1. Consider the following statements with 2.

Consider the following statements with

reference to Composition of atmosphere: reference to Exosphere:
1. Nitrogen and oxygen make up nearly 1. Light gases like helium and hydrogen
99% of the clean, dry air. float into space from here.
2. Nitrogen is important for controlling 2. Temperature gradually increases
combustion by diluting oxygen. through the layer.
Which of the above statements is/are 3. This layer coincides with space.
correct?
Which of the above statements is/are
A. 1 only correct?
B. 2 only A. 1 and 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2 C. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Answer: D
Statement 1 is correct: Explanation:
• Nitrogen and oxygen make up nearly Statement 1 is correct: Light gases like helium
99% of the clean, dry air. The and hydrogen float into space from here.
remaining gases are mostly inert and Statement 2 is correct: Temperature gradually
constitute about 1% of the atmosphere. increases through the layer.
Statement 3 is correct: This layer coincides
• Besides these gases, large quantities of
with space.
water vapour and dust particles are
also present in the atmosphere. These Exosphere
solid and liquid particles are of great
• This is the uppermost layer of the
climatic significance.
atmosphere extending beyond the
Statement 2 is correct: ionosphere above a height of about 400
km.
• Nitrogen is important for controlling
combustion by diluting oxygen. • The air is extremely rarefied and the
Nitrogen accounts for 78% of total temperature gradually increases
atmospheric volume. through the layer.
• It is a relatively inert gas, and is an • Light gases like helium and hydrogen
important constituent of all organic float into space from here.
compounds. It also indirectly helps in
• Temperature gradually increases
oxidation of different kinds.
through the layer. (As it is exposed to
direct sunlight)
 • This layer coincides with space.
3. Which of the following Factors Affect
Temperature Distribution?
1. The Angle of Incidence
2. Transparency of Atmosphere
3. Prevailing Winds
4. Earth’s Distance from Sun
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
• The angle of incidenceThe angle of
incidence of the sun's rays decreases
from the equator to the poles.
• The temperature rises as the angle of
incidence rises. In the same way, the
lower the angle of incidence, the lower
the temperature.
• As a result, temperatures are greater
towards the tropics and lower towards
the poles.
Statement 2 is correct:
• Transparency of AtmosphereAerosols
(smoke, sooth), dust, water vapor,
clouds etc. affect transparency.
• If the wavelength (X) of the radiation is
more than the radius of the obstructing
particle (such as a gas), then scattering
of radiation takes place.
• If the wavelength is less than the
obstructing particle (such as a dust
particle), then total reflection takes
place.
• Absorption of solar radiation takes
place if the obstructing particles
happen to be water vapour, ozone
molecules, carbon dioxide molecules
or clouds.
• Most of the light received by earth is
scattered light.
Statement 3 is correct:
• Prevailing Winds transfer heat from
one latitude to another. They also help
in exchange of heat between land and
water bodies.
• The oceanic winds have the capacity to
take the moderating influence of the
sea to coastal areas – reflected in cool
summers and mild winters. This effect
is pronounced only on the windward
side (the side facing the ocean).
• The leeward side or the interiors do not
get the moderating effect of the sea,
and therefore experience extremes of
temperature
Statement 4 is correct:
• Earth’s Distance from Sun During its
revolution around the sun, the earth is
farthest from the sun (152 million km
on 4th July). This position of the earth
is called.
• On 3rd January, the earth is the nearest
to the sun (147 million km). This
position is called.
• Therefore, the annual insolation
 received by the earth on 3rd January is
slightly more than the amount
received on 4th July.
• However, the effect of this variation in
the solar output is masked by other
factors like the distribution of land and
sea and the atmospheric circulation.
• Hence, this variation in the solar
output does not have a great effect on
daily weather changes on the surface
of the earth.
4. The amount and intensity of solar
radiation received by the earth (insolation)
vary during a day, in a season and in a year.
The following are the factors that cause
these variations:
1. The rotation of the earth on its axis.
2. The angle of inclination of the rays of
the sun
3. The length of the day.
4. The transparency of the atmosphere,
5. The configuration of the land in terms
of its aspect.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 3 and 5 only
D. 1,2,3,4 and 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The amount and intensity of solar
radiation received by the earth
(insolation) vary during a day, in a
season and in a year. The following are
the factors that cause these variations:
• The rotation of the earth on its axis.
• The angle of inclination of the rays of
the sun
• The length of the day.
• The transparency of the atmosphere,
and
• The configuration of the land in terms
of its aspect.
• (The insolation depends more on the
first three factors)
Additional information:
The tilted position of the earth’s axis is known
as the inclination of the earth’s axis. The
earth’s rotation axis makes an angle of about
66.5° with the plane of its orbit around the sun
and this greatly influences the amount of
insolation received at different places.
The amount of insolation also depends on the
angle of inclination of the sun’s rays. The
higher the latitude the less is the angle they
make with the surface of the earth which
results in slant sun rays.
• The slant rays cover more area than the
vertical rays. When more area is
covered, the energy gets distributed
and the net energy received per area
decreases. Also, the slant rays have to
pass through a greater depth of the
atmosphere which results in more
absorption, diffusion and scattering.
• Before striking the earth’s surface, the
incoming solar radiation passes
through the atmosphere. The
atmosphere is largely transparent to
shortwave solar radiation.
• Water vapors, ozone and other gases
 present in the atmosphere absorb most
of the near-infrared radiations. Small
suspended particles in the troposphere
scatter the visible spectrum both to
space and towards the surface of the
earth.
• The blue colour of the sky and the red
colour of the rising and setting sun are
the results of the scattering of light
within the atmosphere.
Duration of the day varies from place
to place and season to season. It
decides the amount of insolation
received on the earth’s surface.
• The amount of solar radiation received
at the surface of the earth is more in the
tropics (about 320 watts/m²) and least
in the poles (70 watts/m²). The
subtropical deserts receive maximum
insolation as the atmosphere is more
transparent (least cloudiness). At the
same latitude, the insolation is more
over the continents than over the
oceans.
5. Consider the following statements with
respect to Heat budget of the Earth:
1. The surplus heat energy from the
tropics is redistributed towards the
pole.
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The surplus heat
energy from the tropics is redistributed pole
wards and as a result the tropics do not get
progressively heated up due to the
accumulation of excess heat or the high
latitudes get permanently frozen due to
excess deficit.
Statement 2 is correct: When 100% of solar
radiation reaches the earth’s atmosphere,
about 35% is reflected back to space even
before reaching the surface of the earth. The
reflected amount is called the albedo of the
earth. This amount of energy does not heat
either the earth or the atmosphere.
6. Consider the following statements with
reference to Sub-Polar Low-Pressure Belt:
1. During winter one of the distinct low
centre of the belt is between Iceland
and Greenland
2. Polar jet streams are produced here.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only

2. Roughly 35% of insolation are reflected C. Both 1 and 2

back to space even before reaching the D. Neither 1 nor 2
earth’s surface
Answer: C
Which of the statements given above is/are
Explanation:
correct?
Statement 1 is correct: During winter, because of a
A. 1 only
high contrast between land and sea, this belt is
B. 2 only broken into two distinct low centers – one in the
C. Both 1 and 2
vicinity of the Aleutian Islands and the other
between Iceland and Greenland.
Statement 2 is correct: During summer, a lesser
contrast results in a more developed and regular
belt. The area of contrast between cold and warm
air masses produces polar jet streams which
encircles the earth at 60 degrees latitudes and is
focused in these low-pressure areas.
7. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Inter-Tropical Convergence
Zone (ITCZ):
1. It is a zone where air tends to descend
2. In July, the ITCZ is located around the
monsoon trough.
3. In winter, the ITCZ moves southward
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Inter
Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a
low-pressure zone located at the
equator where trade winds converge,
and so, it is a zone where air tends to
ascend.
• Statement 2 is correct: In July, the
ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N
latitudes (over the Gangetic plain),
sometimes called the monsoon trough.
• Statement 3 is correct: In winter, the
ITCZ moves southward, and so the
reversal of winds from northeast to
south and southwest, takes place. They
are called northeast monsoons.
8. Which of the following belts is called
doldrums?
A. Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt
B. Sub-tropical High-Pressure Belts
C. Sub-polar low-Pressure Belts
D. Polar High-Pressure Belts
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt:
• The sun shines almost vertically on the
equator throughout the year.
• As a result, the air gets warm and rises
over the equatorial region and
produces equatorial low pressure.
This belt extends from the equator to
10º N and 10 º S latitudes.
• Due to excessive heating horizontal
movement of air is absent here and
only conventional currents are there.
• Therefore, this belt is called doldrums
(the zone of calm) due to virtual
absence of surface winds.
• These are the regions of convergence
because the winds flowing from sub-
tropical high-pressure belts converge
here.
• This belt is also known as-Inter
Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ).
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The velocity of winds is related to the
 direction in which they blow
2. In the northern hemisphere, the wind
blowing from the Horse latitudes to
the Doldrums is called Trade wind
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 s incorrect: The velocity of winds
is related to Pressure gradient in the direction
of their flow.
Statement 2 is correct: In the northern
hemisphere, the wind blowing from the
Horse latitudes to the Doldrums is called
Trade wind.
Additional Information:
• The horse latitudes are subtropical
regions known for calm winds and
little precipitation.
• The horse latitudes are located at about
30 degrees north and south of the
equator.
• It is common in this region of the
subtropics for winds to diverge and
either flow toward the poles (known as
the prevailing westerlies) or toward
the equator (known as the trade
winds).
• These diverging winds are the result of
an area of high pressure, which is
characterized by calm winds, sunny
skies, and little or no precipitation.
10. Consider the following statements:
1. Geostrophic flow result from a balance
between the Coriolis force and the
pressure gradient force
2. The wind movement around a low is
called anti-cyclonic circulation.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Geostrophic flow result
from a balance between the Coriolis force and
the pressure gradient force
Statement 2 is incorrect: The wind movement
around a low is called cyclonic circulation.
Around a high it is called anti-cyclonic
circulation. The direction of winds around
such systems changes according to their
location in different hemispheres.
11. Consider the statements regarding the
distribution of temperature on the earth
surface:
1. Highest temperature is recorded on
 the equator. D. All of the above
2. Low temperature is recorded on the Answer: D
adret side of the slope. Explanation:
3. With increase in height the Factors Affecting Temperature Distribution:
temperature decreases.
• Latitude: The temperature of the
Select the correct answer using the codes surface water decreases from the
given below: equator towards the poles because the
A. 3 only sun rays become more and more
inclined and hence the amount of
B. 1 and 2 only
insolation minimizes poleward.
C. 1 and 3 only
• Unequal Distribution of Land and
D. 1, 2 and 3 Water: The oceans in the northern
Answer: A hemisphere receive more heat because
Explanation: of their contact with the larger extent of
land than the equivalent parts in the
Statement 1 is incorrect: Maximum southern hemisphere.
temperature is not recorded on equator but
rather than on 20 degree north. • Prevailing Winds: The winds blowing
from the land towards the ocean drive
Statement 2 is incorrect: High temperature is
surface water away from the coasts
recorded on adret (sun side facing) slope.
resulting in an upwelling, in which
Statement 3 is correct: With increase in height deep cold water rises into the surface.
the temperature decreases due to normal
• Ocean Current: Warm Ocean current
lapse rate
increases the temperature in cold areas
whereas the cold current decreases the
12. Factors affecting the temperature of a temperature in the warm ocean. For
place on the earth surface are: example: in a gulf stream, a warmer
current increase the temperature of the
1. latitude of the place
Eastern coast of North America and
2. altitude of place the west coast of Europe.
3. nature of ground surface or slope • The Altitude: The atmosphere is
4. distance from the sea mostly heated by terrestrial radiation.
Therefore, the places near the earth's
5. prevailing winds
surface are warmer than the places
Select the correct answer using the codes away from the surface (at higher
given below: elevations).Hence, as the height
A. 1, 2 and 3 only increases from the earth surface, the
temperature goes on decreasing.
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
Nature of surface:
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
 Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
A. 1>3>4>2>5
B. 2>3>5>1>4
C. 1>4>3>2>5
D. 4>2>3>5>1
Answer: C

14. Consider the following statements with

• Other factors affecting the temperature
distribution are local weather
conditions like storms and cyclones.
13. Arrange the following surfaces in
decreasing order of their albedo (reflection
of incoming solar radiations)
1. snow / ice covered surfaces
reference to the temperature inversion:
1. It means increase in temperature with
increase in height
2. Mountain and valley breezes are
examples of temperature inversion.
3. Static air and snow-covered surfaces
are favourable for temperature
inversion.

2. thickly covered vegetation Which of the statements given above are

correct?
3. Grasslands
A. 1 and 2 only
4. barren / desert land
B. 2 and 3 only
5. ocean water
C. 1 and 3 only
 D. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 only
Answer: B C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 2 are correct:
Favorable Conditions for Temperature
Inversion are:
• Long winter nights
• Cloudless and clear sky
• Air drainage down the slope of the
mountains.
• Dry air near the ground surface
• Slow movement of air that reduces
mixing of heat in the lower layers of
the atmosphere.
• Ground surface covered with snow
that reflects insolation.

15. Which of the following conditions may

lead to the inversion of temperature?
16. Match the following:
1. A long winter night with cloudless
Sky. List 1 List 2

2. Air drainage down the slope of the A. Temperature falls 1. Ionosphere

mountains. with height
Select the correct answer using the code
B. Reflects radio waves 2. Stratosphere
given below:
back to the Earth
A. 1 only
 causing the water vapour to condense.
C. Contains most of the 3. Tropopause
ozone • This condensed vapour is dew.

D. Fall in temperature 4. Troposphere • On a cloudy night, the clouds send the

stops heat back to the ground so the ground
never gets cold enough for the dew to
Select the correct answer using the codes be formed.
given below:
• The dew formation is more when the
A. 4 2 1 3 sky is clear and less when it is cloudy.
B. 3 2 4 1 • When the sky is clear and the trees and
C. 4 1 2 3 plants are cooler at night, there is more
evaporation of water and hence there
D. 4 3 1 2 is less dew formation.
Explanation:
• But when it is cloudy, trees and plants
• Troposphere: temperature falls with do not get cool in the night and hence
height there is less dew formation.
• Tropopause: fall in temperature stops • As the sun rises high in the sky, these
dew drops evaporate into air.
• Stratosphere: contains most of the
ozone
• Ionosphere: reflects radio waves back 18. Consider the following statements with
to the earth reference to Convection Current Theory:
1. Arthur Holmes had discussed the
possibility of convection currents
17. Why are DEWDROPS not formed on a cloudy
operating in the mantle portion.
night?
2. Wherever rising limbs of these
A. Clouds absorb the radiation released
currents meet, trenches are formed on
from the Earth’s surface.
the seafloor and wherever the failing
B. Clouds reflect back the Earth’s limbs meet, oceanic ridges are formed.
radiation
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
C. The Earth’s surface would have low
A. 1 only
temperatures on cloudy nights.
B. 2 only
D. Clouds deflect the blowing wind to
ground level C. Both 1 and 2

Answer: B D. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Answer: A
Option B is correct: Explanation:

• The ground becomes much cooler, • Statement 1 is correct: Convectional

 Current Theory was given by Arthur
Holmes in the 1930s. It discussed the
possibility of convection currents
operating in the mantle portion These
currents are generated due to
radioactive elements causing thermal
differences in the mantle portion.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Wherever
rising limbs of these currents meet,
oceanic ridges are formed on the
seafloor and wherever the failing
limbs meet, trenches are formed.
19. Consider the following statements with
reference to Mid-Oceanic Ridges:
1. It is an interconnected chain of
mountain systems over the ocean.
2. It is the zone of intense volcanic
activity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
The mid-ocean ridge is an extensive underwater
mountain range resulting from the constantly
altering tectonic plates, heat, and magma emitted
from the earth’s core. This phenomenon has
occurred since the earth’s evolution, including its
land and water forms. They are formed due to the
continuous spread of the oceanic lithosphere, the
crust, and the upper mantle at the divergent plate
boundaries due to convection currents that lift the
ocean floor.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Mid- Oceanic
Ridge forms an interconnected chain of
mountain systems within (not over)
the ocean.
• Statement 2 is correct: Most volcanism
on the planet, including the formation
of volcanoes and volcanic eruptions,
occurs along the mid-ocean ridge,
where the new oceanic crust is born,
made of lavas and sediments.
20. Who among the following proposed the idea
of Seafloor Spreading?
A. David Henry
B. Harry Hess
C. Allen J. Scott
D. Alfred Wegener
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is correct:
• Sea-floor spreading — In the early
1960s, Princeton geologist Harry Hess
proposed the hypothesis of sea-floor
spreading, in which basaltic magma
from the mantle rises to create new
ocean floor at mid-ocean ridges.
• On each side of the ridge, sea floor
moves from the ridge towards the
deep-sea trenches, where it is
subducted and recycled back into the
mantle.
• A test of the hypothesis of sea-floor
spreading was provided by studies of
the Earth’s magnetism.
21. Which of the following is not an indirect
source of information about the Earth’s Interior?
 A. Seismic waves Explanation:
B. Meteorites Statement 1 is correct:
C. Gravitation • The gravitational force differs
according to the mass of material.
D. Volcanic eruption
Answer: D • The uneven distribution of mass of
material within the earth influences
Explanation: this value. Such a difference is called a
• Option D is correct: Mining, drilling gravity anomaly.
and volcanic eruption are examples of
• Gravity anomalies give us information
direct sources.
about the distribution of mass in the
Indirect Sources of information about the Earth’s crust of the earth.
Interior
Statement 2 is correct:
• Increase in pressure and temperature
• Meteorites and Earth are born from the
with depth
same nebular cloud. Thus, they are
• Seismic waves likely to have a similar internal
structure.
• Meteorites
• When meteoroids fall to earth, their
• Gravitation
outer layer is burnt during their fall
• Magnetic field due to extreme friction and the inner
core is exposed.

22. Consider the following statements with
reference to the indirect source of about the
Earth’s Interior:
1. Gravity anomalies give information
about the distribution of mass in the
crust of the earth.
2. Meteorites and Earth are born from the
same nebular cloud and thus are likely
to have a similar internal structure.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
• The heavy material composition of
their cores confirms the similar
composition of the inner core of the
earth.
23. Which of the following pairs of
discontinuities/ Transition Zones inside the earth
is/are incorrectly matched?
1. Conrad Discontinuity: Transition
zone between Outer mantle and Inner
mantle.
2. Mohorovicic
Discontinuity: Transition zone
between the Crust and Mantle.
3. Repetti Discontinuity: Transition
zone between upper and lower Crust.
 4. Gutenberg Discontinuity: Transition asthenosphere. It is in liquid state.
zone between Mantle and Core. D. The core is sometimes referred to as the
Select the correct answer using the code given Nife layer.
below:
Answer: C
A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
B. 3 and 4 only
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The lower
C. 1 and 3 only mantle extends beyond the
D. 2 and 4 only asthenosphere. It is in solid-state.

Answer: C Additional Information:

Explanation: • The lithosphere is the solid, outer part

of the Earth.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Conrad
Discontinuity: Transition zone • The lithosphere includes the brittle
between upper and lower Crust. upper portion of the mantle and the
crust, the outermost layers of Earth’s
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Repetti
structure.
Discontinuity: Transition zone
between Outer mantle and Inner • It is bounded by the atmosphere above
mantle. and the asthenosphere (another part of
the upper mantle) below.

25. Consider the following statements:

24. Which of the following statements 1. Wadati Benioff zone is a zone of
is incorrect? subduction along which earthquakes
A. Lithosphere includes the brittle upper are very rare.
portion of the mantle and the crust. 2. Usually, the most powerful
B. The upper portion of the mantle is earthquakes along convergent
called the asthenosphere. boundary occur along this zone.

C. The lower mantle extends beyond the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Wadati
Benioff zone is a zone of subduction
along which earthquakes are common.
• Statement 2 is correct: Wadati Benioff
zone is a zone of subduction along
which earthquakes are common. The
most powerful earthquakes occur
along this zone (most powerful
earthquakes occur along the
convergent boundary).
Additional information:
• Differential motion along the zone
produces numerous earthquakes, the
foci of which may be as deep as about
700 kilometers.
• Wadati–Benioff zones can be produced
by slip along the subduction thrust
fault (Himalayan Region – C-C
convergent boundary) or slip-on faults
within the downageing plate (O-O and
C-O convergent boundary).
26. Which of the following is not an example of
Acidic Rocks?
A. Granite
B. Quartz
C. Feldspar
D. Dolerite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Basalt, gabbro and dolerite are typical examples of
Basic Rocks.
Additional Information:
• Rocks can be categorized as Acidic,
intermediate or basic, depending on
the amount of the elements of silica,
SiO2, they contain.
• Acidic rocks such as granite,
microgranite and rhyolite are rich in
silica and contain the minerals quartz,
feldspar and biotite among others.
• Basic rocks such as gabbro, dolerite
and basalt are poor in silica and
contain the minerals olivine, pyroxene,
feldspar and/or quartz among others;
they are also rich in the metals
magnesium and iron and are often
described as “mafic”. The intermediate
rocks include diorite, microdiorite and
andesite.
27. Consider the following statements with
reference to Sedimentary rocks:
1. Ice deposited sedimentary rocks are
called tillite.
2. Wind-deposited sediments are called
loess.
3. Sandstone is an example of organically
formed sedimentary rock.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: unsorted
sedimentary rock with grains
deposited by ice is a tillite. The loose
sediment is called till in its unlithified
form
• Statement 2 is correct: Loess can be
defined as sediment that has been
entrained, transported, and deposited
by the wind and is dominated by silt-
sized (50–2 μm diameter) particles.
Most loess deposits are not composed
completely of silt, but also contain
measurable amounts of sand (> 50 μm)
and clay (< 2 μm).
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Sandstone is
an example of mechanically formed
sedimentary rock.
Additional Information:
Depending upon the mode of formation,
sedimentary rocks are classified into
• mechanically formed — sandstone,
conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess.
• organically formed — geyserite, chalk,
limestone, coal.
• chemically formed — limestone, halite,
potash.
28. Which of the following are causes of
Metamorphism?
1. Orogenic Movements
2. Lava Inflow
3. Geodynamic Forces
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct:
All are causes of Metamorphism.
• Orogenic (Mountain Building)
Movements: Such movements often
take place with an interplay of folding,
warping, and high temperatures.
These processes give existing rocks a
new appearance.
• Lava Inflow: The molten magmatic
material inside the earth’s crust brings
the surrounding rocks under the
influence of intense temperature
pressure and causes changes in them.
• Geodynamic Forces: The omnipresent
geodynamic forces such as plate
tectonics also play an important role in
metamorphism.
29. Which of the following statements with
reference to Caldera is incorrect?
A. Lake Toba is the most familiar
example.
B. A caldera is a large depression formed
when a volcano erupts and collapses.
C. Some calderas form a lake as the bowl-
shaped depression fills with water.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement A is correct: Due to their
 unstable environments, some crater
lakes exist only intermittently. Caldera
lakes, in contrast, can be quite large
and long-lasting For example, Lake
Toba (Indonesia) formed after its super
volcanic eruption around 75,000 years
ago. It is the largest crater lake in the
world.
• Statement B is correct: A caldera is a
large depression formed when a
volcano erupts and collapses. During a
volcanic eruption, magma present in
the magma chamber underneath the
volcano is expelled, often forcefully.
30. Consider the following pairs of Intrusive
igneous rocks and their forms:
1. Lopoliths: Wavy materials which have
a definite conduit to source beneath.
2. Phacolith: They are saucer-shaped,
concave to the sky.
3. Sills: These are near horizontal bodies
of the intrusive igneous rocks.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only

• Statement C is correct: Some calderas D. 2 only

form a lake as the bowl-shaped Answer: B
depression fills with water. A famous
Explanation:
example is Crater Lake, in Oregon.
This caldera formed about 7,000 years • Statement 1 is incorrect: Lopoliths:
ago when a stratovolcano, Mt. Mazama They are saucer-shaped, concave to the
violently erupted. sky.
Additional Information: • Statement 2 is incorrect: Phacolith:
Wavy materials which have a definite
• In some volcanoes, the magma
conduit to source beneath.
chamber below the surface may be
emptied after volcanic eruptions. • Statement 3 is correct: Sills form when
magma intrudes between the rock
• The volcanic material above the
layers, forming a horizontal or gently-
chamber collapses into the empty
dipping sheet of igneous rock.
magma chamber, and the collapsed
surface appears like a large cauldron- Additional Information:
like hollow (tub shaped) called the
caldera.
• When water from rain or melted snow
gets accumulated in the caldera, it
becomes a caldera lake (in general, the
caldera lakes are also called crater
lakes).
31. Consider the following pairs of volcanoes and
their characteristics:
1. Shield Volcanoes: These are
characterized by low-explosivity.
2. Caldera: They are characterized by the
eruption of cooler and more viscous
lavas than basalt.
3. Composite Volcanoes: These are the
most explosive of the earth’s
volcanoes.
4. Cinder Cone Volcanoes: These
volcanoes consist almost entirely of
loose, grainy cinders and almost no
lava.
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: A shield
volcano is a type of volcano named for
its low profile, resembling a warrior's
shield lying on the ground. It is formed
by the eruption of highly fluid lava,
which travels farther and forms
thinner flows than the more viscous
lava erupted from a stratovolcano.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Caldera:
These are the most explosive of the
earth’s volcanoes.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Composite
Volcanoes: They are characterized by
the eruption of cooler and more
viscous lavas than basalt.
• Statement 3 is correct: Cinder Cone
Volcanoes are small volcanoes. These
volcanoes consist almost entirely of
loose, grainy cinders and almost no
lava. They have very steep sides and
usually have a small crater on top.
32. Consider the following statements:
1. Continental Drift Theory - explains
the movement of Lithospheric plates
that include both Continents and
Oceans.
2. According to Plate tectonics -
Convection Currents in the mantle
drag crustal plates.
3. Continental Drift Theory - helped in
the evolution of Convection Current
theory and Seafloor Spreading theory.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Continental
Drift Theory explains the movement of
Continents only.

• Statement 2 is correct: Convection
currents drive the movement of
Earth's rigid tectonic plates in the
planet's fluid molten mantle. In places
where convection currents rise up
towards the crust's surface, tectonic
plates move away from each other in a
process known as seafloor spreading
• Statement 3 is correct: Continental
Drift Theory helped in the evolution of
Convection Current theory and
Seafloor Spreading theory.
33. Which of the following earthquake waves is
first recorded on the Seismograph?
A. P-waves
B. S-waves
C. Rayleigh waves
D. Love waves
Answer: A
Explanation:
• P waves are the first waves that are
detected by a seismograph. They are
the fastest seismic waves and can
travel through gases, liquids, or solids.
34. Which of the following statements
is incorrect?
A. Surface Waves are also called long
period waves because of their long
wavelength.
B. Love waves are the fastest surface
wave and move the ground from side-
to-side.
C. Most of the shaking and damage from
an earthquake is due to the Rayleigh
wave.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Option A is correct: Surface Waves are
also called long period waves because
of their long wavelength. They are
low–frequency transverse waves
(shear waves).
• Option B is correct: Love waves have a
horizontal motion that moves the
surface from side to side perpendicular
to the direction the wave is traveling.
Of the two surface waves, Love waves
move faster.
• Option C is correct: Rayleigh waves,
also called ground roll, travel like
ocean waves over the surface of the
Earth, moving the ground surface up
and down. They cause most of the
shaking at the ground surface during
an earthquake
35. Which of the following are true with regard
to Slip Strike earthquakes?
1. These occur when two plates slide
horizontally against one another
 causing deformities that occur in plates
distant from fault lines.
2. They can lead to inter-plate
earthquakes and cause a plate to break,
resulting in a new boundary and this,
in turn, can lead to even more quakes.
A. 2 only
B. Both 1 and 2
C. None of the above.
D. 1 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: strike-slip
earthquakes occur along slip strike
faults on which the two blocks slide
past one another. The San Andreas
Fault is an example of a right lateral
fault.
• Statement 2 is correct: They can lead
to inter-plate earthquakes and cause a
plate to break, resulting in a new
boundary and this, in turn, can lead to
even more quakes.
36. Consider the following statements:
1. Igneous rocks are also known as
primary rocks.
2. If magma cools slowly at great depths,
mineral grains formed in the rocks
may be very small.
3. The Deccan traps in the Indian
peninsular region are of basaltic origin.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Igneous rocks
are called Primary or Mother Rocks
because all other rocks are directly or
indirectly formed from them.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: If magma
cools slowly at great depths, mineral
grains formed in the rocks may be very
large.
o Such rocks are called intrusive rocks
or plutonic rocks (e.g. Granite).
o These rocks appear on the surface
only after being uplifted and
denuded.
• Statement 3 is correct: The flood basalt
province known as the Deccan Traps is
located on the Deccan Plateau in west-
central India and is one of the largest
volcanic provinces in the world. The
Deccan Plateau consists of more than
2000 m-thick succession of flat-lying
basalt lava flows and covers an area of
nearly 500 000 km2.
37. Which of the following statements
is incorrect with reference to Metamorphic Rocks
in India?
A. The gneisses and schists are commonly
found in the Himalayas.
B. Quartzite is a hard rock found over
Rajasthan.
C. Marble occurs near parts of Narmada
Valley in Madhya Pradesh.
 D. None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Option, A, B and C are correct:
Metamorphic Rocks in India
• The gneisses and schists are
commonly found in the Himalayas,
Assam, West Bengal, Bihar, Orissa,
Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
• Quartzite is a hard rock found over
Rajasthan, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh,
Tamil Nadu and areas surrounding
Delhi.
• Marble occurs near Alwar, Ajmer,
Jaipur, Jodhpur in Rajasthan and
parts of Narmada Valley in Madhya
Pradesh.
• Slate, which is used as a roofing
material and for writing in schools, is
found over Rewari (Haryana), Kangra
(Himachal Pradesh) and parts of Bihar.
• Graphite is found in Orissa and
Andhra Pradesh.
38. Which of the following are evidence to
continental drift theory?
1. Tillite deposits.
2. Placer Deposits.
3. Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans.
Select the correct code:
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
• All statements are correct.
Additional Information
• Evidence in Support of the Continental
Drift:
• The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-
Fit): The shorelines of Africa and South
America facing each other have a
remarkable and unmistakable match.
• Rocks of Same Age Across the
Oceans: The belt of ancient rocks of
2,000 million years from Brazil coast
matches with those from western
Africa.
• Tillite: It is the sedimentary rock
formed out of deposits of glaciers.
• The Gondawana system of sediments
from India is known to have its counter
parts in six different landmasses of the
Southern Hemisphere.
• Overall resemblance of the
Gondawana type sediments clearly
demonstrates that these landmasses
had remarkably similar histories.
• The occurrence of rich placer deposits
of gold in the Ghana coast and the
absolute absence of source rock in the
region is an amazing fact. The gold
bearing veins are in Brazil and it is
obvious that the gold deposits of the
Ghana are derived from the Brazil
plateau when the two continents lay
side by side.
39. Consider the following statements regarding
Ring of Fire:
 1. The Ring of Fire is a direct result of
plate tectonics/ movement and
collisions of lithospheric plates.
2. About 90%of the world's earthquakes
occur along the Ring of Fire.
3. Indonesia is the country of the Ring of
Fire volcanic belt and holds about 40%
of the world's geothermal reserves.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Ring of Fire (also known as the Rim of Fire or
the Circum-Pacific belt) is a major area in the basin
of the Pacific Ocean where many earthquakes and
volcanic eruptions occur.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Ring of Fire
is a direct result of plate tectonics: the
movement and collisions of
lithospheric plates, especially
subduction in the northern portion. It
is associated with a nearly continuous
series of oceanic trenches, volcanic
arcs, and volcanic belts and plate
movements.
• Statement 2 is correct: It has more
than 75% of the world's active and
dormant volcanoes. About 90% of the
world's earthquakes and about 81% of
the world's largest earthquakes occur
along the Ring of Fire.
• Statement 3 is correct: Indonesia is the
country of Ring of Fire volcanic belt
and holding about 40% of the world's
geothermal reserves. More than 200
volcanoes are located along Sumatra,
Java, Bali and the islands of eastern
part of Indonesia, which is known as
The Ring of Fire.
Source: GC Leong geography
40. Which of the statements mentioned below
is/are true about Mohorovicic discontinuity?
1. It is the boundary between Mantle and
the Core of the earth.
2. It is uniform across the surface of the
continents and below the seafloor.
Choose the correct answer using the codes from
below:
• 1 only
• 2 only
• 1 and 2 only
• Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect : Mohorovicic
discontinuity is boundary between
Earth’s crust and Mantle.
• Statement 2 is incorrect:It is not
uniform and it is depth of 30-50 km
below the continents and 5-10 km
below sea level in the ocean.
Additional Info:
• In geology the word "discontinuity" is
used for a surface at which seismic
waves change velocity.
• Mohorovicic Discontinuity occurs at
an average depth of about 8 kilometres
beneath the ocean basins and 32
 kilometres beneath continental
surfaces.
41. Consider the following statements with
reference to Jet Streams:
1. With the help of Jet Stream the
westbound flights usually take less
flying time than eastbound flights
2. The monsoon of South Asia is largely
affected and controlled by jet streams
3. The position of upper air tropospheric
jet streams above temperate cyclones
42. Which of the following statements is
makes the cyclones strong and stormy.
incorrect with reference to Jet Streams?
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Jet streams
play a major role in air travel.
Eastbound flights usually take less
Answer: A
flying time than westbound flights
because of help from the fast-moving
air. Jet streams can contain wind shear,
a violent and sudden change in wind
direction and speed, which is a major
threat in air travel. Wind shear has
caused airliners to suddenly lose
altitude, putting them in danger of
crashing. In 1988, the FAA decided that
all commercial aircraft must have
wind-shear warning systems, but it
wasn’t until 1996 that all airlines had
them on-board.
• Statement 2 is correct: The monsoon of
South Asia is largely affected and
controlled by jet streams
• Statement 3 is correct: The close
relationship between the intensity of
Mid-latitude cyclones and jet streams.
The cyclones become very strong and
stormy when the upper air
tropospheric jet streams are positioned
above temperate cyclones
A. Polar Front Jet Streams move in
easterly direction and are regular
B. Subtropical Westerly jet Streams are
also known as stratospheric subpolar
jet streams
C. Tropical Easterly jet streams play an
important role in Indian Monsoon
D. Polar Night Jet Streams develop in
winter season due to steep
temperature gradient in the
stratosphere around the poles
Option A is incorrect: Polar Front Jet Streams move
in easterly direction and are irregular.
Option B is correct: Subtropical Westerly jet
Streams are also known as stratospheric subpolar
jet streams.
Option C is correct: Tropical Easterly jet streams
play an important role in Indian Monsoon.
Option D is correct: Polar Night Jet Streams
develop in winter season due to steep temperature
gradient in the stratosphere around the poles.
Additional information:
• Types of jet Streams
• Polar front jet streams
• Subtropical Westerly Jet streams
• Tropical easterly Jet streams
• Polar night Jet Streams
• Local Jet Streams
Permanent jet streams – subtropical jets at
lower latitudes and polar front jets at mid
latitudes.
Temporary jet streams – Tropical Easterly Jet
or African Easterly Jet, and Somali Jet (south-
westerly).
Polar Front Jet Streams
• Formed above the convergence zone
(40-60 degree) of surface polar cold air
mass and tropical warm air mass.
• These move in easterly direction but
are irregular
Subtropical Westerly jet Streams
• Formed above 30-35 latitude
• Move-in upper troposphere to the
north of the subtropical surface high-
pressure belt
• Also known as stratospheric subpolar
jet streams.
Tropical Easterly jet streams
• Develop in upper troposphere above
surface easterly trade winds over India
and Africa during the summer season
due to intense heating of Tibetan
plateau and play an important role in
Indian Monsoon.
Polar Night Jet Streams
• Develop in winter season due to steep
temperature gradient in the
stratosphere around the poles.
Local Jet Streams
• Formed locally due to local thermal
and dynamic conditions and have
limited local importance.
43. Due to which of the following reasons
the unlike air masses on meeting do not
merge readily?
 1. Effect of the converging atmospheric Statement 1 is correct: The Earth’s major air masses
circulation originate in polar or subtropical latitudes.
2. Relatively low diffusion coefficient Statement 2 is correct: Areas with high pressure but
Low thermal conductivity little pressure difference are ideal source regions.
Select the correct answer using the codes Statement 3 is correct: There are no major source
given below: regions in the mid-latitudes as these regions are
A. 1 and 2 only dominated by cyclonic and other disturbances.

B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only 45. Which of the following is/are favorable
conditions for Tropical Cyclone Formation?
D. 1, 2 and 3
1. Large sea surface with a temperature
Answer: D higher than 27° C
When unlike air masses meet, the two air masses 2. Presence of the Coriolis force enough
don’t merge readily due to the effect of the to create a cyclonic vortex
converging atmospheric circulation, relatively low
diffusion coefficient, and low thermal 3. Small variations in the vertical wind
conductivity. speed
4. A pre-existing weak low-pressure area
or low-level-cyclonic circulation
44. Consider the following statements with
reference to Air Masses: 5. Upper divergence above the sea level
system
1. The Earth’s major air masses originate
in polar or subtropical latitudes. Select the correct code:

2. Areas with high pressure but little A. 1, 2 and 3 only

pressure difference are ideal source B. 4 and 5 only
regions.
C. 1, 4 and 5 only
3. There are no major source regions in
D. 1,2,3,4 and 5
the mid-latitudes as these regions are
dominated by cyclonic and other Answer: D
disturbances. • Conditions Favorable for Tropical
Which of the above statements is/are Cyclone Formation
correct? • Large sea surface with a temperature
A. 1 only higher than 27° C,

B. 2 and 3 only • Presence of the Coriolis force enough

to create a cyclonic vortex,
C. 3 only
• Small variations in the vertical wind
D. 1, 2 and 3
speed,
Answer: D
 • A pre-existing weak low-pressure area
or low-level-cyclonic circulation,
• Upper divergence above the sea level
system
46. Consider the following statements:
1. Tornadoes as well as cyclones both
occur in India.
2. Tornadoes of weak strength occur in
the north-western and north-eastern
region of India
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Statement 1 is correct: Tornadoes, as well as
cyclones both, occur in India. However, unlike
cyclones, the frequency of tornado outbreaks is
very low.
Statement 2 is correct: Cyclones originate in the
Bay of Bengal region as well as in the Arabian Sea
region whereas Tornadoes of weak strength occur
in the north-western and north-eastern region of
the country causing significant damage to man and
material.
47. Consider the following statements with
reference to Tropical Cyclones:
1. Tropical cyclones have symmetrical
elliptical shapes
2. Wind velocity, in a tropical cyclone, is
more in poleward margins than at
centre
3. Tropical cyclones follow a parabolic
path
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
• Statement 1 is correct: Tropical
cyclones have symmetrical elliptical
shapes (2:3 ratio of length and breadth)
with steep pressure gradients. They
have a compact size—80 km near
center, which may develop up to 300
km to 1500 km.
• Statement 2 is correct: Wind Velocity
and StrengthWind velocity, in a
tropical cyclone, is more in poleward
margins than at center and is moreover
oceans than over landmasses, which
are scattered with physical barriers.
The wind velocity may range from nil
to 1200 km per hour.
• Statement 3 is correct: Path of Tropical
CyclonesThese cyclones start with a
westward movement but turn
northwards around 20° latitude. They
turn further north-eastwards around
25° latitude, and then eastwards
around 30° latitude. They then lose
energy and subside.
Tropical cyclones follow a parabolic
path, their axis being parallel to the
isobars.
• Coriolis force or earth’s rotation,
easterly and westerly winds influence
the path of a tropical cyclone.
 • Tropical cyclones die at 30° latitude
because of cool ocean waters and
increasing wind shear due to
westerlies.
48. Consider the following points
regarding incoming and outgoing radiation from
the earth’s surface:
1. Incoming waves are shortwave whereas
outgoing waves are longwave radiation.
2. Shortwave radiation contains a lot of
energy whereas a long wave contains less
energy than shortwave radiation.
Which of the following points is correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Incoming waves are
shortwave whereas outgoing waves are longwave
radiation.
Statement 2 is correct: Shortwave radiation
(visible light) contains a lot of energy; longwave
radiation (infrared light) contains less energy than
shortwave radiation. The sun emits shortwave
radiation because it is extremely hot and has a lot
of energy to give off. Once in the Earth’s
atmosphere, clouds and the surface absorb the
solar energy. The ground heats up and re-emits
energy as long wave radiation in the form of
infrared rays. Earth emits long wave radiation
because Earth is cooler than the sun and has less
energy available to give off.
49. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Heat Budget of the Earth:
1. The surplus heat energy from the tropics is
redistributed towards the pole as tropics do
not get progressively heated up and high
latitudes get permanently frozen.
2. Roughly 55 percent of insolation is
reflected back to space even before
reaching the earth’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. None of these.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The surplus heat energy
from the tropics is redistributed pole wards and as
a result the tropics do not get progressively heated
up due to the accumulation of excess heat or the
high latitudes get permanently frozen due to
excess deficit.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Roughly 35 units are
reflected back to space even before reaching the
earth’s surface.
Additional Information
● Heat Budget of the Earth is the balance
between incoming solar insolation and
outgoing terrestrial radiation which
maintains the average annual temperature
of the earth at 15-degree Celsius.
● Solar energy received by earth’s surface is
called solar insolation.
50. Consider the following points
regarding isotherms:
1. It is a line connecting points having the
same temperature difference at a given
time or average of the time period given.
2. Isotherms run along the longitudes, but
they are not parallel to the longitudes.
Which of the following points is correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Isotherms - A line on a
map connecting points having the same
temperature at a given time or on average over a
given period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Isotherms run along the
latitudes, but they are not parallel to the latitudes.
Generally there and straight but bent at the
junction of continents and oceans. They take
sudden bends at land-water edges because of land-
water contact.
Additional information:
• Characteristics – Closely spaced
isotherms indicate Rapid rate of
change of temperature and vice versa.
Irregular in the Northern hemisphere
because of the large extent of
continents, but there are more regular
in the southern hemisphere due to over
dominance of oceans
51. Consider the following points
regarding Temperature inversion:
1. It is the reversal of normal behavior in
temperature in the stratosphere.
2. In this a layer of cool air at the surface is
overlain by a layer of warmer air.
Which of the following points is correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. None of the above.
D. All of the above.
Answer: - B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Temperature
Inversion, a reversal of the normal behaviour of
temperature in the troposphere (the region of the
atmosphere nearest the Earth’s surface).
Statement 2 is correct: In this, a layer of cool air at
the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air.
(Under normal conditions air temperature usually
decreases with height.)
52. With reference to Coriolis force, which of the
following is/are true?
1. In the southern hemisphere it deflects the
wind to the left.
2. The key to the Coriolis effect lies in Earth’s
rotation
3. The development of weather patterns, such
as cyclones and trade winds, are examples
of the impact of the Coriolis effect.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: - D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: It deflects the wind to the
right direction in the northern hemisphere and to
the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection
is more when the wind velocity is high.
Statement 2 is correct:
● The key to the Coriolis effect lies in Earth’s
rotation. Specifically, Earth rotates faster at
the Equator than it does at the poles.
● Earth is wider at the Equator, so to make a
rotation in one 24-hour period, equatorial
regions race nearly 1,600 kilometers (1,000
miles) per hour.
● Near the poles, Earth rotates at a sluggish
0.00008 kilometers (0.00005 miles) per hour.
Statement 3 is correct:
● The development of weather patterns, such
as cyclones and trade winds, are examples
of the impact of the Coriolis effect.
Cyclones are low-pressure systems that
suck air into their center, or “eye.”
● In the Northern Hemisphere, fluids from
high-pressure systems pass low-pressure
systems to their right.
● As air masses are pulled into cyclones from
all directions, they are deflected, and the
storm system—a hurricane—seems to
rotate counter-clockwise.
● In the Southern Hemisphere, currents are
deflected to the left. As a result, storm
systems seem to rotate clockwise.
● The pressure gradient force is
perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the
pressure gradient force, the more is the
velocity of the wind and the larger is the
deflection in the direction of wind.
53. Consider the following factors which affect
the wind velocity:
1. Pressure gradient force
2. Frictional force
3. Coriolis force
4. Gravitational pull of the earth
Which of the following points is correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. All of the above.
Answer: - A
Explanation:
While the first 3 are the factors of wind velocity but
gravitational pull of earth has nothing to do with
the wind velocity.
54. Which of the following is paired incorrectly?
A. Chinook – USA and Canada along
rockies
B. Foehn– Alps mountains in Switzerland
C. Harmattan – Dry winds in the the parts
of Atacama desert
D. Sirocco - Mediterranean wind that
comes from the Sahara
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Option c is correct: HARMATTAN The warm and
dry winds blowing from north-east and east to
west in the parts of Sahara Desert are called
Harmattan. These winds become extremely dry
because of their journey over the Sahara desert.
This is why Harmattan is known as "Doctor' in the
Guinea coastal area of western Africa.
55. Consider the following statements: (PYQ)
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern
Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone
is nearly 10°C less than that of the
surroundings.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Jet streams are high
altitude westerly wind system blows at a height of
6 to 14 km, with very high speed up to 450 km/hr
in wavy form at both hemispheres.
Statement 2 is correct: Centre of the cyclone is
called the Eye. The eye is a Calm region with no
rainfall and experiences highest temperature and
lowest pressure within the cyclonic system.
Statement 3 is incorrect: eye region is warmer and
not colder, hence statement is wrong.
56. Consider the following statements with
reference to air mass:
1. When the air remains over a homogenous
area for a sufficiently long time and it
acquires the characteristics of the area.
2. Maritime air masses contain high humidity
and produce a large amount of
precipitation whereas continental air
masses are dry and produce less amount of
precipitation.
Which of the following points is correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. None of the above.
Answer: - A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
● When the air remains over a homogenous
area for a sufficiently long time, it acquires
the characteristics of the area.
● The homogenous regions can be the vast
ocean surface or vast plains.
Statement 2 is correct:
● Maritime air masses contain high humidity
and produce a large amount of
precipitation. Continental air masses are
dry and produce less amount of
precipitation.
57. Consider the following statements
about temperate cyclones.
1. They are low-pressure systems with
associated cold fronts, warm fronts, and
occluded fronts.
2. These are more frequent in the northern
hemisphere, especially on the European
mainland.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
 B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
● The Extra-Tropical Cyclones are storm
systems emerging in the mid and high
latitudes, away from the tropics.
● They are low-pressure systems with
associated cold fronts, warm fronts, and
occluded fronts.
Statement 2 is incorrect: They are more frequent in
Southern Hemisphere.
Additional Information:
Characteristics of Temperate Cyclone (Extra-
Tropical Cyclones)
● These cyclones are formed along the polar
front.
● In the beginning, the front is stationary.
● Extra-tropical cyclones are also known as
mid-latitude storms or baroclinic storms.
● In the Northern hemisphere, cold air blows
from the north of the front and warm air
blows from the south.
● When the pressure descends along the
front, the cold air moves towards the south,
and the warm air moves northwards
setting in motion an anticlockwise cyclonic
circulation.
● The cyclonic circulation results in a well-
built extratropical cyclone, with a cold front
and a warm front.
● There are pockets of warm air compressed
between the forward and the rear cold air.
● The warm air climbs over the cold air and a
series of clouds appear over the sky ahead
of the warm front and cause rainfall.
● The cold front approaches the warm air
from behind and pushes the warm air up.
● As an outcome, cumulus clouds develop
along the cold front.
● The cold front moves faster than the warm
front, eventually surpassing the warm
front.
● The warm air is entirely lifted and the front
is occluded and the cyclone dissipates.
● They can originate over the land and sea
and cover a larger area.
58. Which of the following statements
is incorrect with reference to the difference
between Fog and Mist?
A. The difference between the mist and
fog is that fog contains more moisture
than mist.
B. Fogs are drier than mist and they are
prevalent where warm currents of air
come in contact with cold currents.
C. In mist visibility is more than one
kilometer but less than two kilometers.
D. In fog visibility is less than one
kilometer.
Answer: - A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The difference between
mist and fog is that mist contains more moisture
than fog.
Additional Information
● In mist each nucleus contains a thicker
layer of moisture.
 ● Mists are frequent over mountains as the
rising warm air up the slopes meets a cold
surface.
● Mist is also formed by water droplets, but
with less merging or coalescing. This
means mist is less dense and quicker to
dissipate.
59. Consider the following statement with
reference to Water Vapour:
1. It absorbs not only the long-wave terrestrial
radiation but also a part of the incoming
solar radiation.
2. On condensation, it releases latent heat of
condensation —the ultimate driving force
behind all storms.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: It absorbs not only the long-
wave terrestrial radiation (infrared or heat emitted
by the earth during nights) but also a part of the
incoming solar radiation.
Statement 2 is correct: Water vapor is the source of
precipitation and clouds. On condensation, it
releases latent heat of condensation —the ultimate
driving force behind all storms.
60. Consider the following statements:
1. The process of vertical heating of the
atmosphere is known as convection.
2. The convective transfer of energy is
confined only to the Mesosphere.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The air in contact with the
earth upsurges vertically on heating in the form of
currents and transfers the heat of the atmosphere.
This vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as
convection.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The convective transfer of
energy is confined only to the Troposphere.
61. A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called
Ionosphere facilitates radio communication.
Why? ( UPSC - 2011)
1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection
of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Due to the ability of
ionized atmospheric gases to refract high
frequency (HF, or shortwave) radio waves, the
ionosphere can reflect radio waves directed into
the sky back toward the Earth.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Radio waves have low
wavelength.
62. Which of the following statements
is incorrect with reference to Spatial Distribution
at the Earth’s Surface?
A. Equator receives comparatively more
insolation than the tropics.
B. Maximum insolation is received over
the subtropical desert.
C. At the same latitude, insolation is more
over the continent than over the
oceans.
D. None of the above.
Answer: - A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: the Equator receives
comparatively less insolation than the tropics.
63. Consider the following statements:
1. Normally temperature decreases with an
increase in elevation, called a normal Lapse
rate.
2. A long winter night with clear skies and
still air can have Inversion of temperature
i.e. temperature increases with an increase
in height.
3. Over polar areas temperature inversion is
normal throughout the year.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The lapse rate is the rate at
which an atmospheric variable, normally
temperature in Earth's atmosphere, falls with
altitude. For every 165 metre rise in altitude, the
temperature decreases by 1 degree Celsius. This is
called the normal lapse rate.
Statement 2 is correct: Inversion is usually of short
duration but quite common nonetheless. A long
winter night with clear skies and still air is an ideal
situation for inversion. As clouds trap heat it will
not favour temperature inversion.
Statement 3 is correct: Over polar areas,
temperature inversion is normal throughout the
year. This happens due to lack of sunlight in most
of the seasons which leads to loss of heat from the
surface. Even during the seasons when it is
exposed to sunlight, it loses maximum amount of
surface heat due to high albedo. This leads to a heat
deficit in the area leading to temperature inversion.
64. Consider the following statements: (PYQ
2008)
1. The albedo of an object determines its
visual brightness when viewed with
reflected light.
2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater
than the albedo of the Earth.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
● Albedo is the fraction of the incident
sunlight that is reflected from the
surface of an object.
● When an object reflects most of the light
that hits it and looks bright then it has a
high albedo. ex: Snow and ice have high
albedo.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Albedo of mercury and
the earth is 0.142 and 0.367 respectively.
65. Consider the following statements with
reference to Air Drainage:
1. The temperature inversion takes place in
hills and mountains due to air drainage.
2. Air Drainage protects plants from frost
damages.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The inversion takes place in
hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air at
the hills and mountains, produced during night,
flows under the influence of gravity. Being heavy
and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and
moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets
and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is
called air drainage.
Statement 2 is correct: Air Drainage protects
plants from frost damages.
66. The transport of heat from the equator
towards the poles by the atmosphere is known as:
A. Meridional transport of heat
B. Seridional transport of heat
C. Longitudinal heat balance
D. Heat balance transport system
Answer: - A
Explanation:
Meridional Transport of Heat
To balance the energy-rich and efficient areas it is
clear that there must be 2-way transfer heat from
• The Earth surface to the atmosphere
• The equator to the poles - This
transport of heat from the equator
towards the poles by the atmosphere is
known as meridional transport of heat.
The meridional transport of heat
energy in the form of sensible heat is
accomplished by the atmospheric
circulation and ocean currents.
67. In the middle latitudes, the circulation is that
of sinking cold air that comes from the poles and
the rising warm air that blows from the
subtropical high. At the surface these winds are
called westerlies and the cell is known as the?
A. Ferrel cell
B. Polar cell
C. Hadley cell
D. Walker cell
Answer: - A
Explanation:
 ● The Ferrel cell is the average motion of air
in the mid-latitudes.occurs at higher
latitudes (between 30 degrees and 60
degrees N and 30 degrees and 60 degrees S.
● In the Ferrel cell, air flows poleward and
eastward near the surface and equatorward
and westward at higher altitudes; this
movement is the reverse of the airflow in
the Hadley cell. The Ferrel Cell plays a
major part in the poleward energy (mainly
heat) transport.
68. Which of the following is not a Cold wind?
A. Pampero
B. Bora
C. Mistral
D. Zonda
Answer: - D
Zonda is a warm wind.
Additional Information:
● The pampero is a burst of cold polar air
from the west, southwest, or south on the
pampas in the south of Brazil, Argentina,
Uruguay, Paraguay and Bolivia
● bora, originally defined as a very strong
cold wind that blows from the northeast
onto the Adriatic region of Italy, Slovenia,
and Croatia.
● The mistral is a strong, cold, northwesterly
wind that blows from southern France into
the Gulf of Lion in the northern
Mediterranean.
69. What causes wind to deflect towards the left
in the Southern hemisphere? (PYQ 2010)
A. Temperature
B. Magnetic field
C. Rotation of the Earth
D. Pressure
Answer: - C
Explanation: Because the Earth rotates on its axis,
circulating air is deflected toward the right in the
Northern Hemisphere and toward the left in the
Southern Hemisphere. This deflection is called the
Coriolis effect.
70. When two different air masses meet, the
boundary zone between them is called a front.
Choose the Incorrect statements in context with
the same:
1. When the cold air moves towards the warm
air mass, its contact zone is called the cold
front.
2. If the warm air mass moves towards the
cold air mass, the contact zone is a warm
front.
3. The fronts occur in upper latitudes and are
characterized by steep gradients in
temperature and pressure.
 4. They bring abrupt changes in temperature
and cause the air to rise to form clouds and
cause precipitation.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 4 only
Answer: - C
Statement c is incorrect: The fronts occur in
middle latitudes and are characterized by steep
gradients in temperature and pressure.
• Fronts: When two different air masses
meet, the boundary zone between
them is called a front.
• When two different air masses meet,
the boundary zone between them is
called a front.
• The process of formation of the fronts
is known as frontogenesis.
• There are four types of fronts: (a) Cold;
(b) Warm; (c) Stationary; (d) Occluded
.
• When the front remains stationary, it is
called a stationary front.
• When the cold air moves towards the
warm air mass, its contact zone is
called the cold front, whereas if the
warm air mass moves towards the cold
air mass, the contact zone is a warm
front.
• If an air mass is fully lifted above the
land surface, it is called the occluded
front.
• They bring abrupt changes in
temperature and cause the air to rise to
form clouds and cause precipitation.
71. Which of the following statements is incorrect
with reference to the Cold Front?
1. The weather along such a front depends on
a narrow band of cloudiness and
precipitation.
2. Such fronts cause moderate to gentle
precipitation over a large area, over several
hours.
3. Cirrostratus clouds ahead of the cold front
create a halo around the sun and moon.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Answer: - B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A cold front commonly
brings a narrow band of precipitation that follows
along the leading edge of the cold front. These
bands of precipitation are often very strong, and
can bring severe thunderstorms, hailstorms, snow
squalls, and/or tornadoes.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: These statements
talk about a warm front. Weather along a warm
front:
• As the warm air moves up the slope, it
condenses and causes precipitation
but, unlike a cold front, the
temperature and wind direction
changes are gradual.
• Such fronts cause moderate to gentle
precipitation over a large area, over
several hours.
 • The passage of the warm front is rainfall and experiences highest temperature and
marked by a rise in temperature, lowest pressure within the cyclonic system.
pressure, and change in weather. Statement 3 is incorrect: eye region is warmer and
Clouds along a warm front not colder, hence statement is wrong.
• With the approach, the hierarchy of
clouds is—-cirrus, stratus and nimbus. 73. Which of the following Regional names for
[No cumulonimbus clouds as the Tropical Cyclones is incorrectly matched?
gradient is gentle]
1. Indian Ocean: cyclone
• Cirrostratus clouds ahead of the warm
front create a halo around the sun and 2. Atlantic: Hurricane
moon. 3. Western Australia: Typhoons
Select the correct code:
72. Consider the following statements: (PYQ A. 1 only
2020)
B. 1 and 2 only
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern
C. 3 only
Hemisphere only.
D. 2 and 3 only
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
Answer: - C
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone
is nearly 10°C less than that of the Explanation:
surroundings.
What they are
Regions
Which of the statements given above is/are called
correct?
Indian Ocean Cyclones
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only Atlantic Hurricanes

C. 2 only Western Pacific and

Typhoons
D. 1 and 3 only South China Sea

Answer: - C Western Australia Willy-willies

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Jet streams are high
altitude westerly wind system blows at a height of 74. Which of the following characteristics of
Temperate Cyclones is incorrect?
6 to 14 km, with very high speed up to 450 km/hr
in wavy form at both hemispheres. A. The temperate cyclones are
asymmetrical and shaped like an
Statement 2 is correct: Centre of the cyclone is
inverted ‘V’.
called the Eye. The eye is a Calm region with no
B. They stretch over 500 to 600 km.
 C. The wind strength is more over Europe
compared to North America.
D. None of the above.
Answer: - C
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: The wind strength is more
in eastern and southern portions, moreover North
America compared to Europe.
Additional Information:
● The temperate cyclones are asymmetrical
and inverted 'V-shaped. They cover a
distance of 500 to 600 kilometres.
● They may cover a distance of 2500
kilometres throughout North America
(Polar Vortex). They range in height from 8
to 11 kilometres.
75. Which of the following is not a characteristic
of Equatorial Climate?
A. There is no winter.
B. The diurnal range of temperature is
small, but the annual range of
temperature is high.
C. The double rainfall peaks coinciding
with the equinoxes are a characteristic
feature of equatorial climates not
found in any other type of climate.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The diurnal range of
temperature is small, and so is the annual range.
Additional Info:
Equatorial Climate
● Dominated by Maritime Tropical air
masses.
● Temperature is uniform throughout the
year.
● The mean monthly temperatures are
always around 27° C with very little
variation.
● There is no winter. [Typical to Equatorial
Rainforest Climate.
● Cloudiness and heavy precipitation
moderate the daily temperature.
● Regular land and sea breezes assist in
maintaining a truly equable climate.
● The diurnal range of temperature is small,
and so is the annual range.
Precipitation
● Precipitation is heavy and well distributed
throughout the year.
● Annual average is always above 150 cm. In
some regions the annual average may be as
high as 250 – 300 cm.
● There is no month without rain (distinct
dry season is absent). The monthly average
is above 6 cm most of the time.
● There are two periods of maximum rainfall,
April and October. [shortly after the
equinox]. Least rainfall occurs in June and
December [solstice].
● The double rainfall peaks coinciding with
the equinoxes are a characteristic feature of
equatorial climates not found in any other
type of climate.
● There is much evaporation and convection
air currents are set up, followed by heavy
thunderstorms in the afternoons.
This climate is characterized by cold, dry winters
 and warm, wet summers. Winter
temperatures are below freezing-point and
snowfall is quite natural. Summers are as
warm as the tropics. Rainfall occurs
throughout the year with summer maxima.
Dry Westerlies that blow from continental
interiors dominate winters.
76. The above statements are with reference to
which of the following Climate?
A. Laurentian Climate
B. China Type Climate
C. British Type Climate
D. Mediterranean Climate
Answer: A
Explanation:
Laurentian Climate is characterized by cold, dry
winters and warm, wet summers. Winter
temperatures are below freezing-point and
snowfall is quite natural. Summers are as warm as
the tropics. Rainfall occurs throughout the year
with summer maxima. Dry Westerlies that blow
from continental interiors dominate winters.
Additional Info:
● The Cool Temperate Eastern Margin
(Laurentian) Climate is an intermediate
type of climate between the British and the
Siberian type of climate.
● It has features of both the maritime and the
continental climates.
● The Laurentian type of climate is found
only in two regions. One is north-eastern
North America, including eastern Canada,
north-east U.S.A., (i.e. Maritime Provinces
and the New England states), and
Newfoundland. This may be referred to as
the North American region.
● The other region is the eastern coastlands of
Asia, including
eastern Siberia, North China, Manchuria,
Korea and northern Japan. It may be
referred to as the Asiatic region. In the
southern hemisphere, this climatic type is
absent because only a small section of the
southern continents extends south of the
latitude of 40° S.
77. Which of the following statements best
describes ‘Doldrums’?
A. The northeast and southeast trade
winds meet there; this meeting causes
air uplift and often produces clusters of
convective thunderstorms.
B. The specific position of doldrums is
fixed and does not vary seasonally.
C. Tropical region in Indian ocean where
cyclones often originate.
D. Frigid zone of the earth where there is
little atmospheric circulation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement A is correct: The northeast and
southeast trade winds meet there; this meeting
causes air uplift and often produces clusters of
convective thunderstorms.
Additional Information
● Doldrums, also called equatorial calms,
equatorial regions of light ocean currents
and winds within the intertropical
convergence zone (ITCZ), a belt of
converging winds and rising air encircling
Earth near the Equator.
● They occur along the Equator in the Indian
and western Pacific oceans and slightly
 north of the Equator off the African and
Central American west coasts.
78. Consider the following statements:
1. The pressure gradient is weak where the
isobars are close to each other and is strong
where the isobars are apart.
2. The rate of change of pressure with respect
to distance is the pressure gradient.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 both
D. None of the above.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The pressure gradient is
strong where the isobars are close to each other and
is weak where the isobars are apart.
Statement 2 is correct”
● The difference in atmospheric pressure
produces a force.
● The rate of change of pressure with
respect to distance is the pressure
gradient.
● The pressure gradient is strong where the
isobars are close to each other and is weak
where the isobars are apart.
79. Consider the following statement
with reference to Sedimentary Rocks:
1. They are stratified
2. They are fossiliferous
3. These rocks are non- porous
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
Sedimentary rocks are formed by lithification
― consolidation and compaction of
sediments.
Hence, they are layered or stratified
of varying thickness. Example: sandstone,
shale etc.
Sediments are a result of
denudation (weathering and erosion) of all
types of rocks.
These types of rocks cover 75 per cent of the
earth’s crust but volumetrically occupy only 5
per cent (because they are available only in
the upper part of the crust).
• Ice deposited sedimentary rocks
are called till or tillite. Wind-
deposited sediments are called loess.
• Statement 1 is correct: They are
stratified ― consist of many layers or
strata. They hold the most informative
geological records due to the marks
left behind by various
geophysical (weather patterns, wind
and water flow) and biological
activities (fossils).
• Statement 2 is correct: They are
fossiliferous ― have fossils of plants
and animals.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: These rocks
are generally porous and allow water
to percolate through them.
 of metamorphic rocks under
80. Consider the following statements high pressure.
with reference to Metamorphism: • Sometimes high pressure
1. A magmatic intrusion causing is accompanied by high temperatures
thermal metamorphism is responsible and the action of chemically
for the peak of Mount Everest charged water.

2. Under high pressure, granite • The combination of directed

is converted into gneiss pressure and heat is very powerful in
producing metamorphism because it
Which of the above is/are correct?
leads to more or less complete
A. 1 Only recrystallisation of rocks and the
B. 2 Only production of new structures. This is
known as dynamo thermal
C. Both 1 and 2 metamorphism.
D. Neither 1 nor 2

81. Depending upon the mode of formation,

Statement 1 is correct: A magmatic consider the following examples
intrusion causing thermal metamorphism of sedimentary rocks?
is responsible for the peak of Mount
Sedimentary
Everest consisting of metamorphosed Mode of formation
Rocks
limestone.
Thermal Metamorphism 1. Mechanically
Sandstone
• The change of form or re- formed
crystallisation of minerals
2. Organically
of sedimentary and igneous rocks Potash
formed
under the influence of high
temperatures is known as thermal 3. Chemically
Geyserite
metamorphism. formed
• As a result of thermal
Which of the above is/are correct?
metamorphism, sandstone changes
into quartzite and limestone into A. 1 only
marble. B. 2 and 3 only
• Statement 2 is correct: Under high C. 1 and 3 only
pressure, granite is converted into
D. 2 only
gneiss; clay and shale are transformed
into schist.
Dynamic Metamorphism
• This refers to the formation
 Statement 2 is correct: The Alpide
earthquake belt (mid Continental belt)
extends from Java to Sumatra through the
Himalayas, the Mediterranean, and out into
the Atlantic. This belt accounts for about 17
percent of the world's largest earthquakes,
including some of the most destructive.
82. Consider the following Statement 3 is correct: The third
statement regarding Distribution of prominent belt follows the submerged mid-
Earthquakes: Atlantic Ridge. The ridge marks where two
1. Circum-Pacific seismic belt is tectonic plates are spreading apart (a
found along the rim of the Pacific divergent plate boundary). Most of the mid-
Ocean Atlantic Ridge is deep underwater and far
from human development.
2. Alpide earthquake belt extends
from Java to Sumatra
3. The third prominent belt follows 83. Consider the following statements:
the submerged mid-Atlantic Ridge. 1. Surface Waves are also called
Which of the statements given above long period waves because of their
is/are correct? long wavelength.

A. 1 only 2. Love waves are the fastest

surface wave and moves the ground
B. 1 and 3 only
from side-to-side.
C. 3 only
3. Most of the shaking and damage
D. 1,2 and 3 from an earthquake is due to the
Rayleigh wave.

Statement 1 is correct: The world's Which of the statements given above

greatest earthquake belt, the circum-Pacific is/are correct?
seismic belt, is found along the rim of the A. 1 and 2 only
Pacific Ocean, where about 81 percent of our B. 2 and 3 only
planet's largest earthquakes occur. It has
earned the nickname "Ring of Fire". The belt C. 1 and 3 only
exists along boundaries of tectonic plates, D. 1,2 and 3
where plates of mostly oceanic crust are
sinking (or subducting) beneath another
plate. Statement 1 is correct: Surface Waves are
also called long period waves because of their
Earthquakes in these subduction zones are
long wavelength.
caused by slip between plates and rupture
within plates.
Statement 2 is correct: Love waves are • It’s the fastest surface wave and
the fastest surface wave and moves the moves the ground from side-to-side.
ground from side-to-side. Rayleigh waves
Statement 3 is correct: Most of the shaking • A Rayleigh wave rolls along
and damage from an earthquake is due to the ground just like a wave rolls across
the Rayleigh wave. a lake or an ocean.
Additional Info • Because it rolls, it moves the ground
Surface waves (L-Waves) up and down and side-to-side in the
• The body waves interact with same direction that the wave is
the surface rocks and generate new set moving.
of waves called surface waves (long or • Most of the shaking and damage
L-waves). These waves move only from an earthquake is due to the
along the surface. Rayleigh wave.
• Surface Waves are also called
long period waves because of their
84. Consider the following statements:
long wavelength.
1. The trembling on the earth’s
• They are low–frequency surface caused due to P-waves is from
transverse waves (shear waves).
side to side (horizontal).
• They develop in the 2. S-waves are of high frequency
immediate neighbourhood of the and possess slightly higher
epicentre and affect only the surface of destructive power compared to P-
the earth and die out at smaller depth. waves.
• They lose energy more slowly 3. The shadow zone of P-waves is
with distance than the body waves much larger than that of S-waves.
because they travel only across the
surface unlike the body waves which Which of the statements given above
travel in is/are correct?
all directions. A. 1 only
• Particle motion of surface B. 2 and 3 only
waves (amplitude) is larger than that C. 2 only
of body waves, so surface waves are
the most destructive among the D. 1 and 3 only
earthquake waves.
• They are slowest among
the earthquake waves and are
recorded last on the seismograph.
Love waves
 86. Which of the following pairs of
volcanic mountains and their location is
incorrectly matched?
A. Mt. Merapi - Sumatra
B. Mt. Mayon- Tanzania
85. Consider the following statements C. Mt. Agung - Bali
with reference to igneous rocks:
D. Mt. Cotopaxi - Ecuador
1. Igneous rocks are also known
as primary rocks
• Mt. Kilimanjaro(Tanzania)
2. If magma cools slowly at great
depths, mineral grains formed in the • Mt. Fuji (Japan)
rocks may be very small. • Mt. Merapi (Sumatra)
3. The Deccan traps in the • Mt. Mayon (Philippines)
Indian peninsular region are of basaltic
origin. • Mt. Agung (Bali)

Which of the statements given above • Mt. Cotopaxi (Ecuador)

is/are correct?
A. 1 only 87. Consider the following pairs
B. 1 and 3 only of volcanoes and their characteristics:

C. 2 only 1. Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes:

The central portion of this
D. 2 and 3 only ridge experiences frequent eruptions.
2. Caldera: They are characterized by
Statement 1 is correct: Igneous rocks the eruption of a cooler and more
are primary rocks, and other rocks form viscous lavas than basalt.
from these rocks.
3. Composite Volcanoes: These are
Statement 2 is incorrect: If magma the most explosive of the
cools slowly at great depths, mineral grains earth’s volcanoes.
formed in the rocks may be very large. Such
4. Cinder Cone Volcanoes:
rocks are called intrusive rocks or plutonic
These volcanoes consist almost
rocks (e.g. Granite). These rocks appear on the
entirely of loose, grainy cinders and
surface only after being uplifted and
almost no lava.
denuded.
Which of the pairs given above
Statement 3 is correct: The Deccan traps in is/are correctly matched?
the Indian peninsular region is of basaltic
origin. A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: Mid-Ocean Ridge
Volcanoes: The central portion of this
ridge experiences frequent eruptions. The
system of mid-ocean ridges stretches for more
than 70,000 km across all the ocean basins.
The lava is basaltic (less silica and hence less
viscous) and causes the spreading of the
seafloor.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Caldera: In
some volcanoes, the magma chamber below
the surface may be emptied after
volcanic eruptions. The volcanic material
above thechamber collapses into the empty
magma chamber, and the collapsed surface
appears like a large cauldron-like hollow (tub
shaped) called the caldera. When water from
rain or melted snow gets accumulated in the
caldera, it becomes a caldera lake (in general,
the caldera lakes are also called crater lakes).
Due to their unstable environments, some
crater lakes exist only intermittently. Caldera
lakes, in contrast, can be quite large and long-
lasting. For example, Lake Toba
(Indonesia) formed after its supervolcanic
eruption around 75,000 years ago. It is the
largest crater lake in the world.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
Composite Volcanoes: They are conical or
central type volcanic landforms. Along with
andesitic lava, large quantities of pyroclastic
material and ashes find their way to the
surface. Andesitic lava along with pyroclastic
material accumulates in the vicinity of the
vent openings leading to the formation of
layers, and this makes the mounts appear as
a composite volcano or a stratovolcano
(divided into layers).
Statement 4 is correct: Cinder
Cone Volcanoes: These volcanoes consist
almost entirely of loose, grainy cinders and
almost no lava. A cinder cone is a steep
circular or ovalshaped hill of loose pyroclastic
fragments that have been built around a
volcanic vent.
88. Big stars, with a mass of at least eight
times the mass of our Sun, die in a
spectacular way. As they run out of fuel,
they suddenly collapse and the outer layers
of the star are blasted outward in a huge
explosion. What is this explosion known as?
A. Magnetar
B. Neutron Star
C. Supernova
D. Black Hole
Answer: C
Explanation:
● Big stars, with a mass at least eight
times the mass of our Sun, die in a
spectacular way. As they run out of
fuel, they suddenly collapse, then the
outer layers of the star are blasted
outward in a huge explosion known as
a supernova.
● The energy released by a supernova is
as much as the energy radiated by the
Sun during its entire lifetime. One
supernova can outshine a galaxy
containing billions of stars.
● Supernovas are rare events- none have
been seen in our galaxy since the
invention of the telescope.
Option a is incorrect: A magnetar is a neutron
star, “the crushed, city-size remains of a star
many times more massive than our Sun.”
Option b is incorrect: Neutron stars are small,
only about 6 miles (10 km) across, yet they are
heavier than the Sun. Neutron stars are
covered by an iron crust, 10 billion times
stronger than steel. Inside, they contain a
liquid sea of neutrons- the debris from atoms
crushed by a supernova explosion.

Option d is incorrect: A black hole is an object

in space that is so dense and has such strong
gravity that no matter or light can escape its 90. Consider the following pairs of Space
pull. Because no light can escape, it is black Mission and their Objectives:
and invisible. Objectives/
Space Mission
Description
89. Consider the following Layers of Sun:
1. Extreme
1. Radiative Zone Ultraviolet High- Heliophysics
2. Convective Zone Throughput Missions to
Spectroscopic Explore Sun and
3. Photosphere
Telescope (EUVST) Earth’s Aurora.
4. Chromosphere mission
5. Corona
Aim is to study
Arrange the following layers as we move
how the solar wind
from center of sun to its outer part?
2. PUNCH mission and transients
A. 1-2-3-4-5 evolve through the
B. 2-1-4-3-5 inner solar system.

C. 5-4-3-2-1 Aim of the mission

D. 2-1-5-3-4 is to observe the
Answer: A 3. Parker Solar Probe outer corona of the
Sun.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct: Extreme Ultraviolet High-
Throughput Spectroscopic Telescope
(EUVST) mission - NASA- Heliophysics
Missions to Explore Sun and Earth’s Aurora
Option 2 is correct: PUNCH mission
(Polarimeter to Unify the Corona and
Heliosphere) - NASA- PUNCH mission will
study this transition and how the solar wind
and transients evolve through the inner solar
system. Launch date - 2023
Option 3 is correct: Parker Solar Probe-
NASA- The Parker Solar Probe (abbreviated
PSP; previously Solar Probe, Solar Probe Plus
or Solar Probe+). It is a NASA space probe
launched in 2018 with the mission of making
observations of the outer corona of the Sun.
91. Consider the following pairs of mission
on moon and the agencies involved. Which
of the following is incorrect?
Agencies
Missions on moon
involved
Artemis NASA
Answer: D
Explanation
Option a is correct: Artemis: NASA: Artemis
is NASA’s moon mission under which it will
land the first woman and the next man on
Moon by 2024
Option b is correct: Chang’e 5: China: Chang'e
is the fifth lunar exploration mission of the
Chinese Lunar Exploration Program, and
China's first lunar sample-return mission
• The mission recently returned to Earth,
loaded with moon rocks.
• The mission made China the third
country to return samples from the
Moon after the United States and the
Soviet Union
Option c is correct: Volatiles Investigating
Polar Exploration Rover (VIPER): NASA: It is
NASA’s first mobile robot to be sent to the
Moon in late 2023 in search of ice and other
resources on and below the lunar surface. It is
part of NASA’s Artemis programme
Option d is incorrect: Stratospheric
Observatory for Infrared Astronomy
(SOFIA): NASA and German Aerospace
Center: SOFIA has detected water molecules
(H2O) in Clavius Crater located in the Moon’s
southern hemisphere

Chang’e 5 China 92. Consider the following statements with

reference to Continental Drift Theory:
Volatiles Investigating
Polar Exploration Rover NASA 1. Continental Drift Theory explains the
(VIPER) movement of Lithospheric plates that
include both continents and oceans.
Stratospheric
NASA and 2. According to Plate tectonics,
Observatory for Infrared
JXA convection currents in the mantle is
Astronomy (SOFIA)
 responsible for the movement of the
crustal plates.
3. Continental Drift Theory helped in the
evolution of convection current theory
and seafloor spreading theory
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation
• Continental Drift Theory was put
forward by the German scientist
Alfred Wegner in 1915.
• According to the Continental Drift
Theory, part of the crust is capable of
horizontal movement round the globe
causing the continents to slowly
change their positions in relation to
one another.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Continental Drift
Theory explains the movement of Continents
only and also it doesn’t talk about plates
concept.
Statement 2 is correct: According to Plate
tectonics, convection currents in the mantle is
responsible for the movement of the crustal
plates.
Statement 3 is correct: Continental Drift
Theory helped in the evolution of convection
current theory and seafloor spreading theory
93. Consider the following statements with
reference to Convection Current Theory:
1. Arthur Holmes had discussed the
possibility of convection currents
operating in the mantle portion.
2. Wherever rising limbs of these
currents meet, trenches are formed on
the sea floor and wherever the failing
limbs meet, oceanic ridges are formed.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation
● In the 1930s, Arthur Holmes proposed
the Convectional Current Theory.
Convection Current Theory is the soul
of Seafloor Spreading Theory.
● According to this theory, the extreme
heat generated by radioactive
chemicals in the mantle (100-2900 km
beneath the earth's surface) seeks a
way to escape and causes convection
currents to emerge in the mantle.
● Under the solid lithosphere, the fluid
asthenosphere circulates as convection
currents.
● Divergent convective currents pull
crustal blocks away from each other in
opposite directions, forming seas and
oceans. East Africa's lakes system, the
Mid-Atlantic Ridges, and so on are
examples.
● Convergent convective currents
generate subsidence in the crustal
zones, resulting in geosynclines and
 sea closure, resulting in the Answer: D
construction of island arcs, mountains, Explanation
and other features.
● The Caledonian and Hercynian
● Convection currents run through the mountains of Europe and the
mantle's molten rock, acting as a Appalachians of USA seem to be one
conveyor belt for the plates. continuous series.
● The total change in the lithospheric
materials is constant since these
currents are closed in nature.
Statement 1 is correct: Arthur Holmes in
1930s discussed the possibility of convection
currents in the mantle. These currents are
generated due to radioactive elements
causing thermal differences in the mantle.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Wherever rising
limbs of these currents meet, oceanic ridges
are formed on the sea floor and wherever the Continuous Very Old Fold Mountain Chain
failing limbs meet, trenches are formed.
1. Polar wandering (Shifting of Poles)
● The position of the poles constantly
94. Which of the following is/are evidences drifted (due to plate tectonics).
of Continental Drift Theory? 2. Botanical Evidence
1. Rich placer deposits of gold are found
on the Ghana coast (West Africa) but
the source (gold-bearing veins) are in
Brazil
2. The Caledonian and Hercynian
mountains of Europe and the
Appalachians of USA seem to be one
continuous series.
3. Skeletons of Mesosaurus have been
found only in South Africa and Brazil.
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
 4. Tillite Deposits
● Tillite deposits are sedimentary rocks
formed out of deposits of glaciers.
● The Gondwana system of sediments
are found in India, Africa, Falkland
Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and
Australia (all were previously part of
Gondwana).
● Overall resemblance demonstrates
that these landmasses had remarkably
similar histories.
Distribution of Fossils across the 5. Placer Deposits
Gondwanaland ● Rich placer deposits of gold are found
● Presence of glossopteris vegetation in on the Ghana coast (West Africa) but
Carboniferous rocks of India, the source (gold-bearing veins) are in
Australia, South Africa, Falkland Brazil, and it is obvious that the gold
Islands (Overseas territory of UK), deposits of Ghana are derived from the
Antarctica, etc. (all split from the same Brazil plateau when the two continents
landmass called Gondwana) can be lay side by side.

● explained from the fact that parts were

linked in the past. 95. According to the theory of plate tectonics,
Distribution of Fossils which of the following is not one of the
seven major plates?
● The observations that Lemurs occur in
India, Madagascar and Africa led some A. North American plate
to consider a contiguous landmass B. South American plate
“Lemuria” linking these three
C. Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor
landmasses.
plate
● Mesosaurus was a small reptile
D. Arabian plate
adapted to shallow brackish water.
The skeletons of these are found only Answer: D
in South Africa and Brazil. The two Explanation
localities presently are 4,800 km apart
Major Tectonic Plates
with an ocean in between them.
● Antarctica and the surrounding
3. Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans
oceanic plate
● The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000
million years from Brazil coast ● North American plate
matches with those from western ● South American plate
Africa.
● Pacific plate
 ● India-Australia-New Zealand plate the East Pacific Rise in the South Pacific
(about 3,400 km west of Chile), has the fastest
● Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor
rate (more than 15 cm/year).
plate
● Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate
97. Consider the following statements with
reference to Plate Tectonics:
96. Consider the following statements:
1. The oceanic plates contain mainly the
1. Convection currents in the mantle that Sialic crust and are relatively thinner
are generated due to thermal gradients
2. The continental plates contain Simatic
is the force for plate movement
material and are relatively thicker.
2. The Arctic Ridge has the fastest rate of
3. The Indian plate includes Peninsular
plate movement, and the East Pacific
India and the Australian continental
Rise in the South Pacific, has the
portions.
slowest rate of plate movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
A. 1 only
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation
● It was from the continental drift
Convectional Current Theory was given by
theory, convection current theory and
Arthur Holmes in the 1930s. It discussed the the theory of seafloor spreading, the
possibility of convection currents operating in theory of Plate Tectonics was
the mantle portion These currents are formulated.
generated due to radioactive elements
● In 1967, McKenzie and Parker
causing thermal differences in the mantle
suggested the theory of plate tectonics.
portion. Holmes argued that there exists a
Morgan later outlined the theory in
system of such currents in the entire mantle
1968.
portion.
● According to the theory of plate
Statement 1 is correct: Convection currents in
tectonics, the earth’s lithosphere is
the mantle that are generated due to thermal
broken into distinct plates which are
gradients is the force for plate movement
floating on a ductile layer called
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Arctic Ridge has asthenosphere (upper part of the
the slowest rate (less than 2.5 cm/year), and mantle).
 ● Plates move horizontally over the
asthenosphere as rigid units.
● The lithosphere includes the crust and
top mantle with its thickness range
varying between 5-100 km in oceanic
● parts and about 200 km in the
continental areas.
● The oceanic plates contain mainly the
Simatic crust and are relatively
thinner, while the continental plates
contain Sialic material and are
relatively thicker.
● Lithospheric plates (tectonic plates)
vary from minor plates to major plates,
continental plates (Arabian plate) to
oceanic plates (Pacific plate),
sometimes a combination of both
continental and oceanic plates (Indo-
Australian plate).
● The movement of these crustal plates
(due to convection currents in the
mantle) causes the formation of
various landforms and is the principal
cause of all earth movements.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The oceanic plates
contain mainly the Simatic crust and are
relatively thinner
Statement 2 is incorrect: The continental
plates contain Sialic material and are
relatively thicker.
Statement 3 is correct: The Indian plate
includes Peninsular India and the Australian
continental portions.
98. Which of the following is/are primary
forces that influence the currents are?
1. Heating by solar energy
2. Wind
3. Gravity
4. Coriolis force
5. Temperature difference
6. Salinity difference
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 5 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
The primary forces that influence the
currents are:
• heating by solar energy;
• wind;
• gravity;
• Coriolis force.
Additional info:
• What is Ocean Current? It is a
horizontal movement of seawater that
is produced by gravity, wind, and
water density. Ocean currents play an
important role in the determination of
climates of coastal regions.
• Ocean currents are influenced by two
types of forces namely: primary forces
that initiate the movement of water;
secondary forces that influence the
currents to flow.
• The secondary forces that influence
the currents are:
o Temperature difference;
o Salinity difference
99. Consider the following statements:
1. Seamount is a mountain that reaches
the surface of the ocean.
2. Seamounts are volcanic in origin.
3. Guyots are flat topped mountains
4. Seamounts and guyots are very
common in the Atlantic Ocean
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Seamount is a
mountain with pointed summits, rising from
the seafloor that does not reach the surface of
the ocean.
Statement 2 is correct: Seamounts are volcanic
in origin. These can be 3,000-4,500 m tall. The
emperor seamount, an extension of the
Hawaiian Islands [Hotspot] in the Pacific
Ocean, is a good example.
Statement 3 is correct: Guyots are flat topped
mountains (seamounts).
Statement 4 is incorrect: Seamounts and
guyots are very common in the Pacific Ocean
where they are estimated to number around
10,000.
100. Consider the following salient features
of vertical distribution of temperature of
ocean water?
1. The sea temperature decreases with
increasing depth but the rate of
decrease of temperature is uniform.
2. Diurnal and annual ranges of
temperature cease after the depth of 5
fathoms and 100 fathoms respectively.
3. High temperatures at greater depths
are recorded in Sargasso Sea.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect: Though the sea
temperature decreases with increasing depth,
the rate of decrease of temperature is not
uniform. The change in sea temperature
below the depth of 2000m is negligible.
Statement 2 is correct: Diurnal and annual
ranges of temperature cease after the depth of
5 fathoms (30 feet) and 100 fathoms (600 feet)
respectively.
Statement 3 is correct: High temperature at
greater depths is recorded in Sargasso Sea.
Additional info:
The following are the salient features of
vertical distribution of temperature of ocean
water:
• Though the sea temperature decreases
with increasing depth but the rate of
decrease of temperature is not
uniform. The change in sea
temperature below the depth of 2000m
is negligible.
• Diurnal and annual ranges of
temperature cease after the depth of 5
fathoms (30 feet) and 100 fathoms (600
feet) respectively.
• The rate of decrease of temperature structure of ocean water.
with increasing depth from equator
towards the poles is not uniform.
• Though the surface temperature of the
seas decreases from equator towards
the poles but the temperature at the
ocean bottoms is uniform from the
equator towards the pole, which
means that the rate of decrease of tem-
perature with increasing depth is more
rapid near the equator than towards
the poles.
• The areas from where sea surface
water is driven away by offshore
winds resulting into upwelling of
water from below record low
temperature at sea surface and thus the
rate of decrease of temperature with
increasing depth becomes low.
• Contrary to this the areas where there
is pilling of sea water because of
onshore winds, record relatively high
temperature at sea surface and thus the
rate of decrease of temperature with
increasing depth becomes rapid.
• In some areas high temperature is
recorded at greater depths e.g., in
Sargasso Sea, Red Sea, Mediterranean
Sea, Sulu Sea etc. The Mediterranean
Sea records 24.4°C at the depth of
1,829m whereas the Indian Ocean has
only 1.1°C temperature at the same
depth. Such anomalous conditions are
noticed in the enclosed seas of low
latitudes. The enclosed seas of high
latitudes register inversion of tempera-
ture i.e., the temperature of sea surface
is lower than the temperature below.
• There is a clear-cut layered thermal