‘copk (coe ] ® Aakash Dewu's omorate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dehi-110008, Pn O14 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023 1s. 20 Mins. mm 720 csT. Timo :3 Hrs. 20 Mins. _.. @DefeatNEET (i) There are two sections in each subject, i. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle. (v) Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi). Dark the circle in the space provided only: (vi) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material fon the Answer sheet, 623456 Choose the correct answer SECTION-A | 3. Which among the following represents the order 1. The characteristic equation of the ‘logic circuit of energy of gamma decay? () ev (2) Mev shown in the igure will be ° (@) kev 4) mev iia 4, A block of mass m is oscillating simple eu y harmonically while attached with two identical springs each of spring constant k as shown in the c— figure. Time period of the block is (1) (A¥B). (B50) @) A-B+B-6 (3) AB+BC (4) (AB) +(6-0) k Sk Astlicon diode is doped with phosphorous. Then = choose the correct option. (Symbols have their usual meaning) “ anf @ anf (1) n> Mm 2) me< Mm i (3) ne= Mm (4) mez °% nf @) anf (a)EST (Code-a) 5. If two thin convex lenses having focal lengths f= 20 om and fz = 30 cm are placed in contact with each other, then equivalent power of this ‘combination of lenses wil be (120 8 @ 3 @6o f A plane miror .@E ‘a convex lens (u = 1.5, Ry = Ro = 30 cm) at a distance ‘¢ from lens as shown in the figure. An object is placed at fa distance of 30 cm in front of lens. For what value of 'o final image formed will coincide with the object itself? 6 — (1) 300m (2) 65cm 4 (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Image can't coincide A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is ralling with-40 mis Up an inclined plane of inclination 37° without slipping. The maximum height upto whieh it wil] roll is (1) 14m 25m (7m (4) 10m ‘A wheel starts rotating with an initial angular speed 5x rad/s and retardation 12.5 radis*. The number of revolutions made by wheel before the wheel comes to rest are a @ a 4 If the tension in the string is changed by 1%. The change in the transverse wave velocity will be (1) 0.5% (2) 1.5% (3) 1% (4) 0.25% @) Os ‘ 10. 2 14. 16. (2) Intensive Program for NEET.2023 ntact on @ horizontal Boxes A and B are in conta ; iatonless surface as shown in figure. Box A has © 20 Kg and box B has mass 5 kg. A aa ntal force of 100 N is exerted on box A, tal note ct fre that box A exes 9 box Bis E Sate (1) 40N 2) 20N (4) 80N {aif 0.25 m? of oil. What is (apg) lippres nel volume of the oil when it is subjected to pressure increase of about 1.6 x 10” Pa? (Bulk modulus of oil B = 5 x 10° Pa) (1) 0.80L @Q12b (3) 0.96L (4 32L A 15 kg solid gold statue is raised from bottom of sea, The tension in hoisting cable when statue is completely under water will be (Given density of gold 19:3 g/cc and that of sea water 1.035% 40° kgim®, g= 10 m 5-2) (Ay 142 (2) 129N @)458N (4) 103 N A surveyor uses a steel tape measuring 50 m ong at,tettiperature of 20°C. What is length of _ the tape when temperature is 35°C? Coefficient of volume expansion of tape material is 3.6 « 10- Bet (4) 51.003 m (2) 50.008 m (@) 50.800 m (4) 50.117 m ‘Anhot copper pot of mass 2 kg is at temperature ‘of 150°C. You pour 100 gm of water at 25°C into the pot. Ifthe only heat interaction is between pot ‘and water, then the final temperature of water will be (Given Cos = 390 J kg K- and Cy = 4200 J kg Ke) (1) 80°c (2) 100°¢ (3) 106°C (4) 120°C ‘A room contains about 2500 moles of air. What is ‘change in internal energy of air when itis cooled from 35°C to 26°C at constant pressure of 4 atm? Treat ait to be ideal gas with y = 1.40 given that R= 8.31 J mob" K-* (1) 3.52% 1054 (2) 2.59 105) (@) 4.68 x 1054 (4) 6.41 « 105)Intensive Program for NEET.2023 16. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom transit from fifth energy level to ground level. The velocity that atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be (m = mass of hydrogen atom and R is Rydberg constant) 24m 24hR 1) 2am 24nk ” 25hR ® 25m she an © Sem oom 17. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery of potential 'V. After sometime, the battery is disconnected and space between the plates is completely filed with dielectric having dielectric constant K. The energy stored in it becomes (1) Ktimes (2) Ktimes ®@ z times (4) Remains same 18. Ina region electric potential varies 48 = 37y + 3x? (i SI units). The magnitude of eleStnennsls ata point whose coordinates are (2,2) m will be (1) 36 vim @ 72vim * (3) 362 vim (4) 7202 Vim 19. points A and B is 4a J Ba A 10.0 Ra 7 20 (1) 360 2 129 @) 189 90 20. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the x-axis from x and carries a steady current j, The magnetic field due to this section PQ at a point y= +a will be (1) Proportionalto a (2) Proportional to + (8) Proportional to a? (4) Zero 21. The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the fg max nin interference pattern, the ratio ™=™\—"" will be @ cST-4_{Code-A) avn & @ net 2 @ 8, CO) ee ae (n+ 4 22. A body dropped from the top of a tower, covers a distance 5yo in the last second of its journey, where yo is the distance covered in first second. ‘Then the time for which it remains in air is (1) 28 @3s @ 4s (488 23. If gravitational potential on the surface of earth is Vo, then its value on the centre of earth is (1) Vo 2 % 3, 5, @) 5% 4) 5% 24, When 10%? electrons are removed from a neutral @ tec (4) #10" B_ Ramallah ot mass m and charge as paced ‘on fam smooth inclined plane at height h. A jim electric field E> exist in that region lel the ined surtace 28 shown. I the blckis eased rom rest, then the magnitude of momentum of the block, when it reaches to the bot fincne “ (2m@gn)? 2) (4me,qnye (©) (n?an-+egamn)? 4 (2man + me,an)?26. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum (Code-a) (1) Increases as we move from UV rays to microwaves: (2) Decreases as we move from UV rays to microwaves (3) Is same for all rays 33, A container of value program for NEET-2023 iled with hydrogen yerage Kinetic eneray of molecules is 1.53 * 10°: gas in the cylinder is 2.55 * 107 Pa Intenst 40 Lis fi gente eal tata moon The pressure of hydrogen J (2) (1) 2.55 « 108 Pa (3) 4% 10° Pa (4) 38.25 * 104 Pa “4 sa resistors wi sot at cnt tee deta Recent identical capacitors (4) Is maximum for visible rays, 34, two 27. A paricle projected trom ground with the velocty resistance R= 10 ne ania Rar 5]+7]. If the particle is in projectile motion, then with capacitance C = 2 HF. hown with inductance L = 2 mH and a battery ass the velocity of the particle when it touches the re through battery long oem be in the figure. The curres Bi ao time afte closing the switch is () 8147} @) -8i-7) (3) 51-77 (4) 51+77 28. Abob of mass m attached to a string of length ¢, performing uniform circular motion on a horizontal table. The work done by the tension (1) Zero ee force during one complete rotation willbe @ 4Aiins (28 (1) Zero Qn fe, 35. Two amplifiers of Voltage gain 10 and 20 are a cascaded. (confected in series). An input signal (a) moe (4) 2mge of voltage 0.1 V is applied at input of leftmost 2 ‘ J @Binpliter and output is taken at the output of 29. If a magnetic field exists in space B= 8, +B,/ | st amplifier. The output voltage will be then the plane through which magnetic flu wil @20v bazero) “ (4) 200V () xy “SECTION Q yz 4 a ae 4 eractve index of quid filed inside a pond is © (4) All planes will have magnetic flux ‘Aight source is placed in water at a depth of 6 m. 30. The magnetic susceptibility has unit Minimum radius of the disc placed on water poraane te becaeiaadiie surface, so that the light of source can be stopped, is @) tesla (4) weber per meter . o e (1) 67m 2) 45m 31. In an experiment, the percentage error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, 8, C GQ 2rm 4) 8.8m and D are 2%, 1%, 3% and 2% respectively. | 37. The position of a particle is given by Then the maximum percentage error in the =7+2)-& and its linear momentum is given calculation of Z, where Z = A*B2C 24, is by B=21+4]+2k. The angular momentum (1) 4% 2) 8% about origin is perpendicular to the (3) 35% (4) 6.5% (1) x-axis 32, Taking into account of the significant figures, the (2) zaxis value of (89.99 kg + 3.3 kg) is @) praxis (1) 103.2 kg 2) 103.3 kg (4) Line making equal angles with all the three (3) 103.29 kg (4) 103 kg axes (4)Intensive Program for NEET-2023, 38. A wave of wavelength 2 m is superposed on le reflected wave to form a stationary wave. A node is located at x = 3 m. The next node will be located at x = (1) 325m (2) 350m @) 375m (4) 4m 39. An upward normal force exerted by the floor is 840 N on an elevator passenger whose weight is 800 N. The magnitude and direction of the acceleration of elevator is (g = 10 mis?) (1) Sms upwards (2) 3ms~ downwards (3) 2ms* downwards (4) 14.4m s~ upwards Water enters @ house through @ pipe with an inside diameter 2 cm at an absolute pressure of 4% 105 Pa. A t cm diameter pipe connected to it leads to second floor bathroom 5:0 m above, when flow speed at inlet pipe entering house is 4.5 mis, what is pressure in pipe in bathroom? (1) 33% 10°Ner? (2) 6.2*10°N me (B) 23% 107 Nm? (4) 1.2 {0° NG 2 moles of ideal gas undergoes an isoifermal expansion at 500 K, its volume charges fromS ite to 10 litre. How much heat (nearly) is added to the gas? (take log:e 3 = 0.477) (1) 10k (2) 18 ks (3) 6 kd (4) 5 kd The following graph shows tHe Variation of terminal potential lfference V_ actoss combination of four cells in series with a resistor “| versus the current | t ver (inv) 40. 4 42, 2 Tin The current at which power dissipation of circuit becomes maximum is (1A (3) 4A Work done to increase the size of a hollow sphere formed by an arrangement of total charge “@' uniformly distributed from radius R to 2R is (2A (4) 054 43 44, 45. 46. 47. eSTA_(Code-A) Sry in Young's double-sit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1m away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 rim Is used. The width of each sit for obtaining ten maxima of double-sit within the central maxima of single-sit difraction pattern is (1) 0.2mm 2) 0.4 mm (3) 0.5mm (4) 0.02 mm When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted fom a metal surface is increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function ofthe: metal is Oy @) 1.0ev @A3ey, (4) 15ev ‘4 paficle with charge q and mass m is projected “vith kinetic energy & into the region of a uniform magnetic field 8 between two plates as shown §B particle just miss collision with the Dlate, then value of Bis ©0200 @eo00 @2000 119 900 002900 ©2090 ee ,2 8 wy PE @ 2a amd ‘am wakm ka @) Ym Pia Sat wa ‘A body is projected vertically upward from the ‘surface of the earth with a speed equal to half the ‘escape velocity. The maximum height attained by the body in terms of Ris (Ris radius of the earth) R oF 2 & @R (@ 2R oyt eST-1_(Code-a) ‘energy (E) and acceleration (@) os due to | 49, time ( mental physical quantities, 48. A block of mass 2 kg gain velocity 2 ‘an impuise imparted to it and now itis moving OF 2 rough horizontal surface between two vertical walls as shown in the figure. Net displacement of body when it comes to rest will be, (Given, that distance between walls is 10 m and co-efficient Cf kinetic friction is 0.2 and collision between the intensive Program for NEET-2023 chosen as fundat dimensions of mass |S () (Ee (3) (ee) @ mea (4) [rete] Sx in( ot +55)v When a voltage vg = 100V2sin{ ot sx) 60. block an walls i perfect elastic applied to an ac ult, tne current inthe rcut'S Zam found to be I=sin(ot a. ten averase = (6,0) | power consumed is —— (1) 100v6 W (2) 256 W ae: oon ) 252W ® "ew @ m (4) Zero CHEMISTRY a 54, The pergentge of vacant space in the 2D square ‘What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 100 mi of 16.98% (w!v) solution of AgNOs is mixed with 100 ml of 11.9% (w/v) KBr? (Given, atomic weight, Ag = 107.8, N = 16, K= 39, Br= 80) (1) 1889 @ 1196 @ 596 (4) 2569 The increasing order of oxidation states of | chlorine in the given molecules is yy (1) Ch, HCI, HCIOs, HCIO« (2) HCI, Ck, HCIOs, HClO. (2) HOI0s, HCI0s, Ch, HCI (4) Cla, HCI, HCIO4, HCIO> Consider the following statements Diydrogen does not act as reducing agent Dinydrogen on reaction with CO in presence of cobalt gives methanol. Mixture of CO and Hes called syngas. 51 4,0 52 53. a b. c The correct statements are (1) a, bande (2) aandb only (3) aandconly uff celown below is (2) 24.5% (3) 11.5% (4) 78.5% In which of the following reactions, standard 56. entropy change is positive? (1) 3H2(q) + Na(g) + 2NHs(Q) (2) AlgO,(s) 2 2Al(s) + $o,(0) @) CO(a)+40,(g)—»C0,(6) (4) Ca(s) +4 0,(3) —>Ca0(s) (4) bandconly @Intensive Program for NEET-2023 esT-1_(Code-A) 58. Match List (Meta) Substance: utificatio wbstances and select he conec option, “| "® | Statomont It Matose i a disaechas List-t (Metal) List (Purification) In light of the above statements, choose the an 0 Vapo correct answer. b. sn 5 sped tires (1) Both statement | and statement Il are correct G) Electrolytic refining (2) Both statement | and statement II are © cu mh ii) Liquation incorrect nef (iv) Distilation {@) Statement | is correct but staternent It is (1) a(), BG, Gi), av) @) ati), BAAD, cA), 40) incorrect (3) aliv), BAD, e(D, aKa (4) av), bE), edi, i) (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement I! is 57. The lattice having ABC ABC ... type pattern has. correct (1) Simple cubic unit cot 63, Consider the following statements (2) Face centered cubie unit cell a. Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror (8) Body-centered cubic unit cell images (4) Hexagonal close packing unit cell b. Butan-2-ol is a chiral compound 58. Aqueous solution of which of the following salts c. A mixture containing two enantiomers in will be alkaline in nature? fequal proportions will have zero optical (1) Nact (2) NHaCl rotation (3) CHsCOOK (4) KNOs =o \ rect statements are 59. Correct order of stability of the glven caftionium ind Bonly (2) band conly =" ® an (4) aand c only @CH, Qu, CH, sider the following species [recom [inten wo w ® ho, dcty he Correct order of spin only magnetic moment @ Gi) ive will be (1) Gi > > Gi) (2) (ii >i). > M0) S41 ay @> a> (2) diy > Gi) > © @) @> Gi @ a> orm —~ @ > @> Gi) 4) wy > O> 60. The compound which will release’ maximum | 5. The compound which will react fastest with Lucas amount of energy on catalytic hydrogenation is. taco 0 AW ao. ~~ BA. oF 2 OH OAA H 61. The pair of compounds which can be @) Ay @ distinguished by haloform reaction is, ba on OH oe aU 66. In which of the following species, the central a and atom is not sp* hybridized? oY %, (1) cH @ sot oo 9 @) PC (4) SF 7 aX and Sco 67, Which among the following is not a Lewis base? 4 ( YC ane cro (1) NHs (2) H20 ° (3) Alcls (4) CHaNHe a”for NEET-2023 intensive Program oacids of sulphur CST (Code) TT] Te wich of the fold, © eee ‘contains peroxide linkage ‘Unit of rate constant of @ Zero oF 8 : (1) mot L's (2) mot "Ls" @e (4) motLs" 69, Process of converting a precipitate into colloidal sol in called (1) Peptisation (2) Electrocalysis (9) Dialysis (4) Coagulation 70. In 0.5 mola solution that contains 1 mole of 2 solute, there is, (1) 500g ofsoWvent (2) 1000g of solvent (@) 2000.9 of solvent (4) 1000 ml of solvent 71. An alkane ‘A’ with molecular formula CoH forms two products on monochlorination, Akane ‘A’ is (1) 2Methylpentane (2) 2, -Dimethylbutane (@) SMethylpentane (4) 2,2-Dimethylbutane 72. Which ofthe folowing compounds is most. acidic in nature? (i, (1) eNitrophensl 2) p-Cresol nae | (9) Phenol @) etmand) 73. All of the following are the examples. St tranquilizers, except (1) Equant (2) Chlordiazepoxi (2) Meprobamate (4) Chloramphenicbl». 74. Choose the option containing monomer 6f 6 (1) CF2=CFe i (2) HaN - CHe— COOH and HaN(CHz)sCOOH H i N. a0 be ia cH-CH, 4) O\-cn-0n, 75. White Phosphorus on reaction with thionyl chloride gives (1) PCls and SO (2) POCK and S02 (3) PCly, S02 and S:Ch (4) POCk, SOs and S.C (1) Sulphurous acid (2) Sulphuric acid (9) Peroxodisuiphurie acid (4) Pyrosulphuric acia ‘An amine A reacts with Hinsbers’s reagent to soluble in KOH. 7 form a product P which is ins pane Kean be (1) (CHs)3N (2) (C2Hs)2NH (3) CzHsNH2 (4) CHoNH2 va. Wich of the flowing oxides is amphoteric i nate? (1) NazO (2) N20. (3) AlOs (4) cO 79. If radius of third Bohr orbit of the Li?* ion is 158.7 pm, what isithe radius of second Bohr orbit of Psa (1) 5239, pm. (2) 105.8 pm cof 265i8h) arts po ng the folowing 18 corect order of Sch am ionic mobility? (4)Cs*(aay> K*(aq) > Rb*(aq) > Na*(aq) 2atee (2),Litlag) > Na*(aq) > K*(aq) > Rb“eq) 2 > Cs*(aq) “Y@) K (eq) > Na*(aq) > Lir(aq) > Cs*(aq) “> Rbt(aq) (4) Cs*(aq) > Rb*(aq) > K*(aq) > Na*(aq) > Liteq) The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is (1) B Au(s) B= + 1.40 « oF 7 Ea Sne(aq) + 26° Snis) EN =—1.44V 3 Ne*(aq)+2e"> Nis) E*=-0.25V @ w & Fa fe Fet"(aq) +20" Fels) E*=-0.44V 84. Match the metal ions The strongest oxidising and reducing agents : ions given in Column | with the spin only magnetic moments of the ions given in eee ee Column and assign te coven nese (1) Aw and Sn) Av and Fe [ Columnt cant (3) Sn? and Ni (4) N+ and Au - : 88. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.5 g a. | or © | em of an organic compound gave 0.564 g of AgBr = The percentage of bromine present in the organic b. | vs w) | Bem onee is (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u and = 80) ©. | Fe* i) | Sem (1) 24% (2) 16% : 3) 32% (4) 48% 4. | cu wy) = be ABM. | oo, wnicSieralltne following Is an aromatic 2 @ & © § ay , @ O om @ wm oO = rs am o o w ao A® a eo @ @ Ww mle H Oo Mm wm © 85. Following limiting molar conductilités,are given as On m (HCI) = 426 S cm? mol Ay (NaCl) = 126 S om? mol" ‘jy (CHsCOONa) = 91S cm? mol* 2p (in Sem? mot) for CHSCOOH will be (t) 391 (2) 461 (3) 151 (4) 209 Section-B 86, The value of AH and AS for the reaction ° 90. agietes reactions given in Column | with the jective name given in Column Il Column | Column I cool hy ( Clemmensen ~paBes0” reduction b COMO! gy Etard ‘AnhyaAICLyCuT™ reaction °. (OrO,Cy!CS, (il) Koch ono reaction oH, Gatterman- Hg+ 3 0, $HgO are 400 kJ mot and 400 JK-* ; dy ee Pow mot! respectively. This reaction will be =a reduction spontaneous at (1) 400 K (2) 1200K (1) aGv). tid, efi), dQ) (2) ativ), b«ii), efi), 4) (3) 900K (4) 720K (3) ail), BU), cA), d(i) (4) agi), BG), e(D, dl) (9)sive Program for NEET-2023 ©ST-4_{Code-A) tees ‘91. Correct order of ligand field strength of the given | 97. The number of angular nodes and radial nodes in spoues le 4d orbital are (1) F>F>H,O>CO (@) CO>HO> 1 > (@) > >CO>H,0 (4) CO>H,O> F =r 82. Number of 90° and 180° bond angles in CiFs molecule, respectively are at (2) 2,zer0 (8) Zero, zero (4) Zero, 1 93. Consider the follwing reaction at equilibrium, A() = 2B(@) + Og). If total pressure at equilibrium is P atm then equilibrium constant (Ke) of the reaction will be tps toa () gP @ 4 @) Ape * oF ZF 94. Fora reaction P + Q -+ Product, If therfate lawis given by, r= k [PYTOP2, overall order of the | reaction will be " mt @) 32 @ 12 a2 95. Which of the following is an example ‘of negatively charged colloid? (1) Ti2 sol (2) Haemoglobings (2) Gelatin so! (4) Methylene bide Sol» 96. Temperature independent concentration term is” (2) Normality (1) Molarity @) (¢)» (4) Mole fraction 99. Choose the (1) 1 and 2, respectively (2) 3.and 0, respectively (3) 2and 1, respectively (4) 3 and 1, respectively 98. Identify the incorrect statement. (1) Plaster of Paris is hemihydrate of calcium sulphate. (2) Anhydrous calcium sulphate is known as "Dead burt plaster’ (3) Caustic soda is prepared by the electrolysis of sodium chloride in Castner-Kellner cell (4) Gypsum is obtained by heating plaster of Paris above 393 K. incorrect statement from the following, (1) N, N-Diethylethanamine is less basic than N- yethaniamine in aqueous medium. (2) Diazonium salt reacts with phosphinic acid to form benzene. 8) Aniline, undergoes Friedel Crafts reaction. (4) Cartiylamine reaction is used as a test for 1° amine. 100.‘A.gas ‘G' takes + times as long as to effuse out ‘as oxygen. The gas 'G' could be (1) He (2) He (@) co (4) Ne SECTION-A 401. If water has to move from root hairs to xylem through cortex, then the water potential of these regions should be Roothair Cortex. Xylem a 0 0 0 @ -1 2 3 @ 2 A o (4) 0 “1 +2 402. Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement-A: Some of the nitrogen travels as inorganic ions. Statement-B: Small amounts of P and S are carried as organic compounds. (1) Only statement A is incorrect (2) Only statement B is incorrect (8) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (4) Both the statements A and B are correct (10)Intensive Program for NEET-2023 103, Select the incorrect statement wir. interkineais (1) Chromosomes form chromatin fbres (2) No replication of ONA, (3) Centrioles pairs replicate in animal cell (4) RNA synthesis takes place 104. Which of the following phase of prophase | shows the dissolution of synaptonemal complex? (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene 105. Marchantia and Marsilea are (1) Homosporous species (2) Homosporous and heterosporous respectively (3) Heterosporous and homosporous respectively (4) Heterosporous species 106. Which of the following plants belongs to Pteropsida? (1) Dryopteris (2) Psitotum (3) Selaginelta (4) Equisegtin, 4107. Taxonomical aid used for identicgtion Sfiplts and animals. based on the sihiartist and dissimilarities is %,, F (1) Monograph (2) Manual | (3) Key (4) Flora 4 108. Choose incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. housefly. (1) Diptera — Order f (2) Insecta — Class (3) Arthropoda — Division (4) Muscidae — Family 109. At which step of citric acid cycle, substrate level phosphorylation occurs (1) Citric acid > a-ketoglutaric acid (2) Succinic acid + Malic acid (3) Malic acid + Oxaloacetic acid (4) Succinyl CoA - Suecinic acid 4110. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) Wheat variety, Atlas 66 has been used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat (2) Iron fortified rice variety has also been developed (3) IARI released vitamin A enriched bathua only (4) In 2000, maize hybrids having twice the ‘amount of some amino acids were developed ST. (Code-a) 111. Predation can be represented as, (1) Species A (+); Species (0) (2) Species A (-); Species (0) (3) Species A (+); Species B(+) (4) Species A (+); Species B(-) 112, Which of the following is available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs? (1) Community productivity (2) Secondary productivity (3) Net primary productivity (4) Gross primary productivity 113. Fungi usually store food materials inthe form of (1) Protein (2) Starch (3) Fatty acids (4) Glycogen and Oils 114. All the given features are true for both diatoms and dinoflagellates, except (1) Found in marine habitats (2) Ate photosynthetic (3) Have chlorophyll and cell wall (4) Have flagelia in the vegetative body 118. Which of the following bacteria can atmospheric nitrogen? (a) Chemosynthetic autotrophic (b) Photdsynthetic autotrophic (0) Reterotrophic (1), Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) X35) Only (0) (4) Only (b) and (c) ‘The probability of either a boy or a gitl child in ‘each pregnancy is always a) 2) fix (3) @) 417. State true (T) or false (F) for the following statements and select the correct option. ‘A. AA + XO type of genetic constitution is seen in male grasshopper. B. In humans, gain of an extra copy of chromosome 21, results in Down's syndrome. A B qT T @T F @F T 4) F FEST-1_(Code-A) 118. Genes for all of the following are found on ‘autosomes, except (1) Myotonic dystrophy (2) Haemophilia (8) Sickle cell anaemia (4) Thalassemia 119. From which region of the root tip, epidermal cells form very fine and delicate, thread like structures? (1) Region of elongation (2) Root cap (3) Region of maturation (4) Region of meristematic activity 120. In mustard flower, (1) Gynoecium is situated in the centre and other arts are at the rim of thalamus (2) Gynoecium occupies the highest position wert other parts, (3) Ovary is said to be halt inferior (8) Margins of thalamus grows uferd a encloses ovary completely : 121. Which among the following is ‘hot meristem? (1) Interfascicular cambium (2) Cork cambium (3) Fascicular vascular cambium (4) Intercalary meristem : 122. Select the incorrect statement/for the type. of simple tissue that is present in layers below the epidermis in most of the dicotyledonoiis plants (1) Intercellular spaces are present (2) Cells of this tissue are thickened at corners due to deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin (3) Provide mechanical support to growing parts of plant (4) They may contain chloroplasts to assimilate food 123. Who observed that all plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant? (1) Rudolf Virchow (2) Matthias Schleiden (3) Theodore Schwann Intensive Program for NEET-2023 a4, The organelle found within an organelle is (2) Lysosome (1) Mitochondria (4) Inclusion body (3) Ribosome 425, Consider the following statements for the organelle, also known as “power house of the cal’ ‘A. It is double membrane bound structure. number of lis inner membrane forms infoldings called cisternae. ©. Matrix possesses genetic material and ribosomes only. Itis a site of aerobic respiration. 8, D. ‘The correct statements are (1) ABandDonly — (2) B, Cand Donly (3) Band C only (4) Aand D only 126. A lower.value.of pH is maintained in the lumen of thylakoid of chloroplast is due to (@) Movement of protons across the membrane (Arean oF: crane i) Release of protons by proton carrier into the 6) Oxiglon of water motocules (@) Réduetion of NADP* towards stroma ©)” Ffie'éorrect one(s) is/are AW @.oa ) (b) and () only EY @.and@) —@) id ( “BY (@and (ony (4) (@) only 127, DNA differs from mRNA as the later has (1) Pentose sugar (2) 5-methyl uracil (3) Free -OH at 2'-position in the ribose (4) 3'-5' phosphodiester linkage 128, To determine the DNA sequences in the human genome project, sequence annotation is a step in which (1) Only those genes are identified that are expressed as mRNA (2) Whole set of genome containing coding and non-coding sequence are sequenced (3) Each piece of DNA fragment is amplified (4) DNA-RNA hybrid is formed (4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (2)meen AUGACCUSGAGAUGUS ich cole erate ny Bh a) (@) Substitution of C by 6 at 3° base from Send (©) Substitution of G by U at 8 base from 3 7 (©) Substitution of by U at 6% base from 3 (2) Deletion of 7" 6 from 3° (1) (@), (b) and (e) (3) (b) and (c) only end end end (2) (©) only (4) (c) and (a) 130. Select the correct representation regarding the Global biodiversity of various groups of organisms. (1) Mammals > Birds > Fishes (2) Mosses > Algae > Angiosperms (3) Insects > Reptiles > Mammals (4) Birds > Fishes > Fungi 131. Find the odd one out w.rt. the cateftiessbf impurities in waste water. iy (1) Cloth fibres (3) Paper fibres 132. Dormin, reported in mid 1960's, later it was ae @ silt (4) Faecal matter renamed as, (1) Auxins (2) GAs (8) Zeatin (4) ABA 133. Assertion (A): Double fertilization tequires’ two male gametes from a pollen tube. Reason (R): In most angiosperms, pollen grains are shed in two celled stage containing one vegetative cell and one generative cell only. Read the above statements and choose the correct option (1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct reason of (A) (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect 4134. A bioactive molecule, cyclosporin A is produced by alan (1) Bacterium (3) Protist (2) Animal (4) Fungus 185. Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases is not shown by (1) Annual plants only (2) Biennial plants only (3) Both annual and biennial plants (4) Polycarpic perennial plants SECTION-B. 136, Attraction of water molecules to the surface of tracheary elements is termed as (1) Cohesion (2) Adhesion (3) Surface tension _(4) Root pressure 137. Which of the following algae shows diplontic life cycle? (1) Volvox Q) Spirogyra @) Fucus (4) Chlamydomonas 138, Select the incorrectly matched pair (1) [Allen's rule |-[Mammats of colder climates have shorter lears and limbs to 4 mirimise heat loss (2h al '-| Shown by desert lizards i fon to cope with extreme . wi ltemperature 4) (ip) [Rauatimammats of |-|Blubber * [polarised possess (4), allitide sickness can |-|Morphological adaptation er | overcome by | [only (38}\Read the following statements and select the “yy correct option. Statement A: Humus is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at extremely fast rate. Statement B: The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients ‘occurs by mineralisation (1) Only statement A is incorrect, (2) Only statement B is incorrect (3) Both the statements are correct (4) Both the statements are incorrect, Select the incorrect match w.rt. class of fungi, their asexual spores and examples. (1) Phycomycetes — Aplanospores — Rhizopus (2) Ascomycetes ~ Conidia — Penicillium (3) Deuteromycetes ~ Absent - Colletotrichum (4) Basidiomycetes ~ Absent - Agaricus 140, (13)Intensive Program for NEET.2023 ©ST-4_(Code-A) 141. A person inficted with Turner's syndrome is @ with karyotype: e Select the correct option to fll A & B A B (1) Female 44+XO 2) Male 44+x0 (3) Female 45+XO (4) Male 45+X0 142, Preumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration in (1) Maize (2) Sugarcane (3) Rhizophora (4) Banyan tree 143. Which of the following does not constitute the stele? (1) Pericycle (2) Endodermis () Pith (4) Vascular bundles 144. Select the incorrect match (1) Elaioplast —— Stores olls and fats (2) Amyloplast — Is a type of leucoplast. (8) Aleuroplast — Stores proteins (4) Chromoplast — Contains water soluble carotene pigment 148. An Escherichia coli having hybrid DNA (YN. is allowed to duplicate for two generatiors ina medium having “NH.CI as the ohly source of nitrogen. What percent of individuals in, séeand generation will produce only light DNA? (1) 75% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 87.5% 146. Which amongst the following is/are considered to be ex-situ conservation of biodiversity? 147, Read the following statements and choose the correct option ‘Assoration (A): CFCs have permanent and ‘continuing effects on ozone layer. Reason (R): Chlorine atoms in CFCs act as catalyst and are not consumed in the reaction involved in ozone degradation. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) Statement (A) is correct but statement (R) is incorrect (4) Both the statements (A) and (R) are incorrect 148, Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect t6 Gibberellins? (1) ,AMEGAS are aciaic OS Cerblins increase length of roots @ Gi (@) Spraylig, sugarcane with Gibbereliins is eceipmicay benetia erellins promote bolting 4149. Matk the incorrect statement from following. A(t) Wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful (2) For hybridisation, if female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need of bagging (3) Banana is an example of parthenocarpic fruit * lean and detonane MP8 | (ay Most fits develop fom only ovary and are b. Preservation of gametes of threatened Sree nee species in viable and fertile condition for long | 150. Baculoviruses are ie (1) Biofertlzers ©. Protection of animals and plants in special ey tee eee eee a eal insecticidal application ae (@) Viruses that belong to the species ee ‘Nucleopolyhedrovirus io and : (4) Used as effective biological control agents (14)Intensive Program for NEET.2003 151. Select the produ ict whi breakdown of glucose ry 2te8ed during the lucose and fatty a (1) O 2) co a (3) Ne (4) Os 152. Complete the ar nalogy wart. the ™overnent performed by cells in humans Sperms in female genital tract Movement :: Leucocytes in blood : Choose the correct option, Flagellar (1) Muscular movement (2) Flagellar movement (3) Amoeboid movement (4) Ciliary movement 153. Metagenesis is exhibited by (3) Sycon (4) Obelia is (1) Most toxic form and requires large amount of water for its elimination ; (2) Least toxic form and can be removed with a minimum loss of water i, (3) In the form of a precipitate afid ial) water ol (4) 100000 times less toxic than ammonia” (| 4185. Choose the odd one w-rt. the structure'involved in the maintenance of ionic and acid-base balance of body fluids in invertebrates. (1) Nephridia (2) Green glands (3) Malpighian tubules (4) Kidneys 456. In India and China, the world livestock population is estimated to be ‘X’ while, their contribution to the world farm produce is 'Y’. Choose the option that correctly identifies °X’ and ‘Y’ ” ¥ (1) Lessthan 70% 50% (2) More than 70% 25% (3) Equal to 60% 40% 30% (4) Less than 80% 187. EFB stands for (1) England Federation of Biotechnology (2) European Federation of Biotechnology (3) European Fundamentals of Biotechnology (4) Ethiopian Fundamentals of Biotechnology 158. The restriction enzyme isolated from Escherichia coli cuts the DNA between bases only When the sequence GAATTC is present in the DNA, Select the correct option that fils the blank. (1) AandT (2 Tandc (@) Aand A (4) Ganda 159. The process in which rDNA is directly injected into the:nucleus of an animal cell is called (1) Microinjection. (2) Biolisties, (Bre gun (4) PCR Lod 160. The fWo key concepts of Darwinian Theory of renive Gf Evoution sre (@) Natura selection and mutation (2) Brafchine descent and natural selection (@)8¥aching descent and random mating Gp Genetic dit and gene flow humans, the average bith weight of babies is 3 to 4 kg, The babies having weight more or less than the average birth weight mostly do not survive, Ths is an example of (1) Disruptive selection (2) Directional selection (8) Stabilizing selection (4) Diversified selection 162, The theory that attempts to explain the origin of Universe is (1) Theory of spontaneous generation (2) Big Bang theory (3) Theory of Panspermia (4) Theory of special creation 163, Process of conversion of complex food substances to simple absorbable forms is called (1) Absorption 3) Defaecation (2) Digestion (4) Assimilation (15)EST-4_(Code-a) 164. Amount of haemoglobin in every 1 litre of blood in a healthy individual is (1) 12-16 grams (3) 12-16 milligrams 1 (2) 120-160 grams (4) 120-160 milligrams Intensive Program for NEET.2023 72. Which ofthe folowing is not true for Adamsia? (1) Tissue level of organisation (2) Incomplete digestive tract (3) Presence of pseudocoelom 165. Match the following in colum jin inl with column and select the correct option (4) Absence of mesoderm T 173. A dioecious species among the following is Column Column. Tapeworm (1) Earthworm (2) Ta a. [Sahel ( |Sex-abuse (@) Cockroach (4) Leech b. [Amniocentesis [(iy, [CORI 474, The ovarian follicle, characterised by presence of ©. | Social evi «iy [AIDS 2 well developed distinct fluid filed cavity called ane antrum is (iv) | Sex-determination (1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle (1) aid, BG), £0), div) (2) ativ), BH), efi), ti) (3) ali), BG), ef), di) (4) ai, b¢), etiv), di) 168. In cockroach, dorsal sclerites of abdomen are called (1) Tergites 2) Stomites 0 @) Pleurites (4) Prono! a 167. In humans, the epithelium which hers ‘hain surface of buccal cavity is , (1) Ciliated epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithetium (3) Columnar epithelium (4) Compound epithelium In standard ECG, the P-wave represents & (1) Electrical excitation of the atria (2) Depolarisation of the ventricles, (3) Repotarisation of the ventricles (4) Repolarisation of the atrium Select the correct match w.rt. gastric gland, 168. 169. (1) Chief cells. - HCI (2) Peptic cells - Mucus (3) Parietal cells~ Pepsinogen (4) Oxyntic cells— Intrinsic factor 170. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of radial symmetry in adult stage. (1) Coelenterates (2) Annelids (3) Echinoderms (4) Ctenophores 171. Presence of external rows of ciliated comb plates is characteristic feature of (2) Flatworms (2) Tertiary follicle (4) Primordial follicle 175. Choose the structure present in nipples, through Which milk is sucked out (1) Mammary tubules (3) Aveoti 176. Selectte eotrect pair of intratesticular ducts. (2) Lactiferous ducts (4) Mammary ducts & (6) ‘Vasa efferentia and rete testis --(4) Vasa déferentia and ejaculatory duct fotein in the whole of the biosphere? (2) RuBisco (4) Lectins Collagen “Wp Haemoglobin 178. Choose the correct combination for ester bond formation w.r-. a polymer of nucleotides. (1) Phosphate and amino group of nitrogenous base (2) Phosphate and 1'C of sugar (3) Sugar and nitrogenous base (4) Phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar 178. Al of the following statements are correct wart lipids except (1) Lipids are generally water insoluble (2) Glycerol is a simple lipid, which is chemically trihydroxy propanol (3) Complex lipids are generally found in neural tissue (1) Cnidarians (3) Ctenophores (4) Roundworms (4) Lecithin is found in cell membranes (ti 8)sive PFOGFANN OF NEE I-ZUzs {e0. The property not shown by cancer cells is (1) Cell division (2) Uncontrolled growth (3) Contact inhibition (4) Metastasis 481. Choose the cells which partici aa ipate in acquired (1) Neutrophils, (3) T-lymphocytes. 2) NK Celis (4) Monocytes 182. The process through which two or more organs interact and complement the fi another, is called itd (1) Repression (2) Coordination (8) Suppression (4) Inhibition 183. Assertion (A) : Anteater and spotted cuscus show convergent evolution w.r.t, each other. Reason (R) : When more than one adaptive ratiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area (representing diferent habitats) iis called convergent evolution. In the light of above statements, select. the correct option _ (1) Both (A) and (R) are tue a correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the: correct explanation of (A) ~ (3) (A) istrue but (R) is false (4) (A is false but (R) is true 4184, Non-nuvient chemicals which act as intefeelua, nd (PJs the messengers and are produced in trace amounts are called (1) Wax (2) Enzymes (3) Saliva (4) Hormones +485. The hormone which inhibits the release of growth hormone from pituitary is secreted from (1) Pineal gland (2) Thymus gland (3) Hypothalamus _(4) Neurohypophysis SECTION-B planning” programmes were 186. In India “Fat initiated in the year (1) 1953 (2) 1951 (3) 1958 (4) 1961 CST-1_(Code-A) 187, mee Choose the granulocytes which constitute ‘maximum percentage of leucocytes (1) Basophits (2) Eosinophils (4) Neutrophils Choose the correct feature w.rt. Nirodh. (3) Monocytes 188, (1) Blocks the entry of sperms in female genital tract (2) Reusable and reversible (3) Made of plastic (4) Completely cover the cervix during coitus Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statoment-A: Mechanism of breathing vary ‘among different groups of animals depending only on their habitats. ‘Statoment-B: Amphibians like frogs exhibit more than one type’of respiration in thei lifetime. 199, (1) Both statements are correct (2), Seti staterents are incorect _@) Gly statement A is correct _ (4))Only statement B is correct If a foreign,gene of interest is inserted at BamHI “gle of cloning vector pBROZ2 followed by fe E. coll, then this changed E-colis called ‘h) Transformant and not recombinant Al (2) Non-transformant and 2 recombinant (3) Transformant and @ recombinant (4) Non-transformant and not a recombinant All of the following bones are included in axial skeleton, except (1) Frontal (3) Mandible Which of the following pairs of systems function in a synchronised fashion, to coordinate and integrate all the activities of the organs? 191 (2) Clavicle (4) Sternum 192 (1) The neural system and the skeletal system (2) The skeletal system and the endocrine system (@) The neural system and the endocrine system (4) The respiratory system and the circulatory system (a7)tntonatee Program tor NEET-2029 CBT. (Codey 103 Choose ha ncoreclsatomantw rt enaymes | 100 All of Bw folomng are we feature Ot ese foro cated in the ws of sha ye ws woth me the UY Tigh tamperature preserved the enzyine in a femporanly Inactive state, (2) The substraie binds lo the active ste of enzyme (2) Enzymes bring down the activation energy to make transition of 'S' to 'P’ moro aay (4) Ribozyme Is a nucleic acid that behaves [ke enzyme. 194, Identty the structure given below and choose the correc! option wrt. It ir (4) Herons obtained by ts methylation (2) ts receptors are present in our CNS ony (2) lis 2 very effective hallucinogen useful in pationts who have undergone surgery (4) ft is extracted from the latex of Popaver somniferum xcept wwatoftne stomach “yc Rionenen of stone Teal Aynence of ranching Jar fratinuceatedconiion (a) Presence of 9 cenizal nucaus 197, Gorm cots in hurnan mates ond ova me (1) Haptoid cetis. {2) Diploid and haploid cals respactvaly (3) Haploid and diploid coli respectively AY Diploid cals 498. How many of the In fermates ‘animals given in the box below xcopt food production (1) Agrd-chemical based agriculture (2) Organic agriculture (3y-Tradiional methed of agriculture on barren 495, Phylum %° ls characterised bys preséncs/-of 5 Gredatory system and absence of Trespicatory “land system whéreas both the systems. ae 9 4 (4) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture phylum Y"- © ©) 200. which of the following steps is not included in Here x’ and ‘Y' respectively are” PCR? (1) Aschelminthes and Annelida (1) Denaturation (2) Aschelminthes and Pialyhelminthes (2) Anneating (3) Annelida and Mollusca (3) Extension {4) Annelida and Aschelminthes {47 Transduction qaqa Scan the QR Code to know GMa - "How to extract maximum benefit from Intensive Program” (18)