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Section - B: Multiple Choice Type Questions: 1. Answer (1, 3, 4) 2. Answer (2, 3, 4)
Section - B: Multiple Choice Type Questions: 1. Answer (1, 3, 4) 2. Answer (2, 3, 4)
1. Answer (1, 3, 4)
2. Answer (2, 3, 4)
d1 + d 2 + d 3
d= = 1.004
3
( Δd 1 ) + ( Δd 2 ) + ( Δd 3 )
Δd = = 0.0013 cm
3
Δd1 = | 1.002 − 1.004 | = 0.002 cm
0.0013
% error = × 100 = 0.13%
1.004
3. Answer (2, 3)
1
ΔT = = 0.2 for both A & B
5
ΔT 0.2
For A, accuracy depends on =
T 30
ΔT 0.2 ΔT
For B, accuracy depends on = . Smaller the value of , higher the accuracy.
T 50 T
4. Answer (1, 2, 3)
2
P = Ae −Bx
F = C sin ( Dx − Et )
A → [M1L2 T −3 ]
B → [L–2]
C → [M1L1T–2]
D → [L–1]
E → [T–1]
5. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
dv
= 6 − 3v
dt
dv
= dt
6 − 3v
v t
dv
0
6 − 3v
= dt
0
[ln(6 − 3v )]v0 = 3t
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62 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
6 − 3v
ln = −3t
6
6 − 3v
= e − 3t
6
v = 2(1 – e–3t)
Terminal speed is attained, when t = ∞
v = 2 m/s
d 2v
= 6e −3t
dt 2
d 2v
At t = 0, 2
= 6 m/s 2
dt
1
by e −3t =
2
Speed at this time
1
v = 21 −
2
v = 1 m/s
6. Answer (1, 4)
The graph represents increasing speed.
∴ Avg. velocity is less than instantaneous velocity.
7. Answer (2, 4)
t 3t
Maximum separation occurs at time, t + =
2 2
Maximum Separation = Displacement of 1st particle – Displacement of 2nd particle
t 1 2v t
2
1 2v
= 2v 0 × t + v 0 × − 0 + 0 t 2 + 0
2 2 t 2 t 2
5v 0 t v t
( ΔS )max = − v0t + 0
2 4
5 5
= v0t − v0t
2 4
5
=v 0t
4
8. Answer (1, 2)
v = x 2 − 5x + 6
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 63
5
At x = , acceleration
2
Changes its sign.
vdv
a=
dx
v
a = ( x 2 − 5 x + 6) (2 x − 5)
x = 5/2
At x = 2, v = 0; a = 0 x
2 3
a dv
= = 2 x − 5 is non-zero
v dx
9. Answer (2, 3)
V 2 = 108 – 9x 2
Differentiate w.r.t. x
2vdv
= −18 x
dx
⇒ a = – 9x
∴ Motion is SHM, at x = 3 ; a = –27 m/s2
10. Answer (1, 3, 4)
t=0 , x = –16 m
Maximum value of the positive coordinate of the particle occurs at t = 24 s
Area under the graph from 0 to 24 is
8×4 6×6
S = 2 × 10 + 8 × 2 + +
2 2
S = 70
x coordinate is 70 – 16 = 54 m.
For t = 18 s
1
x – (–16) = 2 × 10 + ( 2 + 6) × 8
2
⇒ x = 36 m,
1 1 1
t = 30 s, x – (–16) = 2 × 10 + ( 2 + 6) × 8 + × 6 × 6 – × 6 × 6
2 2 2
⇒ x = 36 m
11. Answer (1, 2, 3)
dr
v=
dt
(
= 2tiˆ + ˆj )
dv
a= = 2iˆ
dt
x = t 2, y = t
⇒ x = y2
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64 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
v 1' = (2 + 2t )iˆ + 3 jˆ
Similarly v 2 = 2iˆ − 2 ˆj ; a2 = 2 jˆ (at t = 0)
at time t, v '2 = 2iˆ + ( −2 + 2t ) ˆj
When their velocities become perpendicular
v 1' , v '2 = 0
4 + 4t − 6 + 6t = 0
t = 0.2 s
Trajectory of both is parabolic with respect to ground.
⇒ Velocity of (1) w.r.t. (2) is (at time t)
v12 = 2t iˆ + (5 − 2t ) ˆj
Trajectory is parabolic again.
13. Answer (1, 3, 4)
For the particles to meet, x1 = x2 & y1 = y2 simultaneously.
y (N)
Path of A (Parabola)
Path of B (Parabola)
x (E)
1 1
u1t = a2t 2 u 2t = a1t 2
2 2
u1 a2
= a1u1 = a2u2
u2 a1
Speed
v 1 = u12 + a12t 2
v 2 = u 22 + a22 t 2
A B
5 m/s 1 m/s2
When velocity of A and B is equal, the distance between them is minimum
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 65
vB = (1) (t) = 5
t=5s
Distance travelled by A is
SA = 25 m
Distance travelled by B is
1
SB = × (1) × 25
2
SB = 12.5 m
Distance between them is
S = SB – (SA – 20)
= 12.5 – 5 = 7.5 m
15. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
16. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
As the particle is moving horizontally at A, it is the highest point.
T u sin α
t= =
2 g
u 2 sin 2 α
H max =
2g
R u 2 sin 2α
OB = =
2 2g
4H H
tan α = , tan β =
R R
2
⇒ tanα = 2tanβ
17. Answer (1, 2)
d 500
tmin = = = 166.66 s
v MR 3
Drift cannot be zero in this case.
It can be minimised but cannot be zero.
VA
VA V1
V1
V2 V2
VA cos θ = V2
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66 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
V1 = VA
3
cos θ =
5
9 34
VB = VA 1 + = VA
25 5
dθ
aB = −VA sin θ
dt
d θ VA sin θ 4
= = VA
dt 2
3 +4 2 5 × 5
4 4
aB = −VA × × VA
5 25
16 2
aB = − VA
125
19. Answer (1, 3)
M 'g
a=
M +M'
M 'g
M 'g −T = M '
M +M'
M ' M ' Mg
T = M ' g 1 − =
M + M ' M + M '
g
= tan θ
a
M 'g
a = g cot θ =
M +M'
Mg cot θ
= M'
(1 − cot θ)g
M cot θ
M' =
1 − cot θ
M cot θ Mg
T =
1 − cot θ M + (M cot θ)
1 − cot θ
(M 2 cot θ)g
T = = Mg cot θ
M
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 67
20. Answer (1, 3)
The tension in the string burnt is (m1 – m2) g.
(m1 – m2 )g
∴ acceleration of m2 will be m2 upward. Acceleration of m1 initially will be zero, because the spring
F h
l
N φ θ
φ φ
mg
F N mg
= =
sin ( π − φ ) sin π − θ
( ) sin ( φ + θ )
F N mg
= = … (i)
sin φ sin θ sin ( φ + θ )
R h l
= =
sin θ sin ( φ + θ ) sin φ
sin θ R
⇒ =
sin ( φ + θ ) h
R
⇒ N = ( mg ) × = Constant
h
And F decrease
22. Answer (2, 4)
F
aM =
M
am = 0
2 × l (M )
t=
F
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68 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
mg Ncosθ a
= sin 2θ θ
2 mgcosθ mgsinθ
f
mg N1
mg
When θ = 45, f is max i.e.,
2
Or T cos θ = R 2
Top view Side view Another side view
T cosθ T T sinθ
R1 R1
2r
r 2 r
θ
θ
R2 r T cosθ r
r 2
θ = 45°
T sinθ = mg mg
mg
tan θ =
R 2
mg
R1 = R2 =
2
and T = 2mg
27. Answer (1, 4)
For both bodies to start the motion F > 0.15 mg
For bodies to move together, 0.15 mg < F ≤ 0.45 mg.
28. Answer (2, 3)
1
F0 Lθ − mgL(1 − cos θ) = mv 2
2
At θ = 60°
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 69
2L π mg
v2 = F0 −
m 3 2
m 2
T − mg cos θ = v
L
mg m 2L π mg 2F π mg
T = + F0 − = 0 −
2 L m 3 2 3 2
29. Answer (2, 3, 4)
1 2
Impulse = Area = πF0
2
Also, I = Mv – 0
30. Answer (1, 2, 3)
mv 2
At A, N = 0 mg cos θ = h A
a
2 θ a v = 2ga (1 – cosθ)
cos θ =
3 mg
a
As h = a (1 – cosθ) h =
3
2
Also, v = ga cos θ = ag
3
31. Answer (1, 2, 3)
ag
When N = 0, particle leaves contact. 2
h
mv 2 θ a v = ag + 2ag (1–cosθ )
mg cos θ = 2
a
mg
g
g cos θ = + 2g (1– cos θ)
2
5
θ = cos –1
6
a
h = a (1 – cos θ) =
6
32. Answer (1, 2, 3)
By conservation of momentum,
4 × 9 – 8 × 3 = 4 × (–1) + 8 × v
v = 2 m/s
2 +1 1
e = =
9+3 4
1 4×8 1
K Loss = × (9 + 3) 2 1 – 2 = 180 J
2 4 + 8 4
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70 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
1– e 1+ e
v1 = u1 + u2
2 2
1– e 1– e
v2 = u2 + u1
2 2
Now, m u m m
m u m 3u m
After 1st Collision,
4 4
m u m 3u m 9u
After 2nd Collision
4 16 16
m 13u m 15u m 9u
After third Collision,
64 64 16
mg 1× 10
x0 = = = 10 cm
k 100
2 2
1 1 mg 1 mg
∴ mv 2 + k = kA+ − mgA
2 2 k 2 k
m 1
⇒ A=v× = 2× = 0.2 m
k 100
= 20 cm
m1 – em2 m – e 2m u
v1 = u = u = (1 – e)u
m1 + m2 m + em m em 2
em em
3
m2 (1 + e ) m (1 + e ) (1–e)u u
v2 = u = u = u
m1 + m2 m + em m em e2m e3m
Clearly, after second collision, 2nd ball will move with (1 – e)u and third with u.
∴ After all collisions, first (n – 1) balls move with speed (1 – e)u and last one with u.
1 1
KE = [m + em + e 2 m + − − − −e n – 2 m ] (1 – e )2 u 2 + e n –1mu 2
2 2
1
= mu 2 (1 – e + e n )
2
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 71
(eu ) 2
Now, h1 = = e 2h
2g
If e = 1, h1 = h
37. Answer (2, 3, 4)
Time to move from A to O is
c c
=
cu cos α e gh cos α
c
Time from O to A is u
gh cos α
∴ c = e (R – c)
c c c
e = = 2 =
R –C 4 sin 2α h sin 2α – c
–c
g
38. Answer (2, 3, 4)
dU
From x1 to x2, F = – is –ve
dx
dU
From x2 to x3, F = – is +ve
dx
– dU
From x3 to x 4 F = is +ve
dx
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72 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
1 2 m2
Fx = – kx 1 +
2 m1
2Fm1
x = k
(m1 _ m2 )
F
Now, if m1 = m2, x =
k
1 m
mgh = × × ( 4gR ) h = R
2 2
1 1 m
KEmin = × m × ( 4gR ) − × × ( 4gR ) = mgR
2 2 2
42. Answer (2, 4)
( )
Before collision, v B /W = ( v + u ) −iˆ
v +u ˆ
After collision, v B /W = (i )
2
v +u v + 3u
After collision v B / g = +u = 2
2
1 v + 3u
2
3m 2
ΔK = K f − K i = m −v2 = 3u − v 2 + 2u v
2 2 8
v +u 3
m
2
+ (v + u ) [v + u ] m
Force exerted by wall upon ball = = 2
Δt Δt
3 m v + u 3
Work done = × u Δt = mu [v + u ]
2 Δt 2
Displacement = L1 – L2
2 2 2
= − = m
sin30° sin37° 3
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 73
2 100
W = 50 × = J F
3 3
F cos30° L1
L2 2m
a1 m 5 3
⇒ a = = 37º
2 F cos37 ° 8 30º
m
44. Answer (1, 3, 4)
The ball moves with a variable speed in the groove and does not follow exactly circular path. w.r.t centre, ball
moves radially away in the groove.
45. Answer (1, 2, 3)
⇒ f = (F cosθ)
4
f = 20 × = 16 N, Wf = −16 × 6 J
5
46. Answer (1, 2) ω
1 v
Impulse I ' = F (t )dt = mv v =
m
F (t )dt
mv h 5 vh 5 v .h
I '× h = ICM ω =ωω= v ' = ω× R v ' =
2 2 2 R2 2 R
mR
5
5v 2R
For pure rolling v = v ' v = h h=
2R 5
2
If h > R, ω × R > v so backward slipping
5
47. Answer (1, 3)
For COM
mg − N = maCM ↓ ...(1) B
N C y
l aT
N × sin α = ICM α ' ...(2) α x
2 mg
A
l 3N sin α a
at A, aT = α' = ...(3)
2 m
a = −aT sin α
mg
∴ a = aT sin α N =
1 + 3 sin2 α
The acceleration of end A, along ground
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74 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
g 3 sin2 α
aCM = g − = g 2
1 + 3 sin2 α 1 + 3 sin α
2 a
(F – f ) R = mR 2
5 R
f
7ma
2F =
5
10F
⇒ a =
7m
Distance moved by centre of sphere is S then its speed is
20FS
v2 =
7m
20FS
v =
7m
Work done by F is
F – f = ma
mR 2
f R = α
2
F
ma f
f =
2
F 2F
∴ f = and a =
3 3M
At maximum elongation, velocity will be perpendicular to the spring. Conserving momentum about O
11L0 10V0 v1
mv0L0 = mv1 v1 = = 10 m/s
10 11
11L0
v 10
2
1 1 1 L
mv 0 2 = mv12 + k 0
2 2 2 10
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 75
k = 210
2
1 3 v
k1 + k2 = MR 2 02
2 2 R
3
= mv 02
4
Also, k1 = k2
3
⇒ k1 = k 2 = mv 02
8
Ja = 4ma 2 ω
3
v1 = u
19
29
v2 = u
19
12u
and ω =
19a
27u
Speed of B is u1 + 2aω =
19
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76 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
fk = 10
τCM = 0
CM CM
⇒ τN2 > τN1
55. Answer (1, 4)
A
v0
3m
4
1 ml 2 2 mgl
ω =
2 3 2
3g
ω=
l
l mω2 l
0 dm × ω
2
centripetal force upon rod = x=
2
mω2 l 5
For rod, T − mg = TA = mg
2 2
2
mg l /2 mω mω2 l 2 mω2 l ml 3g 3
For 'D' T − T '−
2
= 0 l
xdx =
l 8
=
8
=
8
×
l
= mg
8
mg 3 5 3 13mg
T ' =T − − mg = mg − mg =
2 8 2 8 8
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 77
dt T
Strain, = ∝T
dx A.Y
1
U= Y .( strain)2
2
⇒ U ∝T2
58. Answer (1, 3)
k = k c + kl
1( v2 1
= 2mR 2 ) 02 + ( 2m ) v 02
2 R 2
= mv 02 + mv 02 = 2mv 02
GM 2GM
Vsatellite = = , where R is radius of earth’s orbit around sun.
(R / 2 ) R
1 R
∴ Vsatellite = 2 Vorbital = escape speed. The acceleration a ∝ . As r = a satellite = 4aearth
r 2 2
60. Answer (1, 3)
61. Answer (1, 3)
Torque on side wall
L x
dτ = (ρgxL ) (L – x )dx
0
P0 + ρ gx
P0
L–x
ρgL4
τ=
6
Torque of the base
L
= Force ×
2
2 L ρgL4
= (ρgL )(L ) =
2 2
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78 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
P Q
F2
V2
P2
V1 37°
F1 P1
1 2 1
P1 + ρgh1 + ρv1 = P2 + ρgh2 + ρv 22 … (i)
2 2
h1 = h2 = 0
Using equation of continuity
A1V1 = A2V2
4 × 4 = V2
V2 = 16
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 79
1 2 1 2
280 × 103 + ρ4 = P2 + ρ (16 )
2 2
Solving P2 = 172 × 103 N/m2
F1 = P1A1 = 56 × 103
F2 = P2A2 = 8.6 × 103
dpliquid
Now, F1 + F2 + F pipe =
dt
dpliquid
F pipe =
dt
(
− F1 + F2 )
F = P A i
1 1 1
(
F2 = P2 A2 cos37°i − sin37° j )
dPliquid dm
= ΔV
dt dt
= (
ρA1V1 V2 − V1 )
( ( )
= V2 = 16 cos37° −i + sin37° j )
V1 = 4i
Solving for F pipe
F pipe = 76 × 103 N
dU
= 10 sin 2x × x
dx
dU
= 20 sin 2 x
dx
F = – 20 sin 2 x
For small x
F = –40x
⇒ K = 40
m 1
∴ T = 2π = 2π
K 40
x = 0 is mean position, ∴ speed is maximum.
66. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
Situation is just like a block suspended vertically from a spring. It makes S.H.M.
m
Time period, T = 2π
k
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80 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
2h
T = × 4
g sin 2 θ
∂φ
Fx = – = –3
∂x
∂φ y
Fy = – =–4 6
∂y
Fx
∴ Force is constant 4
It crosses x-axis, at x = 3 and y = 0 Fy
F
3 0 3 x
W = –
6
3dx –
4
4dy
(0, –4)
W = –3(3–6) –4 (0–4) = 25 J
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 81
It crosses y-axis at (0, –4)
3 –4
W = –
6
3dx – 4dy
4
W = 50
1
× 1× v 2 = 50
2
v = 10 m/s
13
x = 6 − × ( 4)2
2 1
= –18 m
1
y = 4 − ( 4) ( 4) 2
2
= –28
72. Answer (2, 3, 4)
73. Answer (1, 2, 4)
For given mode
nd
x=0 L 2 overtone
L/6 L
2L
3 3
8th overtone
d 2y d 2y
The function which satisfies differential equation 2
= v2 represent wave. The choice (3) does not satisfy
dt dx 2
equation and in (4) y → ∞ for x → 0 and t → 0.
76. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
T ≤ Tmax T
a
⇒ T = mg + ma ≤ 600
⇒ g + a ≤ 15 mg
⇒ a≤5 m/s2
77. Answer (1, 2, 3)
1 2 2u 2h
h = ut – gt t1 + t 2 = =T and t1 × t 2 =
2 g g
2
1 T g
Also, H = g = (t1 + t 2 )2
2 2 8
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82 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)
VA 3
=
VB 1
λA 3
=
λB 1
A0
At =
2
79. Answer (1, 3)
F 1 Δ 1
Use Δ = and U = × stress × strain . F is same, y is same Δ ∝ ∝
AY 2 A A
2
Δ
Also, U ∝
80. Answer (1, 3)
v dm λ dx
N= =v × = λv 2 = λ × 2 gx
dt dt
Normal force first increases uniformly with respect to distance and then becomes constant.
81. Answer (2, 4)
V = dx = ( iˆ + 2 x 2 jˆ )
dt
dx
= 1 m/s ⇒ x = t
dt
dy 2t 3 2x 3
= 2x 2 ⇒ vy = 2t 2 or y = y=
dt 3 3
d 2x ˆ d 2y ˆ
a= i + 2 j.
dt 2 dt
a normal = a – a ·vˆ
82. Answer (2, 3)
A1 V1 = A 2V 2 = A 3 V3
By Bernoullie’s theorem,
P2 > P1 > P3
83. Answer (1, 4)
In projectile motion,
u 2 sin 2 θ 2u sin θ
H= ,T =
2g g
For vertical projection,
u2 2u
H= ,T = .
2g g
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