NAVIGATION TEST 05

1. When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause through an

inversion:
A) the CAS will increase and the TAS will decrease.
B) the CAS and TAS will both decrease.
C)*the CAS will decrease and the TAS will increase.

2. Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A (80°N 000°) and B

(70°N102°W) are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at
035°W.At point B, the true course is?
a. 230° b.* 203°. c. 23°

3. Which instrument does not connect to the static system?

A) Altimeter.
B) Vertical speed indicator.
C) *Vacuum gauge.

4. During the approach to landing the radio altimeter indicates a height of 650 ft. This is:
A) height above the runway threshold
B)*height above the ground and the lowest point on the landing gear
C) height above the ground and the aircraft CG

5. Given: Distance ‘Q’ to ‘R’ 1970 NM, Groundspeed ‘out’ 495 kt, groundspeed ‘back’
465 kt, safe endurance 9 HR. the distance from ‘Q’ to the point of safe return (PSR)
between ‘Q’ and ‘R’ is?
a) 2267 NM
b) 2242 NM
c)* 2157 NM

6. The rotational speed of the gyro in a rate of turn indicator is .... (i) than in the direction
indicator to .... (ii):
A) (i) Higher (ii) increase rigidity
B)*(i) Lower (ii) reduce rigidity
C) (i) Higher (ii) reduce apparent wander
7. What is the appropriate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT
above MSL?
A* – 180 NM B – 220 NM C – 120 NM

8. Which colors are typically used on an EHSI?

A) Black, blue, purple, red, green and white.
B)*White, green, magenta, cyan, yellow and red.
C) Magenta, brown, black and green.

9. The sustained oscillation in the Ring Laser Gyro (RLG) is initially caused by:
A) *the gas (or plasma) inside the triangular cavity is ionised by the voltage, causing
helium atoms to collide with and transfer energy to the neon atoms.
B) the spontaneous return of photons to a higher energy level, which in turn produces,
excited neon atoms.
C) the corner mirrors, which reflect the radiation energy, back to the photons.

10.Lines joining places of zero dip/ zero variation are called

a. Isoclinal / Isogonal.
b. *Aclinic/ Agonal.
c. AgonsI / Isogonal

11.Weather Radar returns show areas of precipitation in the following colours:

A)*Green, Yellow, Red and Magenta.
B) Green, Yellow, Magenta and Red.
C) Green, Orange, Yellow and Red.

12.The effect on the position of the CP of reducing the TAS in a head wind component,
will be to:
a) Leave the distance unchanged
b) Decrease the distance
c) *Increase the distance
13.In a standby direct reading compass there is:
A)*a circular magnet or pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted.
B) a non-pendulously mounted magnet system.
C) a low magnetic moment system, either of circular or bar configuration.

14.Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:

A – reflection from the surface
B – passing over or through mediums of different conductivity
C *– passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength

15.If track of an aircraft is 305, Hdg (T) 300, variation 6W and deviation 3E, what are
drift, magnetic Hdg and compass course?
a)*5S, 306 (M), 303 (c)
b) 5P, 295 (M), 297 (c)
c) 5S, 294 (M), 297 (c)

16.Compressibility error in the ASI is normally corrected by:

A) Accurate calibration of the instrument
B)*Use of the navigation computer
C) The error is insignificant and can be ignored

17.How many diaphragms are present in a basic Mach meter?

A)*Two. B) Three. C) Four.

18.In which of the following projections will a plane surface touch the reduced earth at
one of the poles?
a) Lambert’s
b) Direct Mercator
c) *Stereographic

19.What are the primary navigation inputs used by RNAV system?

A) Nav Aids, Mapping Radar, FMC.
B)*Nav Aids, INS, FMC.
C) INS, Nav Aids, TAS and Drift.
20.An aircraft is flying along the 60° S parallel. After one hour the DI indication has
increased by 21°. If the latitude nut of the DI has been set to zero drift on the ground
at 30° S, the groundspeed of the aircraft is:
A) 520 B)*537 C) 450

21.Which of the following affects VDF range?

A – Coastal refraction
B* – The height of the transmitter and of the receiver
C – Sky wave propagation

22.A directional gyro is:

1. a gyroscope free around two axis
2. a gyroscope free around one axis
3. capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied direction
4. incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
A) 2 - 4. B)*1 - 4. C) 2 - 3.

23.Purpose of liquid in magnetic compass is to achieve

a. Horizontality and sensitivity
b. *Sensitivity and aperiodicity’s.
c. Horizontally and aperiodicity’s.

24.An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is turning from a heading of 045° (C) to 315°
(C) using a DGI. At the end of the turn the compass will read... than 315° and liquid
swirl will... this effect.
A) more; decrease.
B)*less, decrease.
C) more, increase.
25.The latitude nut of the direction indicator is on the .... (i) gimbal and this causes the
gyro to precess around its .... (ii) axis:
A)*(i) inner (ii) vertical
B) (i) inner (ii) horizontal
C) (i) outer (ii) vertical

26.A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63cm and represents 150 nm. The chart
scale is:
a. 1: 3,000,000
b. *1: 6,000,000
c. 1: 5,000,000

27.An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300o, the track selector (OBS)
reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:
A – left with FROM showing
B – right with TO showing
C –*left with TO showing

28.The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings:

A – *never
B – by day only
C – by night only

29.Refraction of an electro-magnetic radiation is:

A* – The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of
different electrical conductivity
B – The loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical
conductivity
C – Is bending resultant from reflection from objects

30.A tied gyro has .... (i) planes of freedom and is always controlled in .... (ii) of these
planes by .... (iii):
A)*(i) 3 (ii) at least one (iii) an external force
B) (i) 2 (ii) both (iii) gravity
C) (i) 3 (ii) both (iii) an external force
31.The tank capacity of an aircraft is 310 US GAL. Fuel specific gravity is 0.78 kg/liter.
The tanks are now 3/4th full. You want to refuel so that the total fuel will be 850 kg.
How much fuel will you have to refuel?
a. 164 lbs. b.* 360 lbs. c. 320 lbs.

32.The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:

1. operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.
2. are of the pulsed type.
3. are of the frequency modulation type.
4. have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
5. have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.
The combination of the correct statements is:
A) 1, 3, 4, 5. B)*3, 5. C) 1, 2, 4, 5.

33.Skip distance is generally.

a. *Higher than skip zone [dead zone]
b. Equal to skip zone.
c. Less than skip zone.

34.Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS
localiser cockpit display represent:
A – 2.0 degrees
B – 1.5 degrees
C – *0.5 degrees

35.A flight is made from VOR A (510 N, 010 W), local variation 8 W to VOR B (510 N,
060 W), local variations 9 W. same radial is maintained throughout the flight. If drift
is 7 starboard and aircraft flying great circle path, what is the heading (M) on
departure?
a) 273 (M)
b) 276 (M)
c)*271 (M)
36.In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the ETD, the time
indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to:
a. Startup b. Take off c. *Go off blocks

37.On a Mercator chart, radio bearing are plotted –

a)*After correcting G/C radio brg into R/L brg by applying CA
b) Directly as G/C bearing
c) As Rhumb line bearing after applying convergency angle

38.Given: M: Mach number Ts: static temperature Tt: total temperature which of the
following statements is correct?
A)*Ts = Tt / (1+0.2M2)
B) Ts = Tt / (0.2M2)
C) Ts = Tt x (1+0.2M2)

39.The initial Great Circle track from C (3600N 01500E) to D (latitude 4200N) is 3000T
and the final Great Circle track at D is 295⁰ T.
i) What is the longitude of D?
ii) What is the Great Circle track direction at longitude 01100E?
a)*007E, 297.5⁰
b) 007W, 295⁰
c) 011E, 300⁰

40.The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to:

A – *make the signal audible
B – Cut out the static noise
C – Improve the strength of the received signal

41.The most important property of projection required for Navigation is that:

a) Rhumb line and great circle should be represented as straight lines and scale
variation does not matter
b) Scale should be corrected to measure long distance accurately
c)* Bearing measurement should be correct
42.On the QDR of 075o (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295o,
the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:
A –*320o
B – 040o
C – 220o

43.An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090. The W/V is 045 / 50 kt. How
far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour?
a)*85 nm
b) 90 nm
c) 75 nm

44.In which of the following meteorological conditions would you expect to

Encounter an increased distance to the radar horizon:
A – Surface inversion of temperature and humidity
B – Surface steep lapse rate of temperature and humidity
C – *Inversion of temperature with a steep lapse rate of humidity

45.An A/C leaves A to fly to B, 95nm distance. Having flown 35nm, the ac position is
found from a pinpoint 7nm right of track. What alteration in heading is required to fly
direct to B?
a.7°R b.*19°L c.12°R

46.ILS glide path transmits lobes which are:

A – On the same frequency and are separated by phase comparison
B – On different frequencies which are then phase compared
C –*On the same frequency and have different modulations

47.An aero plane’s weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The
nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given
as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this
aeroplane?
A) Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980
kg
 B) Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780
kg
C) *Operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this
aeroplane is 11980 kg

48.An aircraft follows a radial to aVOR/DME station. At 1000h the DME reads 120nm.
At 1003h the DME reads 105nm. The estimated time overhead the VOR/DME station
is:-
a)*1024h b)1018h c)1021h

49.Where is scale correct on a Transverse Mercator chart?

a. *along the great Circle of Tangency
b. at the Poles and the Equator
c. along the Datum Meridian and at meridians at 900 to it

50.The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm. The scale
of the chart is 1:1,600,000 The actual distance between these two points is
approximately:
a) 370.00 nm b) 67.20 nm c) *36.30 nm

51.The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes:

1. excessive descent rate
2. excessive rate of terrain closure
3. excessive angle of attack
4. too high descent attitude
5. loss of altitude after take-off
6. abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7. excessive glidepath deviation
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a)*1 ,2, 5, 6, 7. b) 1, 2, 4, 6, 7. c) 3, 4, 5, 6.

52.Given: TAS = 197kt, True course = 240, W/V = 180/30kt. Descent is initiated at FL
220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM. What is
the approximate rate of descent?
a) 800 FT/MIN b) 1500 FT/MIN c)* 1400 FT/MIN
53.Inclusive of flying and refueling time, the scheduled time from ROME, ITALY
(1230'E) to HONG KONG (11400'E) is 22 hours 21 minutes. If the flight must land at
HONG KONG at 1833 Standard Time, at what Standard Time must the flight leave
ROME to arrive on schedule?
a) 1355 b)*1312 c) 1212
(HK ST 8h; ST correction for Rome 1h)

54.In a turn and slip indicator, the gyro is spinning at a greater speed than normal. What
will the effect be on the indicated rate of turn?
A) It will be more accurate than usual.
B) It will cause more precision and rigidity.
C)*It will over read.

55.Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:

A – 3000 to 30000 MHz
B – 3000 to 30000 KHz
C – *300 to 3000 MHz

56.TET for an IFR flight, when filling the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is the time elapsed
from:
a. Take off until landing
b. *Take off until reaching IAF of destination aerodrome
c. Taxi out prior to take off until taxiing after landing

57.The absolute ceiling is defined as:

A) The outer boundary of our galaxy
B)*The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/minute
C) The altitude where the rate of climb is maximum

58.The take-off mass of an airplane is 8600 kg which includes traffic load of 1890 kg and
a useable fuel load of 1230 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 190 kg the DOM
is?
a. 5290 kg
b.*5480 kg
c. 8410 kg
59.An aircraft is flying at FL310, TAS 550 knots, 0.92M, the temperature deviation is:
A) -8 B)*-9 C) -15

60.A radio signal has a frequency of 3 GHz. Its wave length is:
A)*10 cm. B) 100 cm. C) 1.0m.

61.V1 decision speed:

a. Is lower than Vmcg
b. Is the take-off safety speed
c. *Is always lower than V2

62.Given:
Height of aircraft 32,000 feet
DME indicated range 16 nm
The actual range is:
A – 22.8 NM
B – 16.58 NM
C –* 15.1 NM

63.‘Fruiting’ is caused by:

A – Aero planes in close proximity responding to the same interrogation
B – An aero plane’s transponder responding to side lobes or reflections of the
Interrogation signal
C –* Aeroplane at range responding to interrogations from another ATC, SSR

64.Fuel is 39500kg; TAS 310kt(both ways); W/C outbound = +30kt; W/C homebound =
-30kt; FFout = 6250kg/h; FFhome = 5300kg/h; What is distance to PSR?
a)*1058.7nm b)1587nm c)1087.5nm

65.In the Northern Hemisphere the Rhumb line track from position A to B is 230o, the
convergency is 6o and the difference in longitude is 10o. What is the initial Rhumb
line track from B to A?
A *– 050o
B – 053o
C – 056o
66.The term 'toppling', when applied to gyros is:
A)*Wander in the vertical plane.
B) Gyroscopic precession.
C) Wander in the horizontal plane.

67.A lambert conformal conic projection with two standard parallels:

a. *The scale is only correct along the standard parallels
b. Shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines
c. The scale is only correct at parallel of origin

68.An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
A – a beam rotating at 20 Hz
B –*omnidirectional
C – a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz

69.An aircraft is in level flight at FL100 over a mountain range, which extends up to
2.400 meters AMSL. If the regional QNH is 998 hPa (use 30 ft/hPa), what is the
approximate terrain clearance?
A) 450 feet. B)*1,681 feet. C) 2,581 feet.

70.The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance

Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the
airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground
transponder was:
A *– 165 NM B – 186 NM C – 296 NM

71.If the signal from a VOR is lost, how is this shown on the B737-400 EHSI
Display?
A –* By removal of the deviation bar and pointer
B – By showing a fail flag alongside the deviation bar
C – A flashing red FAIL message appears in the frequency location
72.The rate of climb:
A) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
B)*Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100
C) Is angle of climb time’s true airspeed

73.If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the
location of the CG on the airplane?
a.*CG moves aft
b. CG is not affected
c. CG moves forward

74.With regards to radio waves, which statement is true?

A –* They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the
Wavelength
B – The longer the wavelength the greater the surface attenuation
C – They travel at 186,000 nm a second in a vacuum

75.Given:
Compass heading 270o
Deviation 2oW
Variation 30oE
Relative bearing 316o
What is the QDR?
A *– 044o
B – 226o
C – 046o

76.Fuel flow is 22 US gal/ hour. With 83 imperial gal available, what is the endurance of
the aircraft?
a. 08:20 b. *04:31 c. 03:46

77.Typical Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) is gyro stabilised within limits in:
A – pitch and yaw
B – yaw and turn
C – *pitch and roll
78.An azimuthal projection:
a. Is used for lambert’s chart
b.*Is used for polar stereographic charts
c. Is used for oblique Mercator charts

79.Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg

Load= 7600 kg
Trip fuel (TF) = 2040kg
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel
Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
a. Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg.
b.*Estimated landing mass at alternate= 42195 kg.
C. Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg.

80.Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Gross acceleration is net acceleration minus 9.81m/s2
B) Gross landing distance is greater than net landing distance
C)*Gross take-off distance is less than net take-off distance

81.ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:

A – back-scattering of antennas
B – Spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
C – *multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane

82.Compressibility Error requires a.... (i) Correction because it is.... (ii) Of .... (iii)
Pressure. It gives.... (iv):
A)*(i) negative (ii) an increase (iii) dynamic (iv) EAS
B) (I) negative (ii) a decrease (iii) static (iv) EAS
C) (i) positive (ii) a decrease (iii) static (iv) TAS
83.The rotor spinning axis of the electrically driven artificial horizon is erected and
maintained vertical by:
A) the fast erection device
B) commutator switches
C)*mercury switches

84.How many times does the sun come overhead Delhi during a year?
a. Once b. Twice c. *Never

85.When flying at the best angle of climb speed:

a. An aeroplane will be flying at a higher airspeed than when flying at the best rate of
climb speed
b. A specific altitude can be reached in the shortest time
c.*A specific altitude can be reached in the shortest distance

86.Airfield elevation is 1000 feet. The QNH is 988. Use 27 feet per millibar.
What is pressure altitude?
A – 1522
B – 1325
C –*1675

87.With which conditions would one expect Vmc to be the lowest?

A) *Hot temp, high-pressure altitude, high humidity
B) Cold temp, low altitude, low humidity
C) Hot temp, low-pressure altitude, high humidity

88.The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts is:
A –*50 to 60 nm
B – 100 to 120 nm
C – 150 to 170 nm

89.Clearway length is limited by:

a. The first obstacle likely to damage the aircraft in the event of an abandoned take off
after engine failure
b. A ditch located at the end of the ASDA
 c. *The first obstacle likely to damage the airplane in the event of a continued take off
after an engine failure

90.ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring

Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
A - + or – 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater
B - + or – 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured
C -*+ or – 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured

91.A VOR and an ADF are co-located. You cross the VOR radial of 240 on a
Heading of 360o (M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF
Bearing of:
A *– 60 B – 240 C – 300

92.A revenue flight is planned for the transport airplane. Take off mass is not airfield
limited. The following data applies: DOM 34,930 kg. Performance limited LM 55,000
kg, taxi fuel 350 kg, trip fuel 9,730 kg, contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg,
alternate fuel 1600 kg, passengers on board 130. Standard mass for each passenger is
84 kg, baggage per passenger 14 kg. Traffic load is maximum possible. Determine the
maximum cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane
landing mass.
a. *4530 kg b. 5400 kg c. 6350 kg

93.For RAIM activity there must be:

a. 3 satellites
b. 4 satellites
c. *5 satellites

94.The fundamental difference between an INS and an IRS is that:

A) The INS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
B)*The IRS is a strap down system with 3 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
C) The IRS is a strap down system with 2 accelerometers mounted 90º to each other
95.An aircraft on a heading of 270o (M) has 093 set on the OBS and TO indicated on the
VOR L/R deviation indicator. The needle shows two dots fly left. The aircraft is on
the:
A – 277o radial B – 089o radial C –* 269o radial

96.Take-off distance available is:

A) the distance from brake release point to 35ft screen height
B)*TORA plus clearway
C) TORA

97.The maximum range of primary radar depends on:

A *– a pulse recurrence frequency
B – wave length
C – frequency

98.An aircraft leaves 0oN/S 45oW and flies due south for 10 hours at a speed of
540 kts. What is its position as a true bearing from the South Pole?
A – 030 T
B –*000 T
C – 045 T
99.An aircraft is landing on runway 23 (QDM 227o), surface wind 180o/30 kts
From ATIS; variation is 13oE. The cross wind component on landing is:
A – 26 kts
B – *23 kts
C – 20 kts
100. An aircraft was over Q at 1320 hours flying direct to R.
Given:
Distance Q to R 3016 NM
True airspeed 480 kt
Mean wind component out – 90 kt
Mean wind component back +75 kt
Safe endurance 10:00 hr.
The distance from Q to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) Q is:
A – 2370 NM B* – 2290 NM C – 1310 NM