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VB RDTM MPC L7 Du GJ 27 AMS
VB RDTM MPC L7 Du GJ 27 AMS
1. Duration of Test is 1 hr. (iii) Section-II: This section contains 7 multiple choice
2. The Test booklet consists of 35 questions. The maximum questions, in which more than one answer may be
correct. Each question carries +4 marks for correct
marks are 90. There is no negative marking for wrong
answer.
answer.
(iv) Section-III: This section contains 3 multiple choice
3. Pattern of the questions are as under: questions based on assertion & reason type, which
(i) This question paper consists of four parts (Physics, have only one correct answer. Each question carries
Chemistry, Mathematics and Mental Ability). P, C, M +2 marks for correct answer.
have four sections and Mental Ability has two (v) Section-IV: This section contains 3 questions. Each
sections. question has two matching Columns. Column-I has
four entries (A, B, C, D) and Column-II has four
(ii) Section-I: This section contains 22 multiple choice entries (P, Q, R, S). Each entry in Column-I may
questions, which have only one correct answer. match with one or more entry in Column-II. Each
Each question carries +2 marks for correct answer. question carries +4 marks for correct answer.
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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2022
Sample paper
(Class X Studying Moving to Class XI)
(The questions given in sample paper are indicative of the level and
pattern of questions that will be asked in AKTHE-2022)
Time : 1 Hour MM : 90
Physics
Que 1. A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm forms images having magnitude of
magnification 2 for any two positions of object. The distance between two such
positions of image will be
A. 15 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 30 cm
Answer (C)
Que 2. A battery of 18 V is connected to a 3 m long uniform wire having resistance of
100 Ω. The difference of potential between two points separated by 50 cm on the
wire will be
A. 1.5 V
B. 3 V
C. 1 V
D. 2 V
Answer (B)
Potential drop across per cm length of wire
= 0.06 × 50 = 3 V
Answer (D)
Que 5. What will happen when a 40 W, 220 V lamp and 100 W, 220 V lamp are
connected in series across a 440 V supply?
A. Both lamps will fuse
B. 100 W lamp will fuse
C. 40 W lamp will fuse
D. Neither lamp will fuse
Answer (C)
Que 6. An electric kettle has three thermal coils A, B and C. To boil the same amount
of water coil A, B and C takes 2 min, 3 min and 6 min respectively when applied
across same potential difference. If all three coils operated together and same
potential difference is applied across the combination, then to boil same amount of
water
A. In series combination, it will take 15 min
B. In series combination, it will take 11 min
C. In parallel combination, it will take 3 min
D. In parallel combination, it will take 1 min
Answer (B, D)
Que 7. For the given circuit diagram, choose the correct statement(s).
Que 8. This section contains 1 Assertion-Reason type question, which has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (D)
Since the wavelength of red colour is greater than violet, therefore, it is less
scattered by fog and smoke.
Que 9. This section contains 1 Match the column type question, which has 2 Columns
(Column-I and Column-II). Column-I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-
II has four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Match the entries in Column-I with the entries
in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-
II.
Four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given for this question, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Match the columns and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Concave lens (P) Used for rear view in
automobiles
(B) Concave mirror (Q) Used as a reflector in solar
cooker
(C) Convex lens (R) |m| < 1
(D) Convex mirror (S) |m| > 1
* The magnification (m) produced by a concave mirror is –∞ < m < 0 and m > 1
Chemistry
Que 10. The gaseous products obtained on thermal decomposition of iron sulphate is
A. SO2 and O2
Que 11. Which of the following sodium compounds is used for softening of hard
water?
A. NaCl
B. Na2SO4
C. NaOH
D. Na2CO3
Answer (D)
Na2CO3 (Washing soda) is used for removing permanent hardness of water.
Que 12. The set of metals which do not react with water at all is
A. Na, Zn, Al, Fe
B. Pb, Cu, Ag, Au
C. Al, Mg, Cu, Au
D. Fe, Ag, Hg, K
Answer (B)
Metals of low reactivity like lead, copper, silver and gold do not react with water at
all.
Que 15. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct for the given reaction?
ZnO + C → Zn + CO
The substance which gets oxidised, is reducing agent and the substance which gets
reduced, is oxidising agent.
Que 16. Consider the following chemical equation
On balancing
A. a × b = 2 × e
B. (a × b) + (d × e) = c + d
C. a : f = 1 : 1
D. c : e = 4 : 3
Answer (A, B, C)
R : A lot of heat is generated when water is added to a concentrated acid, which may
cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (A)
The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant stirring. If water is
added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash
out and cause burns.
Que 18. This section contains 1 Match the column type question, which has 2 Columns
(Column-I and Column-II). Column-I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-
II has four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Match the entries in Column-I with the entries
in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-
II.
Four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given for this question, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Zinc (P) Non-metal
(B) Magnesium (Q) Forms amphoteric oxide
(C) Sulphur (R) Evolve H2 gas with very dilute
HNO3
(D) Aluminium (S) Metal
• Sulphur is a non-metal.
Mathematics
Que 19. In a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b and c are distinct
natural numbers less than 6. If quadratic equation has real and distinct roots, then
total number of possible pairs of (a, b, c) is
A. 12
B. 14
C. 13
D. 15
Answer (B)
Case 2 : When b = 4
Case 3 : When b = 5
Total 14 pairs.
Que 20. If the sum of the zeroes, product of the zeroes and the sum of the
coefficients of the polynomial f(x) = ax2 + bx + c (a ≠ 0 and a, b, c are real numbers)
are equal and sum of coefficients is m, then a equals
𝑚
A.
2
B. m
C. m2
D. 2m
Answer (B)
Que 21. In an A.P. of 2021 terms, 1996th term from the end is same as which term
from the beginning?
A. 26th
B. 25th
C. 24th
D. 23rd
Answer (A)
1996th term from end = (2021 – 1996 + 1)th term from beginning = 26th term
Que 22. The value of (sinθ + cosecθ)2 + (cosθ + secθ)2 – (tan2θ + cot2θ) is
A. 5
B. 6
C. 9
D.7
Answer (D)
⇒1+1+1+4=7
Que 23. A pole 7(√3 − 1) m high is fixed on the top of a tower. The angle of
elevation of the top of the pole observed from a point A on the ground is 60° and the
angle of depression of the point A from the top of the tower is 45°. The height of the
tower is
A. 14 m
B. 7 m
C. 14√3 m
D. 7√3 m
Answer (B)
Let PB be the tower of height h and BC be the pole.
Que 24.
15
Que 25. If sec2θ1 + sec2θ2 + sec2θ3 = and cosec2θ1 + cosec2θ2 + cosec2θ3 = 15,
4
then [(tanθ1 – cotθ1)2 + (tanθ2 – cotθ2)2 + (tanθ3 – cotθ3)2] is equal to
√9
A.
4
√729
B. 4
√256
3
C.
2
27
D.
4
Answer (B, D)
C. m = 7
9
D. 𝑘 =
5
Answer (B, C)
⇒ 2(–5)2 + m(–5) – 15 = 0
⇒ m=7
Que 27. This section contains 1 Assertion-Reason type question, which has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
R : If one of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial is zero, then it does not have
constant term.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer (D)
(A) Let α and β be roots of equation ax2 + bx + c.
ax2 + bx + c = 0, α = 0
Then (x – 0)(x – β) = 0
x2 – βx = 0, no constant term.
Que 28. This section contains 1 Match the column type question, which has 2
Columns (Column I and Column II). Column I has four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D),
Column II has four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Match the entries in Column I with
the entries in Column II. Each entry in Column I may match with one or more entries
in Column II.
Four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given for this question, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Column-I Column-II
(A) If C(x, 0) divides the line segment (P) 7
formed by joining the points A(3,
4) and B(3, –4) in the ratio K : 1
internally, then 2x + 1 equals
(B) If the ratio in which the line 5x + (Q)
2y = 14 divides the line segment
joining the points A(–2, m)
and B(n, 7) is 2 : 5,
then m + n equals
(C) If the distance between the points (R) The distance (in units) between the
(2, –2) and (–1, 2) is x units, then points A(0, 4) and B(0, –3)
(x + 2) equals
(D) The coordinates of centre of a
circle which passes through the
points (4, 5), (8, 6) and (6, –2)
are
K=1
⇒ C is mid-point of AB.
C(3, 0) Þ x = 3
⇒ 2x + 1 = 7
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer (A)
102 –1, 92 + 2, 82 – 3, 72 + 4, 62 – 5
Que 30. Ram is moving towards northeast from point A. After moving 396 m, he
turns to his right and moves 403 m further to reach at point B. The minimum
distance between point A and point B is
A. 500 m
B. 565 m
C. 575 m
D. 600 m
Answer (B)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer (D)
Option (4) is fit for missing part.
Que 32. Choose the odd one.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer (B)
Except (2), all are same in different orientation.
Que 33. Ram is only son of Sunita, who is sister of Radhey. Mamta is wife of Kishan,
who is father of Radhey. If Meera is sister of Ram, then how Kishan is related to
Meera?
A. Grandfather
B. Father
C. Son
D. Grandson
Answer (A)
Meera is daughter of Sunita, who is daughter of Kishan.
2 3 5 5
4 6 7 14
8 7 6 18
9 ? 5 50
A. 40
B. 42
C. 41
D. 43
Answer (C)
232 : 25 : : 114 : 16 : : ?
A. 253 : 343
B. 453 : 81
C. 672 : 169
D. 442 : 512
Answer (A, C)
abc : (a + b)c