Day 1 Geol Board Exam (by Geol.

Franz)
Link: https://quizlet.com/644514869/day-1-geol-board-exam-by-geol-franz-flash-cards/?
funnelUUID=9444983c-a495-4e55-b0b8-8b1ec38e2169

Questionnaire 3

1. Which of the following is currently the most effective way of determining what the interior of
the earth is like? Through the studies of

a. X-ray
b. Heat flow from the earth
c. Drill cores
d. Earthquake waves

2. Why are geologists uncertain about the processes going on in the interior of the earth

a. Evidences are indirect

b. S-waves do not penetrate the crust
c. Most earthquakes originate on the mantle
d. Only a few holes have been drilled into the crust

3. The intensity of an earthquake is a measure of the

a. depth of focus
b. amount of energy releases
c. period of ground
d. effects of the earthquake

4. The intensity of an earthquake is most related to

a. amplitude of the ground motion

b. amount of energy released
c. period of ground vibration
d. extent of damage brought about on man-made structure

5. That the outer core behaving like a liquid is based on that

a. it does not transmit S-waves

b. it is the source of internal heat of the earth
c. it is the source of the magma
d. it transmit both S and P waves

6. Dinosaurs are dominant during the

a. Precambrian
b. Paleozoic
 c. Mesozoic
d. Cenozoic

7. The Cenozoic era is also known as the age of

a. Reptiles
b. Invertebrates
c. Insects
d. Mammals

8. The ancient supercontinent consisting of all cresent continents is also known as

a. Goodwanaland
b. Pangaea
c. Laurasia
d. Lethys

9. When present all the following except for one can be strongly indicative of top and bottom of
a sedimentary bed. Which is the exception?

a. graded bedding
b. cross stratification
c. mudcracks
d. oolites

10. A ___________is a lateral subdivision of a stratigraphic unit as distinguished from other

bodies or different appearance or composition

a. formation
b. facies
c. group
d. type locality

11. Which environment of deposition is best suggested by the presence of the following features
in locality: siltstone, shale, coal, lamina bedding, plant fossils?

a. tidal flats
b. lagoons
c. swamps
d. alluvial fan

12. Which sets of characteristics describe the most mature sandstone among the group?

a. Angular fragments, abundant mica, poor sorting

b. Angular fragments, abundant mica, some silt
c. Rounded fragments, abundant quartz, poor sorting
d. Rounded fragments, abundant quartz, good sorting
13. Which of the following map will most readily give information on thickness of sedimentary
strata?

a. structure contour
b. geologic
c. isopach
d. isograd

14. Folds in rocks is a result of_____________ behavior

a. elastic
b. plastic
c. brittle
d. abnormal

15. Faults are the result of _____________ behavior

a. elastic
b. plastic
c. brittle
d. abnormal

16. The statement "Montalban was once underwater on the basis of fossil corals in the area"
makes use of the

a. Uniformitarian principle
b. Law of Superposition
c. Law of Original Horizontality
d. Law of Faunal Assemblage

17. Which of the following describes landscape evolution?

a. It occurs only in youthful terrains

b. It is cue to catastrophies
c. It occurs as a result of climatic changes
d. It occurs continuously in response to natural processes

18. That much of the earth is solid is based on that

a. the earth is an oblate spheroid

b. volcanism outpours huge volumes of lava
c. S-waves travel through much of the earth's interior
d. The core is metallic

19. Before the discovery of radiometric dating techniques, geologists determine the ages of
rocks by

a. using the average rate of sedimentation

b. using the uniformitarian principle
 c. using the law of superposition
d. counting varves

20. What is a result of a decrease in the kinetic energy of a stream?

a. Down-cutting will decrease

b. Turbulent flow will be favored
c. Suspended particles will increased
d. Dissolved load will increase

21. A rock which has high percentage of pore space has high_____

a. permeability
b. porosity
c. capillarity
d. moisture content

22. Which statement is false?

a. the rate of ground water movement is proportional to the hydraulic gradient

b. The distribution of sizes of particles in soil affects its porosity
c. The erosive power of streams is greatest during flooding
d. Consolidated clay-sized particles require less stream velocity for erosion than
unconsolidated ones

23. Part of the rainfall that flows on the Earth's surface is called

a. vadose water
b. ground water
c. connate water
d. runoff

24. A relatively dense water (due to suspended sediments) which moves along the bottom of a
body of standing water is a/an _________ current

a. drift
b. tidal
c. rip
d. turbidity

25. A Lithostratigraphic mappable unit is a

a. group
b. formation
c. member
d. tongue

26. The shape of the land around us

 a. have always been that way
b. will always remain that way
c. are changing constantly
d. are changing at a constant rate

27. Of the following downslope movements, which is generally slowest?

a. landslides
b. slump
c. mudflow
d. creep

28. Runoff and erosion will most likely be most intense in a land that is

a. sloping and contour plowed

b. sloping and barren of vegetation
c. gently sloping and covered with grass
d. gently sloping and forested

29. How do the effects of physical weathering differ most fundamentally from those of chemical
weathering?

a. chemical weathering changes the bulk composition of rocks; physical weathering does
not
b. chemical weathering reduces the size of rocks; physical weathering does not
c. physical weathering reduces the size of mineral grains; chemical weathering does not
d. physical weathering is due to chemical changes while chemical weathering may result
from fragmentation of rocks

30. What fundamental assumption is made by geologists when they interpret the rock record?

a. the earth was formed through the accumulation of cold dust

b. the earth's atmosphere has changed negligibly since its formation
c. radioactive decay is statistically random process
d. the laws of nature has not changed with time

31. Which gas in the earth's atmosphere is largely responsible for blocking ultraviolet radiation
from the sun?

a. carbon dioxide
b. oxygen
c. water
d. ozone

32. The half-life of the decay process U-237 to P-6207 is 713 million years. What fraction of U-
237 remains after 2852 million years?
 a. 1/16
b. 1/8
c. 1/4
d. 1/2

33. The amounts of Argon-40 and K-40 in a biotite sample are equal. If the half-life of K-Ar decay
is L, how old is the sample?

a. L
b. L/2
c. 2L
d. L/4

34. Given the fact that the average density of the earth is 5.52 g/cm3 and that the average
density of the crust is 2.8 g/cm3, which of the following statements is correct?

a. The earth has a core and mantle

b. The core of the earth is an iron-nickel alloy
c. The density of rocks below the crust is greater than 2.8 g/cm3
d. The earth has a lithosphere and asthenosphere

35. The rates of diffusion of radiogenic Ar-40 from K-40 increase with temperature. If a pluton
which contains hornblende, biotite, and muscovite is dated through the K-Ar method by
making separate determination for each of these minerals, which of the following statement
is correct?

a. The obtained ages will be equal

b. Hornblende yields the oldest; muscovite the youngest
c. Muscovite yields the oldest age; hornblende the youngest
d. Biotite yields the oldest; muscovite the youngest

36. For an epicentral distance of 4000 km, the travel time of a P-wave is 7 min, 00 seconds. If a P-
wave arrives at a seismograph station at 20 hrs, 14 min, 14 sec, what time did it leave the
focus?

a. 20 hrs, 14 min, 14 sec

b. 20 hrs, 7 min, 14 sec
c. 20 hrs, 21 min, 14 sec
d. 20 hrs, 7 min, 7 sec

37. A map has a scale of 1:100000. Two points A and B on the map are 10 cm apart. The actual
ground distance between them is ________ m.

a. 1,000,000
b. 100,000
c. 10,000
d. 1,000
38. A limestone contains the following fossils whose respective first and last appearances are
listed below:

a. Fossil 1: Cambrian and present

b. Fossil 2: Jurassic to Cretaceous
c. Fossil 3: Permian to Tertiary
d. Fossil 4: Jurassic

39. The parallel arrangement of minerals in a metamorphic rock

a. layering
b. fissility
c. foliation
d. parallelism

40. The numerical age of rocks derived from radiometric dating is called:

a. relative age
b. stratigraphic age
c. absolute age
d. lithologic age

41. The lithosphere is essentially the same as the:

a. crust
b. surface
c. plates
d. continents

42. Separation of metamorphic rocks into light and dark layers

a. differentiation
b. crystal settling
c. schistosity
d. gneissicity

43. One of the following is not plutonic

a. diabase
b. peridotite
c. rhyolite
d. granodiorite

44. Magma A contains olivine and Ca-rich plagioclase while magma B contains feldspar and
quartz

a. A is hotter than B
b. B is hotter than A
 c. B and A have approximately the same temperature
d. a temperature relationship is not present

45. Bulbous lava that flowed and solidified underwater

a. pillow lava
b. volcanic bomb
c. aa lava
d. pahoehoe lava

46. A vent or ground opening from which steam and volcanic gases escape

a. volcanic cone
b. volcanic dome
c. volcanic vent
d. fumarole

47. One of these is not a possible heat source for magma generation

a. radioactivity
b. solar energy
c. friction
d. geothermal gradient

48. An erosional surface bounded by rocks of markedly different age and signifying a break in the
geologic record

a. landslide
b. unconformity
c. fault plane
d. contact

49. A fold with a core of stratigraphically younger rocks

a. homocline
b. anticline
c. syncline
d. inverted fold

50. The direction of the line formed by the intersection of a horizontal plane with a bedding or
fault plane.

a. dip
b. plunge
c. axis
d. strike
51. A volcanic cone consisting of alternating layers of pyroclastic deposits and lava.

a. stratovolcano
b. pyroclastic cone
c. shield volcano
d. dome

52. The transformation of rocks involving grinding, pulverizing and recrystallization associated
with fault movements.

a. stress metamorphism
b. transcurrent faulting
c. shear metamorphism
d. brecciation

53. The principle that fossils succeed one another in definite order so that rocks containing
identical fossils are identical in age is:

a. superposition
b. faunal succession
c. paleontology
d. relative time scale

54. A fold whose apex is inclined rather than horizontal.

a. inclined fold
b. diagonal fold
c. uneven fold
d. plunging fold

55. One of these is not a factor in producing bedding

a. composition
b. fissility
c. texture
d. color

56. Plates move because of:

a. polar wandering
b. magnetic reversals
c. continental drift
d. mantle convection

57. Scale used in classifying sediments by size.

a. Wentworth's
b. Moh's
c. Worthwent's
 d. Clastic's

58. One is not a product of burial metamorphism

a. amphibolite
b. garnet schist
c. mica schist
d. blue schist

59. A replacement process whereby the elements of a rock are exchanged with those of a
magmatic fluid

a. recrystallization
b. metamorphism
c. mineralization
d. metasomatism

60. The trace of earthquake foci that delineates the trace of a subducting crust towards the
mantle is called:

a. seismic zone
b. island arc
c. trench
d. Wadati-Benioff zone.

61. Which igneous rock is fine-grained?

a. ultramafic rock
b. diorite
c. gabbro
d. basalt

62. A mineral that characterizes the given intensity of metamorphism.

a. metamorphic mineral
b. index mineral
c. pressure mineral
d. quartz

63. A fossil used to accurately establish the relative age of the stratum

a. fossil guide
b. key fossil
c. basic fossil
d. index fossil

64. A batholith is characterized by all of the following except

a. fairly coarse-grained rocks

 b. pegmatite dikes
c. rocks of different colors and texture
d. predominantly extrusive rocks

65. A visual display of the rock types, distribution, ages and structural features of a given portion
of the Earth's surface

a. geologic map
b. geologic section
c. geologic index
d. tomography

66. The earth materials wasted by erosion subsequently undergo

a. lithification
b. weathering
c. compaction
d. deposition

67. The rock mass beneath an inclined fault

a. hanging wall
b. wallrock
c. footwall
d. bench

68. The mantle consists of:

a. lava
b. asthenosphere
c. basalt
d. magma

69. The intersection of the axial plane with the fold crest

a. fold axis
b. fold summit
c. strike
d. fold plane

70. A volcano made up wholly of fluid basaltic lavas.

a. composite volcano
b. shield volcano
c. cinder cone
d. lava dome
71. The maximum amount of stress a material can withstand before it deforms permanently

a. plastic limit
b. elastic limit
c. permanent stress
d. shear limit

72. The intrusive equivalent of basalt.

a. rhyolite
b. gabbro
c. granite
d. diorite

73. Fragments derived from the weathering of rocks, transported and deposited in loose layers
on the Earth's surface

a. fragmental sediment
b. talus
c. breccia
d. eroded sediment

74. It means "recent life."

a. Mesozoic
b. Quaternary
c. Pliocene
d. Cenozoic

75. Which among these rock types would be most porous?

a. conglomerate
b. shale
c. greywacke
d. siltstone

76. Which rock type has the largest surface area available to weathering?

a. conglomerate
b. siltstone
c. sandstone
d. arkose

77. The bottom of the zone of aeration is the

a. hydraulic head
b. base of groundwater
c. cone of depression
d. water table
78. The terraced deposit of carbonate at the floor of caves consist of

a. geode
b. travertine
c. stalagmite
d. sinkhole

79. The water table discharges naturally at the surface in the form of

a. geysers
b. artesian water
c. percolation
d. springs

80. The stream pattern that characterizes the headwaters of streams is

a. radial
b. rectangular
c. trellis
d. dendritic

81. One does not characterize deltas

a. sand
b. silt
c. crevasse
d. sedimentation

82. One is not produced by stream erosion

a. stream piracy
b. pothole
c. stream valley
d. floodplain

83. One is not produced be stream sedimentation

a. point bar
b. levees
c. alluvial fan
d. stream valley

84. Which one will not affect stream velocity?

a. discharge
b. valley width
c. stream gradient
d. dissolved load
85. One is not a product of shoreline deposition

a. tombolo
b. spit
c. stack
d. barrier island

86. What is the most compelling evidence for a shoreline undergoing uplift?

a. cliff
b. marine terraces
c. stack
d. atoll

87. The deposit likely to develop from sub-aqueous mass movement

a. mudflow
b. turbidite
c. delta
d. lahar

88. One is not a factor contributing to mass wasting

a. rock type
b. moisture
c. plants
d. age of rock formation

89. He established the Principles of Uniformitarianism

a. James Hutton
b. Charles Darwin
c. Charles Lyell
d. Nicolaus Steno

90. Which of the following statements tend to increase the explosive potential of a magma body
beneath a volcano?

a. Low silica content and low viscosity

b. Low viscosity and low dissolved gas content
c. High viscosity and low dissolved gas content
d. High viscosity and dissolved gas

91. The three main types of eruptions, except one, are:

a. Magmatic
b. Phreatomagmatic
 c. Phreatic
d. All describes the kinds of volcanic eruptions

92. Which one is not a type of volcanic eruption in terms of activity?

a. Magmatic
b. Explosive
c. Effusive
d. All describe the types of volcanic eruptions

93. Which is not one of the main mechanisms of volcanic eruptions?

a. Phreatomagmatic
b. Magmatic
c. All these describe the mechanisms of volcanic eruptions
d. Phreatic

94. When gas is released under decompression, it will cause:

a. Magmatic eruption
b. Phreatomagmatic eruption
c. Phreatic eruption
d. None of these

95. How does an atoll form?

a. The island subsides and coral builds up around it

b. The volcanic crater of an island becomes inundated with water
c. Large amounts of sediments from a volcanic island are deposited in a ring around the
island
d. The island is uplifted and coral builds up around it

96. Which is not the mechanism of Plate Tectonics to form landform?

a. Heat-driven convection current

b. Continental Crust
c. Collision zone
d. Divergent zone

97. Which is the primary cause of landslide without the influence of water, ice, air and
earthquake?

a. Creep
b. Gravity
c. Ground instability
d. Fall

98. Which is a characteristic of liquefaction?

 a. Tsunami caused by undersea faulting
b. Loose deposits behave like sand boils when violently shaken by earthquake
c. Down slope movement of earth materials
d. One block movement relative to the other

99. When do tombolos form?

a. High discharge from estuaries prevents offshore sediment deposition

b. Waves converge from two different directions on the landward side of a near-shore
island
c. Low discharge from estuaries encourages offshore sediment deposition
d. Erosion wears away the bottom of a tall island, leaving it as an isolated pinnacle

100. Stratovolcanoes are also called:

a. Composite cones
b. Cinder cones
c. Shield volcanoes
d. Spatter cones