CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL

EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.

DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

1. A 6 year old boy named Diego is presented to a clinic saying he has diarrhea, gastrointestinal pain
and bleeding. The physician ordered a series of stool sample. It has barrel-shaped structure that
appears to have plugs at the end. What is the parasite presented on Diego’s stool sample?
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Entamoeba hystolitica
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichiura

2. Where does the larva of the Ascaris lumbricoides go after it hatches in the small intestines?
A. Migrates to the lymph nodes and back to the large intestines
B. Migrates to the blood and brain
C. Migrates to the blood, liver, lungs, pharynx and back to small intestine
D. It doesn’t migrate

3. Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective to humans?

A. Rhabditiform larva
B. Embryonated egg
C. Cyst
D. Filaform larva

4. What causes Strongyloides stercoralis in adult stage that has honeycomb appearance in Mucosa?
A. Cochin China diarrhea
B. Pneumonia
C. Diarrhea
D. Hepatic ascariasis

5. The rhabditiform larva of the hookworm has a:

A. Long buccal cavity equal to the width of the body
B. Short length buccal cavity
C. Medium length buccal cavity
D. No buccal cavity

6. It is the largest nematode egg

A. Fertilized egg of Trichuris trichiura
B. Unfertilized egg of Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Decorticated egg of Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Embryonated egg of Trichuris trichiura

7. This type of parasite is commonly known as "Rat tapeworm".

A. Hymnelopis nana
B. Dipylidium caninum
C. Hymnelopis diminuta
D. Angiostrongylus cantonesis

8. It is the region of growth of tapeworms.

A. Scolex
B. Head
C. Strobila
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

D. Neck

9. Hydatid cysts are normally found in canines and are transmitted to humans due to ingestion of a
tapeworm stage; this stage is the
A. Cercaria
B. Sporocyst
C. Hydatid cysts
D. Embryonated egg

10. This parasitic infection may result in vitamin B12 deficiency, and individuals with pernicious
anemia are predisposed to more severe symptoms.
A. Hymenolepis diminuta
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Taenia saginata

11. Which statement is correct for the specimen collection and processing?
A. Stool samples can contain urine.
B. Liquid stools are best for detecting ameba and flagellate trophozoites.
C. Stools can be frozen without affecting the parasitic structure.
D. Unpreserved stools can remain at room temperature for up to 72 hours.

12. This parasite contains only 3 proglottids and is known for being the shortest.
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Hymnelopis nana
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Hymnelopis diminuta

13. This tapeworm dislikes alcohol and also has regular uterine branches (more than 15) resembling a
tree.
A. T. saginata
B. T. solium
C. D. latum
D. D. caninum

14. Which of the choices describes ectoparasites?

A. Parasite is living inside the body of a host.
B. Parasite living outside the body of a host.
C. Parasite can live inside and outside of the body.
D. Parasite don’t live neither outside and inside of the body

15. What is the characteristic that describe arthropods/ectoparasite?

A. Hemocele (a system of blood-containing spaces present on the body of an arthropod)
B. Pairs of jointed appendages
C. Chitinized exoskeleton wherein it I a structure on the outside of an arthropod body
composed of an insoluble polysaccharide that provides support for corresponding internal
organs
D. All of the above
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

16. The typical life cycle of a tick is?

A. 4 to 5 years
B. 3 to 6 years
C. 1 to 2 years
D. 3 to 4 years

17. To treat lice infections, which morphologic forms are necessary to destroy and what lice treatment
is needed?
A. Eggs, larvae, adult apply hydrocortisone
B. Adults and larvae apply oil of lemon eucalyptus
C. Eggs and adult Permethrin Lotion
D. Eggs and adult and apply benzene hexachloride lotion

18. This ectoparasite is the most abundant ectoparasite in the world.

A. Phthirus pubis
B. Pediculus humanus humanus
C. Pediculus humanus capitis
D. All of the above

19. A 10 year old boy is playing inside his room and a mite bite him in the arm, after that when he
begun to sleep there’s a severe itching and he begun to have a rash, the parents brought him to the
doctor. What species of mite bite the 10 years old boy
A. Clover mite
B. Sarcoptes scabiei
C. American house dust mite
D. Red spider mite

20. What parasite sucks blood from intestinal tissue and it causes severe anemia?
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Giardia intestinalis
D. Retortamonas intestinalis

21. Which operculated ovum contains a miracidium and can appear in sputum often accompanied by
blood and Charcot-leyden crystals?
A. Paragonimus westermani
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Dipylidium caninum

22. What is the common name for Clonorchis sinensis?

A. Intestinal fluke
B. Chinese liver fluke
C. Kidney fluke
D. Lung fluke

23. Which of the following is the first intermediate host of the flukes?
A. Fish
B. Crab
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

C. Snail
D. Water plant

24. These 2 trematodes are known as blood flukes, their eggs are found in stool specimen.
1 - Schistosoma japonicum
2 - Schistosoma haematobium
3 - Schistosoma mansoni

A. 1&2
B. 2&3
C. 1&3
D. All of the above

25. What is the causative agent of sheep liver infection?

A. Metagonimus yokogawai
B. Heterophyes heterophyes
C. Isospora belli
D. Fasciola hepatica

26. Ingestion of raw or poorly cooked infected fish can lead to infection with this trematode.
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Babesia microti
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Clonorchis sinensis

27. What is the agent of Chagas disease?

Trypanosoma brucei
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Trypanosoma lewist
D. Trypanosoma evansi

28. What species can cause tickborne malaria?

A. Babesia
B. Leishmania
C. Trypanosoma
D. Plasmodium

29. What is protozoa causing Kalaazar?

A. Leishmania
B. Babesia
C. Trypanosoma
D. Plasmodium

30. What is the vector of Trypanosoma cruzi?

A. Ixodid ticks
B. Kissing bug
C. Tsetse fly
D. Sheep
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

31. What is the mode of transmission of Trypanosoma brucei?

A. Ixodis ticks
B. Kissing bug
C. Tsetse fly
D. Sheep

32. Leishmania is transmitted in what kind of infected flies?

A. Female anopheles
B. Sheep
C. Ixodid ticks
D. Female phlebotomie sandflies

33. It contains Ziemanns stippling

A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium vuvax
D. Plasmodium knowlesi

34. The best specimen for recovery of the mycobacteria from a sputum sample is:
A. First morning specimen
B. 10-hour evening specimen
C. 12-hour pooled specimen
D. 24-hour pooled specimen

35. What concentration of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is used to prepare a working decontamination
solution for the processing of not normally sterile specimens for mycobacteria?
A. 1% NaOH
B. 4% NaOH
C. 8% NaOH
D. 12% NaOH

36. Which is the most appropriate nonselective medium for recovery of mycobacteria from a heavily
contaminated specimen?
A. Löwenstein–Jensen agar
B. Middlebrook 7H10 agar
C. Petragnani’s agar
D. American Thoracic Society medium

37. Mycobacteria stained by the Ziehl–Neelsen or Kinyoun methods with methylene blue
counterstain are seen microscopically as:
A. Bright red rods against a blue background
B. Bright yellow rods against a yellow background
C. Orange-red rods against a black background
D. Bright blue rods against a pink background

38. Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved,
beaded, red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after 14 days at 37°C. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
were positive. What is the most probable presumptive identification?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium ulcerans
C. Mycobacterium kansasii
D. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex

39. Which organism, associated with tuberculosis in cattle, causes tuberculosis in humans, especially
in regions where dairy farming is prevalent?
A. Mycobacterium avium–intracellulare complex
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium marinum
D. Mycobacterium bovis

40. Which of the following organisms are used as controls for rapid growers and slow growers?
A. Mycobacterium fortuitum and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex and Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium chelonei and Mycobacterium fortuitum
D. Mycobacterium kansasii and Mycobacterium tuberculosis

41. Which of the following Mycobacterium spp. produce(s) pigmented colonies in the dark (is a
scotochromogen)?
A. M. szulgai
B. M. kansasii
C. M. tuberculosis
D. All of these options

42. All of the following mycobacteria are associated with skin infections except:
A. Mycobacterium marinum
B. Mycobacterium haemophilum
C. Mycobacterium ulcerans
D. Mycobacterium kansasii

43. All of the following are examples of appropriate specimens for the recovery of fungi except:
A. Tissue biopsy
B. CSF
C. Aspirate of exudate
D. Swab

44. For which clinical specimens is the KOH direct mount technique for examination of fungal
elements used?
A. Skin
B. CSF
C. Blood
D. Bone marrow

45. The India ink stain is used as a presumptive test for the presence of which organism?
A. Aspergillus niger in blood
B. Cryptococcus neoformans in CSF
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

C. Histoplasma capsulatum in CSF

D. Candida albicans in blood or body fluids

46. Cutaneous disease involving skin, hair, and nails usually indicates an infection with a:
A. Dimorphic fungus
B. Dermatophyte
C. Zygomycetes
D. Candida species

47. What is the first step to be performed in the identification of an unknown yeast isolate?
A. Gram stain smear
B. India ink stain
C. Catalase test
D. Germ tube test

48. An isolate produced a constriction that was interpreted as a positive germ tube, but Candida
albicans was ruled out when confirmatory tests were performed. Which of the following fungi is
the most likely identification?
A. Candida tropicalis
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida glabrata
D. Rhodotorula rubra

49. Cornmeal agar with Tween 80 is used to identify which characteristic of an unknown yeast
isolate?
A. Hyphae (true and pseudo)
B. Blastoconidia and arthroconidia
C. Chlamydospores
D. All of these options

50. Blastoconidia are the beginning of which structures?

A. Arthroconidia
B. Germ tubes
C. Pseudohyphae
D. True hyphae

51. An isolate from CSF growing on cornmeal agar produces the following structures:
Blastoconidia = + Pseudohyphae = Neg
Chlamydospores = Neg Arthroconidia= Neg

Which tests should be performed next?

A. Birdseed agar and urease
B. Germ tube and glucose
C. India ink and germ tube
D. All of these options

52. Which of the following yeast enzymes is detected using birdseed (niger seed) agar?
A. Phenol oxidase
B. Catalase
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

C. Urease
D. Nitrate reductase

53. The retrovirus responsible for causing acquired immune deficiency syndrome is a member of the
family of?
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Paramyxoviridae
C. Retroviridae
D. Flaviviridae

54. Characteristics of this DNA hepatitis virus include infections spread by contaminated body fluids,
50 to 180 a day incubation period, and chronic infections.
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV

55. Negri bodies may be found in brain tissue of humans or animals infected with?
A. Adenovirus
B. Filovirus
C. Measles virus
D. Rabies virus

56. A 25 year old patient presented with multiple vesicles around the mouth. Material from the
lesions was obtained by needle aspiration and inoculated to MRC-5 cells. After 1 day, the
cytopathic effect included foci of “ballooned” and lysed cells. These observations suggest
infection with?
A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Epstein-BArr virus
D. Herpes simplex virus

57. Which of the following yeasts produces only blastoconidia on cornmeal Tween 80 agar?
BLASTOCONIDIA PSEUDOHYPHA ARTHROCONIDIA
E
Cryptococcus spp + - -
Candida spp + + -
Trichosporon spp. + + +
Geotrichum spp - + +

A. Candida spp
B. Trichosporon spp
C. Geotrichum spp
D. Cryptococcus spp

58. The urease test, nigger seed agar test, and the germ tube test are all used for the presumptive
identification of?
C. neoformans R. rubra T. cutaneum C. albicans
Urease + + + -
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

Germ tube - - - +
Brown and black colonies on niger + - - -
seeds agar

A. Rhodotorula rubra
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Trichosporon cutaneum
D. Candida albicans

59. Which of the following viruses is implicated along with Epstain-Barr virus as a cause of
infectious mononucleosis?
A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B. Coxsackie A virus
C. Coxsackie B virus
D. Hepatitis B virus

60. The appearance of Koplik spots in the oral mucosa of patients is characteristic of infection with
what viral agent?
A. Hepatitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Smallpox

61. Kaposi sarcoma is associated with infection by

A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Hepatitis E Virus
D. Human Herpes Virus 8

62. The molecular receptor of the virus causing acquired immune deficiency syndrome is
A. CD 4
B. CD 8
C. Fc receptor
D. Complement receptor

63. The Sabin polio vaccine uses which of the following?

A. Formalin-inactivated viruses
B. Attenuated viruses
C. Recombinant viral antigens
D. DNA

64. A diaper rash is also known as?

A. Tinea corporis
B. Candidiasis
C. Aspergillosis
D. Cryptococcosis

65. The virus associated with warts is..

A. Flavivirus
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

B. Morbillivirus
C. Mumps Virus
D. Papillomavirus
66. Which of the following types of Candida albicans infection is commonly acquired from an
exogenous source?
A. Diaper Rash
B. Neonatal thrush
C. Perianal infection
D. Urinary tract infection

67. A black pigment produced by colonies growing on bird seed agar is due to
A. Urease
B. Phenol oxidase
C. Sucrose assimilation
D. Arthroconidia production

68. Which of the following stains greatly enhances the visibility of fungi by binding to the cell walls,
causing the fungi to fluoresce blue-white or apple green?
A. Rhodamine-auramine
B. Warthin-Starry
C. Calcofluor white
D. Periodic acid-schiff

69. Mordant/s used in Ziehl-Neelsen staining method?

A. Heat
B. Phenol
C. Both
D. None of the above

70. During digestion and decontamination of specimen for mycobacterium. What reagent is used to
destroy contaminants and it’s shorten exposure time?
A. Trisodium phosphate
B. PO4
C. 6% Oxalic acid
D. Benzalkonium chloride

71. Which of the following is not true of Mycobacerium leprae?

A. Causes Hansen disease
B. Difficult to grow in vitro
C. Easily transmitted from person to person
D. Usually grows in peripheral limbs of infected patients

72. Which of the following is a fluorescent stain for mycobacteria?

A. Auramine-rhodamine
B. Calcofluor white
C. Flurorescin isothiocyanate
D. Zeihl-Neelsen
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

73. Neonatal meningitis is most like caused by

A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Neisseria meningitidis

74. Which of the following Mycobacteria appears as buffed-colored colonies after exposure to light
and niacin positive?
A. M. bovis
B. M. scrofulaceum
C. M. tuberculosis
D. M. xenopi

75. The species of Mycobateria that would be most commonly associated with contamination of the
hot water system in large instituions such as hospital?
A. M. heamophilum
B. M. marinum
C. M.ulcerans
D. M. xenopi

76. Regent used in string test

A. 5% Na deoxycholate
B. 0.5% Nacl
C. 0.4% Na
D. 0.5% Na deoxycholate

77. Escherichia coli associated with O157:H7

A. EHEC
B. ETEC
C. EPEC
D. EAEC

78. It is from undercooked burgers & unpasteurized dairy products

A. EHEC
B. EAEC
C. ETEC
D. EIEC

79. In runyon’s classification, in what category does Mycobacterium kansasli belong?

A. Photochromogens
B. Scotochoromogens
C. Non-photochromogens
D. Rapid growers

80. Which of the following is not consistent with Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A. Alpha hemolysis on sheep blood agar
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

B. Bile solubility positive

C. Gram-positive, diplococci in pairs/chains
D. Positive catalase test

81. Which of the following diseases involves erythrogenic toxin?

A. Cutaneous anthrax
B. Diphtheria
C. Impetigo
D. Scarlet fever

82. Colonies of Neisseria spp. turn color when a redox reagent is applied. The color change is
indicative of the activity of the bacterial enzyme.
A. Beta-galactosidase
B. Urease
C. Cytochrome oxidase
D. Phenylalanune deaminase

83. What is the predominant indigenous flora of the colon?

A. Anaerobic, gram-negative, non-spore-forming bacteria
B. Anaerobic, gram-positive, non-spore- forming bacteria
C. Aerobic, gram-negative, non-spore- forming bacteria
D. Aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria

84. Which Clostridium spp. is most commonly recovered from cases of gas gangrene?
A. bifermentas
B. perfringes
C. sordelii
D. C. difficile

85. Staphylococcus saprophyticus, a recognized pathogen, is a caused of

A. Furuncles
B. Impetigo
C. Otitis media
D. UTI

86. A child presented in August at the pediatric clinic with a superficial skin infection of the neck.
The large, itchy lesions were cultured, and the diagnosis of IMPETIGO was made. One of the
etiologic agents of this clinical condition is:
A. rhusiopathiae
B. diptheriae
C. S. saprophyticus
D. S. pyogenes

87. In the CAMP test, a single streak of a beta-hemolytic Streptococcus is placed perpendicular to a
streak of beta-lysin-procuding S. aureus. After incubation, a zone of increased lysis in the shape
of an arrowhead noted; this indicates the presumptive identification of:
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

A. S. agalactiae
B. S. bovis
C. S. equinus
D. S. pyogenes

88. What varieties of rickettsiae are significantly more prevalent in the acidic phagolysosome
environment, which is a hostile setting for most other organisms to survive?
A. Rickettsiae siberica
B. Rickettsiae autralis
C. Rickettsiae burnetti
D. NOTA

89. It is a spp. of Chlamydia that can be injected intravenously, into the yolk sac of mice, or into cell
culture.
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Chlamydia psittaci
D. AOTA

90. What spp. of Chlamydia is classified as a human cervical cancer cells

A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Chlamydia pneumonia
C. Chlamydia psittaci
D. AOTA

91. A stage or condition also known as "condylomata lata" that causes lesions on the body
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Tertiary stage
D. NOTA

92. The last stage of syphilis's last stage, also known as gumma's or gummatous
A. Primary stage
B. Secondary stage
C. Tertiary stage
D. NOTA

93. Which among the following group of microorganisms are found in the ducts of cow’s mammary
glands?
A. Micrococci
B. Microbacteria
C. Lactobacilli
D. Coliforms

94. Penicillin causes inhibition of Mycoplasmas.

A. False
 CENTRAL LUZON DOCTORS’ HOSPITAL
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION, INC.
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY
Romulo Highway, San Pablo, Tarlac City
Tel: (045) 982-5019 / 982-5052 / 982-0264 | Fax: (045) 982-2945

B. True

95. The diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis (Clostridium difficile associated disease) is often
made by?
A. Serology
B. Culturing blood specimen
C. Assays to detect toxin in stool
D. Acid fast stain of fecal material

96. Which of the following is not considered a zoonotic disease?

A. Anthrax
B. Botulism
C. Brucellosis
D. Leptospirosis

97. An anaerobically incubated blood agar plate shows colonies surrounded by an inner zone of
completed red cell lysis and an outer zone of incomplete cell lysis (double zone of hemolysis).
The most likely presumptive identification of this would be?
A. Clostridium perfringes
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus agalactiae

98. Which among the following are “Spirochetes”?

A. Streptomyces sp.
B. Treponema pallidum
C. Spirillum volutans
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

99. Glycolysis can occur in?

A. anaerobic cells
B. aerobic cells
C. neither aerobic and anaerobic cells
D. both aerobic and anaerobic cells

100. Which among the following are microaerophilic bacteria?

A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Spirochaeta
D. Cristispira