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Solved Examples WSE3701
Solved Examples WSE3701
SCHOOL OF ENGINEERING
CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT
SOLVED EXAMPLES
QUESTION
A closed loop water distribution network is shown in figure 1. The network has two loops
with pipes of length, L and diameters, D. Assume a friction coefficient λ of 0.072 for all
pipes. All pipes have a length of 200m and a diameter of 600mm.
3 3
0.22 m /s 0.020 m /s
A B
D C E
3
0.025 m /s
3 3
0.06 m /s X m /s
b)
Darcy Weisbach
c) ITERATION 1
Loop I Correcte
d flows
hf
DQ = exp
h f / Q
0,00075
4
Loop II
Pipe No. Flow(m3/ Diameter( Length(m) area velocit hf hf/Q Q1
s) m) y
BE 0,045 0,600 200,000 0,28 0,159 0,072 0,031 0,689 0,047
3
EC -0,020 0,600 200,000 0,28 -0,071 0,072 -0,006 0,306 -0,018
3
Loop I
d) Pipe No. Q1 V HF(New)
AB 0,1108 0,3919 6,5092
BC 0,0439 0,1555 1,0243
CD -0,0492 -0,1743 1,2869
DA -0,1092 -0,3866 6,3332
Loop II
Pipe No. Q1 V HF
BE 0,047 0,166 1,163
EC -0,018 -0,064 0,175
CB -0,044 -0,155 1,024
e) A 75 75
B A-hfAB 68,491
C B-HfBC 67,466
C A-hfAD- 67,380
hfDC
D A-hfAD 68,667
E C-hfCE 67,291
E B-hfBE 67,328
2
SOLVED QUESTIONS
QUESTION
2
(a) The head loss in a pipe can be expressed in the form hf = KQ . Two pipes having constants K1
and K2 are to be considered as a single equivalent pipe. Determine the value K3 of this single
pipe when the two are laid:
i. in series
ii. in parallel.
SOLUTION PART A
i. In series the flow is the same and total head loss is the sum of the two.
2 2 2 2 2
hf1 = k1Q hf2 = k2Q hf1 + hf2 = k3Q = k1Q + k2Q
Hence k3 = k1 + k2
ii. In parallel the friction heads are the same and the flows different.
2 1/2
hf = k1Q1 Q1 = (hf /k1)
2 1/2
hf = k2Q2 Q2 = (hf /k2)
2
hf = k3(Q1 + Q2)
h h 2 h 2h
hf k3 f f k3 f f
h
f
k k2 k 1 k kk
1
2 1 2
1 1 2
1 k3 k k
kk
1 2
1 2
k 1
3 1 1 2
k k kk
1 2 1 2
(b) When the flow rates are expressed in litres per second and the head losses in metres, K values
for the pipe systems shown are as given in the table. Under a particular set of inputs and
demands the network experienced the flow rates indicated.
determine the changed flows in the pipes. Make only two rounds of corrections to the initial
flows.
Pipe 1 2 4 5
2 2
K ms /l 0.000570 0.012118 0.001698 0.006946
(Pipe 3 has K = 0.000818 in question)
SOLUTION PART B
The problem must be solved as two loops with a common pipe 3. Start with loop 1 with the flows
shown. Data is shown for initial guess. Note clockwise flow is positive.
Starting data
First iteration loop 1 (pipes 1, 2 and 3)
PIPE K Q hf hf/Q
1 0.000570 204 23.7212 0.11628
2 0.012118 104 131.068 1.260
3 0.000818 -123 -12.376 0.1006
142.41.4772
h
δQ
∑ f
142.4
48.2 Correct all flows in loop 1 by subtracting 48.2
2∑hf /Q 2 x 1.4772
Second correction
Second iteration loop 1
PIPE K Q hf hf/Q
1 0.000570 155.8 13.8 0.0888
2 0.012118 55.8 37.7 0.676
3 0.003272 -222.4 -40.5 0.947
h 11.1 0.947
∑ f 11.1
δQ 5.9
2∑hf /Q 2 x 0.947
Correct all flows in loop 1 by subtracting 5.9
(a) Compare and contrast the following two iterative calculation methods for complex networks of
pipes.
(i) the head balance method (also known as the Hardy Cross or loop method).
(ii) the flow balance method (also known as the quantity balance or nodal method.
Explain briefly how and in what situation each of the methods may be used and state which of
the correction methods shown at the end of this question is used in which method.
∑Q/hf
The flow balance method is used for problems with multiple loops where the total head loss around
a given loop is zero. The correction factor to be used is
∆Q − ∑ f
h
2∑hf /Q
(b) Water is supplied from a large reservoir at A to a pipe network BCDE as shown, in the diagram.
The frictional resistances of the various pipes are given by the
K value in the table which may be used with the formula
2
hf = KQ to relate the magnitude of head loss hf in the pipeline
to the volumetric flow rate Q. Water is drawn at constant flow
rates from the network at nodes C and D. The static heads
(elevation + pressure head) at nodes B, C and D are 100m, 65m
and 61m respectively above the local datum. Calculate the
discharges at C and D and the water level in reservoir A. (The
data has been added to diagram to aid the solution)
Use no more than 3 iterations and 3 significant figures
TABLE
Pipeline AB BC CD 40 DE CE BE
K s2m5 4 110 25 25 35
h 2 ∆Q 2 x (0.219)
∑ f
∑Q/hf 1.686
0.26
0.549 + 0.191 + Qd = 0
3
Qd = -0.74 m /s
3
Total flow from the reservoir is 1.12 + 0.74 = 1.86 m /s
2 2
Head loss pipe AB is hf = kQ = 4 x 1.86 = 13.8 m
Head at entrance to pipe is 113.8 m
QUESTION
(a) A pipeline of diameter D = 0.5 m has a length L = 200 m, and the value of the Darcy friction λ
may be assumed to have a constant value of 0.024. The pipeline contains two fully open valves, the
2
local head loss at each of which is 0.2v /2g, and three bends at each of which the head loss is
2
0.5v /2g where V is the velocity of water in the pipe. Calculate the value of K in the expression h =
2
K Q relating the total head loss h to the flow Q through the pipeline.
SOLUTION part (a)
Note λ = 4Cf
2 2 2
4Cf Lv (0.024)(200)v 9.6v
Straight pipe hf 2gD 2g(0.5) 2g
2 2 2 2
9.6v 2(0.2)v 3(0.5)v 11.5v
Total for pipe line hf
2g 2g 2g 2g
v Q 4Q 5.093Q
2
A π(.5)
2
11.5(5.093)Q 2 2 5
hf 2.985Q hence K = 2.985 s /m
2g
(b) For a network of pipelines, such as that described in part (a), show that the flow correction term
in an iterative head balance calculation is given by
− ∑hf
∆Q 2∑hf /Q
SOLUTION part (b)
n 2
Starting with hf = K Q Normally n = 2 so hf = K Q
2
2KQ dQ 2
For a network we must total all the terms to give the total correction factor of ∆Q 2∑hf /Q
3
(c) The diagram shows two loops of a horizontal network with inflows and outflows in m /s. The K
values of the seven pipes are given in the table. The pressure head at node A is 25 m. Calculate the
flow rate through each pipe and the pressure head at each node. No more than two rounds of
iteration are required, and final values of pressure heads may be rounded to the nearest metre.
Pipe AB BC CD DE 20 BE EF AF
K (s2/m5) 2 2 20 10 10 10
The problem must be solved as two loops with a common pipe BE. First make a guess at the flow
rates. Bear in mind that the net flow is zero at all nodes.
PIPEK Q hf hf/Q
h
∑
BC 2 0.7 0.98 1.4
CD 20 0.2 0.8 4 f 0.002
DE 20 -0.3 -1.8 6 ∆Q− 2∑hf /Q − 2 x 11.869 −0.000083
BE 10 0.04688 0.021973 0.46875
Totals 0.001973 11.86875
Correct loop 2 The initial guess was so good that the correction is minor
Final solution is
Pipe AB BC CD DE BE EF AF
Q 1.75 0.7 0.2 -0.3 ±0.05 -0.75 -0.25
The characteristics of the 100 mm size pump, tested at 150 rad/s, are tabulated below.
3
Discharge 0 0.0076 0.0151 0.0226 0.0302 m /s
Head 43.9 46.1 43.9 34.2 14.6 m
Efficiency 0 48 66 66 45 %
(a) Determine which pump should be used, and the speed at which it should be driven, so that
maximum possible efficiency is obtained.
(b) If, temporarily, only the 125 mm pump is available, determine the speed of operation and
the input power from the motor, necessary to satisfy the head and discharge requirements.
By plotting the data for the 100 mm pump we can determine that the optimal point (for max
3
efficiency) is when Q = 0.0188 m /s and H = 40 m. The peak efficiency is 68%
3
For the 100 mm pump H = 40 m Q = 0.0188 m /s N = 150 rad/s
1/2
N Q1/2 150 x 0.0188
Ns 1 1
1.293 rad/s (12.34 rev/min)
3/4 3/4
H 40
For the required condition
1/2
1.293 N x 0.016 Hence N = 131 rad/s (1251 rev/min)
3/4
30.5
For the optimal size, remember that condition (1) is the optimal condition of the pump
and condition (2) is the actual operating conditions.
1/ 3
QN 0.016 x 150 1/ 3
D2 2 1
Equating Flow Coefficients we get D QN 1
1 1 2 0.0188 x 131
Equating head coefficients we get we get D2 N1 H2 150 30.5 1
D N
1 2 H
The 100 mm seems to be the best. 1 131 40
(b) 125 mm pump at the same speed
The larger pump must slower to obtain the same flow. First calculate the corresponding flow
and head for the 100 mm pump.
3
D2 125 3
For the same Flow coefficient Q 0.016 Q Q 1.953Q 1.953 x Q
2 1 D 1100 1 1
1
2 2
D2 125
For the same Head coefficient H 40H H 1.562H
2 1 D 1 100 1
1
3
Q1 0 0.0076 0.0151 0.0226 0.0302 m /s
H1 43.9 46.1 43.9 34.2 14.6 m
Efficiency 0 48 66 66 45 %
Q2 0 0.0148 0.0295 0.0441 0.059
H2 68.6 72 68.6 53.4 22.8
Plotting H2 and Q2 gives the curve shown. It is assumed that the efficiency is unchanged.
Q
HB
A B
For the case in hand let B be the values at the new speed and A the values at 150 rad/s
Q A 2 2
HA 30.5 119141QA
0.016
Calculate the flows at the new speed for the 125 mm pump.
Efficiency 0 48 66 66 45 %
QA 0 0.0148 0.0295 0.0441 0.059
HB 0 26 104
Plotting HB we get the result shown. We require the speed to produce operating point B for the
same size (125 mm).
From the Flow Coefficient between points A and B.
QB QA 3
NB DB 3 N A D A 3 QA = 0.025m /s and HA = 70 m
0.016 0.025
NB 150
NB = 96
rad/s
=7720 W