C. Accurate data information D.

Subject: Geography Presence of data retrieval service

8. Element which is used to measure how
Class: SS2
cold or hot weather is
Part 1: Objectives
A. wind B. precipitation C.
1. GIS uses the information from which of humidity D. temperature
the following sources? A. Non- spatial 9. Considering equator position, areas
information system B. Spatial having equatorial climate are
information system C. Global A. Longitudes 10°N and 10°S B.
information system D. Position Latitudes 15°N and 10°S
information system C. Longitudes 20°N and 20°S D.
2. Among the following ____________ can Latitudes 10°N and 10°S
be expressed as an example of 10. A chemical industry is not a cause of:
hardware component. A. Air pollution B. Noise pollution
A. Keyboard B. Arc GIS C. Auto C. Water pollution D. Nuclear
CAD D. Digitalization pollution
3. The human activity, among the 11. User can use GIS to make A. Complex
following, which causes maximum analyses only B. Display maps only
environmental pollution having regional C. Complex analyses and display
and global impacts, is: A. maps D. None of these
UrbanizationB. IndustrialisationC. 12. Volcanoes that erupt frequently are
AgricultureD. Mining known as
4. Production, transformation and use of A. Active volcanoes B. Dormant
energy are the major problems of: volcanoes C. Extinct volcanoes D.
A. Industrial activity B. Sustainable Instinct volcanoes
development C. Global warming 13. Mapmakers use GIS to A. Store
D. Acid rain geographic information B. Use
5. Which of the following formats can be geographic information
used for GIS output?A. DXF B. C. View geographic information D.
PDFC. GIF D. HTML Store, use and view geographic
6. Extraction of mineral and metal form information
the earth is: 14. Total number of people living in
A. Agriculture B. particular country or place is known as
Transportation C. Mining D. A. Natural activity B. Economic activity
Sustainable development C. Settlement D. Population
7. Which of the following acts a benefit of 15. Electronic waste is the adverse effect of:
GIS? A. Maintaining geo spatial A. Industry B. Agriculture C.
data B. Data sharing Housing D. Mining
16. Process in which water vapors are 25. Which of the following doesn’t
releases in air by leaves of plants is determine the capability of GIS?
called A. Defining a map B. Representing
A. Respiration B. cartographic feature C. Retrieving
Precipitation C. EvaporationD. data D. Transferring data
Transpiration 26. Data can be shared in the process of
17. Information in GIS is entered and stored GIS. A. TrueB. False
as: A. Panels B. Layers C. 27. Plants and trees that are grown in
Single panel D. Dual-panel specific areas while being undisturbed
18. Housing affects:A. NeighbourhoodB. by people is classified as
Energy consumptionC. Water A. Botany B. Physical geography C.
consumptionD. All of the above Human geography D. Natural
19. In the process of GIS, digitalization is vegetation
done for better output. A. TrueB. 28. Among the following, which do not
False come under the components of GIS?
20. Humans perspire when body A. Hardware B. Software C.
temperature is warm and Compiler D. Data
A. Precipitation is low B. 29. The maximum number of individuals
Precipitation is high C. Humidity is that can be supported by a given
high D. Humidity is low environment is called
21. Underground and open caste is the A. Biotic potential B. Carrying capacity
methods of: C. Environmental resistance D.
A. Agriculture B. Mining C. Population size
Housing D. Transportation 30. Element which is used to measure how
22. Tropical monsoon and equatorial cold or hot weather is
climate are kinds of A. wind B. precipitation C.
humidity D. temperature
A. Polar climate B. Temperate climate
C. Tropical climate D. Frontal
climate
23. Which among the following is not
Part 2: Theory
related to GIS software’s?
Answer ALL questions.
A. CAD B. Arc GIS C. Arc View
D. STAAD Pro
1. (a) Briefly define geo-referencing.
24. This is not the effect of transportation:
(b) List and briefly discuss 3 importance
A. Air emission B. Material
of geo-referencing.
consumption C. Solid waste
(c) List 5 sources of data. (5marks)
generationD. Acid mine drainage
2. (a) List and explain the hardware c) Lake Chad
components of GIS. d) River Nile
(b) List and explain the software 5. ____________are elevated upland
with extensive level surface and
components of GIS.
usually descending steeply to the
(c) Explain the concept human ware.
surrounding lowland
a) Island
(5marks) b) Lake
c) Plateaux
3. (a) List 7 steps in building human ware. d) Valleys
(b) Define remote sensing. 6. ____________ plateaux formed due
to the earth’s movement which
(c) Differentiate between GIS and
causes the uplift of some areas and
geographic data. the depression of others
(5marks) a) Tectonic
b) Volcanic
Subject: Geography c) Dissected
d) Residual
Class: SS 1
7. ____________ is an extensive area
Part 1: Objectives of gentle undulating land, usually a
1. Average weather condition of few metres above sea level
specific area over many years is a) Lowlands
called b) Lake
a) atmosphere c) Plateaux
b) climate d) Valleys
c) weather
d) relief 8. The average weather condition of
2. Element which is used to measure specific area over many years is
how cold or hot weather is called……..
a) wind a) atmosphere
b) precipitation b) climate
c) humidity c) weather
d) temperature d) relief
3. In air, amount of water vapor is
classified as 9. The desert encroaching the Sahel
a) wind region, including areas in Northern
b) precipitation Nigeria is the……… desert
c) humidity. a) Namib
d) temperature b) Sahara
4. The Futa djallon Plateau in Guinea is c) Nigeria
the source of the….. d) Chadian
a) River Niger 10. Soil erosion removes the ………….
b) River Benue a) fertile nutrients from the top soil
 b) trees from the forest without 16. Among the following ____________
replacement can be expressed as an example of
c) toxic substances from the hardware component.
environment
a) Keyboard
d) atmosphere from the
b) Arc GIS
environment
11. ____________is the zone of life c) Auto CAD
occupied by living organisms. It is d) Digitalization
where biological and chemical
activities occur Part 2: Theory
a) Ecosphere Answer any three questions.
b) Lithosphere
c) Atmosphere 1. (a) Name the instruments used to
d) Hydrosphere measure
12. Convert 500F to 0C i) Rainfall
a)10 0C ii) Humidity
b) 1000 C iii) Temperature
c) 85 0C iv) Wind (2 marks)
d) 32 0C c) Draw one of these instruments and
explain briefly how it is used (3 marks)
13. The instrument used for measuring d) Use the statistics in the table below to
Light intensity is called answer the questions that follows
____________ Mont J F M A M J J A S
(a) anemometer h
(b) barometer Temp 4 3 2 2 1 4 4 3 2
(c) galvanometer (0c) 0 5 0 5 5 0 5 5 5
(d) photometer
14. The instrument used for measuring
wind speed is the ____________ O N D
(a)anemometer 30 20 15
(b)barometer I) Draw a Divergence line graph to
(c)hydrometer represent the statistics
(d)rainguage II) Calculate the annual range of the
15. GIS uses the information from temperature
which of the following sources? III) State one other method of
a) Non- spatial information system showing the statistics above (5
b) Spatial information system marks) (Total- 10 marks)
c) Global information system
d) Position information system
2a) List two problems facing the
Environment (1 mark)
b) Differentiate between peneplain and
pediplain (1 marks)
ii) List one Plateau in North Central Nigeria
and list one feature about it (1 mark)
SUBJECT: BIOLOGYCLASS: SSS 1TIME: 1 HR
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions from this
session
OBJECTIVE TEST
1. The instrument used for measuring light
intensity is called (a) anemometer
(b)barometer (c)galvanometer
(d)photometer
2. The study of plants is called (a)botany
(b)ecology (c)parasitology (d)entomology
3. Which of the following is NOT a
characteristic of living things? (a)expansion
(b)feeding (c)growth (d)reproduction
4. The basic unit of classification is the (a)class
(b)genus (c)kingdom (d)species
5. Which of these animals is an invertebrate?
(a)Lizard (b)Rat (c)Starfish (d)Tilapia fish
6. The deficiency of vitamin D in the diet of
man leads to (a)anaemia (b)beri-beri
(c)pellagra (d)ricket
7. The instrument used for measuring wind
speed is the (a)anemometer (b)barometer
(c)hydrometer (d)rainguage
8. Which of the following is NOT a
monocotyledonous seed? (a)beans (b)maize
(c)millet (d)rice
9. Which of the following groups of plant is
the most advanced? (a)Bryophytes
(b)Pteridophytes (c)Schizophytes
(d)Spermatophytes
10. The following conditions are necessary for
photosynthesis except (a)carbon(iv)oxide
(b)chlorophyll (c)light energy (d) oxygen
11. Which of the following organisms carries
out photosynthesis? (a)Amoeba (b)Euglena
(c)Paramecium (d)Plasmodium
12. Land snails belong to the phylum
(a)Annelida (b)Echinodermata (c)Mollusca
(d)Arthropoda
13. Which of these is a water soluble vitamin?
(a)A (b) C (c)D (d) E
14. The mode of nutrition of mushroom is
(a)autotrophic (b)epiphytic (c)parasitic
(d)saprophytic
15. Carnassial teeth are found in (a)dog
(b)cow(c)goat (d)man
16. The deficiency of proteins in a developing
child results in (a)beriberi (b) kwashiokor
(c)night blindness (d)rickets
17. The following are characteristics of the
tropical rain forest EXCEPT ( a)abundant
grasses (b)high rainfall (c)low temperature
(d)abundant trees and shrubs
18. Which of the following is not a trace
element? (a)Boron (b)Copper (c)Iron
(d)Manganese
19. Which of the following modes of nutrition is
autotrophic? (a)Holophytic (b)Holozoic
(c)Parasitic (d)Saprophytic
20. The splitting of water molecules by light
during photosynthesis is called
(a)chemosynthesis (b)haemolysis
(c)hydrolysis (d)photolysis
21. Loamy soil is used for crop production
because of its (a)high humus content
(b)high percentage of clay (c)high porosity
(d)low humus content
22. The following biotic communities are found
in Nigeria except (a)afro-alphine (b)sahel
savanna (c)swamp (d)tropical rain forest
23. Which of the following is a biotic factor that
affects population? (a)Predator (b)salinity
(c)space (d)water
24. Which of these factors least affect
population size? (a)Availability of food
(b)Variation (c)Disease (d)Immigration
25. The following are procedures involved in
population studies except (a)counting the
number of organisms (b)dividing the
selected habitat into portions (c)feeding the
organisms (d)selecting the habitat
26. Which of the following is used for testing
the presence of protein in food?
(a)Benedict Solution (b)Fehling’s Solution
(c)Iodine Solution (d)Millon’s Reagent
27. The by-product of photosynthesis is
(a)carbon(iv)oxide (b)hydrogen (c)oxygen
(d)sugar
28. Which of these instruments is used for
measuring turbidity of water?
(a)Hygrometer (b)Quadrat (c)Rainguage
(d)Secchi disc
29. Which of the following belongs to the class
Pisces? (a)Dog (b)Lizard (c)Spider (d)Tilapia
30. The earliest form of life in animal kingdom
is the class (a)amphibian (b)aves
(c)mammalia (d)pisces
THEORY
1. (a)(i).Define ecology (2mks)
(ii).What are the two branches of ecology?
(1mks)
(b). Write explanatory notes on the following
terms:
(i)Hydrosphere (ii)Habitat (iii)Biome
(iv)Ecological niche (v)Population (5mks)
(c) List two characteristic features of the
tropical rainforest (2mks)

Subject: Biology
Class: SS2
Objectives Questions
1. Which of the following is not a function of the
mammalian skeleton? It A. gives the body its
shape B. provides a framework on which
internal organs are suspended C. protects soft
and delicate parts of the body D. provides
attachment for muscles E. contracts and
 relaxes to bring about movement. (W90,
N11)
2. Which of the following statements is not
correct about the functions of each group of
mammalian vertebrae? A. cervical vertebrae
supports the neck B. thoracic vertebrae
articulates with the ribs C. lumbar vertebrae
provide attachment for abdominal muscles D.
sacral vertebrae support the skull and allow
nodding and rotating movements. E. caudal
vertebrae support the tall and provide
attachment for tall muscles (W90, N14)
3. The following are functions of the skeleton
excepts A. providing support for the body B.
protection delicate internal organs C.
maintenance of the shape of the body D.
providing attachment for muscles E.
controlling growth rate in animals. (W91, N7)
4. The upper part of the trachea in mammals is
called A. palate B. epiglottis C. larynx. D. glottis
E. bronchus (W91, N11)
5. Which of the following structures functions as
an excretory system found in flatworm? A.
contractile vacuole B. nephridium C. flame
cell. D. malphigian tubule E. kidney (W93, N14)
6. Ultra-filtration in the kidney takes place in the
A. loop of henle B. renal vein C. bowman’s
capsule. D. pelvis E. pyramid (W93, N16)
7. Which of the following performs the same
function as the contractile vacuole of a
unicellular organism? A. kidney. B. alimentary
canal C. liver D. pancreas E. bladder (W94,
N20)
8. Reabsorption of the metabolic products along
the kidney tubules is made possible by the A.
closeness of the intestine to the kidney B.
convoluted nature of the tubules C. presence
of convoluted tubules in the medulla D.
presence of network of capillaries around the
convoluted tubules. E. joining of the main
collecting tubules to the kidney tubules (W95,
N17)
9. Ultra-filtration process at the bowman’s
capsule is facilitated by A. the volume of water
in the blood B. high concentration of urea in
the blood of the bowman’s capsule C. the
different blood pressure between the
glomerulus and the bowman’s capsule. D. the
different blood volume between the
glomerulus and the bowman’s capsule E.
heavy weight of the urea, glucose and amino
acids in the bowman’s capsule (W95, N60)
10. In which of the following groups is nephridium
found? A. crustaceans B. reptiles C. birds D.
mammals E. annelids. (W96, N15)
11. Which of the following organelles helps to
remove excess water from cells? A.
mitochondrion B. ribosome C. contractile
vacuole. D. golgi body E. nucleus (W97, N5)
12. The malphigian tubule plays major role in A.
inspiration B. digestion C. secretion D.
reproduction E. excretion. (W97, N13)
13. Flatworms are classified as A. Platyhelminthes
B. coelenterate C. annelida. D. nematode E.
arthropoda (W97, N31)
14. In which part of the kidney does ultra-
filtration take place? A. bowman’s capsule. B.
distal convoluted tubule C. proximal
convoluted tubule D. collecting duct E.
afferent arteriole (W98, N18)
15. Which of these is not a function of the kidney?
A. production of urine B. maintenance of acid-
base balance in the body C. osmo-regulation
D. removal of urea E. production of bile. (W98,
N17)
16. The first known scientist to classify living
organisms was (a) Robert Hooke (b) Carolus
Linnaeus. (c) Aristotle (d) Paul Matthew
17. Which of the following arrangements gives the
correct order of organization of life? I. System
II. Tissues III. cells IV. Organs (a) I, IV, II and
III (b) I, II, IV and III (c) III, IV and III (d) III, II, IV
and I.
18. Which of the following shows an organism
that has been named using the binomial
system? (a) bacterium (b) Rattusrattus. (c)
flowering plant (d) HIV
19. In the binomial system of naming organisms,
the second name is called the (a) scientific
name (b) specific name. (c) common name (d)
generic name
20. The basic unit of classification of living things
is the (a) class (b) genus (c) species. (d) phylum
21. During which of the following processes is
food for animals produced?
(a) respiration (b) nutrition (c)
photosynthesis. (d) digestion
 plants e.g. ? oxygen,
tannins carbon
stomata
?

3.a. define the term skeleton

(3
THEORY
marks)
Answer all the questions
b. state four importance of skeleton
1. (a). state four importance of excretion
(4
(4 marks)
marks)
(b). list four sexually transmitted diseases
c. list three types of skeleton
(2 marks)
(3
marks)
2. (a). define the term excretion
( 2 marks)
(b). Draw and complete this table
Organisms Excretor Waste
y organs product
s
(i) Protozoa Water,
e.g. ? carbon
amoeba dioxide
and
parameciu ?
m
(ii) Flat worms Water,
e.g. ? carbon
tapeworm dioxide

?
(iii) Round Water,
worms/ann ? Carbon
elids e.g. dioxide
earthworm
?
(iv) Insects e.g. Carbon
cockroach, ? dioxide
housefly , water

?
(v) Vertebrate Water,
e.g. ? carbon
mammals dioxide

?
(vi) Flowering Water,
 Subject: Chemistry
Class: SS2
Objectives:
1. Consider the reaction equation: H3O+(aq) +
OH-(aq) -------> 2H2O(l)
The reaction represents _____.
(a)esterification (b)hydrolysis
(c)neutralization (d)redox.
2. What is the unit for molar concentration?
(a)moldm-3 (b)mol-1 (c)g mol-1 (d)mol.
3. Rate of chemical reaction depends on the
following except ______. (a)rate at which gas is
evolved (b)rate at which products are formed
(c)rate at which colour of the reactions change
 (d)rate at which the materials are put into the
vessel.
4. The units of rate of chemical reaction is
_________.
(a)Mol dm-3 S-1 (b)Mol-1 S-1 (c)Mol-1 (d)S
-1
Mol
5. If 2g of zinc granules was reacted with excess
dilute HCl to evolve hydrogen gas which came
to completion after 5 minutes. Calculate the
rate of the chemical reaction in g hr-1. (a)48 g
hr-1 (b)12 g hr-1 (c)24 g hr-1 (d)240 g hr-1
6. For most irreversible reactions, __________.
(a)the reaction rate increases with time (b)the
reaction rate decreases with time (c)the rate
stabilizes with time (d)the rate produces a
curve with time.
7. Minimum or critical amount of energy required
before a chemical reaction could occur is called
___. (a)reaction energy (b)effective collision
(c)activation energy (d)activated complex.
8. In the titration of acid against base solutions,
averaging must involve _____________.
(a)rough reading (b)concordant reading
(c)higher reading (d)all the titres obtained.
9. Solution produced in the conical flask after
each titration (containing salt and water) is
called ______. (a)aliquot mixture
(b)titration mixture (c)salt mixture
(d)effluent mixture.
10. These are volumetric analysis tools except
_____________. (a)indicators
(b)deflagrating spoon (c)white background,
for example white tile (d)wash bottle.
11. A student may not carry out volumetric analysis
adequately because ____________. (a)he/she
is blind (b)he/she may not observe the end
point (c)he/she may not use the funnel
adequately (d)he/she may not carry out the
calculation adequately.
12. What is the S.I. unit for volume? (a)mol dm-3
(b)cm3 (c)g mol-1 (d)mol.
13. Reaction occurs when the colliding reactant
particles _________. (a)have energy less than
the energy barrier (b)have energy equal or
greater than that of the energy barrier
(c)have energy less than effective collision
(d)have energy greater than that of the
products.
14. These are factors affecting chemical reaction
except ____________. (a)surface area
(b)catalyst (c)nature of the reactants
(d)mass of the reactants.
15. What do we do to increase the surface area of
the reactants? (a)breaking them into chips
(b)subjecting the reactants to high pressure
(c)altering the direction of the reaction
(d)using reactants to different densities.
16. In the reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ‹-----Fe------------›
NH3(g) Why was finely divided iron used as
catalyst? (a)to increase the forward reaction
(b)to reduce the energy barrier (c)to increase
the surface area of reactants (d)to reduce the
time spent.
17. Temperature affects rate of reaction except
_______. (a)it increases the frequency of
collision (b)it burns the reactants with reckless
heating (c)it increases the kinetic energies of
the reactant (d)increases the number of
effective collisions of the reactants.
18. What factor is responsible for the following
reactions? I. decomposition of H2O2 II.
reaction between methane and chlorine
III. conversion of silver halides to grey metallic
silver (a)decomposition (b)light
(c)concentration (d)catalyst.
19. Catalyst ________________. (a)increases the
equilibrium constant of reactants (b)brings
about the energy barrier of reaction
(c)lowers the activation energy of reaction
(d)raises the energy barrier of reaction.
20. Which of the following factors does not affect
the rate of a chemical reaction between non-
gaseous reactants? (a)concentration of
 reactants (b)pressure (c)temperature I. Pressure II. Concentration III. Nature
(d)presence of catalyst. of reactants IV. Temperature.
21. What is the S.I. unit for molar mass? (a)mol (a)I and II only (b)II, III and IV only (c)I, II
dm-3 (b)mol-1 (c)g mol-1 (d)mol. and III only (d)I, II, III and IV.
22. Filing the burette for titration involves these 29. The quality of electricity required to discharge 1
except _________. (a)wash with water mole of univalent ion is ________.
(b)rinse with acid (c)eject air bubbles (a) 9600C (b) 48250C (c)96500C
(d)read at eye level. (d)193000C.
(d)metallic potential. 30. Which of the following substances is a non-
23. At which of the electrodes does oxidation electrolyte?
occur? (a)H2SO4 (b)CH3COOH (c)C6H12O6
(a)cathode (b)anode (c)electrolyte (d)half (d)NH4Cl.
electrode.
24. The following diagram illustrates the rate curve
that was obtained when Mg reacted with
excess dilute HCl.

The diagram became horizontal at X because

________. (a)the reaction was slowed down
(b)all the dilute HCl has reacted (c)all the Mg has
reacted (d)hydrogen gas is produced at a steady
rate.
25. Consider the following reaction equation:
CuO(s)+ H2(g) --------> Cu(s) + H2O(l)
Which substance is oxidized? (a)CuO (b)H2
(c)Cu (d)H2O.
26. The minimum amount of energy required for
effective collisions between reacting particles is
known as _______ energy. (a)activation
(b)bond (c)kinetic (d)potential.
27. Which of these apparatus can be used to
measure specific volume of a liquid accurately?
(a)beaker (b)conical flask (c)measuring
cylinder (d)pipette.
28. Which of the following factors will affect the
rate of the reaction represented by the
following equation? 2HCl(aq)+ CaCO3(s)
---- > CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
 Theory
1a. Two gaseous reactants A and B were placed in a
reaction vessel in a dim room. The reactions were
known to be photocatalytic. They react as shown:
A(g)+ B(g) ---------> C(s) + D(g)ΔH = -210KJ mol-
1
Describe the
effect on the rate of reaction when the conditions
are changed as follows: (i) The
pressure is halved. (ii) The temperature is
increased.
(iii) The reaction is conducted in a bright room.
(iv) The concentration of A is doubled.
b. (i) Define these terms: I. Molar solution and II.
Standard solution.
(ii) Mention the apparatus that is used for
preparing standard solution. [10marks]

2a. Define Rates of Chemical reaction.

b. List Four factors affecting rates of chemical
reactions.
c. What are these terms:
(i) Molecularity of a reaction (ii) Order of a
reaction (iii) Effective collision (iv)
Ineffective collision.
[10marks]

3. A is a solution containing 3.89 gdm-3 of

Hydrochloric acid. B is a solution of sodium
hydroxide. The equation of the reaction is:
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
(a) If the VA is 21.50cm and VB is 25.00cm3,
3

Calculate:
(i) the concentration of solution A in moldm-3.
(ii) the concentration of solution B in moldm-3.
(iii) the concentration of solution B in gdm-3.
b.(i). What is the final cleansing action done to the
burette before titration?
(ii)What is the role of an indicator is the
neutralization reaction?
[10marks]
 10. The atomic mass of an element is also known as
__. (a)atomic number (b)molar mass (c)nucleon
number (d)proton number.
Subject: Chemistry 11. A molecule of neon is _____. (a)diatomic
Class: SS1 (b)monoatomic (c)triatomic (d)polyatomic.
12. If the relative molecular mass of CH2O is 60,
Objectives: calculate its empirical formula. [ C = 12, H = 1, O
1. The negatively charged particle in an atom is =16 ] (a)CH2O (b)C2H4O2 (c)C3H6O3
the ______. (d)C4H8O4
(a)electron (b)neutron (c)positron 13. The percentage composition of oxygen in
(d)proton. (NH4)2SO4 is ________. (a)48.5% (b)45.8%
2. The compound formed between 3X and 9Y is (c)54.8% (d)85.4%.
____. (a)XY (b)X2Y (c)XY2 (d)X2Y3 14. How many protons does 4020Ca contain? (a)20
3. The number of oxygen molecules present in (b)30 (c)40 (d)60.
16.0g of the gas is _______. [Avogadro’s 15. The number of particles in one mole of a
constant = 6.02 x1023] (a)6.02 x 1022 chemical compound is the _____. (a)atomic
(b)6.02 x 1023 (c)3.01 x 1023 (d)1.51 x 1023 number (b)Avogadro’s number
4. An atom W has 17 electrons and 18 neutrons. (c)mass number (d)oxidation number.
Which of the following representations of the 16. The ratio of proton to neutron in an atom of
atom is correct? (a)1718W 35
17Cl is _____. (a)17 : 18 (b)18 : 17 (c)18 :
(b)1817W (c)3517W (d)3518W. 35 (d)35 : 17
5. The relative atomic mass of chlorine is not a 17. Determine the number of moles present in 1.5
whole number because _______. (a)it is the x 1020 electrons. [ Avogadro’s constant = 6.0 x
weighted average mass of all its various 1023 ] (a)5.0 x 10-4mole (b)2.5 x 10-4mole
isotopes (b)it is the average mass of all the (c)1.5 x 10-4mole (d)1.0 x 10-4mole.
isotopes of the element (c)the element 18. Naturally occurring boron is made up of 19.9%
has strong oxidizing ability (d)the atom 10
B and 80.1% 11B. Calculate the relative atomic
contains a higher number of neutrons than mass of natural boron. (a)10.08 (b)10.8
protons. (c)108.0 (d)1.08
6. What is the valency of the group II elements in 19. Which of these scientists discovered electrons?
the periodic table? (a)2 (b)3 (c)6 (d)0. (a)J. J. Thompson (b)Rutherford (c)Chadwick
7. How many atoms are contained in 1 mole of (d)Millikan.
hydrogen molecule? (a) 1.206 x 1023 (b)1.206 x 20. The electronic structure below shows that of
1024 (c)6.02 x 1023 (d)6.02 x 1024. ______.
8. If an atom of an element has Y protons, X
neutrons and Z electrons, its mass number is
____________. (a)X + Y (b) X + Z (c) X
+Y+Z (d)Y + Z.
(a)chlorine (b)nitrogen (c)calcium
9. A balanced chemical equation is based on the
(d)neon.
law of ____.
21. Which of these is the same in isotopes of an
(a) chemical equilibrium (b)conservation of
element? (a)mass number (b)number of
mass (c)definite proportion
(d)multiple proportion.
 neutrons (c)number of protons and
neutrons (d)atomic number.
22. Who discovered protons? (a)J. J. Thompson
(b)Rutherford (c)Chadwick (d)Millikan.
23. The positively charged particle in an atom is the
______. (a)electron (b)neutron (c)positron
(d)proton.
24. Which of the particles in an atom is neutral?
(a)electron (b)neutron (c)positron
(d)proton.
25. Which of the particles is not found in the
nucleus of an atom? (a)electron (b)neutron
(c)positron (d)proton.
26. How many electrons can the L shell in an atom
take? (a)2 (b)8 (c)18 (d)32.
27. The formula used to calculate the capacity of
electrons in the electron shells is _____.
(a)2n2 (b)3n2 (c)4n2 (d)5n2

Theory
1. Balance these chemical equations:
(a) KClO3(s) --------------› KCl(s) + O2(g)
(b) C(s) + H2O(g) --------------› CO(g) + H2(g)
(c) NH3(g) + O2(g) -------------› H2O(g) + N2(g)
(d) Cu2S(s) + O2(g) -----------› Cu2O(s) + SO2(g)
(e) CH4(g) + O2(g) -----------› CO2(g) + H2O(g)
1. Burette readings (initial and final) must be given
to two decimal places. Volume of pipette used
must also be recorded but no account of
experimental procedure is required. All
calculations must be done in your answer book.
A is a solution containing 0.875g of an acid HY
per 250dm3.
B contains 0.05moles of NaOH per dm3 of
solution.
(a)Put A into the burette and titrate it against
25.00cm3 portions of B using methyl orange as
indicator. Repeat the titration to obtain
consistent titres. Tabulate your burette
readings and calculate the average volume of
acid, A used.
The equation for the reaction involved in the
titration is:
HY(aq) + NaOH(aq) --------------› NaY(aq) +
H2O(l)
[ H = 1.00; O = 16.00; Na = 23.00 ]
[10marks]
(b) From your results and the information provided
above, calculate the:
(i) Concentration of solution A in gdm-3;
(ii) Concentration of A in moldm-3;
(iii) Molar mass of the acid HY.
[10marks]
2. Credit will be given for strict adherence to the
instructions, for observations precisely
recorded and for accurate inferences. All tests,
observations and inferences must be clearly
entered in your answer book, in ink, at the time
they are made.
You are provided a sample C which is a mixture
of two inorganic salts.
(a) Put all of C in a beaker and add about 10cm3 of
distilled water, stir and filter. Keep the filtrate
and the residue.
(b) Divide the filtrate into three portions.
(i) To the first portion, add NaOH solution in
drops and then in excess.
(ii) To the second portion, add aqueous
ammonia in drops and then in excess.
(iii) To the third portion, add about 2cm3 of
barium chloride solution followed by dilute HCl
in excess.
(c) (i) Put the residue in a test tube and add about
2cm3 dilute H2SO4, shake and warm.
(ii) Add aqueous ammonia in drops to mixture
from (c)(i) above, then in excess.
[20marks]
3a. (i) A gas S, with rotten egg smell was evolved
when dilute hydrochloric acid was added to T
which is a salt of iron
(ii). S decolourised acidified potassium
tetraoxomanganate (vii) solution and a yellow
precipitate, V was obtained. Identify S, T and V.
(ii) State what should be observed on bubbling
chlorine through a solution of potassium
bromide.
(b)(i) A salt sample was suspected to be either
Na2CO3 or NaHCO3. The student who was
required to identify it tested each portion for
solubility in water and then for its effect on
litmus paper. State what was observed in each
case.
(ii) Describe ONE method other than those
mentioned in (b) (i) above that could be used to
identify the salt sample.
[10marks]
 by 35 men in 3 days?(a) 49 metres(b) 36
metres(c) 52 metres(d) 42 metres
12. y is directly proportional to x², x = 2 and y = 20,
value of x when y = 1.25 is:
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.8

13. Q is directly proportional to √p and Q = 21

when p = 9, value of Q when p = 81 is
(a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 56 (d) 67

14. If 30 : 50 = 6 : x then value of x is (a) 20

(b) 30 (c) 10 (d) 50
Subject: Mathematics 15. 12 men, working 8 hours a day, complete a
Class: piece of work in 10 days. To complete the same
SS1 work in 8 days, working 15 hours a day, the
Part 1: Objectives
number of men required, is (a) 4(b) 5(c) 6(d)
1. If 1m of wire has a mass of xg, the mass of 25m
8
of the same wire is:(a) xg(b) (x+25)g (c) 25xg
16. 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days,
(d) 25g
working 5 hours a day. In how many days will
2. If V∝ Tand V = 6 when T = 2, the formula V and
30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete
T is: (a) V = 3T(b) V = 4T(c) V = 5T(d) V = 6T
the work? (a) 10(b) 13(c) 14(d) 15
3n
3. Given cosθ = ,θ is: (a) 64.620(b) 62.640(c) 17. If men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19
7n
26.460(d) 42.660 days then in how many days will 3 men and 6
4. Find the roots of the equation x2+12x – 28 = 0. women do the same work? (a) 12(b) 15(c)
The greater root is: (a) -14(b) 2(c) -2(d) 14 18(d) 21
5. If x varies inversely with y and x = 9 when y = 8, 18. Consider a right angle triangle PQR, if PQ is 27
and QR is 17 then value of angle P is
what is the value of x when y = 12?
(a) 32.19° (b) 45.19° (c)
(a) 6(b) 11 (c) 13(d) 7
6. The roots of the equation x2 + 4x + 4 = 0are: (a) 49.58° (d) 62.46°
0 and 2(b) -2 and2(c) -2 twice(d) -2 and0 19. Corporate office building is 50m high and angle
7. Solution set of equation x² - 4 = 0 is (a) {±4} of elevation at top of building is 52° when seen
(b) {4} (c) {±2} (d) {2} from a point on level ground. Distance between
8. Given (x + 3)(x – 5) = 0, then x is: (a) 2 or 5 point and foot of building is
(b) -5 or 3(c) -3 or 5(d) -5 or -3 (a) 21.35 m (b) 52 m (c) 25
9. If sinθ= cos 530, θ is: (a) 370(b) 1170(c) m (d) 31.25 m
3070(d) 2170
20. From top of mountain 68m high, angle of
10. If (2x + 3) is a factor of 6x2 + x – 12 = 0, then the
depression of two boats due east of it are 52°
other factor is:
and 26° respectively. Distance between the
(a) (x + 6)(b) (2x – 3)(c) (3x + 4) (d) (3x – 4)
ships is;(a) 58.28 m (b) 86.29 m (c) 68.29 m
11. If 20 men can build a wall 56 metres long in 6-
(d) 53.72 m
daysWhat length of a similar wall can be built
21. If cosX is 0.438 then value of angle X in a right
angle triangle is
 (a) 64.02° (b) 66.02°(c) 46.02° (d) 84.02°

22. Solution of a quadratic equation x²+ 5x - 6 = 0

(a) x = -1, x = 6(b) x = 1, x = - 6(c) x = 1(d) x = 6
23. If the roots of a quadratic equation are 20 and -
7, then find the equation?
(a)x2+13x - 140=0(b)x2 - 13x + 140 = 0(c)x2 - 13x
- 140 = 0(d)x2 + 13x + 140 = 0

Part 1: Theory
Answer Allquestions.
1. (a) Draw the graph of y = x2 + 2x – 2from x = -4 to
x = +2
(b) Hence find the approximate roots of x2 + 2x – 2
= 0.
(10marks)

(b) Factorize completely, the quadratic equation x2

– 6x +9 = 0.
(10marks)

3. (a) Solve the quadratic equation 63x = 49 + 18x2

using completing the square method.
(b) A boy walks 1260 m on a bearing of 1200. How
far south is he from the starting point?
(10marks)
 7 −7
4. If 12x – 5 = 9x - , find 10x. A. -5 B.
2 2
7
C. D. 5 E. 12
2
5. The sum of the 1st and 2nd terms of an A.P is 4
and the 10th term is 19. Find the sum of the 5th
and the 6th terms. A. 11 B. 20 C. 21 D.
22 E. 24
6. A string is 4.8m. A boy measured it to be
4.95m. Find the percentage error.
5
A. % B. 1516 % C. 3133 % D. 318 %
16
E. 15%
7. Solve 2x – 3 ¿ 5. A. x¿1 B. x ¿1 C. x¿2
D. x¿4 E. x ¿4
8. Evaluate log √5 125.
3 A. 3 B. 5 C. 6
D. 8 E. 9
Subject: Mathematics 9. If 2x + 3y = 19 and 8x = 11 + y, by how much is
Class: SS 2 Time:
7x greater than 2y?
1Hr
A. 1 B. 22 C. 32 D. 42 E. 52
Instruction: Answer all the questions in both
10. Evaluate (204.7)2 – (105.3)2 A. 99.4 B.
sections
308.14 C. 310 D. 3081.4 E. 30814
Section A 1 −1
1. Solve the equation (x + 2)(x – 7) = 0 11. Simplify 216 3 X 16 2 X (3-2)0 A. 24 B. 4

A. x = 1 or 8 B. x = -2 or 7 C. x = -4 or 5 D. – 3 3 1 1
C. D. E.
2 4 6
or 6 E. x = -5 or -2.
y−3 2 y −1
2. The nth term of the sequence -1, 5, -7, 17,……… 12. Given < , which of the following is
2 3
is given by
true?
n n n n
A. 2 B. -1 + (-2) C. -1 – 2 D. 1 + (-2)
A. y¿ 7 B. y ¿−7 C. y ¿−7 D. y <−7 E. y ≥ 7
n
E. 1 – 2 a−3 b
2 1 3
th 13. Simplify − A. B. 2 2
3. Find the 6 term of the G.P -3, 6, -12,…….. a+b a−b a+b a −b
A. -12288 B. -6144 C. -2048 D. 96 E. 37 3 a−b a−3 b a−2b
C. 2 2 D. 2 2 E. 2 3
a −b a +b a −b
14. A trader bought an engine for $15,000.00
outside Nigeria. If the exchange rate is $0.075
 to N1.00, how much did the engine cost in 2 1 x+1
21. Simplify: − . A. B.
1−x x x(1−x)
naira?
3 x−1 3 x +1 x−1
A. N250,000.00 B. N200,000.00 C. C. D. E.
x(1−x) x(1−x) x(1−x)
N150,000.00 D. N100,000.00 E. 4 x−2
N78,000.00 x(1−x)
15. Find the 7th term of the sequence: 2, 5, 10, 17, 22. If the 8th term of an AP is three times the 4th
26,..... A. 37 B. 48 C. 50 D. 63 E. 15 term, find the equation connecting a and d,
3 2 1 5 where a is the first term and d is the common
16. Simplify: ( − ) X 115 A. B. C.
4 3 60 72
difference.
1 1 7
D. 1 E. A. a + 2d = 0, B. a + d = 0 C. 3a + 4d = 0
10 10 30
n−1 n+1 D. 3a – 6d = 0 E. 2a + 3d = 0
3 X 27 2n
17. Simplify: . A. 3 B. 9 C.
81
n
23. Approximate to 3 sig. figures 0.000045993.
3
n
D. 3n +1 E. 3 A. 0.0000459 B. 0.00459 C. 0.0000460
18. Solve the following simultaneous equations: x + D. 0.00004599 E. 0.0000462
3 5 24. Find the product of 0.0409 and 0.0021 leaving
y= ; x – y = and use your result to find the
2 2
your answer in standard form.
1
value of 2y + x. A. -2 B. -1 C. D. 1 A. 8.6 X 10-6 B. 8.6 X 10-5 C. 8.6 X
2
104 D. 8.6 X 105 e. 8.6 X 109
E. 312
2
x −2 x x x
4 −3 25. Simplify . A. B. C.
19. The roots of a quadratic equation are and 2
x −4 2 x+2
3 7
x−2 x x+ 2
. Find the equation. D. E.
x+ 2 x−2 x−2
A. 21x2 – 19x -12 = 0B. 21x2 + 37x -12 = 0 C.
26. If log2(3x – 1) = 5, find x. A. 2.00 B. 3.67
21x2 – x + 12 = 0
C. 8.67 D. 11.00 E. 8.00
2 2
D. 21x – 7x - 4 = 0 E. 21x – 9x -14 = 0
27. The 1st term of an AP is 4 and the common
20. What is the common ratio between the terms
difference is 0.25, find the 9th term.
of the geometric progression -72, -24, -8,
A. 6 B. 62.5 C. 8.5 D. 8.25
2 1 1 E. 15
………….? A. -3 B. - C. - D.
3 3 3 28. The nth term of a sequence is given by 3 X 2n-2.
E. 3 Write down the first three terms of the
2 3
sequence. A. , 0, 6 B. , 3, 6
3 2
2 8 2 3 2 1
C. , 3, , D. , , 6 E. , 3, ,
3 3 3 4 3 3
 1
29. Evaluate log327 + log93 - log322. A. –
5
1
B. C. 3 D. 3310 E. 312
2

(15 marks)

Section B

5x 1 x
1. (a)Solve the following inequalities: (i) - ≤
8 6 3
7 1 1
+ (ii) (3x – 2) ¿ (x + 4) (5 marks)
24 2 3
(b) Show on a graph the region that contains the
solutions of the simultaneous
Inequalities
2x + 3y ¿6, y – 2x ≤2, y ≥ 0. (10 marks)

2. Find all the lettered angles

3. a) Draw the number lines to show the following

ranges of values of x. (i) -1 ≤ x ≤8
(ii) x≥ 8 or x ¿-5 (5 marks)
3x 5x
(b) Express 2 + as a single fraction.
x −1 x+1
(5 marks)