism;
 Promote Awareness and Education
on conservation of marine turtles and
their habitats;
 Enhance livelihoods of coastal
communities through promoting
sustainable ecotourism; and
36
  Increase national, regional and
international cooperation on marine
turtle conservation.
78. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Merchant Discount Rate
 MDR is the cost paid by a merchant to a
bank for accepting payment from their
customers via digital means
 It is the sum total of all the charges and
taxes that a digital payment entails.
 For instance, the MDR includes bank
charges, which a bank charges customers
and merchants for allowing payments to
be made digitally.
 MDR also includes the processing charges
that a payments aggregator has to pay
to online or mobile wallets or indeed to

banks for their service.
O
If customers don’t pay and merchants
don’t pay, some entity has to pay for the
MDR costs.
SC
 Before accepting debit and credit cards
as payment the merchant must set up
this service and agree to the rate. The
merchant discount rate is a price that
merchants must take into consideration
when calculating their company’s overall
costs.
GS
79. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The term
‘Republic’ indicates that the head of the
state is elected by the people directly or
indirectly.
Supplementary notes:
Key Words in the Preamble
 Sovereign
 The term ‘Sovereign’ which is
proclaimed by the Preamble means
that India has its own independent
authority and it is not a dominion of
any other external power.
 In the country, the legislature has the
power to make laws which is subjected
to certain limitations.
37
 Socialist
 The term ‘Socialist’ was added in
the Preamble by 42nd Amendment,
1976 which means the achievement
of socialist ends through democratic
means.
 It is basically a ‘Democratic Socialism’
that holds faith in a mixed economy
where both private and public sectors
co-exist side by side.
 Secular
 The term ‘Secular’ was incorporated in
the Preamble by 42nd Constitutional
Amendment, 1976 which means that
all the religions in India get equal
respect, protection and support from
RE
the state.
 Democratic
 The term ‘Democratic’ implies that
the Constitution of India has an
established form of Constitution which
gets its authority from the will of the

people expressed in an election.
Republic
 The term ‘Republic’ indicates that
the head of the state is elected by the
people directly or indirectly. In India,
the President is the head of the state
and he is elected indirectly by the
people.
Interpretation by the Supreme Court
 Berubari Union case
 In this case, it was held by the Supreme
Court that the Preamble is the part of
the Constitution.
 However, it recognised that the
Preamble could be used as a guiding
principle if a term in any article of the
Constitution is ambiguous or has more
than one meaning.
 Keshvananda Bharti v. State of
Kerala
 In this case, the Supreme Court
overturned its earlier decision and
held that the Preamble is a part of
the Constitution and can be amended
under Article 368 of the Constitution.
 Again, in LIC of India case, the
Supreme Court held that the Preamble
is a part of the Constitution.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
80. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Pioneer
species are those which are first colonizers
of an ecosystem and are the primary
community.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Secondary
succession is faster than primary
succession.
Supplementary notes:
Ecological succession
 The process by which communities of
plant and animal species in an area are
replaced or changed into another over a
period of time is known as ecological
succession.
 The first plant to colonize an area is
called the pioneer community.
 The final stage of succession is called the
climax community.
 A climax community is stable, mature,
more complex and long-lasting.
O the creation of the new Panchayati Raj
 The stage leading to the climax community
is called successional stages or seres.
SC
 Each transitional community that
is formed and replaced during
succession is called a stage in
succession or a seral community.
 Unlike in the primary succession,
the secondary succession starts on a
well-developed soil already formed at
GS
the site. Thus, secondary succession
is relatively faster.
81. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2is incorrect: The Act
provides for the establishment of the
three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in
the states (village, intermediate, and
district level). However, the states which
were having population below 20 Lakh
were given an option to not to have the
intermediate level.
Supplementary notes:
Panchayats
 Significance of 73rd Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1992
 The Act added Part IX to the
Constitution, “The Panchayats” and
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 38
also added the Eleventh Schedule
which consists of the 29 functional
items of the panchayats.
 Part IX of the Constitution contains
Article 243 to Article 243 O.
 The Amendment Act provides shape
to Article 40 of the Constitution,
(directive principles of state policy),
which directs the state to organize the
village panchayats and provide them
powers and authority so that they can
function as self-government.
 With the Act, Panchayati Raj
systems come under the purview
of the justiciable part of the
Constitution and mandate states
to adopt the system. Further, the
RE
election process in the Panchayati Raj
institutions will be held independent
of the state government’s will.
 The Act has two parts: compulsory and
voluntary. Compulsory provisions must
be added to state laws, which include
systems. Voluntary provisions, on the
other hand, are the discretion of the
state government.
 The Act is a very significant step in
creating democratic institutions at the
grassroots level in the country. The
Act has transformed representative
democracy into participatory
democracy.
 Salient Features of the Act
 Three-tier system: The Act provides
for the establishment of the three-
tier system of Panchayati Raj in
the states (village, intermediate
and district level). States with
a population of less than 20
lakhs may not constitute the
intermediate level.
 Reservation of seats:
 For SC and ST: Reservation
to be provided at all the three
tiers in accordance with their
population percentage.
 For women: Not less than one-
third of the total number of seats
to be reserved for women, further
not less than one-third of the total
number of offices for chairperson
at all levels of the panchayat to be
reserved for women.
82. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pyramid
of Numbers can be inverted as well as
upright.
Supplementary notes:
Ecological Pyramid
 The pyramidal representation of trophic
levels of different organisms based on
their ecological position (producer to
final consumer) is called an ecological
pyramid.
 The food producer forms the base of the
pyramid and the top carnivore forms the
tip. Other consumer trophic levels are in
between.
 The ecological pyramids are of three
categories:
 Pyramid of numbers,
 Pyramid of biomass, and O 
 Pyramid of energy or productivity.
 Pyramid of Numbers:
 Pyramid of numbers represents the
SC
total number of individuals of different
species (population) at each trophic
level.
 Depending upon the size, the pyramid
of numbers may not always be upright,
and may even be completely inverted.
 Pyramid of Biomass
GS
 Pyramid of biomass is usually
determined by collecting all organisms
occupying each trophic level separately
and measuring their dry weight.
 The Pyramid can be both upright and
inverted.
 Pyramid of Energy
 An energy pyramid represents the
amount of energy at each trophic level
and loss of energy at each transfer to
another trophic level.
 Hence the pyramid is always upward,
with a large energy base at the
bottom.
83. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
39
Supplementary notes:
National Multidimensional Poverty
Index
 The Government think-tank NITI
Aayog has released the National
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
 This baseline report of India’s first-ever
national MPI measure is based on the
reference period of 2015-16 of the National
Family Health Survey (NFHS)- 4.
 It uses the globally accepted and robust
methodology developed by the Oxford
Poverty and Human Development
Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations
Development Programme (UNDP).
 It captures multiple and simultaneous
RE
deprivations faced by households.
84. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: It applies basic
international trade principles regarding
intellectual property to member states of
WTO.
Supplementary notes:
TRIPS Agreement
 Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Right (TRIPS) is an agreement
on international IP rights.
 TRIPS came into force in 1995, as part of
the agreement that established the World
Trade Organisation (WTO).
 TRIPS establishes minimum standards
for the availability, scope, and use of seven
forms of intellectual property namely,
trademarks, copyrights, geographical
indications, patents, industrial designs,
layout designs for integrated circuits, and
undisclosed information or trade secrets.
 It applies basic international trade
principles regarding intellectual property
to member states.
 It is applicable to all WTO members.
 TRIPS Agreement lays down the
permissible exceptions and limitations
for balancing the interests of intellectual
property with the interests of public
health and economic development.
 TRIPS is the most comprehensive
international agreement on IP and it has
a major role in enabling trade in creativity
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 and knowledge, in resolving trade
disputes over intellectual property, and
in assuring WTO members the latitude to
achieve their domestic policy objectives.
 It frames the IP system in terms of
innovation, technology transfer and
public welfare.
 The TRIPS Council is responsible for
administering and monitoring the
operation of the TRIPS Agreement.
 TRIPS was negotiated during the Uruguay
Round of the General Agreement on
Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1986–1994.
 The TRIPS Agreement is also described
as a “Berne and Paris-plus” Agreement.
85. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The name Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha were adopted in
1954.
Supplementary notes:
O Airports Appellate Tribunal, etc.) and
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
 The 17th Lok Sabha was formed by the
SC
members elected in the 2019 Indian
general election.
 Elections, all across India, were conducted
in seven phases from 11 April 2019 to 19
May 2019 by the Election Commission of
India.
GS
 Counting started officially on the morning
of 23 May 2019 and the results were
declared on the same day. Om Birla was
elected as speaker of the house.
 No opposition party was able to get
the minimum requirement (10% of
seats) to claim the position of Leader of
Opposition.
 The 17th Lok Sabha has the most
women representatives, at 14 percent.
267 members are first-time MPs. 233
members (43 percent) have had criminal
charges against them.
 475 members have their declared
assets to be more than Rs. 1 crore
(US$130,000); average assets were Rs.
20.9 crore (US$2.8 million).
 Around 39 percent of members are
professionally noted to be politicians or
involved in social work.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
86. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The term of
office for the Chairperson and members of
Tribunals will be four years, subject to an
upper age limit of seventy years for the
Chairperson, and sixty-seven years for
other members.
Supplementary notes:
Tribunal Reforms Bill
 The Tribunals Reforms (Rationalisation
and Conditions of Service) Ordinance,
2021 was promulgated in April 2021. The
Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 essentially
replaces the ordinance.
RE
 The Act absolves certain appellate
tribunals/boards and shifts their functions
to other existing judicial bodies such as
high courts.
 It seeks to abolish certain appellate
tribunals (for example, the Film
Certification Appellate Tribunal,
also bring in changes in the terms of
service of the tribunal officials.
The Supreme Court questioned the

government over the hasty passage of the
bill and also asked the government to give
reasons for the bill’s introduction.
 Finance Act, 2017
 The Finance Act of 2017 had merged
tribunals based on domains. It also
gave powers to the central government
to notify rules on the composition of
search-cum-selection committees,
tribunal members’ qualifications,
terms and conditions of service like
salary, removal, etc.
 The new tribunal reforms act removes
these provisions from the finance act.
 The Bill dissolves certain existing appellate
bodies and transfers their functions to
other existing judicial bodies.
 The term of office for the Chairperson
and members of Tribunals will be
four years, subject to an upper
age limit of seventy years for the
Chairperson, and sixty-seven years
for other members.
 The Bill specifies that a person should
be at least 50 years of age to be eligible
for appointment as a Chairperson or
member.
40
87. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The wealth
effect is a behavioral economic theory
suggesting that people spend more as the
value of their assets rise.
Supplementary notes:
Wealth Effect
 The wealth effect is a behavioral economic
theory suggesting that people spend more
as the value of their assets rise.
 The idea is that consumers feel more
financially secure and confident about
their wealth when their homes or
investment portfolios increase in value.
Rollover risk
 Rollover risk is a risk associated with the
refinancing of debt.
 Rollover risk is commonly faced by
countries and companies when a loan or
other debt obligation (like a bond) is about
rolled over, into new debt.
O
to mature and needs to be converted, or
88. Correct Option: (d)
SC
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Ecotone
 An ecotone is a zone of junction or a
GS
transition area between two biomes
(diverse ecosystems).
 Ecotone is the zone where two communities
meet and integrate.
 For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an
ecotone between marine and terrestrial
ecosystems.
 Other examples are grassland (between
forest and desert), estuary (between
freshwater and saltwater) and riverbank
or marshland (between dry and wet).
 Characteristics of Ecotone:
 It may be narrow (between grassland
and forest) or wide (between forest and
desert).
 It has conditions intermediate to the
adjacent ecosystems. Hence it is a zone
of tension.
 Usually, the number and the
population density of the species of
41
an outgoing community decreases as
we move away from the community or
ecosystem.
 A well-developed ecotone contains
some organisms which are entirely
different from that of the adjoining
communities.
89. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Tribunal Reforms Bill
 Part XVII of the constitution deals with
the official language in Articles 343 to
RE
351.
 Its provisions are divided into four
heads - Language of the Union, Regional
languages, Language of the judiciary and
texts of laws and Special directives.
Hindi written in Devanagari script

is to be the official language of the
Union.
 But, the form of numerals to be
used for the official purposes of the
Union has to be the international
form of Indian numerals and not the
Devanagari form of numerals.
 However, for a period of fifteen
years from the commencement of the
Constitution (i.e., from 1950 to 1965),
the English language would continue
to be used for all the official purposes
of the Union for which it was being
used before 1950.
 Even after fifteen years, the Parliament
may provide for the continued use
of English language for the specified
purposes.
 At the end of five years, and again at the
end of ten years, from the commencement
of the Constitution, the President
should appoint a commission to make
recommendations with regard to the
progressive use of the Hindi language,
restrictions on the use of the English
language and other related issues.
 A committee of Parliament is to
be constituted to examine the
recommendations of the commission
and to report its views on them to the
President.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
  Accordingly, in 1955, the President
appointed an Official Language
Commission under the chairmanship of
B.G. Kher.
 The commission submitted its report to
the President in 1956.
 The report was examined by a committee
of Parliament constituted in 1957 under
the chairmanship of Gobind Ballabh
Pant.
 However, another Official Language
Commission (as envisaged by the
constitution) was not appointed in 1960.
 Subsequently, the Parliament enacted
the Official Language Act in 1963.
The act provides for the continued use of

English (even after 1965), in addition to
Hindi, for all official purposes of the Union
and also for the transaction of business in
Parliament.
 This act enables the use of English
indefinitely (without any time-limit).
 Further, this act was amended in 1967
O 
to make the use of English, in addition to
Hindi, compulsory in certain cases.
SC
90. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All pairs are correctly matched
Supplementary notes:
Various Doctrines
GS
 In Shankari Prasad Case, the
constitutional validity of First
Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1951
was challenged, which curtailed the
then fundamental right to property by
inserting Article 31A and Article 31B to
the Constitution.
 Golaknath v. State Of Punjab or simply
the Golaknath case, was a 1967 Indian
Supreme Court case, in which the Court
ruled that Parliament could not curtail
any of the Fundamental Rights in the
Constitution.
 Waman Rao v. Union of India is a case
of 1981 in which the Supreme Court
examined the validity of Article 31A
and Article 31B of the Constitution of
India with respect to the doctrine of
basic structure introduced under the
Kesavananda Bharati case.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
91. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Till date only
4 delimitation commissions have been
appointed.
Supplementary notes:
Functioning of the Parliament
 Delimitation literally means the act or
process of fixing limits or boundaries of
territorial constituencies in a country or a
province having a legislative body.
 The job of delimitation is assigned
to a high-power body. Such a body is
known as Delimitation Commission or a
Boundary Commission. In India, such
RE
Delimitation Commissions have
been constituted 4 times – in 1952
under the Delimitation Commission
Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation
Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under
Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002
under Delimitation Act, 2002.
The Delimitation Commission in India
is a high-power body whose orders have
the force of law and cannot be called in
question before any court.
 These orders come into force on a date to
be specified by the President of India in
this behalf.
 The copies of its orders are laid before
the House of the People and the State
Legislative Assembly concerned, but no
modifications are permissible therein by
them.
92. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Signal-
strength received by a satellite dish
antenna is indeed a direct function of the
area of the dish but the receiver of the
antenna is not the concave surface, but
the actual receiver is kept at the focal
point of the concave surface.
Supplementary notes:
Optical fibre
 An optical fibre is a flexible, transparent
fibre made by drawing glass (silica) or
plastic to a diameter slightly thicker
than that of a human hair. Optical
fibres are used most often as a means
to transmit light between the two ends
42
 of the fibre and find wide usage in fibre-
optic communications, where they permit
transmission over longer distances and
at higher bandwidths (data transfer
rates) than electrical cables. Fibres are
used instead of metal wires because
signals travel along them with less
loss; in addition, fibres are immune to
electromagnetic interference, a problem
from which metal wires suffer.
 Optical fibres typically include a core
surrounded by a transparent cladding
material with a lower index of refraction.
Light is kept in the core by the phenomenon
of total internal reflection which causes
the fibre to act as a waveguide.
Parabolic antenna
 A parabolic antenna is an antenna that
uses a parabolic reflector, a curved
surface with the cross-sectional shape of
a parabola, to direct the radio waves. The
most common form is shaped like a dish
and is popularly called a dish antenna or
parabolic dish. O such as the International Monetary
 The feed antenna at the reflector’s focus
is typically a low-gain type such as a
half-wave dipole or more often a small
horn antenna called a feed horn. In more
SC
complex designs, such as the Cassegrain
and Gregorian, a secondary reflector is
used to direct the energy into the parabolic
reflector from a feed antenna located away
from the primary focal point. The feed
antenna is connected to the associated
radio-frequency (RF) transmitting or
receiving equipment by means of a coaxial
GS
cable transmission line or waveguide.
Image on the retina
 Image formed on the retina is similar to
the image formed on a screen through
pin-hole (iris) by a convex lens. The
image will be inverted in all directions
or in the other words rotated 180° along
the principle axis of the lens. The image
formation by the human eye is illustrated
bellow.
94. Correct Option: (a)
43
93. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Monetary Base or Reserve Money
 M0 is the sum of Currency in Circulation,
Bankers’ Deposits with RBI, and ‘Other’
Deposits with RBI.
 Components of M0:
 Currency in Circulation
 Bankers’ Deposits with RBI
 ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI
 Note: ‘Other’ deposits with RBI
RE
comprise mainly: (i) deposits of quasi-
government and other financial
institutions including primary dealers,
(ii) balances in the accounts of foreign
Central banks and Governments, (iii)
accounts of international agencies
Fund, etc.
NM1 (Narrow Money)
 M1 is the sum of Currency with the Public,
Demand Deposits with the Banking
System, and ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI.
 Components of M1:
 Currency with the Public
 Current Deposits with the Banking
System
 Demand Liabilities Portion of Savings
Deposits with the Banking System
 ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI
 In other words, M1 = Currency with
the Public + Demand Deposits with the
Banking System + ‘Other’ Deposits with
RBI
 Significance of M1: M1 includes currency
with the public and non-interest bearing
deposits with the banking sector including
that of RBI.
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: the data
needed by the machine learning
algorithms are much larger than the
normal algorithms and they require huge
processing capacity.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 Supplementary notes:
Artificial Intelligence
 It is a branch of computer science that
deals with creating computers or machines
as intelligent as human beings.
 It refers to the ability of the machines
to perform human intelligence processes
like thinking, perceiving, learning, and
problem-solving and decision making.
 Thus in simple terms, Artificial
Intelligence is the intelligence showed by
machines.
 The term Artificial Intelligence was
coined by John McCarthy in 1956 at the
Dartmouth conference, Massachusetts
Institute of Technology (MIT).
 There are two subsets under the Umbrella
term AI, they are – Machine Learning and
Deep Learning.
 A subset of artificial intelligence that
deals with the creation of algorithms
that can modify itself without human
O
intervention to generate desired output-
by feeding itself via structured data.
 Machine learning algorithms are built
to “learn” to do things by understanding
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labelled data, then use it to produce further
outputs with more sets of data. However,
they need to be retrained through human
intervention when the actual output isn’t
the desired one (errors).
 Using the machine learning and deep
learning the existing algorithm can evolve
GS
itself to learn the hidden and indirect
trend in the past (historical) data and
use it to give more accurate projection for
the future such as weather and climate
forecast.
 Learning the trends in the data, requires
processing of large amount of existing
dataset therefore it requires large
processing capacity that was never needed
before the advancement of the artificial
intelligence.
95. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Supreme court
of India was inaugurated on January 28,
1950.
Supplementary notes:
Supreme Court of India
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
 On the 28th of January, 1950, two
days after India became a Sovereign
Democratic Republic, the Supreme
Court came into being.
 The original Constitution of 1950
envisaged a Supreme Court with a Chief
Justice and 7 puisne Judges - leaving it to
Parliament to increase this number.
 Supreme Court Judges retire upon
attaining the age of 65 years.
 In order to be appointed as a Judge of
the Supreme Court, a person must be a
citizen of India and must have been,
 For at least five years, a Judge of a
High Court or of two or more such
Courts in succession, or
RE
 An Advocate of a High Court or
of two or more such Courts in
succession for at least 10 years, or
 He must be, in the opinion of the
President, a distinguished jurist.
 Provisions exist for the appointment of
a Judge of a High Court as an Ad-hoc
Judge of the Supreme Court and for
retired Judges of the Supreme Court or
High Courts to sit and act as Judges of
that Court.
96. Correct Option: (d).
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Semiconductors
 Semiconductors are materials which
have a conductivity between conductors
(generally metals) and non-conductors
or insulators (such as most ceramics).
Semiconductors can be pure elements,
such as silicon or germanium, or
compounds such as gallium arsenide or
cadmium selenide.
 A semiconductor chip is an electric circuit
with many components such as transistors
and wiring formed on a semiconductor
wafer. An electronic device comprising
numerous of these components is called
Integrated Circuit (IC), and can be found
in electronic devices such as computers,
smartphones, appliances, gaming
hardware and medical equipment.
 Most widely used semiconductor material
to make semiconductor chips is silicon
doped with different materials.
44
  Moore’s Law states that the number
of transistors on a microchip doubles
about every two years, though the cost of
computers is halved.
 In 1965, Gordon E. Moore, the co-founder
of Intel, made this observation that
became known as Moore’s Law.
 Another tenet of Moore’s Law says that the
growth of microprocessors is exponential.
97. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Operation Namaste
RE
 Army Chief General Manoj Mukund
Naravane has launched the initiative
‘’Operation Namaste’’ to insulate the 1.3
million strong force from coronavirus
infection and extend all possible assistance
to the government in containing the
pandemic. O be used as lightweight replacements for
 Under ‘’Operation Namaste’’, the Army
has issued series of directives to all
its bases to insulate the force from the
coronavirus.
SC
 The Army headquarters issued a number
of advisories in the last few weeks to deal
with the situation.
 The Army has already set up command-
wise helpline as part of measures to deal
with any possible eventualities arising
out of the pandemic.
GS
98. Correct Option: (a)
99. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 The importance of these materials
realized when researchers found that
size can influence the physiochemical
properties of a substance e.g. the optical
properties Reactivity with other materials
bioactivity etc.
 The microparticle of the same material
do not poses similar properties as
nanomaterials.
Supplementary notes:
Nanomaterials
 Novel effects can occur in materials
when structures are formed with sizes
comparable to any one of many possible
length scales, such as the de Broglie
wavelength of electrons, or the optical
45
wavelengths of high energy photons. In
these cases quantum mechanical effects
can dominate material properties. One
example is quantum confinement where the
electronic properties of solids are altered
with great reductions in particle size. The
optical properties of nanoparticles, e.g.
fluorescence, also become a function of
the particle diameter. This effect does not
come into play by going from macroscopic
to micrometre dimensions, but becomes
pronounced when the nanometre scale is
reached.
 In addition to optical and electronic
properties, the novel mechanical
properties of many nanomaterials is the
subject of nanomechanics research. When
added to a bulk material, nanoparticles
can strongly influence the mechanical
properties of the material, such as the
stiffness or elasticity. For example,
traditional polymers can be reinforced by
nanoparticles (such as carbon nanotubes)
resulting in novel materials which can
metals. Such composite materials may
enable a weight reduction accompanied
by an increase in stability and improved
functionality.
 Finally, nanostructured materials with
small particle size such as zeolites, and
asbestos, are used as catalysts in a wide
range of critical industrial chemical
reactions. The further development of
such catalysts can form the basis of
more efficient, environmentally friendly
chemical processes.
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Siberian Ibex
 A recent study by scientists of the
Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has
proved that Himalayan Ibex, distributed
in the trans-Himalayan ranges of Jammu
and Kashmir, Ladakh and Himachal
Pradesh, is a distinct species from the
Siberian Ibex.
 Siberian Ibex is a species of wild goat and
is distributed in diverse habitats, ranging
from cold deserts, rocky outcrops, steep
terrain, high-land flats and mountain
ridges to low mountains and foothills.
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02
  From Mongolia, its distribution
extends towards Altai, Hangai, Gobi-
Altai, the Hurukh mountain ranges
as well as Sayan Mountains near
Russia and scattered populations in
the small mountains of Trans-Altai
Gobi.
 In Asia, Ibex is distributed in the
montane habitats, ranging in elevations
from 500 m to 6,700 m in countries like
India, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Mongolia,
Pakistan, Southern Siberia and China.
 In India, the Ibex is distributed mainly in
the trans-Himalayan ranges of the Union
Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and
Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh up to the
river Sutlej.
 The genetic analysis conducted with
the inclusion of the sequences available
from all across the distribution ranges in
Central Asia, Tajikistan, Altai Mountains,
Mongolia and Russia provided first
evidence to claim that Himalayan Ibex is
genetically different from all other ranges
of Siberian Ibex.
O 238 to date a substance’s absolute age.
 “The results of the genetic analysis
surprisingly revealed that I-T clade
(referred to as Siberian Ibex) was
SC
estimated to have diverged from Alpine
Ibex during the Pleistocene epoch (2.4
million years ago) than the Siberian Ibex
during the Miocene-Pliocene boundary
(6.6 million years ago).
100. Correct Option: (a)
GS
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon is
an invariable and inevitable part of the
living being, so the C-14 dating is used for
the dating of mainly fossils.
Supplementary notes:
C-14 dating
 Radiocarbon present in molecules of
atmospheric carbon dioxide enters the
™™™™™
PTS2022/AIOMT/122021/02 46
biological carbon cycle: it is absorbed
from the air by green plants and then
passed on to animals through the food
chain. Radiocarbon decays slowly in a
living organism, and the amount lost is
continually replenished as long as the
organism takes in air or food.
 Once the organism dies, however, it ceases
to absorb carbon-14, so that the amount
of the radiocarbon in its tissues steadily
decreases. Carbon-14 has a half-life of
5,730 ± 40 years—i.e., half the amount of
the radioisotope present at any given time
will undergo spontaneous disintegration
during the succeeding 5,730 years.
 Because carbon-14 decays at this constant
rate, an estimate of the date at which an
RE
organism died can be made by measuring
the amount of its residual radiocarbon.
Uranium–lead dating method
 Uranium–lead radiometric dating
involves using uranium-235 or uranium-
This scheme has been refined to the point
that the error margin in dates of rocks
can be as low as less than two million
years in two-and-a-half billion years. An
error margin of 2–5% has been achieved
on younger Mesozoic rocks.
 Uranium–lead dating is often performed
on the mineral zircon (ZrSiO4), though
it can be used on other materials, such
as baddeleyite and monazite. Zircon
and baddeleyite incorporate uranium
atoms into their crystalline structure as
substitutes for zirconium, but strongly
reject lead. Zircon has a very high closure
temperature, is resistant to mechanical
weathering and is very chemically inert.
Zircon also forms multiple crystal layers
during metamorphic events, which each
may record an isotopic age of the event. In
situ micro-beam analysis can be achieved
via laser ICP-MS or SIMS techniques.
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