A patient with CKD who has a low erythropoietin (EPO) level is at risk for?

a. Hypercalcemia

b. Anemia

c. Hyperkalemia

d. Blood clots

2. What structure is reduced in the CDK?

a. GFR

b. Nephron

c. Pneumocyte

d. Myocardium

3. Which of the following conditions is not a complication of CKD?

a. Metabolic acidosis

b. Anemia

c. Mineral and bone disorder

d. Appendicitis

4. What is a useful intervention to reduce intraglomerular pressure and

proteinuria?

a. Reach target blood pressure below 130/80 mmHg

b. Reach levels of glycated hemoglobin lower than 8%

c. Use of diuretics for patients with proteinuria

d. Stop smoking

5. What is the stage where kidney damage is not reversible?

a. G4

b. G6

c. G3a
d. G3b

6. What is a cause of secondary kidney disease?

a. Alport syndrome

b. Fabry disease

c. Congenital obstructive nephropathy

d. Vasculitis

7. At what age is most common to suffer CKD?

a. 18-44 years old.

b. 45-64 years old.

c. 65 years or older.

d. Under 18 years

8. In which breed is it most common to present CKD?

a. Non-Hispanic Whites

b. Non-Hispanic Blacks

c. Non-Hispanic Asians

d. Hispanics

9. In our country, which imaging test is more accessible?

a. Ultrasound

b. Rx

c. Computed tomography

d. kidney scintigraphy

10. What do we look for in the urine test?

a. Leukocytes

b. Red blood cells

c. Proteins
d. Bacteria

In acute renal failure, when performing the urinary sediment test, the following is

observed:

● Saving water and sodium

● Excretion of water and sodium

● Water saving and sodium excretion

● Water excretion and sodium saving

Which of the following is considered the most important imaging study?

● Kidney ecography

● Doppler echography

● Abdominal x-ray

● Scintigraphy

In renal causes, the most frequent causes are?

● Cardiovascular disease, decompensated liver disease

● Obstruction in the collection and evacuation

● Increased pressure (glomerulus) and decrease the GFR

● Acute tubular necrosis, acute glomerulonephritis, nephrotoxins

What percentage are prerenal causes of acute renal failure?

● 70%

● 50%

● 60%

● 20%

What is a urinary volume less than 100 ml/day called?

● Anuria

● Polyuria
● Oliguria

● Dysuria

What is a urinary volume less than 400 ml/day called?

● Anuria

● Polyuria

● Oliguria

● Dysuria

PRE AKI is when the kidney response is developed for….

● Compensatory purposes

● Hard purpose

In POST AKI the degree of reversibility is…

● Low and renal function returns quickly to its initial values

● High and renal function returns slowly to its initial values

● High and renal function returns quickly to its initial values

● Low and renal function returns slowly to its initial values

If the kidneys aren't properly filtering potassium from the blood, you may use…

● Calcium, glucose or sodium polystyrene sulfonate

● Only calcium

● Glucose and calcium

● Only sodium polystyrene sulfonate

The function of dialysis or hemodialysis is ….

● To help maintain toxins and excess fluids from the body.

● To help remove toxins and excess fluids from the body.

● To help remove proteins and necessary luids from the body .

● To help remove toxins and fluids from the body

1. When there is bleeding at the beginning of the micturition stream and then it clears up, is it of
origin?

A. Origin close to the bladder neck.

B. Urethral or prostatic origin

C. Upper urinary tract or bladder

2. For hematuria caused by infections, the provider will prescribe…?

A. Antibiotics

B. Diuretics

C. Erythropoietin

D. Alpha-blockers

3. For hematuria caused by an enlarged prostate , the provider will

prescribe..?

A. hormone therapy

B. Diuretics

C. Alpha-blockers

D. antihypertensives

4. What is the gold standard imaging study of the urinary system?

A. Abdominal X-ray

B. Urological ultrasound

C. CT

D. Uro-CT

. What criteria does a patient meet to be able to be discharged and be

controlled and monitored on an outpatient basis?

A. Asymptomatic microhematuria, non-anemic and without voiding difficulty

B. Macrohematuria with/without urinary symptoms, moderate (color of "water

from washing meat")

C. Microhematuria, without risk factors, without urological history

D. Asymptomatic microhematuria in patients with risk factors (smoking, >50

years...)

6. How many months must pass after the first determination to consider

persistent hematuria?

A. 12 months

B. 6 months

C. 9 months

D. 3 months

7. What is a transient cause of hematuria?

A. Cancer

B. Kidney stones

C. Pyelonephritis

D. Excessive Exercise

8. What is a specific cause of hematuria in men?

A. Pyelonephritis

B. Kidney Stones

C. Urinary Tract Infection

D. Enlarged prostate

9. Which of the following factors is a risk factor for hematuria?

A. strenuous exercise

B. Obesity

C. hypothyroidism

D. Sex
10. Hematuria is...?

A. Presence of blood in the urine.

B. Presence of bacteria in the urine.

C. Presence of leukocytes in the urine.

D. Presence of fungi in the urine

11. The urinary system is made up of?

A. Kidneys, ureters, urethra and prostate

B. Kidneys, urethra and bladder

C. Kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra

D. Urethras, urethra and prostate

12. How is microhematuria defined?

A. More than 3 red blood cells per field

B. More than 5 red blood cells per field

C. Less than 3 red blood cells per field

D. More than 10 red blood cells per field

13. What structure differentiates hematuria from urethrorrhagia?

A. Internal sphincter

B. Urethra

C. External sphincter

D. Prostate

14. The reddish color of urine depends:

A. Not related to urinary pH

B. On the site of the lesion

C. It is not related to the contact time between blood and urine.

D. It is darker if the lesion is located in the urethra

1.- The uropathogens causing UTI vary by clinical syndrome but is

usually

A. Enteric gram-negative rods

B. Enteric gram-positive rods

C. Klebsiella species

D. Proteus species

2.- Which is the typical symptoms of cystitis?

A. Dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency

B. Altered mental status, and leukocytosis

C. Fever is not the main feature distinguishing cystitis

D. None

3.-Which is the clinical manifestation of Pyelonephritis?

A. Fever is not the main feature distinguishing cystitis

B. Dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency

C. Altered mental status, and leukocytosis

D. Fever is the main feature distinguishing cystitis and pyelonephritis.

4.- What is the most common side effect of fluoroquinolones?

A. Drowsiness

B. Urticaria

C. Sight loss

D. Rash

5.- How many days is Nitrofurantoin administered?

A. 10 days

B. 5-7 days

C. 15 days
D. 2 days

6.- How long does it take to identify specific organisms in urine culture?

A. 12 hours

B. 8 hours

C. 24 hours

D. 2 hours

7.- What does a UTI diagnosis start with?

A. Urine dipstick test

B. Clinic history

C. Urine culture

D. None of the above

8.- What is the treatment for Asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A. Penicillin

B. Does not require treatment

C. Washing genital area

D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

9.- Which of the following creates an ideal environment for bacteria?

A. Hypertension

B. Being male

C. Taking antibiotics

D. The presence of a bladder catheter

0.- What is the most common effect of all these drugs?

A. Rash

B. General discomfort

C. Nausea and headache

D. Urticaria

11.- What is the most common germ that causes cystitis?

A. Proteus

B. E. Coli

C. Klebsiella

D. Enterobacter

12. What is the most classic clinical manifestation of pyelonephritis?

A. Fever

B. Pain Lumbar

C. Polyuria

D. Polyphagia

13. What are the kinds of pyelonephritis?

A. Interstitial and drug-related

B. Emphysematous pyelonephritis and Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

C. Acute and radiation

D. Bacterial and viral