Questions:

1. The CNV has the capacity to regulate, supervise and sanction individuals or legal
entities directly or immediately.
2. An irregular public offering is considered to be: any offer related to negotiable
securities made by human/legal persons without authorization from the CNV.
3. The CNV has the following attributions: indirectly request the assistance of the
public force.
4. For the purposes of determining the sanction for insider trading and manipulation
and deception, the CNV will consider as aggravating circumstances if the
sanctioned conduct is carried out by: administrators, managers, syndics of persons
subject to CNV supervision.
5. The term issuers corresponds to: entities authorized only to make public offerings of
negotiable securities.
6. Private legal entities that may make public offerings of debt securities are:
corporations, cooperatives and limited liability companies.
7. A company needs U$S 100,000,000 to finance a project, if the company asks what
types of instruments it can issue, which will require authorization from the CNV:
primary issue of shares to be offered and placed in the country and abroad.
8. The following are considered negotiable securities: bills of exchange and negotiable
obligations.
9. A requirement to be considered an SME according to current CNV regulations is
that they must: be incorporated in the country
10. Reason for lifting the trade secret: at the request of a customer's family member for
legal reasons.
11. Among the fundamental rights of shareholders, the right to: obtain relevant and
substantive information about the company on a timely and regular basis should
be protected and facilitated
12. Irregular public offering case: street, internet and whatsapp paperwork
13. Which is the capital market law by which the CNV acts: 26.831.
14. Article 45 of Law 26.831: Guarantee funds for the markets
15. In a placement of an issuance of Notes: it can be by book-building, auction or public
bidding.
16. In the placement of a Guaranteed SME Note: only the primary placement
mechanism of "auction or public bidding" will be admissible.
17. The CNV exercises corporate control over: private legal entities
18. The secrecy of the investigation may be lifted: at the request of a prosecutor in the
framework of a criminal investigation.
19. Negotiable securities under the SME CNV regime: may only be purchased by
qualified investors.
20. In the case of a takeover bid, who must be notified: all shareholders, with or
without voting rights, are notified.
21. The following will not be considered CNV SMEs: those companies that are banking
entities or financial services entities or the markets to be operated by this
commission or entities that provide public services.
22. The file of an investigation is secret: all the information contained in it is secret.
23. Whoever, by virtue of his position, has sensitive information about a non-public
fact, must keep it confidential: until the information is made public.
24. In a joint stock company with listed shares, must the contracts that the company
enters into with a related party comply with specific procedures? Yes, when it
exceeds an amount stipulated in the capital market law, which is when it exceeds 1%
of the corporate equity, according to the last approved balance sheet.
25. SRLs that qualify as SMEs CNV can issue negotiable obligations: they can only issue
ONs with the ceiling stipulated by the CNV.
26. A company that produces lemons wants to issue marketable securities
representing its next production to finance itself in which case it is making an
irregular public offering: using mass media.
27. The board of directors must make available to the shareholders all relevant
information concerning the holding of the meeting, the documentation to be
considered at the meeting and the proposals of the board of directors: true, prior
to the holding of the meeting
28. Inside information is defined as: specific information on marketable securities,
which is not public and which, if made public, could significantly influence the
placement or trading price of the securities.
29. When a takeover bid is made, the offer price could be determined by: weighting
different criteria such as equity value, cash flow value, average price over the last six
months, etc.
30. The main objectives established by IOSCO are: investor protection, ensuring fair
markets and reducing systemic risk.
31. A public offering is considered to exist when: the issuer itself invites people in
general to purchase shares by handing out flyers in the public streets, mailing and
advertising in newspapers, and when selected groups are invited to purchase shares
using specialized media, as well as TV, telemarketing, etc.
32. Insider trading is considered as an aggravating circumstance when the irregular
conduct is carried out by: the majority shareholder
33. What is the role of the audit committee: it is to control the tasks of the board of
directors?
34. If the CNV declares the administrative acts subject to control to be iregular, it
means: the nullity of the irregular act, and therefore the suspension of its effects.
35. Irregular public offering is considered to be: the offering of marketable securities
without authorization from the CNV.
36. The CNV has jurisdiction over: markets, agents and other individuals or legal entities
engaged in activities related to the capital markets.
37. The existence of cases before the courts with criminal jurisdiction with respect to
conduct described in the Capital Markets Law 26,831 and which could also give rise
to convictions in this venue will prevent the continuation and conclusion of the
proceedings of the respective summary proceedings before the CNV.
38. When it is determined that a verification procedure is to be carried out on a
subject administered by the CNV, the person under such investigation procedure
must cooperate with the agency, without exceptions .
39. The price of a mandatory tender offer as a result of the acquisition of a significant
shareholding: at the price determined by the offeror but taking into account certain
limits, which may be the highest price that the offeror or persons acting in concert
 with the offeror have paid or agreed to pay for the securities being offered during
the previous 12 months or the average price of the securities being offered during
the immediately preceding six-month period.
40. Company A, controlling company of company B, which has a public offer, informs
that it has received from a minority shareholder of company B, under the terms of
article 91 of law 26831, an offer to purchase all the shares of company B, because it
has reached more than 95% of the shares of company B: company A must launch a
public offer.
41. A company that issues Notes to apply the acquisition of intangible assets in the
country, does the destination of the company comply with the destinations
allowed by the law of negotiable obligations to enjoy the tax benefits? No, because
they do not comply with the destinations allowed by the ON law. Only acquisitions of
capital goods and physical assets are eligible for benefits.
42. The persons responsible for the information contained in the prospectus are: the
issuers of marketable securities, the offerors of marketable securities, the persons
who sign the prospectus and the experts or third parties who give their opinion on
the prospectus.
43. Securities issued under the PYME CNV regime may only be acquired by qualified
investors, among which are: legal entities incorporated abroad and individuals
domiciled outside the country.
44. The CNV has the function of: declaring the iregularity and ineffectiveness without
prior summary for administrative purposes.
45. According to Law 26831, the disciplinary power over agents corresponds to: CNV
46. After the company has been authorized to make a public offering of its shares:
shares with privileged voting rights may be issued and shares with equity preference
may be issued.
47. Banking institutions will not be considered as SMEs
48.
49. In the event that unusual operations are detected, the first measure to be taken is
to: deepen the analysis in order to obtain information that corroborates or reverses
the unusualities detected.
50. In the case of having a client who declares himself as a PEP, the agent shall:
reinforce all the necessary measures to determine the origin of the funds involved in
his operations
51. Which of these is not one of the pillars of an agent's AML/CFT prevention
program? The recommendation of the assets that the client will be able to operate,
according to the risk that he/she must assume.
52. FATF recommendation q refers to the approach that countries should take to LAFT
prevention measures. This approach is based on: risk.
53. According to res 3/2014 when a regulated entity has as a customer another
regulated entity it must: request the affidavit on compliance with the provisions in
force regarding PLDFT.
54. The funds used in money laundering can come from both licit and illicit activities.
55. The anti-laundering system against financing of terrorism: it is centralized in the
FIU.
56. There is a deadline to report a suspicious transaction of terrorist financing to the
FIU: they must be reported without any delay.
57. The regulated entities operating in the capital market are required to report to the
FIU the transactions carried out with virtual currencies: yes.
58. Some of the duties of the compliance officer include: enforcing compliance with
PLAFT regulations and designing policies for their implementation.
59. What are the stages of the money laundering process: placement-tracing-
integration
60. The UIF has jurisdiction to act in: the entire Republic of Argentina.
61. The law that governs the CNV in the regulatory framework against money
laundering and financing of terrorism is: Law 25246.
62. To whom should the agent report a suspicious transaction: the FIU.
63. Which of the following documents should be included in a client's file: neither the
BCRA situation nor the tax situation?
64. From which sector does the compliance officer correspond: from the board of
directors/management body
65. How often to update the client's profile for internal audit: 1 year
66. Documentation required to register a customer: check that the customer is not on
an anti-terrorism list.
67. What is the deadline established by Law 25256 to report suspicious transactions of
terrorist financing: 48 hours after the transaction was attempted .
68. Deadline for reporting suspicious money laundering transactions: 150 days
69. The regulated entity, when faced with a potential unusual transaction, is obliged
to: refrain from disclosing it to the customer or to third parties
70. According to resolution 229/11, audits must be at least: annually
71. PEPs are defined as: officials or employees with a category or function no lower than
that of general or national director serving in the national public administration.
72. The main obligations of the regulated entity are: to obtain from its clients,
requesters or contributors, documents that reliably prove their identity, legal
personality, domicile and other data stipulated in each case.
73. What we define as an unusual operation: when it is not related to the economic and
financial profile of the client.
74. Definition of beneficial owner: natural persons holding at least 20% of the capital or
voting rights of a legal entity or otherwise exercising ultimate control.
75. Customer files: they must be prepared for all customers, both occasional and
regular.
76. Assets involved in the money laundering process: they can come from any crime.
77. What is done to build the customer profile: you look at their income
78. FIU Resolution 229: defining unusual transactions
79. The manual for the prevention of money laundering and financing of terrorism
must: be physically located at the company's active domicile and be known to all
personnel.
80. Responsibility for the performance of the obligations arising from Resolution UIF
229/2011: may not be delegated to third parties outside the obliged subject .
81. From where the list of countries that are considered for the purposes of tax
transparency is derived: from AFIP
82. If an agent is notified about the freezing of goods or money, according to res
29/2013, he has to inform the result of its application: 24hs.
83. The customer file according to UIF resolution 21/2018 is prepared for: all
customers.
84. The independent external review of the FIU is carried out: every year
85. What is the definition of money laundering: it is the process where a person obtains
money from a crime and incorporates it into the formal economy under the
appearance of legality.
86. Res 229/11 defines a customer as a natural or legal person who has carried out
transactions with the SO: no time limit.
87. What are considered to be anti-competitive behaviors: insider trading, market
manipulation and deception?
88. Complaints to the CNV may be submitted by the following means: through the
CNV's website, by mail or in person at the CNV's front desk.
89. Issuers, trading agents, investors and/or any other market participants, either by
themselves or through another person in initial offerings or secondary markets,
shall: refrain from engaging in practices or conduct that seek or permit the
manipulation of prices or volume of tradable securities listed in the markets.
90. The risk rating in the framework of the application for a public offering of bonds
and other debt securities is optional with respect to the maximum authorized
amount or each class or series.
91. The obligation of regulated entities to report through the AIF any relevant facts
that could significantly affect the sale of marketable securities is deemed to be
fulfilled if: the fact is reported or becomes known.
92. The lack of publication in the AIF of a relevant fact by an SO violates the principle
of: transparency in the market.
93. Do investors holding shares have to report their position to the CNV? No
94. According to the principle of good governance, which law regulates it: the market
law
95. Where to find the prospectus of a negotiable bond: in the financial information
section of the CNV.
96. In the case of market-quality issuers, are they required to report changes in their
shareholding? Yes, by sending the information to the CNV through the AIF.
97. When a non-resident foreign investor in Argentina carries out transactions for a
volume greater than $5M, it must submit through the AIF the balance of
investments at the end of the immediately preceding month: if they are AN, ALYC
and AA FCI.
98. What is the corporate governance code: it is the set of principles that regulate the
integration and operation of the company, its shareholders and corporate bodies.
99. According to the regulations an NA: cannot receive money from clients.
100. Suitability registration: when someone is removed from the register as
suitable: when he/she remains out of the market for more than two years.
101. Showing incompatibility between a PA and an ALYC: same address
102. An AN: cannot have custody of its own portfolio, that is done by an ALYC.
103. The functions of the public relations officer in the event of an investor
complaint are: to receive and process investor complaints and to submit information
to the CNV.
104. A market has the following limitations: no shareholder may hold more than
20% of the capital stock and any holding of more than 2% must be reported to the
CNV.
105. The functions of an NA are: to act in primary placement and secondary
trading through the computerized trading systems of the markets authorized by the
CNV.
106. What are ALYC's subcategories: proprietary and integral?
107. What is a general incompatibility in capital markets agents: to delegate to
third parties, totally or partially, the execution of the services that constitute the
object of the performance.
108. Where an investor can verify that the suitable advisor is duly registered: on
the CNV website.
109. An investor who has doubts about the holding of his securities reported to
him by his ALYC or AN: he can consult the collective depository agent (securities
depository).
110. An investor is presented, who must make a suitable person to advise him:
calculate the risk profile of the person by measuring his level of risk aversion.
111. What is the purpose of the liquid counter-guarantees required by the CNV
from agents: to respond to the markets in the event of a contingency.
112. Who must be registered in the suitability register: those who have contact
with the investing public.
113. A person is considered qualified when: they are registered by the CNV as
such.
114. Who is responsible for non-compliance with the rules: the agent and the
person in a position of responsibility?
115. How long an agent must keep the information after the end of the
relationship with the client: 5 years.
116. If an ALYC staff member is unable to resolve a problem with a customer: the
public relations representative should be contacted.
117. If the ADC detects that the principal did not access his balances for three
consecutive months with his password and/or when the monthly statement sent
by physical mail to his reported address was returned to the respective ADC,
and/or when the account holder did not acknowledge receipt of the e-mails sent to
the ADC, the ADC will notify the depositing account holder, requesting him to
inform the sub-account holder to report a new mailing address, new e-mail
address or ratify the reported ones within 30 calendar days of the notification: will
send notification to the holder of the depositing account, requesting that he/she
inform the holder of the sub-account to report a new mailing address, new e-mail
address or ratify the reported addresses within 30 calendar days after the agent has
been notified. If there is no response, the account is blocked.
118. For the trading agent: the order book is mandatory.
119. The functions of the public relations officer in the event of an investor
complaint are: to receive and process investor complaints and to submit information
to the CNV .
120. The ideal is: an employee of two compatible agents of the same economic
group when they share the same domicile or the same investment customer service
center.
121. The net counterparty represents: a % of the PN established by the CNV for
each category of agent
122. The main function of an ACR UP is the rating of any negotiable security,
whether or not subject to the public offering regime.
123. Capital Market Advisors may: provide any advice to the public investor
124. The definition of an advisory agent is: any individual or legal entity that
provides any type of advice in the capital markets and that involves contact with the
investing public.
125. ALYCs are compatible with ANs.
126. The agent and its members are responsible for any failure to comply with
the regulations of the suitable person.
127. Agents must maintain secrecy: of the operations they carry out for third
parties and for themselves
128. A specific instruction is defined in a transaction when: for each transaction at
least the species/instrument to be traded, quantity, price or price range and/or rate
of return are indicated.
129. What are the limitations of PAs: they cannot hold funds in custody?
130. A PA can capture clients for the AN, ALYC and AAGI: if
131. In the case of issuers that have Market quality, they must inform the CNV of
their shareholdings: yes, by sending the information through the AIF.
132. An AA may enter into an agreement with an ALYC to derive clients in
exchange for a commission: NO
133. When the ADC blocks a client account: to unblock the account, the holder of
the blocked client sub-accounts must report to the ADC at the new mailing address
or e-mail address.
134. I sell a put with strike 100. At maturity, the underlying trades at 110: the
buyer will not exercise the option.
135. A decline in the volatility of a stock will affect the price premium by: both
the call and put premiums decrease.
136. The claims of a surety bond and of a pass-through transaction correspond
to: in the surety bond to the policyholder and in the pass-through to the
underwriter.
137. Open interest concept: total number of futures positions outstanding
138. Difference between a European and an American option: the European
option can only be exercised at maturity and the American option at any time.
139. What is the purpose of margin calls in futures: they serve as a performance
bond for the market?
140. If the price of the underlying goes up, what happens to the option
premiums: the call will go up and the put will go down.
141. Speculators: they take risks to make profits but also bring liquidity to the
market in order to bring prices down.
142. What are considered as spot transactions fixed and variable income
instruments: immediate spot and 48-hour spot?
143. Which of the following does this option look like: short put
144. What characterizes futures contracts: existence of a central counterparty?
145. What is an ADR: it is a security backing foreign shares in an American bank
listed in the USA.
146. The promissory note with public offer guaranteed by an SGR has the
following characteristics: $ or U$S, 180 days to 3 years from its date of issue.
147. One difference between a pass and a surety bond is that: in a surety bond
the holder does not lose the ownership of the titulus while in a pass the holder does
148. An ON PYME can be subscribed by: a qualified investor and, if guaranteed by
an SGR, also by non-qualified investors.
149. What is a CEDEAR: certificate of foreign shares traded in Argentina?
150. Interest on a surety bond is payable: at the beginning of the transaction
151. Which instruments may not be used in pass and surety transactions:
deferred payment checks, bills of exchange, promissory notes, certificates of deposit,
warrants and fixed-term certificates of deposit.
152. Term operations may be cancelled in advance: yes, the debtor may do so
and the agreed interest for the term is paid.
153. Hedging is: the use of futures to mitigate the effects of adverse price
movements. The short or long term has nothing to do with
154. The call holder sells the call: if the call holder sells the call, he/she will have a
gain or loss depending on what the purchase and sale values of the premium were.
155. The current liquidity of a company is given by: the company's ability to pay
off debts in the short term.
156. Relating the solvency ratio: assets/liabilities
157. An importer has to pay U$S 1,000,000,000 in 60 days for a recently received
merchandise, the country conditions are devaluatory. Buy 60-day dollar futures
158. Calculate the price of a 10-year zero coupon bond VN 100 at a rate of 8%: 46
159. In the long run, any vono converges to: its par value
160. The guaranteed DPCs are guaranteed by: an SGR
161. The book value of equity is equal to assets: minus liabilities
162. An increase in the price of an American option may be due to: a rise in
volatility
163. A put with strike 85, the underlying trades at 88, the option is OTD
164. Spot soybean 350, monthly soybean deposit price 10, TEM USD 3%, 30-day
futures price 370 USD, the disbursement is: 370.5 vs 370 350*1.03+10=370.5
165. Representing the profitability indexes: it relates the result of the fiscal year
to the invested capital.
166. If the beta of a stock rises, its volatility: it rises with respect to the index.
167. What is the fundamental difference between a future and a forward: the
future has a central counterparty and the forward does not.
168. What are forward transactions in the capital market: forward transactions
of the pass type and forward transactions of the marketable securities collateral
type?
169. The higher the strike price: the higher the premium price of a put option.
170. Which of the following is not a characteristic of futures contracts: they
require weekly settlement of profits and losses.
171. The buyer of a call has limited profits and unlimited losses is incorrect.
172. The deferred payment check is authorized for public offering under the
terms of Law 26831 and may be traded in markets under the jurisdiction of this
commission.
173. The seller of an American put option (short put) is obliged to buy at the
strike price on any date until expiration.
174. In secondary trading, bond prices are expressed as follows: face value
175. In a surety bond transaction, the firm term purchaser may cancel the
transaction early by paying the agreed amount at the original maturity date.
176. Derivatives, to which the risk is mainly associated: to the characteristics of
the underlying asset
177. The negotiation of CPD is covered by Law 26831.
178. What does the underwriter of a caucuion charge at the end of the
transaction: capacity plus interest
179. Which variable increases the price of a put: the increase in strike price
180. In options, who bears the risk: the seller
181. On maturity of a surety bond, the policyholder pays: the guaranteed value
of the bond plus interest
182. The operations carried out in the market can be: spot operations, cash
operations, cash and cash equivalents.
183. How is the value of the securities pledged as collateral in a surety bond
valued: at the last closing price of normal cash settlement.
184. Derivatives are used to: manage specific risks
185. If the premium of a call is $2 and the price of the underlying is $4, the
option is triggered: ITM
186. Margin calls in futures trading: they serve as a performance bond
187. PUT purchase, with exercise 18 and the underlying quoted at 15, the option
is: ITM
188. If one share is subscribed for every three shares held, the value of the
premium is 2 and the value of the share before the transaction is 4, the par value
is: 4*3=12-2=10/3=3.33
189. In a capital increase by subscription at the rate of 0.5 new shares for each
share currently held, with a premium of 0.45, if the last price before the beginning
of the subscription period is 1.5, the price of the subscription right will be: two
shares are worth 3 plus two premiums is 3.9, giving me the price of three shares is
1.3 which gives me a difference of 0.2, if I divide by 3 I get 0.066 and if I divide by
two for the original two shares I get 0.033.
190. In a subscription of shares by auction, with a cut-off price of 2.1, 300 shares
are allocated at that value, a has 300 shares, b has 50 and c has 250, the final
allocation is: a 150 b 25 and c 125.
191. A surety operation is carried out with 1000 shares of VN 10 with a capacity
of 50%. The normal spot value is 10, the immediate spot value is 10.30 and the last
normal spot close is 10.20. The policyholder will receive 5100 less interest on the
transaction.
192. If the capital increases 200% and the shareholders had subscribed their
shares at 1.2 per share and today they are worth 1.8 per share, do they pay? With
the capital increase you now own 3 shares, you subscribed for 2 shares at 2.4
minus 1.8 which is the current value of the shares, 2.4-1.8/2=0.3
193. Bond with annual coupon payment of 100 with VN 1000, maturity in 4 years
and 12% yield, the current yield of the bond is: I take the price that gives me 939.25
and the coupon is 100, so I divide 100 by the price and I get 10.64%.
194. In a 100% increase by subscription, with a premium of 2 and the last trading
price is 4, then you will have 2 shares worth a total of 6, so the share price is 3.
195. A CIF specialized in fixed income assets: cannot have 25% of shares issued in
the country.
196. In an investment fund whose currency is the dollar and which issues two
types of subscriptions, in pesos and in dollars, redemptions are paid in the currency
in which the subscription is made.
197. An ICF is considered to be: an undivided estate
198. The currency of a CIF established in the management regulations
determines the currency of the assets that may be included in the investment
portfolio: false
199. The name of an FCI must include: the acronym FCI
200. Definition of FCI: a collective investment vehicle formed by contributions
from a group of investors with the same investment objectives.
201. Redemption of an FCI, it is redeemed with the value of the day: (quota
shares*quota share value)-commission
202. Which of these functions is not the responsibility of the depositary
company of mutual funds: to prepare the fund's accounts?
203. An FCI that is subscribed in several currencies can only be redeemed in the
currency in which it was subscribed.
204. The composition of a mutual fund portfolio in which the subscription is only
in pesos may contain: assets in foreign currency and local currency.
205. A CIF may invest in its own assets for a value no greater than: may not hold
the entity's own NAVs
206. Which of the following assets cannot be included in an equity fund: 50% of
the stock exchange notes
207. Who can market the units of an FCI: the manager, the depositary, the
placement agent and the simple or integral distributor.
208. When reference is made to local assets in a fund: when they are issued in
Mercosur and Chile.
209. A mixed income fund cannot have: precious metals
210. money FCI, the value of the quota share changes due to: the fund's
valuation
211. Which of the following fees are not included in a fund's results: subscription
fees
212. ETF: is an offshore FCI that aims to track an index/benchmark, is listed on
exchanges and is passively managed.
213. Which of the following ICFs has a longer time frame to be fully integrated:
an ICF for agricultural infrastructure projects
214. Which FCI has a period for the definitive conformation: a FCI for productive
projects of regional economies and infrastructure.
215. Who is entitled to the distribution of profits in an ICF: the quotaholders
216. The fund is not required to report: expected rate of return
217. A potential risk-averse investor intends to acquire trust securities. Based on
the following underlying assets, which one would you recommend: Consumer loans
218. A mixed-income FCI: cannot hold precious metals
219. In a variable income FCI, what is the maximum percentage of availability
enabled by a specific investment policy: there is a limit of 20%.
220. In the case of a money market fund, the liquidity margin must be
constituted on the equity asset portion.
221. Which function is not the responsibility of the managing company of the
FCI: to perform the custody and safekeeping of securities and other instruments.
222. It is incorrect that the managing and depositary companies must carry out
their activities in premises with independent entrance and have absolute
autonomy.
223. Which of the following categories must be registered for placement of
closed FCI: ACYD single
224. A CIF: may invest a maximum of 30% in government securities.
225. An ICF may maintain cash in foreign accounts only for deposits and other
transactions in foreign currency necessary for the operations of the ICF in foreign
markets.
226. Closed FCi: rental and/or condominium shares can be acquired.
227. FCIs: may pay redemptions with portfolio securities in exceptional cases with
prior authorization from the CNV.
228. fci: are allowed to carry out transactions with derivative financial instruments
for hedging purposes or as an investment for efficient portfolio management as long
as the total market risk position does not exceed the fund's assets.
229. A publicly offered financial FCI is one in which: the trustee is an entity
registered in the financial trustee registry of the commission and the beneficiaries
are the holders of the trust securities.
230. VDFs are issued by: a trustee or third party
231. Risk-averse client: a consumer credit FF is recommended.
232. A risk-averse investor: a low-volatility, low-yield debt certificate FF is
recommended.
233. The auction or public bidding of trust securities must be carried out by:
neither closed nor open
234. In the administration of a FF, the trustee may delegate the execution of the
administration functions, in which case the trustee shall be responsible for: the
management of the subcontractors vis-à-vis third parties
235. In trusts, which document is used to make a Public Offering: the prospectus
of issue
236. The basic document through which the public offering of trust securities is
made is: the prospectus/prospectus supplement.
237. The trustee is the person to whom the trust property is transferred at the
conclusion of the trust: it could therefore be the trustor, the beneficiary or a third
party.
238. Which of the following FFs will be considered to be intended for SME
financing: a FF whose trustors qualify as SMEs CNV
239. For the purposes of constituting a FF, CNV regulations prohibit: the
constitution of FFs by unilateral act, understood as those in which the persons of
Trustees and Trustees coincide.
240. The trustee is responsible for the custody of the trust property, but may
delegate the execution of any of these functions to the trustee or a third party.
241. The administration of a trust, which includes all the functions inherent to
the conservation, custody, collection and realization of the trust assets, is the
responsibility of the trustee. However, it may delegate the execution of
management functions, in which case it will be responsible for: is responsible for all
functions, even if delegated
242. Within the framework of a FF with Public Offering, trust securities are
issued, which may be represented according to the rights they grant as: trust debt
securities and/or certificates of participation.
243. Trust securities may be issued by the trustee or a third party.
244. When a trustee delegates the execution of the administration functions, the
collection agent must deposit in the trust account, operated exclusively by itself or
by the trustee, the proceeds of the collection: within 3 working days
245. A financial liability must be derecognized when the obligation is cancelled or
when the commitment is extinguished or cancelled.
246. According to IFRS, the second part of the statement of comprehensive
income, called other comprehensive income, contains items such as: adjustments
and non-distributable reserves.
247. According to IFRS, fair value is: the price that will be received to sell an asset
or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at
a given measurement date.
248. The main objective is to ensure that the first IFRS financial statements and
their reports contain high quality information that: is transparent to users and
comparable, providing a starting point for accounting under IFRS
249. How many financial statements must be submitted per year by publicly
traded companies: 4
250. A company will issue Notes to be used for the purchase of intangible assets
in the country: no benefits are provided by law.
251. The FRS must be applied to prepare the financial statements of: issuers of
shares and Notes.
252. Under IFRS, financial assets are valued at: fair value.
253. The basic accounting statements are: the statement of financial position, the
statement of income, the statement of changes in equity and the statement of cash
flows.
254. What is meant by the notes to the financial statements: it is a document
that details what has happened in the company during the year under analysis and
what is expected.
255. What are the advantages of IFRS financial statements: greater transparency
and comparability of financial information; easier access to capital markets and
common financial language at a global level?
256. What are the components of a statement of comprehensive income:
income statement and other comprehensive income?
257. IFRS must be applied to prepare the financial statements of: issuers of
shares and Notes.
258. Under IFRS, the second part of the statement of comprehensive income is
called other income: differences in changes in final balances of receivables and
payables in foreign currencies at the end of the period.
259.