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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 61

Section - B : Multiple Choice Type Questions (Multiple correct answers)

1. Answer (1, 3, 4)

2. Answer (2, 3, 4)
d1 + d 2 + d 3
d= = 1.004
3
( Δd 1 ) + ( Δd 2 ) + ( Δd 3 )
Δd = = 0.0013 cm
3
Δd1 = | 1.002 − 1.004 | = 0.002 cm

0.0013
% error = × 100 = 0.13%
1.004
3. Answer (2, 3)
1
ΔT = = 0.2 for both A & B
5

ΔT 0.2
For A, accuracy depends on =
T 30

ΔT 0.2 ΔT
For B, accuracy depends on = . Smaller the value of , higher the accuracy.
T 50 T
4. Answer (1, 2, 3)
2
P = Ae −Bx
F = C sin ( Dx − Et )

A → [M1L2 T −3 ]

B → [L–2]

C → [M1L1T–2]

D → [L–1]

E → [T–1]

5. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)

dv
= 6 − 3v
dt

dv
= dt
6 − 3v

v t
dv

0
6 − 3v 
= dt
0

[ln(6 − 3v )]v0 = 3t

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62 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

ln(6 – 3v) – ln6 = – 3t

 6 − 3v 
ln  = −3t
 6 

6 − 3v
= e − 3t
6

v = 2(1 – e–3t)
Terminal speed is attained, when t = ∞

v = 2 m/s

d 2v
= 6e −3t
dt 2

d 2v
At t = 0, 2
= 6 m/s 2
dt

When acceleration is half the initial acceleration


–3 = –6e–3t

 1
by e −3t =  
2
Speed at this time

 1
v = 21 − 
 2 

v = 1 m/s
6. Answer (1, 4)
The graph represents increasing speed.
∴ Avg. velocity is less than instantaneous velocity.
7. Answer (2, 4)
t 3t
Maximum separation occurs at time, t + =
2 2
Maximum Separation = Displacement of 1st particle – Displacement of 2nd particle

t  1  2v   t  
2
 1  2v 
=  2v 0 × t + v 0 ×  −  0 +  0  t 2 +  0    
 2  2 t  2  t   2 

5v 0 t  v t
( ΔS )max = −  v0t + 0 
2  4 
5 5
= v0t − v0t
2 4
5
=v 0t
4
8. Answer (1, 2)

v = x 2 − 5x + 6

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 63

5
At x = , acceleration
2
Changes its sign.

vdv
a=
dx
v
a = ( x 2 − 5 x + 6) (2 x − 5)
x = 5/2
At x = 2, v = 0; a = 0 x
2 3
a dv
= = 2 x − 5 is non-zero
v dx
9. Answer (2, 3)
V 2 = 108 – 9x 2
Differentiate w.r.t. x

2vdv
= −18 x
dx
⇒ a = – 9x
∴ Motion is SHM, at x = 3 ; a = –27 m/s2
10. Answer (1, 3, 4)
t=0 , x = –16 m
Maximum value of the positive coordinate of the particle occurs at t = 24 s
Area under the graph from 0 to 24 is

8×4 6×6
S = 2 × 10 + 8 × 2 + +
2 2

S = 70
x coordinate is 70 – 16 = 54 m.
For t = 18 s
1
x – (–16) = 2 × 10 + ( 2 + 6) × 8
2
⇒ x = 36 m,
1 1 1
t = 30 s, x – (–16) = 2 × 10 + ( 2 + 6) × 8 + × 6 × 6 – × 6 × 6
2 2 2
⇒ x = 36 m
11. Answer (1, 2, 3)

 dr
v=
dt
(
= 2tiˆ + ˆj )
 dv
a= = 2iˆ
dt

x = t 2, y = t

⇒ x = y2

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64 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

12. Answer (1, 2, 4)


 
v1 = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj ; a1 = 2iˆ (At t = 0)

at any time t, v 1' = (2iˆ + 3 ˆj ) + (2iˆ)t

v 1' = (2 + 2t )iˆ + 3 jˆ
 
Similarly v 2 = 2iˆ − 2 ˆj ; a2 = 2 jˆ (at t = 0)

at time t, v '2 = 2iˆ + ( −2 + 2t ) ˆj
When their velocities become perpendicular
 
 v 1' , v '2 = 0

 4 + 4t − 6 + 6t = 0

 t = 0.2 s
Trajectory of both is parabolic with respect to ground.
⇒ Velocity of (1) w.r.t. (2) is (at time t)

v12 = 2t iˆ + (5 − 2t ) ˆj
Trajectory is parabolic again.
13. Answer (1, 3, 4)
For the particles to meet, x1 = x2 & y1 = y2 simultaneously.
y (N)

Path of A (Parabola)
Path of B (Parabola)

x (E)

1 1
u1t = a2t 2  u 2t = a1t 2
2 2

u1 a2
 =  a1u1 = a2u2
u2 a1

Speed

v 1 = u12 + a12t 2

v 2 = u 22 + a22 t 2

v1 = v2 ⇒ if u1 > u2 then a2 < a1.


14. Answer (2, 3)
20 m

A B
5 m/s 1 m/s2
When velocity of A and B is equal, the distance between them is minimum

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 65
vB = (1) (t) = 5
t=5s
Distance travelled by A is
SA = 25 m
Distance travelled by B is
1
SB = × (1) × 25
2
SB = 12.5 m
Distance between them is
S = SB – (SA – 20)
= 12.5 – 5 = 7.5 m
15. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
16. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
As the particle is moving horizontally at A, it is the highest point.
T u sin α
t= =
2 g

u 2 sin 2 α
H max =
2g

R u 2 sin 2α
OB = =
2 2g
4H H
tan α = , tan β =
R R
 
2
⇒ tanα = 2tanβ
17. Answer (1, 2)
d 500
tmin = = = 166.66 s
v MR 3
Drift cannot be zero in this case.
It can be minimised but cannot be zero.

18. Answer (1, 4)

VA

VA V1
V1

V2 V2

VA cos θ = V2

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66 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

V1 = VA

VB = V12 + V22 = VA2 + VA2 (cos2 θ) = VA 1 + cos2 θ

3
cos θ =
5

9 34
VB = VA 1 + = VA
25 5


aB = −VA sin θ
dt

d θ VA sin θ 4
= = VA
dt 2
3 +4 2 5 × 5

4 4
aB = −VA × × VA
5 25

16 2
aB = − VA
125
19. Answer (1, 3)

M 'g
a=
M +M'

 M 'g 
M 'g −T = M ' 
M +M'

 M '  M ' Mg
T = M ' g 1 − =
 M + M ' M + M '

g
= tan θ
a

M 'g
a = g cot θ =
M +M'

Mg cot θ
= M'
(1 − cot θ)g

M cot θ
M' =
1 − cot θ

 M cot θ  Mg
T = 
 1 − cot θ  M + (M cot θ)
1 − cot θ

(M 2 cot θ)g
T = = Mg cot θ
M
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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 67
20. Answer (1, 3)
The tension in the string burnt is (m1 – m2) g.

(m1 – m2 )g
∴ acceleration of m2 will be m2 upward. Acceleration of m1 initially will be zero, because the spring

force does not vanish at once.


21. Answer (2, 4)

F h
l

N φ θ

φ φ

mg

F N mg
= =
sin ( π − φ ) sin π − θ
( ) sin ( φ + θ )

F N mg
= = … (i)
sin φ sin θ sin ( φ + θ )

R h l
= =
sin θ sin ( φ + θ ) sin φ

sin θ R
⇒ = 
sin ( φ + θ )  h 

R 
⇒ N = ( mg ) ×   = Constant
h
And F decrease
22. Answer (2, 4)

F
aM =
M
am = 0

2 × l (M )
t=
F

23. Answer (2, 4)


If plane is smooth, both slide freely under gravity.
If friction acts on m1, its acceleration will be less than that of m2.

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68 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

24. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)


a = gsinθ
N = mgcosθ
f = Nsinθ = mgsinθcosθ Nsinθ N

mg Ncosθ a
= sin 2θ θ
2 mgcosθ mgsinθ
f
mg N1
mg
When θ = 45, f is max i.e.,
2

25. Answer (2, 4)


At highest point, Vvertical = 0
Energy is lost due to air-resistance. Acceleration during upward and downward journey is not some. There
motion is not symmetric.
26. Answer (1, 2)

R12 + R22 = T cos θ

Or T cos θ = R 2
Top view Side view Another side view

T cosθ T T sinθ
R1 R1
2r
r 2 r
θ
θ
R2 r T cosθ r

r 2
θ = 45°
T sinθ = mg mg

mg
 tan θ =
R 2

mg
 R1 = R2 =
2

and T = 2mg
27. Answer (1, 4)
For both bodies to start the motion F > 0.15 mg
For bodies to move together, 0.15 mg < F ≤ 0.45 mg.
28. Answer (2, 3)

1
F0 Lθ − mgL(1 − cos θ) = mv 2
2

At θ = 60°

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 69

2L  π mg 
v2 = F0 −
m  3 2 

m 2
T − mg cos θ = v
L

mg m 2L  π mg  2F π mg
T = +  F0 −  = 0 −
2 L m 3 2  3 2
29. Answer (2, 3, 4)

1 2
Impulse = Area = πF0
2
Also, I = Mv – 0
30. Answer (1, 2, 3)

mv 2
At A, N = 0  mg cos θ = h A
a
2 θ a v = 2ga (1 – cosθ)
 cos θ =
3 mg

a
As h = a (1 – cosθ)  h =
3

2
Also, v = ga cos θ = ag
3
31. Answer (1, 2, 3)
ag
When N = 0, particle leaves contact. 2
h
mv 2 θ a v = ag + 2ag (1–cosθ )
mg cos θ = 2
a
mg
g
g cos θ = + 2g (1– cos θ)
2
5
θ = cos –1  
6
a
h = a (1 – cos θ) =
6
32. Answer (1, 2, 3)
By conservation of momentum,
4 × 9 – 8 × 3 = 4 × (–1) + 8 × v
v = 2 m/s
2 +1 1
e = =
9+3 4
1  4×8   1 
K Loss = ×   (9 + 3) 2 1 – 2  = 180 J
2  4 + 8   4 

33. Answer (2, 4)


For collision between 2 bodies of same mass,

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70 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

 1– e   1+ e 
v1 =   u1 +   u2
 2   2 

 1– e   1– e 
v2 =   u2 +   u1
 2   2 

Now, m u m m

m u m 3u m
After 1st Collision,
4 4

m u m 3u m 9u
After 2nd Collision
4 16 16

m 13u m 15u m 9u
After third Collision,
64 64 16

34. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)

mg 1× 10
x0 = = = 10 cm
k 100

2 2
1 1  mg  1  mg 
∴ mv 2 + k   = kA+  − mgA
2 2  k  2  k 

m 1
⇒ A=v× = 2× = 0.2 m
k 100

= 20 cm

35. Answer (1, 2, 3)

After first collision,

m1 – em2 m – e 2m u
v1 = u = u = (1 – e)u
m1 + m2 m + em m em 2
em em
3

m2 (1 + e ) m (1 + e ) (1–e)u u
v2 = u = u = u
m1 + m2 m + em m em e2m e3m

Clearly, after second collision, 2nd ball will move with (1 – e)u and third with u.

∴ After all collisions, first (n – 1) balls move with speed (1 – e)u and last one with u.

1 1
KE = [m + em + e 2 m + − − − −e n – 2 m ] (1 – e )2 u 2 + e n –1mu 2
2 2

1
= mu 2 (1 – e + e n )
2

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 71

36. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)

Before striking v = 0 2 + 2gh = 2gh

The ball rebounds with speed eu = e 2gh

(eu ) 2
Now, h1 = = e 2h
2g

If e = 1, h1 = h
37. Answer (2, 3, 4)
Time to move from A to O is

c c
=
cu cos α e gh cos α

c
Time from O to A is u
gh cos α

As the ball rebounds with horizontal component e times, c R–c

∴ c = e (R – c)
c c c
e = = 2 =
R –C 4 sin 2α h sin 2α – c
–c
g
38. Answer (2, 3, 4)

dU
From x1 to x2, F = – is –ve
dx

dU
From x2 to x3, F = – is +ve
dx

– dU
From x3 to x 4 F = is +ve
dx

When potential energy decreases, kinetic energy increases.


39. Answer (1, 2, 4)
The motion of m2 w.r.t. m1 is governed by following forces
m2a1
kx
Here, a1 = m2 F
m1 kx
For maximum extension, velocity of m2 w.r.t m1 is zero
⇒ Wtotal = 0
x
 m2 ( k x ) 
 F – kx –
0
m1 
 dx = 0

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72 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

1 2  m2 
Fx = – kx 1 + 
2  m1 

2Fm1
x = k
(m1 _ m2 )

F
Now, if m1 = m2, x =
k

This value of x represents compression as well as elongation.


40. Answer (2, 3, 4)
m1u1 + m2u2 = (m1 + m2)v (perfectly inelastic collision)
1 1 1
KLoss = m1u12 + m2u22 – (m1 + m2 )v 2
2 2 2
1  m1m2  2  m1u1 + m2u2 
=   (u1 – u2 )  Using v = 
2  m1 + m2   m1 + m2 
There is no loss in momentum in a collision

41. Answer (1, 3, 4)

1 m
mgh = × × ( 4gR )  h = R
2 2
1 1 m
KEmin = × m × ( 4gR ) − ×   × ( 4gR ) = mgR
2 2 2
42. Answer (2, 4)

( )
Before collision, v B /W = ( v + u ) −iˆ

v +u  ˆ
After collision, v B /W =   (i )
 2 
v +u  v + 3u
After collision v B / g =  +u = 2
 2 

1  v + 3u  
2
3m  2
ΔK = K f − K i = m   −v2  =  3u − v 2 + 2u v 
2  2  8

v +u  3
m
 2 
 + (v + u ) [v + u ] m
Force exerted by wall upon ball = = 2
Δt Δt

3 m v + u  3
Work done =   × u Δt = mu [v + u ]
2  Δt  2

43. Answer (2, 4)

Displacement = L1 – L2

2 2 2
= − = m
sin30° sin37° 3

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 73

2 100
W = 50 × = J F
3 3
F cos30° L1
L2 2m
a1 m 5 3
⇒ a = = 37º
2 F cos37 ° 8 30º
m
44. Answer (1, 3, 4)
The ball moves with a variable speed in the groove and does not follow exactly circular path. w.r.t centre, ball
moves radially away in the groove.
45. Answer (1, 2, 3)

Fcosθ = μ(mg – Fsinθ)

⇒ F= μmg 0.4 × 5.2 × 10


= = 20 N
cos θ + μ sin θ  4 3
 + 0.4 × 
5 5

⇒ f = (F cosθ)

4
f = 20 ×   = 16 N, Wf = −16 × 6 J
5
46. Answer (1, 2) ω

1 v
Impulse I ' =  F (t )dt = mv  v =
m
F (t )dt

mv h 5 vh 5 v .h
I '× h = ICM ω  =ωω=  v ' = ω× R  v ' =
2 2 2 R2 2 R
mR
5
5v 2R
For pure rolling v = v '  v = h h=
2R 5

2
If h > R, ω × R > v so backward slipping
5
47. Answer (1, 3)
For COM

mg − N = maCM ↓ ...(1) B
N C y
l aT
N × sin α = ICM α ' ...(2) α x
2 mg
A
l 3N sin α a
at A, aT = α' = ...(3)
2 m
 
a = −aT sin α

mg
∴ a = aT sin α  N =
1 + 3 sin2 α
The acceleration of end A, along ground

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74 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

3N sin α 3g sin α cos α ˆ


Surface = aT cos α ( −iˆ) = × cos α = ( −i )
m 1 + 3 sin2 α

g  3 sin2 α 
aCM = g − = g  2 
1 + 3 sin2 α 1 + 3 sin α 

48. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)


F + f = ma F

2 a
(F – f ) R = mR 2
5 R
f
7ma
2F =
5

10F
⇒ a =
7m
Distance moved by centre of sphere is S then its speed is

20FS
v2 =
7m

20FS
 v =
7m

Work done by F is

W = 2FS (∴ displacement of point of application is 2s)

49. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)

Friction force is in backward direction as F acts at CM

F – f = ma

mR 2
f R = α
2
F
ma f
f =
2

F 2F
∴ f = and a =
3 3M

50. Answer (2, 4)

At maximum elongation, velocity will be perpendicular to the spring. Conserving momentum about O

11L0 10V0 v1
mv0L0 = mv1  v1 = = 10 m/s
10 11
11L0
v 10
2
1 1 1 L 
mv 0 2 = mv12 + k  0 
2 2 2  10 

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 75

m (v 02 − v12 ) 0.1(121 − 100 ) 21


k= 2 = =
( 0.1) ( 0.1)2 0.1

k = 210

51. Answer (2, 4)

2
 1  3 v
k1 + k2 =   MR 2  02
 2  2 R

3
= mv 02
4
Also, k1 = k2

3
⇒ k1 = k 2 = mv 02
8

52. Answer (1, 2, 4)


C mAB = 3m
A B AB = 4a
J = F Δt
u
for Rod, J = –3mv1 + 3mu u
m After impact
J = 3m (u – v1)
ω
For particle, –J = –mv2 – mu v1
v2
J = m (u + v2)
Using angular impulse = change in angular momentum of rod
1
Ja = (3m ) × ( 4a )2 ω
12

Ja = 4ma 2 ω

We need speed of point C which is v1 – aω (downward)


Law of restitution gives
v2 – v1 + aω = e (u + u)
Since e = 1 ∴ 2u = v2 – v1 + aω
Solving equations

3
v1 = u
19
29
v2 = u
19
12u
and ω =
19a

27u
Speed of B is u1 + 2aω =
19

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76 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

53. Answer (2, 4) 2


α = 2π rad/s 2
α = 2π rad/s
ω = 100 π – 2πt
ω = 2πt
⇒ ω = 50 π rad/s
⇒ t = 25 s
ω1 = 100π rad/s
54. Answer (1, 2)
F
N2
CM
N1

fk = 10

τCM = 0
CM CM
⇒ τN2 > τN1
55. Answer (1, 4)
A

v0
3m
4

Angular momentum before bullet hits rod = mv0a


Angular momentum remains constant just before and after collision
56. Answer (1, 4)
LOC ME

1  ml 2  2 mgl
 ω =
2  3  2

3g
ω=
l

l mω2 l
 0 dm × ω
2
centripetal force upon rod = x=
2

mω2 l 5
For rod, T − mg =  TA = mg
2 2

2
mg l /2 mω mω2 l 2 mω2 l ml 3g 3
For 'D' T − T '−
2
= 0 l
xdx =
l 8
=
8
=
8
×
l
= mg
8

mg 3 5 3 13mg
T ' =T − − mg = mg − mg =
2 8 2 8 8

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 77

57. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)


Tension at distance x from centre,
T = k(L2 – x2) ; where k is a constant

dt T
Strain, = ∝T
dx A.Y

1
U= Y .( strain)2
2
⇒ U ∝T2
58. Answer (1, 3)

k = k c + kl

1( v2 1
= 2mR 2 ) 02 + ( 2m ) v 02
2 R 2

= mv 02 + mv 02 = 2mv 02

59. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)


At T2 ∝ R3
2 3
 T   1
  =  
 1 year  2

1 year 365 days


T = = = 129 days
2 2 2 2

GM 2GM
Vsatellite = = , where R is radius of earth’s orbit around sun.
(R / 2 ) R

1 R
∴ Vsatellite = 2 Vorbital = escape speed. The acceleration a ∝ . As r =  a satellite = 4aearth
r 2 2
60. Answer (1, 3)
61. Answer (1, 3)
Torque on side wall
L x
 
dτ = (ρgxL ) (L – x )dx
0
P0 + ρ gx
P0
L–x
ρgL4
τ=
6
Torque of the base

L
= Force ×  
2

2 L ρgL4
= (ρgL )(L )   =
2 2
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78 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

62. Answer (1, 2, 3)


Force exerted by water at bottom
P.a = (P0 + hρg)a 2
= (1.01 × 105 + 0.1 × 103 × 10) × 10 × 10–4
= 102 N
Force on exerted by atmosphere on water
= P0a1
= 1.01 × 105 × 30 × 10–4
= 303 N
Force on side wall = Force by atmosphere + weight of liquid – Force of bottom
= 303 + 10 – 102
= 211 N
63. Answer (2, 4)
I. ρ < ρ2 < ρ1
(h1 + h2 + h3)ρ = h1ρ1 + h2ρ2
if h1 = 0, If h1 ≠ 0
h2(ρ2 – ρ) = h3ρ h3ρ = h1(ρ1 – ρ) + h2(ρ2 – ρ)
Since ρ2 > ρ  ρ1 > ρ ; ρ2 > ρ
⇒ This is possible ⇒ This is possible
II. ρ2 < ρ < ρ1
h1ρ1 + h2ρ2 = (h1 + h2 + h3)ρ
If h1 = 0
h2(ρ2 – ρ) = h3ρ
 ρ2 < ρ
⇒ This is not possible.
64. Answer (1, 4)

P Q
F2
V2
P2

V1 37°
F1 P1

1 2 1
P1 + ρgh1 + ρv1 = P2 + ρgh2 + ρv 22 … (i)
2 2

h1 = h2 = 0
Using equation of continuity
A1V1 = A2V2
4 × 4 = V2
V2 = 16

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 79

From equation (i)

1 2 1 2
280 × 103 + ρ4 = P2 + ρ (16 )
2 2
Solving P2 = 172 × 103 N/m2
F1 = P1A1 = 56 × 103
F2 = P2A2 = 8.6 × 103

   dpliquid
Now, F1 + F2 + F pipe =
dt

 dpliquid  
F pipe =
dt
(
− F1 + F2 )

F = P A i
1 1 1

(
F2 = P2 A2 cos37°i − sin37° j )
dPliquid dm 
= ΔV
dt dt
 
= (
ρA1V1 V2 − V1 )

( ( )
= V2 = 16 cos37° −i + sin37° j )
V1 = 4i

Solving for F pipe

F pipe = 76 × 103 N

65. Answer (2, 4)


U = 10 (1 – cosαx)

dU
= 10 sin 2x × x
dx

dU
 = 20 sin 2 x
dx
 F = – 20 sin 2 x
For small x
F = –40x
⇒ K = 40

m 1
∴ T = 2π = 2π
K 40
x = 0 is mean position, ∴ speed is maximum.
66. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
Situation is just like a block suspended vertically from a spring. It makes S.H.M.

m
Time period, T = 2π
k

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80 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

67. Answer (2, 4)


x1 = – A cosωt
x2 = – A sinωt
When the particles meet, x1 = x2
⇒ – cosωt = sinωt
or tanωt = –1

ωt =
4
3π  3π  A
t = also x = A sinωt = A sin   =
8  4  2
68. Answer (1, 2, 3)
At 1, a>0⇒x<0
At 2, a = 0 and it changes from + to –
r = 0, and it changes from – to +
∴v>0
At 3, Acceleration is maximum negative
∴ particle is at extreme position
∴ potential energy is maximum
69. Answer (1, 3)
a is not proportional to displacement
∴ motion is not SHM
But it is oscillatory

2h
T = × 4
g sin 2 θ

70. Answer (3, 4)


A
At t = 0 x = 0 and y = ±
2
1
∴ sin δ = ±
2
δ = 30° or 330°.
71. Answer (2, 3, 4)

∂φ
Fx = – = –3
∂x

∂φ y
Fy = – =–4 6
∂y
Fx
∴ Force is constant 4
It crosses x-axis, at x = 3 and y = 0 Fy
F
3 0 3 x
W = – 
6
3dx – 
4
4dy
(0, –4)

W = –3(3–6) –4 (0–4) = 25 J

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Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I) Mechanics 81
It crosses y-axis at (0, –4)
3 –4
W = – 
6
3dx –  4dy
4

W = 50
1
 × 1× v 2 = 50
2
v = 10 m/s
13
x = 6 −   × ( 4)2
2  1
= –18 m

1
y = 4 − ( 4) ( 4) 2
2
= –28
72. Answer (2, 3, 4)
73. Answer (1, 2, 4)
For given mode

nd
x=0 L 2 overtone
L/6 L
2L
3 3

8th overtone

74. Answer (1, 2, 4)


HCF of frequencies is 30HZ . This is fundamental frequency
∴ Given frequencies are in ratio 3 : 5 : 7. They are 3rd, 5th and 7th harmonic or 1st, 2nd and 3rd overtone.
75. Answer (1, 2)

d 2y d 2y
The function which satisfies differential equation 2
= v2 represent wave. The choice (3) does not satisfy
dt dx 2
equation and in (4) y → ∞ for x → 0 and t → 0.
76. Answer (1, 2, 3, 4)
T ≤ Tmax T
a
⇒ T = mg + ma ≤ 600
⇒ g + a ≤ 15 mg
⇒ a≤5 m/s2
77. Answer (1, 2, 3)

1 2 2u 2h
h = ut – gt  t1 + t 2 = =T and t1 × t 2 =
2 g g

2
1 T  g
Also, H = g   = (t1 + t 2 )2
2 2 8

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82 Mechanics Solutions of Success Magnet (Part-I)

78. Answer (2, 4)

VA 3
=
VB 1

λA 3
=
λB 1

A0
At =
2
79. Answer (1, 3)

F 1  Δ 1
Use Δ = and U = × stress × strain . F is same, y is same Δ ∝  ∝
AY 2 A  A
2
 Δ 
Also, U ∝  
  
80. Answer (1, 3)

v dm λ dx
N= =v × = λv 2 = λ × 2 gx
dt dt
Normal force first increases uniformly with respect to distance and then becomes constant.
81. Answer (2, 4)
 
V = dx = ( iˆ + 2 x 2 jˆ )
dt

dx
= 1 m/s ⇒ x = t
dt

dy 2t 3 2x 3
= 2x 2 ⇒ vy = 2t 2 or y =  y=
dt 3 3

d 2x ˆ d 2y ˆ
a= i + 2 j.
dt 2 dt

a normal = a – a ·vˆ
82. Answer (2, 3)
A1 V1 = A 2V 2 = A 3 V3
By Bernoullie’s theorem,
P2 > P1 > P3
83. Answer (1, 4)
In projectile motion,

u 2 sin 2 θ 2u sin θ
H= ,T =
2g g
For vertical projection,

u2 2u
H= ,T = .
2g g

  

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