Test Bank For Essentials of Biology 5th Edition by Mader

Test Bank for Essentials of Biology 5th Edition By Mader
Test Bank for Essentials of Biology 5th Edition By

Mader
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ader/
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Chapter 08: Test Bank
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?
A. only during interphase

B. only when they are being copied
C. during mitosis
D. only during the G1 phase
E. Chromosomes are always visible.
2. Which items in the following pairs are correctly matched?
A. G1 phase - DNA replication

B. G2 phase - preparation for meiosis
C. S phase - DNA replication
D. M phase - cell growth
E. G0 phases - cell growth
3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?
A. DNA is duplicated during the G1 and G2 phases.

B. DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
C. The M phase is usually the longest phase.
D. Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2.
E. The cell stops growing in G2 phase.
4. Nuclear division is represented in the figure below by the letter
A. a.
B. b.
C. c.
D. d.
E. e.
08-1
Copyright © 2018 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of
McGraw-Hill Education.
5. Refer to the figure below. Differentiated cells, such as nerve cells, would be in which of the following
stages of the cell cycle?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
6. The structure labeled "c" in the following figure is called the
A. centromere.
B. centriole.
C. sister chromatid.
D. spindle.
E. non-sister chromatid.
7. The structures labeled "d" in the following figure are called
08-2
A. centromeres.
B. centrioles.
C. sister chromatids.
D. spindles.
E. non-sister chromatids.
8. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

B. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
C. anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
E. metaphase, interphase, cytokinesis, anaphase, telophase
9. All of the following statements are true about mitosis except
A. the cells arising from the process are genetically alike.

B. the process of mitosis is followed by cytokinesis.
C. spindle fibers are involved in the movement of chromosomes.
D. both sexually and asexually reproducing organisms utilize the process of mitosis.
E. the cells arising from mitosis contain only half of the necessary genetic material.
10. DNA and histones form bead-like globules known as
A. nucleotides.
B. the chromatin network.
C. centrosomes.
D. nucleosomes.
E. mesosomes.
11. Susan was examining a cell under the microscope and noticed the formation of a cell plate in the midline
of the cell and the formation of nuclei at opposite poles of the cell. The cell under examination was most
likely a(n)
A. animal cell in the M phase of the cell cycle.

B. dividing bacterial cell.
C. plant cell undergoing cytokinesis.
D. animal cell undergoing cytokinesis.
E. plant cell in the anaphase stage.
12. While Jeff was looking under the microscope at cells in different stages of mitosis, he commented on the
fact that many cells were in the same stage. If you were looking under the compound light microscope at
an onion root tip, in what stage of the cell cycle would the majority of the cells be?
A. anaphase
B. metaphase
C. cytokinesis
D. interphase
E. prophase
13. Which of the following organelles would be abundant and in close proximity to the cell plate in a
plant cell undergoing cytokinesis?
A. centrioles
B. Golgi apparatus
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. lysosomes
E. central vacuole
14. The G2 checkpoint prevents the cell cycle from continuing until
A. DNA is completely replicated.

B. damage to DNA can be repaired.
C. replicated DNA is separated.
08-3
D. organelles have been duplicated.
E. DNA is completely replicated and damage to DNA can be repaired.
15. A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M-phase checkpoint.
Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
A. The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.

B. The cell would never leave metaphase.
C. The cell would never enter metaphase.
D. The cell would never enter prophase.
E. The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1.
16. The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of
A. anaphase.
B. interphase.
C. metaphase.
D. prophase.
E. telophase.
A. anaphase.
B. interphase.
C. metaphase.
D. prophase.
E. telophase.
08-4
A. anaphase.
B. interphase.
C. metaphase.
D. prophase.
E. telophase.
19. Ben was looking at onion root tip cells under the microscope in biology class. He saw one cell that had two nuclei
within it. What stage of the cell cycle was this cell in?
A. anaphase
B. interphase
C. metaphase
D. prophase
E. telophase/cytokinesis
20. A cell is inhibited during the S phase of its cycle. It will not reproduce due to lack of
A. ATP availability.
B. centriole migration.
C. centromere formation.
D. DNA synthesis.
E. plasma membrane structure.
21. If there are 20 centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
E. 80
22. Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell undergoes mitosis and not cytokinesis, this would
result in
A. a cell with a single large nucleus.

B. a cell with two or more nuclei.
C. cells with abnormally small nuclei.
D. feedback responses that prevent mitosis.
E. death of the cell line.
23. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare to their parent cell when it was in G 1 of
the cell cycle?
A. The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B. The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.
E. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
08-5
24. All of the following occur during the latter stages of mitotic prophase except the
A. coiling of chromosomes.
B. division of centromeres.
C. formation of spindles.
D. synthesis of DNA.
E. degradation of the nuclear envelope.
25. Some of the drugs used in chemotherapy work by
A. increasing telomeres.
B. preventing spindle formation.
C. producing kinases.
D. inhibiting cytokinesis.
E. causing cells to divide quickly.
26. If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at the end of anaphase there would be a total of
A. 23 chromatids.
B. 23 chromosomes.
C. 46 chromatids.
D. 46 chromosomes.
E. 92 chromosomes.
27. What would occur in a cell if the production of cyclins halted during the cell cycle?
A. DNA would not be replicated in the S phase.

B. Organelles would not be duplicated in G1.
C. The cell would not complete cytokinesis.
D. The cell would enter the G0 phase.
E. The cell would remain in the G2 phase and would not enter into mitosis.
28. Susan went to an oncologist because some cancerous cells had been detected within her breast tissue. Which of
the following is not a warning signal for cancer?
A. The cells in the breast tissue lacked differentiation.

B. Some cells in the tissue had failed to acquire the specialized structure that the cell should have.
C. Some cells had abnormally large nuclei.
D. The cells had an abnormal number of chromosomes.
E. Some cells were found to be in interphase.
29. Rick has a high incidence of cancer in his family. Four of the following five statements are preventative measures
to avoid cancer. Which of the following is not correct?
A. Increase consumption of foods rich in vitamin A and C.

B. Avoid salt-cured, pickled, or smoked foods.
C. Increase consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family.
D. Avoid cigarette smoking, smokeless tobacco, and sunbathing.
E. Avoid a high-fiber, low-sodium diet.
30. Apoptosis
A. is a process that repairs damaged DNA.

B. occurs as telomeres increase in length.
C. can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.
D. increases the number of somatic cells.
E. increases the number of gamete cells.
31. Cancer occurs when
A. cells are unable to divide because of a mutation.

B. faulty spindle fibers are unable to pull chromatids apart.
C. apoptosis occurs.
08-6
D. both uncontrolled cell division and stimulation of apoptosis occurs.
E. the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.
32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?
A. cells that have lost contact inhibition

B. cells with abnormal nuclei
C. cells that spend 90% of their lifetime in interphase
D. cells that lack differentiation
E. cells that have uncontrolled cell division
33. The term metastasis refers to the fact that cancer cells tend to
A. destroy.
B. divide.
C. decline.
D. shrink.
E. spread.
34. Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. If cells are
removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space will begin dividing until they have filled
the empty space. What does this experiment show?
A. When cells come into contact with other cells, they stop growing.
B. The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.
C. Cell division can be regulated by factors outside of the cell.
D. Cells continue to grow as long as there is adequate space.
E. All answers are valid and correct.
35. Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. Which of
the following statements explains why this occurs?
A. The cells become deficient in cyclin.

B. The petri dish inhibits the cells'growth.
C. Cell division can be inhibited by the proximity of other cells of the same type, a process called contact
inhibition.
D. Most cells grown in petri dishes have gone through apoptosis.
E. The cells have differentiated into more specialized cells.
36. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their
A. size.
B. spindle fibers.
C. rate of cell division.
D. surface area.
E. volume.
37. Rebecca found out that she has a mass of dividing cells called a tumor in her ovaries. She has had tests and is
returning to the doctor. Which of the following would be the best news that Rebecca could receive from her
doctor?
A. It is a benign tumor.
B. The cells are cancerous and are in situ.
C. It is a malignant tumor.
D. It is malignant ovarian cancer.
E. The tumor has metastasized and invaded neighboring tissue.
38. Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuation in concentration during the
cell cycle, are called
A. centromeres.
B. kinetochores.
C. centrioles.
D. proton pumps.
08-7
E. cyclins.
39. A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8
picograms of DNA in the nucleus. Those cells would have ________ picograms at the end of the S phase and
________ picograms at the end of G2.
A. 8; 8
B. 8; 16
C. 16; 8
D. 16; 16
E. 12; 16
40. The figure below shows a cell in which stage of the cell cycle?
A. anaphase
B. interphase
C. metaphase
D. prophase
E. telophase
41. The drug chloral hydrate prevents elongation of microtubules by preventing the addition of new subunits to the
growing end. During which stage of mitosis would chloral hydrate be most harmful?
A. prophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. telophase
E. interphase
42. Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic division to
A. repair damaged cells.

B. increase the size of the organism.
C. produce new organisms.
D. increase the genetic variability of the population.
E. produce gametes.
43. Multicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division to
A. produce new organisms.

B. produce gametes.
C. increase the variability of the population.
D. increase the size of the organism.
E. facilitate sexual reproduction.
08-8
44. Some multicellular organisms, like the hydra, use asexual reproduction to produce a bud that leads to a
new organism. This means that they are using
A. binary fission to create new cells.

B. mitotic division to create new cells that become a new organism.
C. meiosis to create new cells that become a new organism.
D. mitotic division to create gametes that give rise to a new organism.
E. meiosis I only to give rise to new organisms.
45. Cells that do not receive the correct signals to move from G 1 into S phase will enter G0 and therefore will
A. immediately move into the mitotic phase.

B. never be able to undergo mitosis.
C. be able to produce gametes through meiosis.
D. stay in an undifferentiated state and become stem cells.
E. not undergo mitotic division unless it later receives the go-ahead signal.
46. The spindle serves two roles in mitotic cell division. These are to separate the
A. sister chromatids and to elongate the cell.

B. non-sister chromatids and then the homologous chromosomes.
C. sister chromatids and then the non-sister chromatids.
D. sister chromatids and then form the cleavage furrow.
E. homologous chromosomes and then form the cleavage furrow.
47. The mitotic spindle is composed of ________ and grows from the ________ toward the center of the cell.
A. microtubules; centrosome
B. asters; spindle equator
C. centrosomes; aster
D. microtubules; chromatid
E. microtubules; cleavage furrow
48. Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because
A. plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not.
B. plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells built the extra cellular matrix.
C. animal cells need to build a cell membrane, while plant cells do not.
D. animal cells are living, while plant cells are not.
E. plant cells divide by mitosis, while animal cells divide by meiosis.
49. Cytokinesis in plants occurs as ________ and in animals as ________.
A. actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch; the Golgi apparatus produces membrane-
bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall
B. the Golgi apparatus produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; actin fibers
pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch
C. the centrosome produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; the Golgi
apparatus produces actin fibers to pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch
D. actin fibers interact to make the cell wall; the cleavage furrow pulls the membrane inward until the two
sides touch
E. the Golgi apparatus produces a cleavage furrow; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides
touch
50. The looping of DNA around histone proteins
A. produces the characteristic helix shape of the DNA.

B. allows the room for cellular machinery to reach all genes so they may be transcribed.
C. condenses a large amount of DNA so that it can fit into the cell.
D. prevents the DNA from becoming kinked and breaking.
E. occurs when the DNA is damaged and allows the cell to be destroyed through apoptosis.
08-9
A. stimulate the growth of blood vessels
B. travel through the bloodstream to other parts of the body
C. exhibit contact inhibition
D. have abnormal chromosomes
E. produced by a mutation of a proto-oncogene
52. A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene
A. may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot.

B. stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis.
C. only activates enzymes in a cell that allows metastasis.
D. inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle.
E. promotes meiosis, whereas a tumor suppressor gene promotes mitosis.
53. A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function. What would be the most
likely result of this mutation?
A. The cell cycle halts and reverses back to the G0 stage.

B. The cell loses contact inhibition even when it is not surrounded by other cells.
C. The cell cycle accelerates.
D. The cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis.
E. The cell stops dividing permanently and will never re-enter the cell cycle.
54. A mutation that causes an increase in function in a tumor suppressor gene would not likely cause cancer because
a tumor suppressor protein
A. normally promotes the cell cycle.

B. normally responds to growth factors.
C. activates a signal transduction pathway.
D. inactivates growth factors.
E. does not promote cell division.
55. Embryonic cells and cancer cells are similar because
A. DNA polymerase is inactive.

B. telomerase is active.
C. telomerase is inactive.
D. RNA polymerase is inactive.
E. proto-oncogenes are inactive.
56. A translocation may lead to cancer if it
A. disrupts control of expression of genes that regulate the cell cycle.

B. deletes the telomere of the chromosome.
C. moves genes from one chromosome to another.
D. activates tumor suppressor genes.
E. affects both tumor suppressor and proto-oncogenes.
57. A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that
A. RB is inactive.
B. a cell is undergoing apoptosis.
C. proto-oncogenes have not yet mutated.
D. a cell is probably cancerous.
E. tumor suppressors are active.
58. Inheritance of mutant forms of some genes may lead to a predisposition to develop cancer. Which of the
genes listed below has not been linked to hereditary forms of cancer?
A. BRCA1
B. RB
C. RET
D. RAS
E. DScam
08-10
59. A woman inherits a mutant BRCA1 allele from her mother. She has an increased risk of developing breast
cancer because
A. every cell in the woman's body has a copy of the mutant BRCA1 allele.
B. she still has one normal allele of the BRCA1 gene that can make up for the loss of function in the mutant
allele.
C. some of the cells in her body are already cancerous, meaning that no further mutations are needed for
a tumor to form.
D. the normal BRCA1 allele is more likely to mutate than in an individual without a mutant BRCA1 allele.
E. a mutation in her normal BRCA1 allele may lead to cancer, whereas a normal individual would have
to acquire two mutations (one in each allele) to develop cancer.
60. An oncogene is more likely to lead to cancer than a mutant tumor suppressor gene because
A. a gain of function mutation in an oncogene need only occur in one allele before it disrupts control of
the cell cycle.
B. a loss of function mutation in an oncogene is sufficient to cause unregulated cell division.
C. the mutant oncogene may inactivate telomerase.
D. a gain of function mutation in a tumor suppressor gene can promote the cell cycle.
E. a gain of function mutation in an oncogene is more likely to cause the other allele to mutate.
61. Angiogenesis contributes to carcinogenesis because it
A. allows tumor cells to spread to other parts of the body.

B. causes blood vessels to grow into the tumor.
C. allows tumor cells to invade underlying tissues.
D. causes additional mutations to occur in tumor cells.
E. causes apoptosis in tumor cells.
62. A protein that promotes apoptosis would be considered a(n)
A. oncogene.
B. proto-oncogene.
C. tumor suppressor.
D. mutant tumor suppressor.
E. signal transduction pathway protein.
63. If tumor cells have a faulty, nonfunctional proteinase, they will be unable to undergo which of the
following processes?
A. mitosis
B. mutations
C. metastasis
D. apoptosis
E. angiogenesis
64. Stem cells that contain telomerase can be found in adults.
True False
65. Cancer will occur if one copy of a mutant tumor suppressor gene is inherited.
True False
66. Proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably.
True False
67. Cancer cells have abnormal chromosomes because they express telomerase when they
should not.
True False
68. The presence of which protein is required in order for chromatin to compact correctly within the nucleus?
08-11
A. histone
B. nucleosome
C. actin
D. chromatid
E. myosin
69. What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?
A. chromosome
B. chromatin
C. histones
D. nucleosome
E. DNA
70. During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?
A. interphase: S
B. interphase: G1
C. interphase: G2
D. prophase
E. telophase
71. Which is not a correct association?
A. interphase - shortest stage of the cell cycle

B. S stage - DNA synthesis
C. M stage - mitosis and cytokinesis
D. G1 stage - cell grows in size and cell organelles increase in number
E. G2 stage - metabolic preparation for mitosis
72. If a cell stops at the G1 checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?
A. There is DNA damage.

B. The DNA has not finished replicating.
C. The chromosomes are not aligned properly.
D. The cell is cancerous.
E. There is no problem. The cell normally stops at the G1 checkpoint.
73. What is the structure that holds together the two sister chromatids that form a chromosome?
A. centromere
B. nucleosome
C. histone
D. nucleus
E. chromatin
74. If cancer is discovered at an early stage, which treatment method is most often used?
A. surgery
B. radiation
C. chemotherapy
D. hormonal therapy
E. drug therapy
75. Translocations can lead to cancer if they disrupt the genes that regulate the cell cycle.
True False
76. Which cancer therapy can lead to side effects such as nausea and hair loss?
A. chemotherapy
B. surgery
C. hormonal therapy
D. drug therapy
E. All of these can lead to nausea and hair loss.
08-12
77. When a portion of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome, this is called a
A. translocation.
B. telomerase.
C. apoptosis event.
D. suppressor event.
E. jumping gene.
78. Which lifestyle choice is responsible for 90% of the cases of lung cancer among men?
A. smoking
B. using tanning beds
C. excessive alcohol consumption
D. drug use
E. using smokeless tobacco
79. Losing weight can reduce an obese person's risk for cancer by up to 40%.
True False
08-13
Chapter 08: Test Bank Key
1. When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?
A. only during interphase

B. only when they are being copied
C. during mitosis
D. only during the G1 phase
E. Chromosomes are always visible.
When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing cell division, the DNA and associated proteins have the appearance
of thin threads called chromatin. During mitosis, the chromatin condenses multiple times into large loops that
produce highly compacted chromosomes; this starts to occur during prophase.
Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Learning Outcome: 08.02.01 Summarize the activities that occur in the cell during interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis.
Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
2. Which items in the following pairs are correctly matched?
A. G1 phase - DNA replication

B. G2 phase - preparation for meiosis
C. S phase - DNA replication
D. M phase - cell growth
E. G0 phases - cell growth
DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase of interphase.
Blooms Level: 2. Understand

Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?
A. DNA is duplicated during the G1 and G2 phases.

B. DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
C. The M phase is usually the longest phase.
D. Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2.
E. The cell stops growing in G2 phase.
The cell cycle consists of interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis. Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2
Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
4. Nuclear division is represented in the figure below by the letter
A. a.
B. b.
08-14
C. c.
D. d.
E. e.
Mitosis (M phase) is nuclear division. Mitosis occurs after interphase in the cell cycle.

Figure: 08.03
Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
Topic: Mitosis
5. Refer to the figure below. Differentiated cells, such as nerve cells, would be in which of the following stages of
the cell cycle?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
E. e
Specialized or differentiated cells are in the G0 stage; they will not divide but remain in the G0 phase.
Figure: 08.03
Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
6. The structure labeled "c" in the following figure is called the
A. centromere.
B. centriole.
C. sister chromatid.
08-15
D. spindle.
E. non-sister chromatid.
A centromere holds together two sister chromatids.

Figure: 08.04
Learning Outcome: 08.02.03 Summarize the events in each phase of mitosis.
Section: 08.02
Topic: Chromosome Structure
7. The structures labeled "d" in the following figure are called
A. centromeres.
B. centrioles.
C. sister chromatids.
D. spindles.
E. non-sister chromatids.
The two halves of a chromosome (the original DNA and the copy) are attached via the centromere. Each half is
called a sister chromatid and they carry the same genetic information.

Figure: 08.04
Section: 08.02
8. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

B. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
C. anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis
E. metaphase, interphase, cytokinesis, anaphase, telophase
Mitosis is the division of the nucleus; the stages are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
9. All of the following statements are true about mitosis except
A. the cells arising from the process are genetically alike.

B. the process of mitosis is followed by cytokinesis.
C. spindle fibers are involved in the movement of chromosomes.
D. both sexually and asexually reproducing organisms utilize the process of mitosis.
E. the cells arising from mitosis contain only half of the necessary genetic material.
The process of mitosis provides each cell with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
10. DNA and histones form bead-like globules known as
A. nucleotides.
08-16
B. the chromatin network.
C. centrosomes.
D. nucleosomes.
E. mesosomes.
Nucleosomes are bead-like globules formed by DNA and its attached histones.

Learning Outcome: 08.01.03 Explain the roles of histones and the nucleosome in the compaction of the chromatin.
Section: 08.01
11. Susan was examining a cell under the microscope and noticed the formation of a cell plate in the midline of the cell
and the formation of nuclei at opposite poles of the cell. The cell under examination was most likely a(n)
A. animal cell in the M phase of the cell cycle.

B. dividing bacterial cell.
C. plant cell undergoing cytokinesis.
D. animal cell undergoing cytokinesis.
E. plant cell in the anaphase stage.
Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm following mitosis that produces two daughter cells. A cell plate
is characteristic of a plant cell in cytokinesis.
Blooms Level: 3. Apply

Learning Outcome: 08.02.04 Compare cytokinesis in a plant cell and an animal cell.
Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
12. While Jeff was looking under the microscope at cells in different stages of mitosis, he commented on the fact
that many cells were in the same stage. If you were looking under the compound light microscope at an onion
root tip, in what stage of the cell cycle would the majority of the cells be?
A. anaphase
B. metaphase
C. cytokinesis
D. interphase
E. prophase
Cells spend the majority of their time in interphase. Therefore, when looking at a large number of cells,
the majority of the cells would be in interphase.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
13. Which of the following organelles would be abundant and in close proximity to the cell plate in a plant cell
undergoing cytokinesis?
A. centrioles
B. Golgi apparatus
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. lysosomes
E. central vacuole
Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm following mitosis that produces two daughter cells. A cell plate is
characteristic of plant cells in cytokinesis. The Golgi apparatus produces the substance that forms the cell plate.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
14. The G2 checkpoint prevents the cell cycle from continuing until
A. DNA is completely replicated.
B. damage to DNA can be repaired.
C. replicated DNA is separated.
D. organelles have been duplicated.
E. DNA is completely replicated and damage to DNA can be repaired.
08-17
The cell cycle halts momentarily at the G2 checkpoint until the cell verifies that the DNA has replicated. This
prevents the initiation of the M stage unless the chromosomes are duplicated. If DNA is damaged, the cell cycle
will not continue.

Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Summarize the role of checkpoints in the cell cycle.
Section: 08.03
Topic: Cell Cycle
15. A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M-phase checkpoint.
Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?
A. The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.

B. The cell would never leave metaphase.
C. The cell would never enter metaphase.
D. The cell would never enter prophase.
E. The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1.
An M-phase checkpoint also occurs during mitosis when division pauses until the chromosomes are properly
attached to the spindle, ensuring that chromosomes will be distributed to the daughter cells accurately.
Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate

Section: 08.03
Topic: Cell Cycle
A. anaphase.
B. interphase.
C. metaphase.
D. prophase.
E. telophase.
During anaphase, each sister chromatid pulls to opposite poles of the cell.

Figure: 08.06
Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
08-18
A. anaphase.
B. interphase.
C. metaphase.
D. prophase.
E. telophase.
Chromosomes line up at the spindle equator of the cell during metaphase.

Figure: 08.06
Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
A. anaphase.
B. interphase.
C. metaphase.
D. prophase.
E. telophase.
The chromatin is coiling together to form chromosomes, which is evident by the thick rods within the nucleus.
The nuclear membrane is breaking apart as evident by the irregular shape of the nucleus. These both show
that the cell is in prophase.

Figure: 08.05
Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
19. Ben was looking at onion root tip cells under the microscope in biology class. He saw one cell that had
two nuclei within it. What stage of the cell cycle was this cell in?
A. anaphase
B. interphase
C. metaphase
08-19
D. prophase
E. telophase/cytokinesis
Each new cell has its own nucleus. The cytoplasm is splitting, creating two separate cells. These activities are
indicative of telophase with cytokinesis.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
20. A cell is inhibited during the S phase of its cycle. It will not reproduce due to lack of
A. ATP availability.
B. centriole migration.
C. centromere formation.
D. DNA synthesis.
E. plasma membrane structure.
In the cell cycle, the S phase is characterized by DNA synthesis prior to the active stages of mitosis.
Chromosomes must duplicate at this stage or there will be an absence of chromosome duplicates to separate
into daughter cells during division.
Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
21. If there are 20 centromeres in a cell, how many chromosomes are there?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
E. 80
There is one centromere for every replicated chromosome that holds two sister chromatids together. In
other words, two sister chromatids are considered one replicated chromosome. Once sister chromatids
separate, they are each considered to be a full-fledged chromosome, which is now unreplicated.

Learning Outcome: 08.01.02 Understand the relationship of sister chromatids to chromosomes.
Section: 08.01
22. Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell undergoes mitosis and not cytokinesis, this would
result in
A. a cell with a single large nucleus.

B. a cell with two or more nuclei.
C. cells with abnormally small nuclei.
D. feedback responses that prevent mitosis.
E. death of the cell line.
If a cell goes through mitosis but not cytokinesis, it will have two nuclei within one cell.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
Topic: Mitosis
23. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare to their parent cell when it was in
G1 of the cell cycle?
A. The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B. The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.
E. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
08-20
The chromosomal information in each daughter cell is identical to the parent cell. The DNA has not yet been
copied. It will be doubled in the S phase of interphase.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
Topic: Mitosis
24. All of the following occur during the latter stages of mitotic prophase except the
A. coiling of chromosomes.
B. division of centromeres.
C. formation of spindles.
D. synthesis of DNA.
E. degradation of the nuclear envelope.
DNA replication occurs during interphase, not during prophase.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
25. Some of the drugs used in chemotherapy work by
A. increasing telomeres.
B. preventing spindle formation.
C. producing kinases.
D. inhibiting cytokinesis.
E. causing cells to divide quickly.
Spindles are used by the cell to pull chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell during the cell cycle. If the
function of the spindle has been compromised, the cells will not be able to divide.

Learning Outcome: 08.05.02 Summarize the types of treatment for cancer.
Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
26. If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at the end of anaphase there would be a total
of
A. 23 chromatids.
B. 23 chromosomes.
C. 46 chromatids.
D. 46 chromosomes.
E. 92 chromosomes.
During anaphase, the duplicated chromosome separates and its chromatids move toward opposite poles of
the cell. At this point, each chromatid is now considered a chromosome, since it consists of a complete DNA
molecule. If 46 duplicated chromosomes pulled apart in anaphase, there would now be 92 chromosomes
present in the cell until telophase and cytokinesis completes the chromosome reduction

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
27. What would occur in a cell if the production of cyclins halted during the cell cycle?
A. DNA would not be replicated in the S phase.

B. Organelles would not be duplicated in G1.
C. The cell would not complete cytokinesis.
D. The cell would enter the G0 phase.
E. The cell would remain in the G2 phase and would not enter into mitosis.
Cyclins and kinases control the transition of the cell cycle from G 2 to mitosis.
Learning Outcome: 08.03.02 Explain how checkpoints are regulated by internal and external signals.
Section: 08.03
08-21
Topic: Cell Cycle
28. Susan went to an oncologist because some cancerous cells had been detected within her breast tissue. Which
of the following is not a warning signal for cancer?
A. The cells in the breast tissue lacked differentiation.

B. Some cells in the tissue had failed to acquire the specialized structure that the cell should have.
C. Some cells had abnormally large nuclei.
D. The cells had an abnormal number of chromosomes.
E. Some cells were found to be in interphase.
Cancer cells share some common abnormalities that occur when cell division is not properly regulated.
These cells display signs of abnormal cell division, such as multiple nuclei in a single cell.
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze

Learning Outcome: 08.05.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells.
Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
29. Rick has a high incidence of cancer in his family. Four of the following five statements are preventative
measures to avoid cancer. Which of the following is not correct?
A. Increase consumption of foods rich in vitamin A and C.

B. Avoid salt-cured, pickled, or smoked foods.
C. Increase consumption of vegetables from the cabbage family.
D. Avoid cigarette smoking, smokeless tobacco, and sunbathing.
E. Avoid a high-fiber, low-sodium diet.
A high-fiber, low-sodium diet is a preventative measure that can be taken to reduce the risk of cancer.

Learning Outcome: 08.05.03 Describe the factors that reduce the risk of cancer.
Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
30. Apoptosis
A. is a process that repairs damaged DNA.

B. occurs as telomeres increase in length.
C. can be used to remove damaged or malfunctioning cells.
D. increases the number of somatic cells.
E. increases the number of gamete cells.
Apoptosis is the intentional, programmed death of a cell. The control of cell division and apoptosis keeps the
number of somatic cells in multicellular organisms in check. Apoptosis can also be used to remove damaged or
malfunctioning cells.

Learning Outcome: 08.03.03 Describe the process of apoptosis.
Section: 08.03
Topic: Apoptosis
31. Cancer occurs when
A. cells are unable to divide because of a mutation.

B. faulty spindle fibers are unable to pull chromatids apart.
C. apoptosis occurs.
D. both uncontrolled cell division and stimulation of apoptosis occurs.
E. the regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.
Cancer is a disease of the cell cycle. The regulation of the cell cycle is lost and uncontrolled cell division occurs.

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
A. cells that have lost contact inhibition

B. cells with abnormal nuclei
C. cells that spend 90% of their lifetime in interphase
08-22
D. cells that lack differentiation
E. cells that have uncontrolled cell division
Cancer is a disease of the cell cycle. When cells have abnormal nuclei, lose contact inhibition, lack
differentiation, and have uncontrolled growth, these are all signs of cancerous cells.

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
33. The term metastasis refers to the fact that cancer cells tend to
A. destroy.
B. divide.
C. decline.
D. shrink.
E. spread.
Traveling to other body sites from point of production is a characteristic of cancer cells. This traveling seeds
other body regions with the rapidly dividing cells, thus spreading cancer.

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
34. Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. If cells are
removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space will begin dividing until they have
filled the empty space. What does this experiment show?
A. When cells come into contact with other cells, they stop growing.
B. The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.
C. Cell division can be regulated by factors outside of the cell.
D. Cells continue to grow as long as there is adequate space.
E. All answers are valid and correct.
The cells continued to grow as long as there was empty space. When cells come into contact with other
cells they would stop growing, or be turned off.

Section: 08.03
Topic: Cancer
35. Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. Which
of the following statements explains why this occurs?
A. The cells become deficient in cyclin.

B. The petri dish inhibits the cells'growth.
C. Cell division can be inhibited by the proximity of other cells of the same type, a process called
contact inhibition.
D. Most cells grown in petri dishes have gone through apoptosis.
E. The cells have differentiated into more specialized cells.
The cells continued to grow as long as there was empty space. When cells come into contact with other
cells they would stop growing, or be turned off. Cell division can be inhibited by the proximity of other cells of
the same type, a process called contact inhibition.

Section: 08.03
Topic: Cell Cycle
36. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their
A. size.
B. spindle fibers.
C. rate of cell division.
D. surface area.
E. volume.
08-23
Cancer is caused by cells with uncontrollable cell division.

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
37. Rebecca found out that she has a mass of dividing cells called a tumor in her ovaries. She has had tests and
is returning to the doctor. Which of the following would be the best news that Rebecca could receive from
her doctor?
A. It is a benign tumor.
B. The cells are cancerous and are in situ.
C. It is a malignant tumor.
D. It is malignant ovarian cancer.
E. The tumor has metastasized and invaded neighboring tissue.
During metastasis, a malignant tumor invades neighboring tissues and spreads through the body, while
a benign tumor does not invade neighboring tissue.
Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
38. Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuation in concentration
during the cell cycle, are called
A. centromeres.
B. kinetochores.
C. centrioles.
D. proton pumps.
E. cyclins.
The fluctuation in levels of cyclins is one of the main regulators of the cell cycle.

Section: 08.03
Topic: Cell Cycle
39. A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8
picograms of DNA in the nucleus. Those cells would have ________ picograms at the end of the S phase and
________ picograms at the end of G2.
A. 8; 8
B. 8; 16
C. 16; 8
D. 16; 16
E. 12; 16
During the S phase, DNA is doubled. Therefore any stage after the S stage would have twice the amount of
DNA information until two new cells are formed, each with the proper amount of DNA.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
40. The figure below shows a cell in which stage of the cell cycle?
08-24
A. anaphase
B. interphase
C. metaphase
D. prophase
E. telophase
During interphase, the eukaryotic cell duplicates the contents of the cytoplasm, and DNA replicates in the
nucleus. The duplicated chromosomes are not yet visible. A pair of chromosomes is outside the nucleus,
and the nuclear envelope has not broken down.

Figure: 08.05
Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
41. The drug chloral hydrate prevents elongation of microtubules by preventing the addition of new subunits to the
growing end. During which stage of mitosis would chloral hydrate be most harmful?
A. prophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. telophase
E. interphase
During prophase, spindle fibers attach to the centromeres and pull chromosomes to the midline of the cell. If
chloral hydrate prevents elongation, then the chromosome would not be able to be relocated to the center of
the cell.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
42. Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic division to
A. repair damaged cells.

B. increase the size of the organism.
C. produce new organisms.
D. increase the genetic variability of the population.
E. produce gametes.
Mitotic cell division creates a new daughter cell that is identical to the parent cell and, in the case of unicellular
organisms, this gives rise to a genetically identical new organism.

Learning Outcome: 08.01.01 Summarize the purpose of cellular reproduction.
Section: 08.01
Topic: Mitosis
43. Multicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division to
A. produce new organisms.

B. produce gametes.
C. increase the variability of the population.
D. increase the size of the organism.
E. facilitate sexual reproduction.
Mitotic cell division creates a new daughter cell that is identical to the parent cell, leading to an increased
number of cells in a multicellular organism and allowing it to increase in size.

Section: 08.01
Topic: Mitosis
44. Some multicellular organisms, like the hydra, use asexual reproduction to produce a bud that leads to a new
organism. This means that they are using
A. binary fission to create new cells.

B. mitotic division to create new cells that become a new organism.
08-25
C. meiosis to create new cells that become a new organism.
D. mitotic division to create gametes that give rise to a new organism.
E. meiosis I only to give rise to new organisms.
Asexual reproduction gives rise to a new organism that is genetically identical to the parent organism.
Multicellular organisms like plants and hydra can use this to produce offspring.

Section: 08.01
Topic: Mitosis
45. Cells that do not receive the correct signals to move from G1 into S phase will enter G0 and therefore will
A. immediately move into the mitotic phase.
B. never be able to undergo mitosis.
C. be able to produce gametes through meiosis.
D. stay in an undifferentiated state and become stem cells.
E. not undergo mitotic division unless it later receives the go-ahead signal.
The G0 phase is a nondividing stage that cells enter. Some cells in this phase can receive the go-ahead signal
and proceed into S phase and others will never leave G 0.
Learning Outcome: 08.02.02 Explain the significance of the S and G0 phases of the cell cycle.
Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
46. The spindle serves two roles in mitotic cell division. These are to separate the
A. sister chromatids and to elongate the cell.

B. non-sister chromatids and then the homologous chromosomes.
C. sister chromatids and then the non-sister chromatids.
D. sister chromatids and then form the cleavage furrow.
E. homologous chromosomes and then form the cleavage furrow.
Some of the microtubules that make up the spindle attach to the duplicated chromosomes and pull apart
the sister chromatids while others overlap in the middle of the cell and slide past one another to push the
centrosomes apart elongating the cell.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
47. The mitotic spindle is composed of ________ and grows from the ________ toward the center of the cell.
A. microtubules; centrosome
B. asters; spindle equator
C. centrosomes; aster
D. microtubules; chromatid
E. microtubules; cleavage furrow
The spindle is composed of cytoskeletal components called microtubules and grows from the microtubule
organizing center (centrosome) toward the middle of the cell where the chromosomes are located.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Mitosis
48. Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because
A. plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells do not.
B. plant cells need to build a cell wall, while animal cells built the extra cellular matrix.
C. animal cells need to build a cell membrane, while plant cells do not.
D. animal cells are living, while plant cells are not.
E. plant cells divide by mitosis, while animal cells divide by meiosis.
During cytokinesis, animal cells use the cleavage furrow to divide the cytoplasm of the cell and enclose the new
cells in a membrane. Plant cells need to not only enclose the cell in a membrane but to also build the protective
cell wall around the cell.
08-26
Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
49. Cytokinesis in plants occurs as ________ and in animals as ________.
A. actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch; the Golgi apparatus produces
membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall
B. the Golgi apparatus produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; actin
fibers pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch
C. the centrosome produces membrane-bound vesicles filled with materials to make the cell wall; the Golgi
apparatus produces actin fibers to pull the membrane inward until the two sides touch
D. actin fibers interact to make the cell wall; the cleavage furrow pulls the membrane inward until the two
sides touch
E. the Golgi apparatus produces a cleavage furrow; actin fibers pull the membrane inward until the two
sides touch
The cell wall components are produced in the Golgi apparatus and released in membrane-bound vesicles;
these fuse together to form the cell plate between the two new cells. In animal cells, actin filaments form the
cleavage furrow and divide the cell membrane to form two new daughter cells.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
50. The looping of DNA around histone proteins
A. produces the characteristic helix shape of the DNA.

B. allows the room for cellular machinery to reach all genes so they may be transcribed.
C. condenses a large amount of DNA so that it can fit into the cell.
D. prevents the DNA from becoming kinked and breaking.
E. occurs when the DNA is damaged and allows the cell to be destroyed through apoptosis.
As DNA loops around histones, it coils the DNA into a bead-like structure called a nucleosome and allows the
DNA to fit into a smaller space. In this way the approximately six linear feet of DNA can fit into the nucleus of a
cell.

Section: 08.01
A. stimulate the growth of blood vessels

B. travel through the bloodstream to other parts of the body
C. exhibit contact inhibition
D. have abnormal chromosomes
E. produced by a mutation of a proto-oncogene
Contact inhibition stops the cell cycle when cells are surrounded by other cells. Cancer cells lose contact
inhibition and continue to divide, even when totally surrounded by normal cells. When a proto-oncogene
mutates it can become a cancer-causing gene.

Learning Outcome: 08.04.04 Identify the relationship between certain genes and cancer.
Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
52. A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene
A. may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot.

B. stimulates mitosis in a normal cell, whereas a tumor suppressor gene inhibits mitosis.
C. only activates enzymes in a cell that allows metastasis.
D. inhibits the cell cycle, whereas a tumor suppressor accelerates the cell cycle.
E. promotes meiosis, whereas a tumor suppressor gene promotes mitosis.
08-27
In a normal cell, the cell cycle is regulated by a balance between proto-oncogenes, which promote cell division, and
tumor suppressor genes, which inhibit cell division. Cancer may occur when this balance is disturbed.

Learning Outcome: 08.04.01 Distinguish between proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes in regard to the development of cancer.
Section: 08.04
Topic: Mitosis
53. A tumor suppressor gene undergoes a mutation that causes it to lose its normal function. What would be
the most likely result of this mutation?
A. The cell cycle halts and reverses back to the G0 stage.

B. The cell loses contact inhibition even when it is not surrounded by other cells.
C. The cell cycle accelerates.
D. The cell no longer responds to signals that cause it to stop dividing or undergo apoptosis.
E. The cell stops dividing permanently and will never re-enter the cell cycle.
Tumor suppressor gene products inhibit the cell cycle, so lifting the inhibition through loss of a tumor
suppressor would render the cell unable to stop the cell cycle even when it is receiving signals to stop or
to undergo apoptosis.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Apoptosis
Topic: Cell Cycle
54. A mutation that causes an increase in function in a tumor suppressor gene would not likely cause cancer
because a tumor suppressor protein
A. normally promotes the cell cycle.

B. normally responds to growth factors.
C. activates a signal transduction pathway.
D. inactivates growth factors.
E. does not promote cell division.
A tumor suppressor normally inhibits the cell cycle, and an increase of function mutation would not affect this
activity. Cell division would still be repressed, and so cancer (uncontrolled cell division) would be very unlikely
to result.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
Topic: Cell Cycle
55. Embryonic cells and cancer cells are similar because
A. DNA polymerase is inactive.

B. telomerase is active.
C. telomerase is inactive.
D. RNA polymerase is inactive.
E. proto-oncogenes are inactive.
In both cell types, the cells must continue to divide. This means that the telomeres do not shorten. The
shortening of telomeres causes senescence, meaning that the cells become "old" and stop dividing. If
telomerase is inactive, telomeres will not shorten.

Learning Outcome: 08.04.02 Explain the role of telomerase in stem cells and cancer cells.
Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
56. A translocation may lead to cancer if it
A. disrupts control of expression of genes that regulate the cell cycle.

B. deletes the telomere of the chromosome.
C. moves genes from one chromosome to another.
D. activates tumor suppressor genes.
E. affects both tumor suppressor and proto-oncogenes.
08-28
Many translocations do not affect gene expression or the cell cycle. These chromosomal rearrangements
would not necessarily cause cancer. But if translocations move proto-oncogenes to another chromosome
where gene expression is altered, or to where the proto-oncogene is fused to another gene, cancer may result.

Learning Outcome: 08.04.03 Summarize how chromosomal rearrangements may cause some forms of cancer.
Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
57. A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that
A. RB is inactive.
B. a cell is undergoing apoptosis.
C. proto-oncogenes have not yet mutated.
D. a cell is probably cancerous.
E. tumor suppressors are active.
Telomerase is active in embryonic cells and some stem cells, but not adult cells. Active telomerase in an
adult cell may indicate that it has become cancerous.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
58. Inheritance of mutant forms of some genes may lead to a predisposition to develop cancer. Which of the
genes listed below has not been linked to hereditary forms of cancer?
A. BRCA1
B. RB
C. RET
D. RAS
E. DScam
The DScam gene acts as a cell identification protein for neurons, and does not affect the cell cycle.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
59. A woman inherits a mutant BRCA1 allele from her mother. She has an increased risk of developing
breast cancer because
A. every cell in the woman's body has a copy of the mutant BRCA1 allele.
B. she still has one normal allele of the BRCA1 gene that can make up for the loss of function in the mutant
allele.
C. some of the cells in her body are already cancerous, meaning that no further mutations are needed for a
tumor to form.
D. the normal BRCA1 allele is more likely to mutate than in an individual without a mutant BRCA1 allele.
E. a mutation in her normal BRCA1 allele may lead to cancer, whereas a normal individual would have to
acquire two mutations (one in each allele) to develop cancer.
The woman with the mutant BRCA1 allele has already accumulated one harmful mutation; a second mutation in
this woman that affects the other BRCA1 allele is more likely to occur than two mutations, one in each copy of
the BRCA1 gene, in a normal individual.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
60. An oncogene is more likely to lead to cancer than a mutant tumor suppressor gene because
A. a gain of function mutation in an oncogene need only occur in one allele before it disrupts control of the
cell cycle.
B. a loss of function mutation in an oncogene is sufficient to cause unregulated cell division.
C. the mutant oncogene may inactivate telomerase.
D. a gain of function mutation in a tumor suppressor gene can promote the cell cycle.
E. a gain of function mutation in an oncogene is more likely to cause the other allele to mutate.
08-29
Gain of function mutations in tumor suppressor genes causes cells to not divide even when growth factors are
present, so cancer is unlikely to result. A loss of function mutation in a proto-oncogene would cause a similar
phenotype. But a gain of function mutation, even if only in one allele, may cause cancer because the protein
from the mutant allele can activate the cell cycle even as the protein from the normal allele is controlled
correctly.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
Topic: Cell Cycle
61. Angiogenesis contributes to carcinogenesis because it
A. allows tumor cells to spread to other parts of the body.

B. causes blood vessels to grow into the tumor.
C. allows tumor cells to invade underlying tissues.
D. causes additional mutations to occur in tumor cells.
E. causes apoptosis in tumor cells.
Angiogenesis (angio, a vessel; and geno, to give birth) is the growth of new blood vessels. Angiogenesis is
necessary for a tumor to grow beyond a certain size.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
62. A protein that promotes apoptosis would be considered a(n)
A. oncogene.
B. proto-oncogene.
C. tumor suppressor.
D. mutant tumor suppressor.
E. signal transduction pathway protein.
Tumor suppressor proteins are generally defined as those that inhibit the cell cycle and/or promote apoptosis.
Mutation of these proteins can lead to cancer because cells that are stimulated to undergo apoptosis will not
respond to the signals and keep dividing.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Apoptosis
Topic: Cancer
63. If tumor cells have a faulty, nonfunctional proteinase, they will be unable to undergo which of the following
processes?
A. mitosis
B. mutations
C. metastasis
D. apoptosis
E. angiogenesis
An additional mutation in a tumor cell that allows it to express proteinase can cause metastasis because it
allows the cell to break down the underlying tissue and spread to other areas.

Figure: 08.11
Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
Topic: Cell Cycle
64. Stem cells that contain telomerase can be found in adults.
TRUE
Adult stem cells persist through an individual's lifetime and are used to produce new blood cells, skin cells, and
other cell types that must be frequently replaced.
08-30
Section: 08.04
Topic: Cell Cycle
65. Cancer will occur if one copy of a mutant tumor suppressor gene is inherited.
FALSE
Mutant tumor suppressor genes, such as mutant alleles of RB, are often considered recessive because they
are loss of function mutations. The normal copy will often suffice, but the predisposition to develop cancer is
increased because only one mutation is needed to eliminate the function of the one normal copy, whereas a
normal individual must accumulate mutations in both copies for the risk of cancer to increase.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
66. Proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably.
FALSE
Proto-oncogenes function by stimulating the cell cycle, but only when the appropriate signals and
growth factors are present.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cell Cycle
67. Cancer cells have abnormal chromosomes because they express telomerase when they should not.
FALSE
While telomerase prevents shortening of telomeres, and telomeres generally maintain chromosomal stability, it
is usually only activated once a cell has started dividing wildly. It is usually mutations in tumor suppressor
genes that lead to chromosomal instability because some tumor suppressors monitor DNA damage and stop
the cell cycle until the damage can be repaired. When proteins from tumor suppressor genes fail, DNA damage
is not repaired prior to cell division.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
68. The presence of which protein is required in order for chromatin to compact correctly within the nucleus?
A. histone
B. nucleosome
C. actin
D. chromatid
E. myosin
Chromatin is periodically wound around a core of eight protein molecules, so that it looks like beads on a string.
The protein molecules are histones, and each bead is called a nucleosome.

Section: 08.01
69. What structure is formed by two sister chromatids being held together by a centromere?
A. chromosome
B. chromatin
C. histones
D. nucleosome
E. DNA
08-31
A duplicated chromosome is composed of two identical halves, called sister chromatids, held together at a
constricted region called a centromere.

Section: 08.01
70. During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?
A. interphase: S
B. interphase: G1
C. interphase: G2
D. prophase
E. telophase
DNA synthesis and the duplication of the chromosomes occurs during the S phase of interphase.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
71. Which is not a correct association?
A. interphase - shortest stage of the cell cycle

B. S stage - DNA synthesis
C. M stage - mitosis and cytokinesis
D. G1 stage - cell grows in size and cell organelles increase in number
E. G2 stage - metabolic preparation for mitosis
Interphase is the longest part of the cell cycle.

Section: 08.02
Topic: Cell Cycle
72. If a cell stops at the G1 checkpoint, this is most likely due to what problem?
A. There is DNA damage.

B. The DNA has not finished replicating.
C. The chromosomes are not aligned properly.
D. The cell is cancerous.
E. There is no problem. The cell normally stops at the G1 checkpoint.
The cell stops at the first checkpoint during G1 if there is DNA damage or if there are not enough building
blocks available to proceed.
Section: 08.03
Topic: Cell Cycle
73. What is the structure that holds together the two sister chromatids that form a chromosome?
A. centromere
B. nucleosome
C. histone
D. nucleus
E. chromatin
A duplicated chromosome is composed of two identical halves, called sister chromatids, held together at a
constricted region called a centromere.

Section: 08.01
74. If cancer is discovered at an early stage, which treatment method is most often used?
A. surgery
08-32
B. radiation
C. chemotherapy
D. hormonal therapy
E. drug therapy
Cancer treatments either remove the tumor or interfere with the cancer cells’ ability to reproduce. For many
solid tumors, removal by surgery is often the first line of treatment. When the cancer is detected at an early
stage, surgery may be sufficient to cure the patient by removing all cancerous cells.

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
75. Translocations can lead to cancer if they disrupt the genes that regulate the cell cycle.
TRUE
When the chromosomes of cancer cells become unstable, portions of the DNA double helix may be lost,
duplicated, or scrambled. For example, a portion of a chromosome may break off and reattach to
another chromosome. These events, called translocations, may lead to cancer, especially if it disrupts
genes that regulate the cell cycle.

Section: 08.04
Topic: Cancer
Topic: Cell Cycle
76. Which cancer therapy can lead to side effects such as nausea and hair loss?
A. chemotherapy
B. surgery
C. hormonal therapy
D. drug therapy
E. All of these can lead to nausea and hair loss.
Unfortunately, radiation and chemotherapy often damage cells other than cancer cells, leading to side effects
such as nausea and hair loss.

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
77. When a portion of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome, this is called a
A. translocation.
B. telomerase.
C. apoptosis event.
D. suppressor event.
E. jumping gene.
When the chromosomes of cancer cells become unstable, portions of the DNA double helix may be lost,
duplicated, or scrambled. For example, a portion of a chromosome may break off and reattach to
another chromosome. These events, called translocations, may lead to cancer, especially if it disrupts
genes that regulate the cell cycle.

Section: 08.04
78. Which lifestyle choice is responsible for 90% of the cases of lung cancer among men?
A. smoking
B. using tanning beds
C. excessive alcohol consumption
D. drug use
E. using smokeless tobacco
08-33
Cigarette smoking accounts for about 30% of all cancer deaths. Smoking is responsible for 90% of lung
cancer cases among men and 80% among women. People who smoke two or more packs of cigarettes a day
have lung cancer mortality rates 15 to 25 times greater than those of nonsmokers.

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
79. Losing weight can reduce an obese person's risk for cancer by up to 40%.
TRUE
The risk of cancer is up to 40% higher for some forms of cancer among obese men and women compared
with people of normal weight. Thus, weight loss in these groups can reduce cancer risk.

Section: 08.05
Topic: Cancer
08-34
Test Bank for Essentials of Biology 5th Edition By Mader
Chapter 08: Test Bank Summary

Category # of Questions
Blooms Level: 1. Remember 30
Blooms Level: 2. Understand 33
Blooms Level: 3. Apply 11
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze 3
Blooms Level: 5. Evaluate 2
Figure: 08.03 2
Figure: 08.04 2
Figure: 08.05 2
Figure: 08.06 2
Figure: 08.11 1
Learning Outcome: 08.01.01 Summarize the purpose of cellular reproduction. 3
Learning Outcome: 08.01.02 Understand the relationship of sister chromatids to chromosomes. 3
Learning Outcome: 08.01.03 Explain the roles of histones and the nucleosome in the compaction of the chromatin. 3
Learning Outcome: 08.02.01 Summarize the activities that occur in the cell during interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesi 14
s.
Learning Outcome: 08.02.02 Explain the significance of the S and G0 phases of the cell cycle. 3
Learning Outcome: 08.02.03 Summarize the events in each phase of mitosis. 10
Learning Outcome: 08.02.04 Compare cytokinesis in a plant cell and an animal cell. 4
Learning Outcome: 08.03.01 Summarize the role of checkpoints in the cell cycle. 3
Learning Outcome: 08.03.02 Explain how checkpoints are regulated by internal and external signals. 4
Learning Outcome: 08.03.03 Describe the process of apoptosis. 1
Learning Outcome: 08.04.01 Distinguish between proto- 3
oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes in regard to the development of cancer.
Learning Outcome: 08.04.02 Explain the role of telomerase in stem cells and cancer cells. 4
Learning Outcome: 08.04.03 Summarize how chromosomal rearrangements may cause some forms of cancer. 3
Learning Outcome: 08.04.04 Identify the relationship between certain genes and cancer. 9
Learning Outcome: 08.05.01 Describe the characteristics of cancer cells. 6
Learning Outcome: 08.05.02 Summarize the types of treatment for cancer. 3
Learning Outcome: 08.05.03 Describe the factors that reduce the risk of cancer. 3
Section: 08.01 9
Section: 08.02 31
Section: 08.03 8
Section: 08.04 19
Section: 08.05 12
Topic: Apoptosis 3
Topic: Cancer 27
Topic: Cell Cycle 28
Topic: Chromosome Structure 10
Topic: Mitosis 21
08-35
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1. When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

A. only during interphase

2. Which items in the following pairs are correctly matched?

A. G1 phase - DNA replication

A. DNA is duplicated during the G1 and G2 phases.

4. Nuclear division is represented in the figure below by the letter

6. The structure labeled "c" in the following figure is called the

7. The structures labeled "d" in the following figure are called

A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

9. All of the following statements are true about mitosis except

A. the cells arising from the process are genetically alike.

10. DNA and histones form bead-like globules known as

A. animal cell in the M phase of the cell cycle.

A. DNA is completely replicated.

A. The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.

16. The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of

17. The figure below shows a cell in the mitotic stage of

A. a cell with a single large nucleus.

25. Some of the drugs used in chemotherapy work by

A. DNA would not be replicated in the S phase.

A. The cells in the breast tissue lacked differentiation.

A. Increase consumption of foods rich in vitamin A and C.

A. is a process that repairs damaged DNA.

31. Cancer occurs when

A. cells are unable to divide because of a mutation.

32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?

A. cells that have lost contact inhibition

A. The cells become deficient in cyclin.

42. Unicellular organisms undergo mitotic division to

A. repair damaged cells.

43. Multicellular organisms undergo mitotic cell division to

A. produce new organisms.

A. binary fission to create new cells.

A. immediately move into the mitotic phase.

A. sister chromatids and to elongate the cell.

48. Plant cells and animal cells differ in cytokinesis because

49. Cytokinesis in plants occurs as ________ and in animals as ________.

50. The looping of DNA around histone proteins

A. produces the characteristic helix shape of the DNA.

51. Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells?

52. A proto-oncogene differs from a tumor suppressor gene because a proto-oncogene

A. may cause cancer if mutated, whereas a tumor suppressor gene cannot.

A. The cell cycle halts and reverses back to the G0 stage.

A. normally promotes the cell cycle.

55. Embryonic cells and cancer cells are similar because

A. DNA polymerase is inactive.

56. A translocation may lead to cancer if it

A. disrupts control of expression of genes that regulate the cell cycle.

57. A positive genetic test for telomerase indicates that

61. Angiogenesis contributes to carcinogenesis because it

A. allows tumor cells to spread to other parts of the body.

62. A protein that promotes apoptosis would be considered a(n)

64. Stem cells that contain telomerase can be found in adults.

66. Proto-oncogenes function by preventing cells from dividing uncontrollably.

71. Which is not a correct association?

A. interphase - shortest stage of the cell cycle

A. There is DNA damage.

A. only during interphase

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

49. Cytokinesis in plants occurs as and in animals as .