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Chapter 7 Recombinant DNA and Biotechnology

Multiple Choice

1. Yeast artificial chromosome vectors contain all of the following EXCEPT

A. centromeric sequences.
B. telomeric sequences.
C. an origin of replication.
D. a locus control region.
E. a selectable marker gene.

Ans: D

2. The genomic DNA library

A. contains DNA sequences from all species.
B. contains plasmid DNA copies of human total RNA.
C. contains amplified copies of a specific gene.
D. is often constructed using phage lambda.
E. is often screened by Southern blot hybridization.

Ans: D

3. PCR is used for all of the following EXCEPT

A. detection of exon deletions.
B. amplification of a target DNA sequence.
C. in vivo correction of a mutated gene.
D. detection of trinucleotide repeat expansions.

Ans: C

4. Restriction enzymes are:

A. DNA polymerases
B. RNA polymerases
C. endonucleases
D. exonucleases
E. none of the above

Ans: C

5. Screening a recombinant DNA library using an 125I-labeled antibody prepared against

a eukaryotic protein
A. requires that cDNA inserts have been used in the library being screened.
B. requires the utilization of vector sequences that provide high efficiency translation of
the cloned insert DNA including signals for initiation and termination of translation.
C. requires the utilization of vector sequences that provide high efficiency transcription
of the cloned insert DNA including signals for initiation and termination of transcription.
D. will isolate any gene that encodes a protein product recognized by the antibody.
E. all of the above statements are true.

Ans: E

6. Segments of pure samples of identical, relatively short DNA molecules from plasmids
can be subdivided into smaller pieces by
A. Southern blot analysis.
B. colony hybridization.
C. restriction enzyme digestion.
D. agarose gel electrophoresis.
E. ethidium bromide treatment.

Ans: C

7. RFLP linkage analysis followed by chromosome walking is used to find disease-

causing genes. Which of the following would be a good indication that the disease-
causing gene has been found by this analysis?
A. The gene is at least one cM from the RFLP.
B. The gene is homozygous in the affected individual.
C. The gene contains a nonsense mutation.
D. The gene is heterozygous in the individual.
E. The gene contains numerous polymorphisms.

Ans: C

8. All of the following would be required for the expression in E. coli of the cDNA for
proinsulin from humans EXCEPT
A. an E. coli promoter upstream from the cDNA.
B. a selectable marker, such as ampicillin resistance, on the plasmid.
C. a Shine-Dalgarno sequence for ribosome recognition upstream from the cDNA.
D. an E. coli specific replication origin on the plasmid.
E. a polyadenylation signal.

Ans: E

9. In Southern blot hybridization analysis

A. reverse transcriptase is used to synthesize a radioactive nucleic acid probe
B. nick translation is used to obtain a protein-derived probe.
C. DNA is denatured and lifted from the agar surface with a nitrocellulose filter.
D. restriction fragments containing a specific nucleotide sequence can be identified.
E. DNA fragments are resolved on a CsCl density gradient.
Ans: D

10. Restriction enzymes have all of the following properties EXCEPT

A. they cleave double stranded DNA.
B. they modify DNA by methylation.
C. they recognize specific DNA sequences.
D. they cleave DNA, producing staggered ends.

Ans: B

11. Reverse transcriptase and terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase are used in gene
cloning to
A. remove single stranded DNA and repair the restriction enzyme site after
transformation respectively.
B. make cDNA and create sticky ends on the cDNA and the staggered ends of the
cleaved restriction site.
C. repair the restriction enzyme site before transformation.
D. repair the restriction enzyme site after transformation.
E. remove the sticky ends prior to the DNA ligase step.

Ans: B

12. M17476PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) products are of discrete length because
A. Taq polymerase can synthesize only 1000 base pairs of DNA at a time.
B. polymerization proceeds to the ends of the DNA.
C. Taq polymerase is denatured after each cycle is complete.
D. the DNA is cut with restriction enzymes prior to PCR.
E. the reaction contains a limiting amount of nucleoside triphosphate precursors.

Ans: B

13. A technique that is used to determine the abundance of a particular mRNA is

A. gel shift assay.
B. dideoxy chain termination.
C. Southern blotting.
D. DNA ligation.
E. Northern blotting.

Ans: E

14. Allele-specific oligonucleotide (ASO) analysis is used primarily for

A. identification of point mutations.
B. detection of deleted exons.
C. linkage analysis.
D. detection of trinucleotide repeat expansions.
Ans: A

15. For an expression vector that will be used to produce mRNA in a prokaryotic system,
which of the following is not required?
A. origin of replication.
B. selectable marker.
C. bacterial promoter.
D. polyadenylation signal.
E. Shine_Dalgarno sequence.

Ans: D

16. In the dideoxy method of DNA sequencing, the dideoxy analog

A. allows specific chemical cleavage of the DNA strand at random sites.
B. is required for the synthesis of the primer.
C. causes termination of DNA chain elongation.
D. cannot be utilized by DNA polymerase.
E. lacks a 5' phosphate group.

Ans: C

17. All of the following are used to construct genomic libraries EXCEPT
A. DNA ligase.
B. bacteriophage lambda.
C. reverse transcriptase.
D. restriction enzymes.

Ans: C

18. All of the following are TRUE regarding restriction endonucleases EXCEPT
A. they recognize specific palindromic sequences.
B. they may produce staggered ends when they cleave DNA into fragments.
C. they may produce flush ends when they cleave DNA into fragments.
D. they are used in gene cloning to cleave the single stranded regions of the cDNA
produced by reverse transcriptase.
E. they are used to cleave plasmid DNA in specific places in gene cloning experiments.

Ans: D

19. M17482Reverse transcriptase is employed in cDNA cloning as a

A. terminal transferase.
B. ligase.
C. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
E. kinase.
Ans: C

20. A technique that is used to determine the abundance of a particular mRNA is

A. gel shift assay.
B. dideoxy chain termination.
C. Southern blotting.
D. DNA ligation.
E. Northern blotting.

Ans: B

21. According to the Holliday model, the initial steps in recombination are which of the
following?
A. Double strand breakage and rejoining of nonhomologous chromosomes
B. Double_strand breakage and rejoining of homologous chromosomes
C. Single-strand breakage and strand transfer between non-homologous chromosomes
D. Single_strand breakage and strand transfer between homologous chromosomes

Ans: D

22. Which of the following statements pertaining to genome organization is true?

A. The fibroin gene undergoes DNA amplification within moth silk gland cells to enable
the synthesis of up to 109 silk fibroin proteins per cell.
B. Up to 98% of the human genome encodes proteins and structural RNA's.
C. Histone genes are tandemly repeated and localized in nucleoli.
D. Amplification of protein- encoding genes is commonly seen during amphibian
oogenesis, when enormous stores of protein are needed.
E. Eukaryotic chromosomes each consist of a single linear DNA molecule.

Ans: E

23. Applications using transgenic mice include all of the following EXCEPT
A. rescue of mutants.
B. generation of chemically_induced mutant loci.
C. synthetic bioreactors.
D. testing drug or gene therapies.
E. studies of structure_function relationships.

Ans: B

24. Which of the following are not required for expression of a human cDNA cloned in
E. coli?
A. promoter
B. ribosome binding site
C. initiation codon
D. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase II

Ans: D

25. To obtain recombinant DNA clones that encode a specific protein, a high affinity
antibody to that protein can be utilized to screen
A. a cDNA library in pBR.
B. a cDNA library in an expression vector.
C. a genomic DNA library cloned into a YAC vector.
D. a cDNA library cloned into a YAC vector.
E. a genomic DNA library cloned into a phage vector.

Ans: B

26. Which one of the following statements about Southern blot analysis is true?
A. It will identify which RNA in a population is complementary to a specific DNA
probe.
B. It is used to purify a gene by electrophoretic separation from a population of genes.
C. It is useful for repetitive DNA but not unique sequence DNA.
D. It is used to amplify a specific DNA sequence in vitro.
E. It identifies a specific fragment of DNA based on complementarity to a radioactive
DNA probe.

Ans: E

27. Which of the following enzymes can be used for the construction of a recombinant
DNA molecule in vitro?
A. DNA polymerase + DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase + RNA polymerase
C. Restriction enzyme + DNA ligase
D. Phosphorylase + DNA ligase
E. Acetylase + single stranded DNA specific deoxyribonuclease

Ans: C

28. Isolation and identification of a disease-causing gene by chromosome walking

requires all of the following EXCEPT
A. Genomic library
B. DNA sequence analysis
C. Comparison of the normal and mutant genes
D. Prior knowledge of the protein product
E. Overlapping genomic clones

Ans: D
29. Segments of pure samples of identical, relatively short DNA molecules from plasmids
can be subdivided into smaller pieces by
A. Southern blot analysis.
B. Colony hybridization
C. Restriction enzyme digestion.
D. Agarose gel electrophoresis.
E. Ethidium bromide treatment

Ans: C

30. Human genomic libraries would be expected to contain all of the following EXCEPT
A. introns.
B. exons.
C. promoters.
D. spliced sequences.
E. Alu sequences.

Ans: D

31. Recombinant DNA techniques currently can be used for all of the following except
A. preparation of large amounts of DNA for structural analysis.
B. preparation of proteins such as alpha globin, insulin, and interferon.
C. creation of phage collections which, in total, represent the entire genome of an
organism.
D. prenatal identification of some genetic diseases.
E. repair of genetic damage caused by radiation.

Ans: E

32. The advantage of cloning into a Yeast Artificial Chromosome (YAC) vector is
A. when recombinant DNA molecules function as chromosomes in the host organism,
there are more copies per cell than with plasmids.
B. transformation into yeast is more efficient than into E. coli.
C. it is always better to use the most current technology.
D. the ability to clone large (approximately 200Kb) inserts and therefore enable the rapid
manipulation of DNA from organisms bearing large genomes.
E. working in yeast leads to more efficient translation of eukaryotic genes.

Ans: D

33. Recombination does not

A. play a role in the repair of DNA.
B. generate new combinations of genes.
C. generate point mutations.
D. regulate the expression of DNA.
E. involve single strand breaks.
Ans: C

34. Which of the following statements about homologous recombination is TRUE?

A. recombination can only occur at Chi sites
B. recombination only occurs at specific DNA sequences
C. recombination requires a single_stranded region and a duplex DNA region with
closely related DNA sequence
D. recombination requires an RNA intermediate
E. recombination is site-specific

Ans: C

35. Which of the following techniques can be used to screen the general population for a
single base-pair mutation in disease-causing gene?
A. RFLP linkage analysis
B. Allele specific oligonucleotide (ASO) analysis
C. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
D. Multiplex PCR

Ans: B

36. Reverse transcriptase, like DNA polymerase, can build a complete complementary
nucleic acid strand
A. if there are substrate ribonucleotide triphosphates present.
B. if there is a template and a primer present.
C. if S1 nuclease is present
D. if there is present a strand of DNA.
E. A and D.

Ans: B

37. DNA sequencing by the Sanger technique makes use of ____________for chain
termination.
A. dNTPs
B. dideoxynucleotides
C. AZT
D. DNA polymerase

Ans: B

38. Reverse transcriptase catalyzes which of the following reactions?

A. synthesis of ribosomal RNA from pre-existing ribosomal RNA
B. synthesis of RNA primers for Okazaki fragments
C. synthesis of RNA using a single stranded RNA template
D. synthesis of mRNA from double stranded viral RNA
E. synthesis of DNA using a RNA template

Ans: E

39. In the preparation of labeled probes, which steps do nick-translation and random
oligonucleotide priming have in common?
A. Labeling reactions are initiated by synthetic oligonucleotides.
B. The incorporation of labeled precursor involves an in vitro DNA replication reaction.
C. Nuclease activity can degrade newly synthesized, labeled DNA.
D. They both incorporate -labeled ribonucleotides.

Ans: B

40. Accessibility of DNA to trans-acting molecules is, in general, reduced by its being
packaged into a nucleosome core, both in vitro and in vivo. A prominent exception to
this is the behavior of:
A. The TATA box-binding protein, TBP, which binds within the minor groove.
B. Retrovirus proviral DNA, which integrates within the major groove.
C. Topoisomerase II, which binds to the sugar-phosphate backbone.
D. SV40 large T-antigen, which binds to the major groove.
E. None of the above.

Ans: B

41. In constructing a genomic DNA library, limited digestion with a restriction enzyme
that recognizes and cuts a 4 base pair sequence
A. ensures that the DNA fragments being cloned are very small.
B. ensures that introns are separated from exons.
C. generates overlapping fragments of the genome.
D. separates repetitive sequences from unique sequences.

Ans: C

42. Two general types of viral vectors utilized frequently for gene therapy include.
A. bacteriophage and HIV
B. DNA viruses and RNA viruses
C. adenoviruses and foamy viruses
D. influenza viruses and liposomes

Ans: B

43. Topoisomerase I
A. unwinds double stranded DNA by breaking base pairs
B. will decrease the writhing number of negatively supercoiled DNA
C. will decrease the linking number of negatively supercoiled DNA
D. nicks one strand of double stranded DNA
E. cuts both strands of double stranded DNA

Ans: D

44. It is sometimes possible to design a degenerate oligonucleotide probe for screening a

DNA library if the amino acid sequence of the protein is available. These probes are
A. composed of a mixture of different oligonucleotide sequences.
B. composed only of the most frequently used codon for each amino acid.
C. completely random oligonucleotide sequences.
D. small restriction enzyme fragments.

Ans: A

45. The best technique for determining on which chromosome a specific human gene is
located would probably involve
A. digestion of total human DNA with restriction endonucleases, separation of fragments
by gel electrophoresis and hybridization with a labeled gene probe.
B. somatic cell hybridization.
C. isolation of fetal messenger RNA and in vitro translation.
D. None of the above techniques could yield such information.

Ans: B

46. Eukaryotic chromosomes are characterized by each of the following, EXCEPT

A. contain negatively supercoiled DNA.
B. consist of linear DNA polynucleotide chains.
C. contain both repetitive and nonrepetitive DNA.
D. contain nucleosomes spaced approximately 200 bp apart.
E. contain restriction enzymes.

Ans: E

47. RFLP analysis can be used for all of the following except
A. classical genetic mapping.
B. DNA fingerprinting.
C. locating a disease gene.
D. prenatal screening for a possible genetic defect.
E. creating a cDNA library.

Ans: E

48. All of the following statements concerning DNA cloning are true EXCEPT which
one?
A. Vectors such as plasmids or bacterial viruses can be used for cloning foreign DNA in
bacterial cells.
B. Recombinant molecules between plasmid DNA and foreign DNA can be generated by
using restriction endonucleases.
C. cDNA synthesized from the messenger RNA of a desired gene can be cloned.
D. If foreign DNA is inserted into a bacterial plasmid, the recombinant plasmid cannot
be used for transforming eukaryotic cells.
E. Some eukaryotic genes can be expressed when transformed into bacteria.

Ans: D

49. The Holliday model of general recombination provides for

A. exchange of genetic information between nonhomologous chromosomes.
B. reciprocal translocation of unlike DNA between sister chromatids.
C. conversion of one allele to another by DNA repair.
D. exchange of genetic information between homologous chromosomes.

Ans: D

50. Two small plasmids undergoing recombination will look like a figure 8. If they are
each cut once at a unique restriction site, they will form a Chi structure. Which of the
following will be true
A. each of the arms of the Chi structure will be a different length
B. each of the arms will be the same length
C. two of the arms will be the same length and the other two arms will be the same
length
D. three of the arms will be the same length and the fourth arm will be a different length
E. none of the above are true

Ans: C

51. Which of the following would be required for the efficient expression of human low
density lipoprotein (LDL) in a bacterial host?
A. a cDNA construct encoding LDL, under the control of a bacterial promoter
B. the human gene encoding LDL, under the control of a bacterial promoter
C. a cDNA construct encoding LDL, under the control of the LDL promoter
D. the human gene encoding LDL, under the control of the LDL promoter

Ans: A

52. Enzymes necessary for the construction of a recombinant molecule of DNA are
A. restriction endonucleases and DNA ligase.
B. restriction endonucleases and Pol I.
C. Pol I and DNA ligase.
D. recombinase and DNA gyrase.

Ans: A
53. DNA libraries contain
A. copies of genes.
B. mRNAs.
C. fragments of genomic DNA.
D. DNA copies of mRNA.
E. intron DNA sequences.

Ans: D

54. For an expression vector that will be used to produce mRNA in a prokaryotic system,
which of the following is not required?
A. origin of replication
B. selectable marker
C. bacterial promoter
D. polyadenylation signal
E. Shine-Dalgarno sequence

Ans: D

55. cDNA usually is made initially from an RNA of choice, using which of the following
enzymes?
A. E. coli RNA polymerase
B. reverse transcriptase
C. E. coli DNA polymerase I
D. bovine pancreatic deoxyribonuclease I
E. the sarc gene protein kinase

Ans: B

56. Vector development, design of the corrective gene construct, proliferation and
maintenance of target cells, efficient transfection and transport of nucleic acid to the
nucleus for integration into the genome, and expansion of engineered cells and
implantation into the patient are all examples of
A. challenges to successful gene therapy.
B. techniques used to study developmental regulation.
C. protocols used in the production of transgenic and chimeric mice.
D. problems encountered in the development of pharmaceuticals.

Ans: A

57. In the Holliday model for recombination, which is not true

A. one of two recombination products are formed depending on how the branch is
cleaved
B. strand exchange leads to an intermediate structure with crossed single strands
C. two homologous duplexes are aligned
D. the branch can move along the strands leading to additional strand exchange
E. the strand exchange is initiated by DNase I nicking.

Ans: E

58. Techniques utilized to produce mouse models of human disease include all of the
following EXCEPT
A. knock-in mutation.
B. transgenesis.
C. nuclear transfer.
D. transposition.
E. knockout mutation.

Ans: D

59. RNA-dependent-RNA-polymerases are required by all

A. viruses.
B. non-tumor forming RNA viruses.
C. single stranded RNA viruses.
D. segmented-genome viruses.

Ans: C

60. DNA sequencing makes use of

A. chemical base-modification reactions to fragment the DNA.
B. base-specific enzymes to obtain the sequence.
C. families of restriction enzymes of known specificity to obtain the sequence.
D. alkaline hydrolysis and thin layer chromatography to obtain the base composition.
E. reassociation kinetics to determine the sequence complexity of DNA.

Ans: A

61. Attenuation is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT

A. direct physical interaction between the ribosome and RNA polymerase.
B. pausing of a ribosome in the leader peptide due to low levels of an operon-specific
charged tRNA.
C. no proteins other than those in ribosomes and RNA polymerase.
D. the formation of a stem loop structure in the nascent mRNA strand that acts as a
transcriptional terminator.

Ans: A

62. A cloned cDNA copy of beta-globin mRNA could direct the biosynthesis of a
complete and correct peptide in E. coli while the corresponding cloned chromosomal
gene could not because
A. bacterial polymerases can not transcribe intervening sequences.
B. intervening sequences contain codons that are not recognized by cellular tRNA.
C. bacteria do not have the enzymatic machinery necessary for splicing eukaryotic
mRNA precursors.
D. intervening sequences contain hairpin loops which block the progress of ribosomes
during translation.
E. bacterial protein processing machinery is not capable of processing the protein
precursor to its correct size.

Ans: C

63. Transgenic animals are defined as

A. Those that have been treated with a drug regimen.
B. Those that are bred for polymorphic alleles of one gene.
C. Clones derived by nuclear transfer.
D. Those that carry a foreign gene that was deliberately inserted into their genomes.
E. Those that are infected with a virus to test vaccine efficacy.

Ans: D

64. The Sanger method of nucleotide sequence determination involves

A. the activity of DNA polymerase
B. the use of chemical agents that modify DNA
C. the transfer of electrophoretically resolved DNA to a nitrocellulose filter.
D. the incorporation of poly dT the 3'-OH end of a DNA strand.

Ans: A

65. Restriction enzymes have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT that they cut
A. DNA sequence specifically.
B. each DNA strand separately.
C. palindromic sequences.
D. DNA using an exonuclease activity.

Ans: D

66. Which one of the following properties would make a plasmid an ineffective vehicle?
A. very small size
B. multiple copies are incorporated per cell
C. codes for the protein required for tetracycline resistance
D. contains three sites for the restriction endonuclease to be used

Ans: D

67. Eukaryotic genes coding for proteins usually have introns. The production of
recombinant eukaryotic proteins (insulin, for example) in bacteria does not necessarily
pose a problem because
A. bacteria possess the necessary enzymes to correctly process the primary transcript
containing intron sequences.
B. a cDNA copy of the mRNA can be cloned and expressed.
C. the protein synthetic machinery of the bacteria will only translate the exon portions of
the resulting RNA.
D. the translation of intron regions will not alter the activity of the protein if they are
removed by proteolytic processing.

Ans: B

68. Southern blots are used to analyze DNA that has been fractionated based on
difference in
A. length.
B. sequence.
C. GC content.
D. AT content.
E. density.

Ans: A

69. Which ONE of the following single stranded DNA molecules would be understood to
contain a palindrome in the double stranded state as this term has been defined for DNA
sequence arrangements?
A. ApTpGpCpCpGpTpAp
B. GpCpTpApTpGpApCp
C. ApTpGpCpTpApCpGp
D. GpTpCpApTpGpApCp

Ans: D

70. Transgenic mouse lines are useful for studies of human disease for all the following
reasons EXCEPT
A. Mice are physiologically similar to humans.
B. New diseases can be induced in mice for which there is no human counterpart yet.
C. They allow the study of polygenic disease.
D. Technology advances have increased the ability to create mouse models of human
disease.
E. A large reservoir of potential models exists in spontaneous or induced mutant loci.

Ans: B

71. Bacteria were infected with phages labeled with 35S and then whirled in a food
blender. Cells were then separated from the fluid medium supernatant. Which of the
following would be true?
A. No radioactivity would be detected in either cells or supernatant.
B. The radioactivity would be found in the progeny phage particles if infection of the
cells was allowed to continue.
C. The supernatant fluid would contain most of the radioactivity
D. The radioactivity would be found in the phage DNA within the infected cells

Ans: C

72. In constructing a genomic DNA library, limited digestion with a restriction enzyme
that recognizes and cuts a 4 base pair sequence
A. ensures that the DNA fragments being cloned are very small.
B. ensures that introns are separated from exons.
C. generates overlapping fragments of the genome.
D. separates repetitive sequences from unique sequences.

Ans: C

73. Construction of a plasmid containing a human beta globin cDNA may involve all of
the following EXCEPT
A. isolation of human beta globin mRNA.
B. use of poly dT as a primer for reverse transcriptase.
C. transcription with E. coli RNA polymerase.
D. homopolymer tailing of the cDNA and ligation of the tailed cDNA to the vector.

Ans: C

74. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) results in discrete length products because
A. Taq polymerase can only synthesize DNA of discrete size from any DNA template.
B. the reaction is terminated by denaturation at the same time following each round of
polymerization.
C. the primers are of discrete size.
D. of the exponential production of run-off products.
E. the template for amplification is always a specific cloned DNA fragment.

Ans: D

75. Jumping clones expedite chromosomal walking by generating inserts that

A. are compatible with YAC vectors.
B. contain non-contiguous but linearly related fragments.
C. can be amplified by the polymerase chain reaction.
D. contain unclonable sequences.

Ans: B

76. Restriction endonucleases

A. digest DNA duplex molecules from the 5'-OH ends.
B. attack only single stranded DNA.
C. have base sequence specificity.
D. randomly digest double stranded DNA molecules.
E. are not produced by bacteria.

Ans: C

77. Knockout mice are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

A. They contain null mutations in mouse genes.
B. They are generated by homologous recombination of a gene targeting vector in
embryonic stem cells.
C. The initial mice produced are chimeric.
D. The effects of the mutations are usually pleiotropic.
E. The mutations are usually lethal during the embryonic stage of development.

Ans: E

78. Which of the following would most likely be found in a recombinant plasmid
containing a copy of DNA from a human gene?
A. The entire protein coding sequence of the gene.
B. A sequence complementary to the 3' poly-A tail of the mRNA encoded by the gene.
C. The chromosome containing the gene.
D. A segment of intron DNA.

Ans: D

79. Reverse transcriptase has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT that it
A. is a viral DNA polymerase.
B. requires a primer.
C. uses either DNA or RNA as a template.
D. synthesizes both DNA and RNA.

Ans: D

80. Hybridization (Southern) analysis is best used to

A. compare polypeptide conformation.
B. prepare large, unilamellar lipid vesicles.
C. determine enzyme turnover numbers.
D. establish DNA sequence homologies.
E. investigate ribosome assembly.

Ans: D

81. Southern blotting is used for all of the following, EXCEPT

A. to determine restriction fragment sizes.
B. to detect deleted genes.
C. to detect gene rearrangements.
D. to measure mRNA size.

Ans: D

82. DNA libraries are constructed from

A. genomic DNA from specific tissues.
B. reverse transcribed cellular RNA.
C. reverse translated cellular proteins.
D. reverse transcriptase.
E. satellite DNA.

Ans: B

83. A nuclease is an enzyme which catalyzes

A. the synthesis of nucleotides from bases and sugar-phosphates.
B. the hydrolysis of nucleotides to nucleosides and inorganic phosphate.
C. the hydrolysis of cyclic AMP.
D. the synthesis of a polynucleotide chain from nucleotide units.
E. the hydrolysis of internucleotide linkages of a polynucleotide chain.

Ans: E

84. In general, PCR primers need to have which of the following characteristics?
A. Each primer needs to base-pair with a site on one of the two DNA strands.
B. The primers need to base-pair with each other.
C. Each primer needs to base-pair with two sites on each of the two DNA strands.
D. The two primers need to base-pair with sites that are repetitive in the genome.

Ans: A

85. Reverse transcriptase carries out all of the following activities except?
A. RNA directed DNA synthesis.
B. DNA directed DNA synthesis.
C. DNA directed RNA synthesis.
D. Hydrolysis of RNA.

Ans: C

86. Alternative splicing

A. gives rise to different arrangements of genomic DNA.
B. results in the production of distinct proteins having a number of domains in common.
C. requires different U1 snRNAs.
D. results from the actions of different RNases to degrade exon sequences.
E. involves different proteolytic processing events to generate different proteins.

Ans: B
87. Which of the following sequences would NOT be represented in a cDNA library?
A. promoter sequences
B. translation termination codons
C. polyadenylation signals
D. translation initiation codons

Ans: A

88. In the Sanger dideoxy method of DNA sequencing, the dideoxy analog
A. allows specific chemical cleavage of the DNA strand.
B. is a component of the primer.
C. causes termination of DNA synthesis.
D. cannot be utilized for DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase I.
E. lacks a 5' phosphate group.

Ans: C

89. M1749Which of the following is not always required for DNA blotting (Southern
hybridization)?
A. digestion of DNA with restriction endonucleases
B. separation of digested DNA by electrophoresis
C. amplification of DNA fragment by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D. hybridization with some kind of probe which contains regions of complementarity

Ans: C

90. One enzyme necessary for the genetic information of some RNA virus to be
incorporated into the chromosome of a host eukaryotic cells
A. viral polynucleotide RNA polymerase.
B. DNA-dependent-RNA polymerase.
C. DNA-dependent RNA ligase.
D. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
E. host cell RNA-DNA polymerase.

Ans: D

91. The severity of an inherited disease can depend on all of the following EXCEPT
A. the presence of a closely linked RFLP marker.
B. the genetic background of the individual.
C. environmental influences.
D. the nature of the mutation.

Ans: A

92. Attenuation is dependent upon all of the following EXCEPT:

A. direct physical interaction between the ribosome and RNA polymerase
B. pausing of a ribosome in the leader peptide due to low levels of an operon specific
charged tRNA
C. no proteins other than those in ribosomes and RNA polymerase
D. the formation of a stem loop structure in the nascent mRNA strand that acts as a
transcriptional terminator

Ans: A

93. Chromosome walking

A. finds overlapping cDNAs.
B. allows long contiguous regions of DNA to be isolated.
C. requires the synthesis of artificial chromosomes.
D. requires somatic cell hybridization.
E. involves the direct sequencing of genomic DNA.

Ans: B

94. Human reproductive cloning, therapeutic cloning, nuclear transfer and nuclear
transplantation are all variations of the same technique in which
A. in utero gene transfer is performed.
B. transgenes are microinjected into embryonic stem cells.
C. the nucleus of a somatic cell is introduced into the cytoplasm of an enucleated cell.
D. homologous recombination is used to achieve new traits.

Ans: C

95. All of the following statements about genetic engineering are correct EXCEPT
A. recipient strains of bacteria to be utilized for cloning of foreign DNA should have
mutated restriction enzyme systems.
B. recombinant plasmids are introduced into bacterial cells by transformation.
C. recombinant DNA clones containing eukaryotic DNA inserts can be made to
synthesize eukaryotic proteins in bacterial cells.
D. bacterial plasmid vectors replicate and lyse bacterial cells forming plaques.
E. DNA ligase is utilized to covalently join DNA molecules in the construction of
recombinant molecules.

Ans: D

96. Selection of a Yeast Artificial Chromosome (YAC) vector for the cloning of human
genomic DNA would greatly expedite
A. chromosomal walking.
B. efficient translation of human proteins.
C. expression screening.
D. differential screening.
Ans: A

97. The degree of homology between DNA from two organisms can most accurately be
determined by
A. base composition.
B. comparing melting curves.
C. density measurements.
D. hybridization.

Ans: D

98. The "penetrance" of an inherited disease refers to the

A. variation in phenotypes caused by differences in genetic background.
B. proportion of individuals with a particular mutation that expresses the disease
phenotype.
C. variation in phenotypes caused by different environmental factors.
D. tendency for the severity of the disease to increase over several generations.

Ans: B

99. Which of the following is required for constructing a cDNA library?

A. a genomic clone of the gene of interest.
B. Purified RNA polymerase
C. RNA_dependent DNA polymerase.
D. Antibody raised against the protein encoded by the mRNA of interest.

Ans: C

100. Each of the following statements concerning reverse transcriptase is true EXCEPT?
A. It has been found as a component of RNA tumor viruses.
B. It can use an RNA template for the synthesis of DNA.
C. It can be used for the construction of cDNA clones from mRNA.
D. It carries out the transcription of viral_specific mRNAs.
E. It can utilize phosphorylated AZT for nucleic acid synthesis.

Ans: D

101. Which stage in the process of gene cloning are the restriction endonucleases
utilized?
A. isolation of mRNA
B. synthesis of double-stranded cDNA
C. insertion of the cDNA into the vehicle
D. transformation
E. expression of the cDNA in the bacterial cell

Ans: C
Test Bank for Textbook of Biochemistry with Clinical Correlations 7th Edition Thomas M. Devl

102. Most human genes which are cloned in E. coli would not be expressed because
A. prokaryotes cannot translate mRNAs for eukaryotic proteins.
B. E. coli lacks the ability to splice mRNA precursors.
C. the genetic code is completely different in bacteria and humans.
D. bacteria lack the appropriate suppressor tRNAs for translation of a eukaryotic mRNA.
E. eukaryotic ribosomes cannot function in bacteria.

Ans: B

103. RFLP screening during a chromosomal walk would permit the identification of a
A. DNA interval deleted in unrelated individuals who suffer from the same genetic
disease.
B. point mutation in a gene that does not alter a restriction enzyme recognition sequence.
C. cDNA clone for the disease of interest.
D. clone expressing the mutant protein.

Ans: A

104. Reverse transcription refers to

A. DNA synthesis from an RNA template.
B. RNA synthesis from an RNA template.
C. protein synthesis.
D. movement of ribosomes along a messenger RNA.
E. modification of nucleic acid bases.

Ans: A

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