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Question Bank

SOCIAL STUDIES
Class IX
HISTORY
THE FRENCH REVOLUTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. On what charges was Louis XVI guillotined?


a. Misgovernance b. Cruelty
c. Treason d. Absolute rule
2. ‘Bastille’ stands for
a. Name of a book b. Name of an author
c. A commander who tortured d. A fortress prison
3. Which French philosopher refuted the divine rights of kings?
a. Maxmillian Roberspiere b. Jean Jacques Rousseau
c. Montesgue d. John Locke
4. The Revolution in France established
a. Monarchy b. Republic
c. Dictatorship d. Oligarchy
5. ‘Tithe’ was a tax collected from the French peasants by
a. The Emperor b. The Church
c. The Nobles d. The Army
6. Direct tax to the state was called
a. Tithes b. Taille
c. Liwani d. Livres
7. The revolutionaries in France stormed which prison?
a. Versailles b. Marseilles
c. Bastille d. Ruschritz
8. By whom was Social Contract written?
a. Voltaire b. Rousseau
c. Adam Smith d. Gerky
9. In the ‘Spirit of the Laws’, Montesquieu proposed
a. A division of powers between the b. A division of powers between men and
King and the Church women
c. A division of powers between three d. A division of powers between the King
organs of the govt. and the peasants.
10. The Estates General was
a. The Commander in Chief of the b. Another name of the King of France
Army
c. A group of women who d. A political body to which the three
demonstrated on the streets estates of the French society sent their
representatives
11. In France Guillotine referred to a system of:
a. Beheading a person b. Rewarding a person
c. Taxing a person d. Punishing a person
12. The event which led to the French Revolution in 1789 was
a. People protesting against the b. People protesting against the high price
church of food
c. People protesting against lack of d. People protesting against rising prices of
employment real estate.
13. Who were the French middle class?
a. Peasants b. Artisans
c. Nobles d. Educated professional
14. Who crowned himself emperor of France in 1804?
a. Napoleon b. Louis XVI
c. Robespierre d. Jacobin
15. Who was the Marseilles written by?
a. Voltaire b. Sartre
c. Roget d’Isle d. Gorky

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. How was the system of Estates in French society organized?


2. How were the taxes paid – in cash or in kind? Mention any three points.
3. The Old Regime saw ‘Subsistence crisis’. Explain.
4. What was the significance of the storming of the Bastille?
5. Why was the state under Louis XVI forced to increase taxes? Mention any three points.
6. Write a short note on the Tennis Courth Oath.
7. What was the Jacobin Club and what were its achievements?
8. How did the Revolution affect theeveryday life of the people? Mention any three points.
9. What were the achievements of the Revolutionj in 1789? Mention any there points.
10. What was the Convention? Describe its activities.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks Each)

1. ‘French society had a feudal structure’. Explain


2. Describe the main features of the Consitution of 1791. Mention any four points.
3. Write a short note on the ‘Reign of Terror’ in France. Mention any four points.
4. What did the women do to improve their condition in France during the French Revolutionm?
What were their demands? What steps were taken by the government to improve their
condition? Mention any four points.
5. Who were the Middle Class in France?
6. How did Robespierre establish equality in French society? Mention any four points.
7. What was the position of women in French society?
8. What was the early achievements for women? Mention any four points.
9. What were the changes in everyday life of people after the Revolution of 1789? Mention any
four points.
10. What was the legacy of the French Revolution? Mention any four points.
SOCIALISM IN EUROPE AND THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The revolution in which the Bolsheviks gained control was the


a. Revolution of 1905 b. Blood Sunday
c. October Revolution d. February Revolution
2. Which of the following is not true about true radicals?
a. They wanted a government based b. They supported suffrage for women.
on majority
c. They opposed privilege of d. They wanted to respect the past.
landowners
3. Which of the following statement is true about socialists?
a. They were against private property b. Some wanted a cooperative community
c. Some wanted to overthrow d. All of these
capitalism
4. Which statement is not true about the economy of Russia in 1905?
a. Industry was found in pockets. b. It was privately owned.
c. Workers conditions were good. d. Russia was primarily agrarian.
5. What was not the result of the 1905 revolution?
a. Duma was established b. Trade unions were allowed to exist.
c. Duma was dissolved after 75 days. d. Elections were held.
6. The Soviet Union was created in:
a. 1905 b. 1917
c. 1921 d. 1922
7. Why did the British, French and other support the non-Bolsheviks?
a. They wanted to control Russia b. They were angry over Russians
withdrawing from the war.
c. They wanted Russia to be a d. They did not want socialism to spread.
democracy
8. Which of the following was not a step taken by Bolsheviks?
a. Nationalization of Banks b. Allowing private enterprise.
c. Collectivization d. Given autonomy to non-Russia
nationalities.
9. What did collectivization stand for?
a. Privatization of farms. b. System of collective farms
c. Modernization of agriculture d. All of the above
10. The ‘April Theses’ were put forward by
a. Lenin b. Stalin
c. Trostskie d. Kerensky
11. The Procession that marched to the Winter Palace in 1904 was led by
a. Father Gapon b. Lenin
c. Stalin d. Kerenskii
12. The Tsar allowed the creation of the Duma in
a. 1904 b. 1917
c. 1905 d. 1914
13. The Tsar kept out _________________ from the Duma?
a. Liberals and revolutionaries b. Conservatives and liberals
c. Revolutionaries and conservatives d. All of the above
14. Most industry and banks were nationalized by the Bolsheviks in
a. December 1918 b. August 1917
c. November 1917 d. October 1917
15. The Bolsheviks were also known as the
e. Greens f. Blues
g. Whites h. Reds

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What did the Radicals support?


2. What did the Liberal believe in? Mention any three points.
3. What was the impact of industrialization on Tsarist Russia? Mention any three points.
4. Mention any three effects of the Petrograd Revolution. Mention any three points.
5. In what ways was the working population in Russia different from other countries in Europe
before 1917?
6. Why did the Tsarist autocracy collapse in 1917? Mention any three points.
7. What was the impact of the World War I on Russia? Mention any three points.
8. What were ‘soviets’? What was their role in the revolution?
9. How did the Bolsheviks come to power? Mention of any three points.
10. How did the Bolsheviks establish a socialist state? Mention any three points.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks Each)

1. What were the social, economic and political condition in Russia before 1905? Mention any
four points.
2. What is socialism? What are its features? Mention any four points.
3. What was the ‘Bloody Sunday’? What was the impact of the 1905 Revolution? Mention any
four points.
4. Make two lists: one with the main events and the effect of the February Revolution and the
other with the main events and effects of the October Revolution. Mention any four points.
5. What were the main changes brought about by the Bolsheviks immediately after the October
Revolution? Mention any four points.
NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The Allied powers were:


a. USA, France, Germany and Britains b. France, Britain, USA and USSR
c. USSR, Germany, Italy and Spain d. Austria, Germany, France and Britain
2. The Axis powers were:
a. Germans, Britain and France b. Germany, Italy and Japan
c. Britain, France and Italy d. Britain, France and USA
3. Which was not a provision of the Treaty of Versailles?
a. Germany was held responsible for b. Its colonies were taken away
the war
c. Rhineland was demilitarized d. Germany was to become a democratic
country
4. What was the impact of World War I on Europe?
a. Aggression and masculinity were b. Trench life was glorified
emphasized
c. National honour and was d. All of the above
propaganda was glorified
5. The Great Economic Depression was caused by:
a. World War I b. Overproduction
c. Creash of the Wall Street Exchange d. Collapse of Weimar Republic
6. Hitler was given dictatorial powers by:
a. The Fire Decree b. Enabling Act
c. Article 78 of the constitution d. None of the above
nd
7. The 2 World War started after Hitler attacked __________.
a. Austria b. England
c. France d. Poland
nd
8. USA entered the 2 World War when
a. Japan occupied French Indo-china b. Hitler attacked Poland
c. Hitler signed a pact with Japan d. Japan attacked Pearl Harbour
9. Hitler’s racism was borrowed from _______________ and ___________.
a. Herbert Spencer and Charles b. Howard Spencer and Charles Darwin
Darwin
c. Herbert Spencer and Howard d. Lenin and Herbert Spencer.
Holmes
10. At the bottom of the racial hierarchy were:
a. Jews b. Gypsies
c. Slavs d. Poles
11. Ten-year-old German children had to join _______________
a. Hitler Youth b. Young Hitler
c. Jungvolk d. Little Hitler
12. The organization for all young boys at 14 and above was _________________
a. Young Hitler b. Hitler Youth
c. Little Hitler d. Teen Hitler
13. Which were the words the Nazis never used while dealing with Jews?
a. Special treatment b. Mass murder
c. Final solution d. Disinfection
14. What was the name of the ideology of the Nazi party?
a. Communism b. Socialism
c. National socialism d. Social Democrats
15. What is the German Parliament called?
a. Duma b. Reichstag
c. House of Commons d. Congress

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What were the after effects of World War I on Germany? Mention any three points.
2. What were the effects of the Great Depression of 1929-32 on Germany?
3. What was the foreign policy adopted by Hitler?
4. Briefly mention the Nazis idea of the racial statue.
5. Describe the problems faced by the Weimar Republic. Mention any three points.
6. Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930. Mention any three points.
7. The “Treaty of Versailles” was harsh on the Germans. Explain. Mention any three points.
8. In what was did Hitler instill Nazi ideology amongst the youth?
9. What was the Holocaust?
10. Why did USA enter the 2nd World War?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks Each)

1. What were the peculiar features of Nazi thinking? Mention any four points.
2. Explain why Nazi propaganda was effective in creating a hatred for Jews. Mention any four
points.
3. In what ways did the Nazi state seek to establish total control over its people? Mention any
four points.
4. How were women perceived in Nazi Germany?
5. Explain the Nazi world view.
6. What was the ‘Great Economic Depression’? What was its impact on Germany? Mention any
four points.
GEOGRAPHY

INDIA – SIZE AND LOCATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through


a. Rajasthan b. Orissa
c. Chhatisgrah d. Tripura
2. The easternmost longitude of India is:
a. 97o 25’ E b. 68o 7’ E
o
c. 77 6’ E d. 82o 32’ E
3. Uttranchal, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have common frontiers with:
a. China b. Bhutan
c. Nepal d. Myanmar
4. If you intend to visit Kavaratti during your summer vacation, which one fo the following Union
Territories of India you will be going to?
a. Puducherry b. Lakshadweep
c. Andaman and Nicobar d. Diu and Daman
5. My friend hails from a country which does not share a land boundry with India. Identify the
country?
a. Bhutan b. Tajikistan
c. Bangladesh d. Nepal
6. Area-wise which is the largest state of India?
a. Madhya Pradesh b. Maharashtra
c. Rajasthan d. Andhra Pradesh
7. The latitude that divides India into two equal halves is:
a. Tropic of Cancer b. Tropic of Capricorn
c. Equator d. Arctic Circle
8. The latitudinal extent of India is:
a. 80o 30’N to 97o25’N b. 23o30’N to 23o30’S
o o
c. 68 7’N to 97 25’N d. 8o4’N to 37o6’N
9. The island group which is towards south-east of India is:
a. Andaman and Nicobar b. Sri Lanka
c. Maldives d. Lakshadweep
10. The area of India in million square km is:
a. 2.28 b. 3.24
c. 3.28 d. 3.78
11. In terms of size India ranks:
a. 3rd b. 5th
c. 7th d. 9th
12. The distance between north and south extremity of India is:
a. 3214 km b. 3000 km
c. 2933 km d. 3600 km
13. India’s neighbor towards North West is:
a. Afghanistan b. Nepal
c. Bhutan d. Myanmar
14. India is separated from Sri Lanka through:
a. Gulf of Khambat b. Gulf of Kutch
c. Gulf of Mannar d. Gulf of Persia
15. From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh the time lag is:
a. 2 hrs 15 min b. 2 hrs 30 mins
c. 1 hr 45 min d. 2 hrs.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What is the location of India with respect to latitude and longitude?


2. What is the size of India? What is its rank with respect to the world in terms of size?
3. Although the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland is about 30o the east-west
extent appears to be smaller than the north-south extent. Why?
4. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west but
the watches show the same time. How does this happen?
5. Why has 82o30’E been selected as the Standard Meridian of India?
6. Why is the difference between the duration of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari but
not so in Kashmir?
7. Name the neighbouring countries of India with respect to their direction.
8. Why is India called a subcontinent? Name the countries that comprise the India subcontinent.
9. Name the countries which are larger than India.
10. When the sun has already in Arunachal Pradesh it is still dark in Gujarat. Why?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great
significance. Why?
2. How can you say that India had close links with other parts of the world in ancient times?
3. Why do we need a standard meridian for India?
4. What is the longitudinal extent of India. State its two implications.
5. Give reasons why India is often referred to as a sub continent.
PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as:


a. Coast b. Island
c. Peninsula d. None of these
2. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanman are
collectively called
a. Himachal b. Uttaranchal
c. Purvanchal d. None of these
3. The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as
a. Coromandal b. Konkan
c. Kannad d. Northern Circar
4. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is:
a. Anai Mudi b. Kanchenjunga
c. Puducherry d. Diu
5. Which one of the following rivers has the largest inhabited riverine islands in the world?
a. Ganga b. Indus
c. Yamuna d. Brahmaputra
6. In which belt of Northern plains do all the rivers disappear?
a. Bhabar b. Terai
c. Khadar d. Bhang
7. The highest peak of South India is:
a. Doda Betta b. Mahendragiri
c. Anai Mudi d. None of these
8. Which type of soil is found in Deccan Trap region?
a. Black soil b. Alluvial Soil
c. Arid soil d. Laterite solil
9. The largest river of the Indian desert is:
a. Chambal b. Betwa
c. Indus d. Luni
10. The largest salt water lake of India:
a. Sambhar b. Pulicat
c. Chilika d. Kolleru
11. The two tributaries of the Indus are:
a. Ravi & Yamuna b. Sutlej and Kosi
c. Jhelum and Chenab d. Beas and Damodar
12. What is the name given to the southern part of eastern coastal plains?
a. Kannad Plain b. Malabar
c. Konkan d. Coromandal
13. Which of the following is composed of corals?
a. Lakshdweep b. Andaman and Nicobar
c. Pondicherry d. Malabar
14. Which physiographic division is the storehouse of minerals?
a. Himalayas b. Peninsular Plateau
c. Northern Plains d. Island groups
15. Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhyan Ranges?
a. Malwa Plateau b. Deccan Plateau
c. Chota Nagpur Plateau d. Bundelkhand
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Which is the most accepted theory related to the formation of physical features? What does it
postulate?
2. What are the important characteristic features of major landform features of India?
3. Name the major physiographic divisions of India.
4. What are the major characteristic features of the Himalayan mountains?
5. Explain the Purvachal Himalayas. Which hills comprise Purvachal?
6. Why is the Northern Plains most productive part of India?
7. Where is Deccan trap located and what is it composed of?
8. Distinguish between the two island groups of India.
9. What are corals?
10. Which continents of today were part of the Gondwanaland?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks Each)

1. Explain the formation of Himalayas and northern plains.


2. How is the Himalayas range divided from east to west?
3. What is the difference between the Himadri and Himachal ranges of Himalayas?
4. What are the characteristic features of Northern plains of India? Mention any four points.
5. How are northern plains divided on the basis of variation in the relief features?
6. What is the difference between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats? Mention any four points.
7. Explain the two major divisions of peninsular plateau.
8. What is the difference between the two coastal plains of India?
9. On an outline map of India, show the following:
Five mountains, three peaks, two plateaus.
DRAINAGE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns resembling the branches of a tree?
a. Radial b. Dendritic
c. Centrifugal d. Trellis
2. In which of the following states is the Wular lake located?
a. Rajasthan b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Punjab d. Jammu & Kashmir
3. The river Narmada has it source at
a. Satpura b. Brahmagiri
c. Amarkantak d. Slopes of the Western Ghats
4. Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?
a. Sambhar b. Dal
c. Wular d. Gobind Sagar
5. Which one of the following is a longest river of Peninsular India?
a. Narmada b. Krishna
c. Godavari d. Mahanadi
6. Which one amongst the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
a. Damodar b. Tungabhadra
c. Krishna d. Tapi
7. Length of rive rIndua in Kilometers is
a. 2500 b. 2900
c. 3200 d. 3500
8. Ganga River enters the plains from the mountains at
a. Devprayag b. Haridwar
c. Allahabad d. Farakka
9. Which of the following rivers form estuaries?
a. Narmada and Tapi b. Krishna and Godavari
c. Ganda and Brahmaputra d. Mahanadi and Damodar
10. Chambal, Betwa, Ken and Son are the tributaries of which of the following rivers?
a. Indus b. Ganga
c. Narmada d. Brahmaputra
11. Which of the following river is known for its braided channel and riverine islands?
a. Indus b. Ganga
c. Jamuna d. Brahmaputra
12. The other name for Brahmaputra in Bangladesh is
a. Meghna b. Padma
c. Jamuna d. Tsangpo
13. In which of the states is the Chilika lake?
a. Tamil Nadu b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Orissa d. Bihar
14. Which river is also know as Dashin Ganga?
a. Mahanadi b. Krishna
c. Kaveri d. Godavari

15. Indus Water Treaty of 1960 was signed between which two countries?
a. India and Pakistan b. India and China
c. India and Nepal d. India and Afghanistan
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What is meant by a water divide? Give an example


2. Write short notes on Sunderban Delta.
3. Discuss the significant difference between the Himalayan and Peninsular rivers.
4. Compare the east flowing and the west flowing rivers of Peninsular India.
5. What are the major causes of the drying up of rivers and their pollution?
6. Where do the rivers Indus and Ganga have their origin?
7. Name the two headstreams of the Ganga. Where do they meet to form the Ganga?
8. Which two peninsular rivers flow through trough?
9. Write the difference between a tributary and a distributary.
10. Why are the rivers important for the country’s economy?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks Each)

1. Explain the types of drainage patterns formed by the streams whthin the drainage basin.
2. Describe the course of the most important river of India.
3. Write about the important characteristic features of the Brahmaputra River.
4. State some economic benefits of rivers and lakes.
5. How do various type of lakes form?
6. On an outline map of India show the following:
Krishna, Narmada, Sambhar, Wular, Pulikat
POLITICAL SCIENCE

DEOMCRACY IN THE COMTEMPORARY WORLD

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?


a. Struggle by the people b. Invasion by foreign countries
c. End of colonialism d. People’s desire for freedom
2. Which of the following statements is true about today’s world?
a. Monarchy as a form of government b. The relationship between different
has vanished. countries has become more democratic
than ever before
c. In more and more countries rulers d. There are no more military dictators in
are being elected by the people. the world.
3. Use one of the following statements to complete the sence: Democracy in the international
organizations requires that
a. The rich countries should have a b. Countries should have a say according
greater say. to their military power.
c. Countries should be treated with d. All countries in the world should be
respect in proportion to their treated equally.
population.
4. When was Universal Adult Franchise granted in India?
a. 1947 b. 1950
c. 1952 d. 1962
5. Which of the following countries has not been under military rule?
a. Pakistan b. India
c. Bangladesh d. Myanmar
6. The organ of the United Nations responsible for maintaining peace and security is
a. The World Bank b. The General Assembly
c. The Security Council d. The International Court of Justice
7. The five permanent members of the UN Security Council are:
a. US, UK, china, India and Japan b. Japan, Germany, UK, France and USA
c. USA, UK, France, China and Russia d. USA, Russia, UK, France and German
8. Which of the following was a communist state?
a. France b. Poland
c. Myanmar d. England
9. Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
a. Struggle by the people b. Invasion by foreign countries
c. End of colonialism d. People’s desire for freedom
10. Which of the following statements is true about today’s world?
a. Monarchy as a form of government b. The relationship between different
has vanished countries has become more democratic
than ever before
c. In more and more countries rulers d. There are no more military dictators in
are being elected by the people the world.
11. Use one of the following statements to complete the sentence – Democracy in the
international organizations requires that ….
a. The rich countries should have a b. Countries should have a say according
greater say to their military power.
c. Countries should be treated with d. All countries in the world should be
respect in proportion to their treated equally.
population
12. Which of the following statements is true about the world now?
a. There are more people living in the b. There are no more kinds in the world.
democracies
c. There are no military dictators in
the world.
13. Who was the President of Chile from 1970-73?
a. John Kennedy b. George Washington
c. Salvador Allende d. Marshall Tito
14. What sacrifice did Salvador Allende make for their country (Chile)?
a. He repulsed the foreign invasions b. He greatly improved the economic
condition of the people
c. He gave freedom to the press d. He faced death than to bow before the
military leaders.
15. Who was ruling Poland in 1980?
a. The Communist Party b. The Socialist Party
c. The Republican Party d. The Polish United Working Party

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Which freedoms are usually taken away when a democracy is overthrown by the military?
2. What are the features of a democracy?
3. Which are the organizations at the global level that can be limited actions of the governments?
4. Mention briefly the phases in the expansion of democracy.
5 After becoming the President of Chile in 1970, what steps did Salvador take to help the poor?
6. What reasons would you give to say that Solidarity was very popular in 1990?
7. Why do countries and cities change their names given by their colonial rulers? Can you think of
examples of similar change of names from India.
8. Which freedoms are usually taken away when a democracy is overthrown by the military?
9. How can you say that some of the so-called democracies in the 19th century or in the beginning
of the twentieth century were not full democracies and were not democracies in the real
sense of the word?
10. Identify some features that made Portugal under Salazar a case of Non-democracy.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. What led to the military coup in Chile? Who led it? What were its effects?
2. Mention the events leading to the formation of Solidarity as the new trade union in Poland.
3. What are the difficulties people face in the non-democratic country?
4. Which of the following positions can contribute to democracy at the global level? Give reason
for your answer in each case.
5. What are the difficulties people face in the non-democratic country? Give answers drawing
from the examples given in this chapter.
WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Democracy is a form of government


a. In which a small group rules b. All the people take collective decisions
c. The rulers are elected by the d. The rulers are elected by a group of
people people.
2. Which of the following countries is a democracy?
a. Myanmar b. Nepal
c. China d. India
3. Equal right to vote is given in which of the following countries?
a. Saudi Arabia b. Fiji
c. Estonia d. India
4. Which of these is not a feature of democracy?
a. Rule of law b. Equal Rights
c. Freedom of speech and expression d. One common religion
5. Which of these feature of elections that is truly democratic?
a. Free competition, no permanenet b. Only one party is allowed to exist
winner or loser
c. Government limits the number of d. Election commission is not independent
political parties.
6. Which of the following is an argument against democracy?
i. Government is answerable and efficient
ii. Decisions in democracy are always delayed.
iii. A democracy can best deal with conflicts.
iv. The International Court of Justice
a. (i) & (ii) b. (ii) & (iii)
c. (i) & (iv) d. (i) & (iii)
7. Democracy deals best with conflicts as
a. Uses brutal power b. There is no permanent winner or loser
c. There are good decisions in a d. The majority group takes the decision
democracy
8. A democracy is a government based on
a. Debate and discussion b. Rule of law
c. Accountability and answerability of d. All of the above
the elected to the electoral
9. A good democracy will have
a. Free and fair elections b. A society based on social justice
c. Equal rights for minorities d. All of the above
10. Which President of USA said these words, “Democracy is the rule of the people, for the people
and by the people.”
a. John Kennedy b. Abraham Lincoln
c. Woodrow Wilson d. Mackphersm
11. Democracy comes from which Greek word:
a. Demokrati b. Aristocracy
c. Autocracy d. Mobocracy
12. In Syria, which is the ruling party?
a. The Baath Party b. The Communist Party
c. The Republican Party d. The Liberal Party
13. Which two among the following countries have allowed only the ruling parties to contest
elections?
a. USA b. Germany
c. China d. Mexico
14. Which among the following is the country where women are not allowed to take part in the
elections?
a. Turkey b. Saudi Arabia
c. Pakistan d. South Korea
15. Which among the following countries is not a democracy?
a. USA b. France
c. England d. Zimbabwe

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Mention any thyree arguments against democracy. Mention any three points.
2. What is meant by the broader meaning of democracy?
3. Explain the concept of ‘rule of law’ with the help of an example.
4. In what way is a democratic government a more accountable and answerable form of
government?
5. Why is Myanmar not a democratic country?
6. Is China a democratic country or not? Give two arguments in favour of your answer.
7. Describe four features of Democracy as a form of Government.
8. Democracy is sometimes defines as a form of government which the rulers are elected by the
people. Critically examine the definition of democracy.
9. Is Saudi Arabia a democratic country?
10. Is the present government in Iraq a democratic government?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Describe four features of democracy.


2. “In a diverse country like India, democracy keeps our country together.” Explain.
3. How does democracy improve the quality of decision making?
4. Why is democracy a better system of government? Mention any four points.
5. Why do we prefer democracy?
CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Nelson Mandela was tried for the treason by South African government because
a. He was against the white people b. He wanted only the black to rule
c. He opposed the apartheid regime d. All of the above
2. In the apartheid system:
a. Blacks and whites had voting rights b. Mixed races and blacks had voting rights
c. Only whites had voting rights d. None of the above
3. In the apartheid systems the blacks
a. Were forbidden to live in white b. Had restrictions on the use of public
areas places
c. Had no voting rights d. All of the above
4. The new constitution of South Africa was not based on:
a. Equal rights for all b. Different rights for various races
c. A government of mixed races d. Democratic values
5. India’s Constitution was drawn up
a. By British Government b. By an elected group of leaders.
c. By the Indian National Congress d. By the Act of 1935
6. India has adopted the Bill of Rights from
a. The South African constitution b. The constitution of USA
c. The British constitution d. The French constitution
7. The Indian Constitution came into effect on
a. 15th August 1947 b. 26th January 1947
th
c. 26 November 1950 d. 26th January 1950
8. The term Secular as mentioned in the Preamble stands for
a. Equal status of all b. Rule of the people
c. Equality of wealth d. Equal respect for all religious beliefs and
practices
9. A country that has an elected head of the state is known as:
a. A monarchy b. A dictatorship
c. A democracy d. A republic
10. Constitutional amendments are
a. Changes in the constitution b. Framework of the constitution
c. Philosophy of the constitution d. Limits to the constitution
11. The chairman f the Drafting Committee of the Constitution was
a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee d. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
12. An active Hindu Mahasabha member and part of the interim government was
a. Somnath Lahri b. K.M Munshi
c. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee d. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
13. Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?
a. Name of the country b. Powers of the organs of the government
c. Name of the head of the state d. Powers of the head of the state
14. What was the name of the party which won freedom in South Africa?
a. The Republic party b. The Communist Party
c. The African National Congress d. The Democratic Party
15. Who was the national leader who tried to draft the Constitution of India as far back as 1928?
a. Pt. Moti Lal Nehru b. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
c. Lala Lajpat Rai d. Dr. Rajinder Prasad
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. How was the Constituent Assembly formed?


2. How was the system f apartheid oppressive?
3. ‘The South African Constitution inspires democrats all over the world’. Comment.
4. What is the significance of the Preamble of our Constitution?
5. Write a short note on ‘Universal Adult Franchise’.
6. What is Secularism? Why is India called a secular state?
7. Describe in 60 to 80 words the freedom struggle of South Africa.
8. How did the White minority and the Black Majority agree to draw up a common constitution
for South Africa?
9. On what four ideals did the Preamble to the Indian Constitution lay emphasis?
10. Suggest four measures to attain socialist ideals of Indian Society.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Why do we need a Constitution? Mention any four points.


2. Discuss the method adopted by the Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution.
3. How was Indian Constitution framed?
4. What do you understand by the three catagories of amendments?
5. Discuss the following features of Indian constitution:
Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic Republic.
ECONOMICS

THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which is the main production activity in villages across India?


a. Small shop-keeping b. Diary farming
c. Cultivation of crops d. Transport
2. Name the nearest town to Palampur
a. Raiganj b. Shahpur
c. Gosaipur d. Majauli
3. How many families reside in Palampur village?
a. 300 b. 80
c. 450 d. 260
4. Physical Capital includes
a. Fixed Capital b. Working Capital
c. Human Capital d. Fixed and Working Capital
5. Name the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land.
a. Sing cropping b. Double cropping
c. Multiple cropping d. Use of fertilizers
6. v. What is the minimum wage rate for a farm labourer set by the government.
a. Rs. 35 b. Rs. 40
c. Rs. 60 d. Rs. 35-40
7. Green Revolution was introduced in
a. 1951 b. 1970
c. In the late 1960’s d. 1950
8. How many families are landless in Palampur village?
a. 250 b. 150
c. 80 d. 450
9. Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?
a. Land b. Labour
c. Capital d. Human Capital
10. Which factor of production is fixed and scarce?
a. Capital b. Land
c. Labour d. Enterprise
11. Choose the activity which is not carried out in the Palampur village:
a. Farming b. Dairy
c. Manufacturing on a large scale d. Small Scale manufacturing
12. Which one of the following resources is not required for production activities:
a. Natural resources b. Human efforts
c. Money d. Shortage of electricity
13. Name the nearest town of Palampur:
a. Madipur b. Faridabad
c. Raiganj d. Gurgaon
14. How many families are there in the Palampur village?
a. 250 b. 350
c. 450 d. 550
15. Major part of the village land is owned by whom?
a. By 4 upper caste families b. Cultivators
c. By 80 upper caste families d. Backward castes
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What is multiple cropping? What is its use and when is it possible?


2. Differentiate between traditional and modern farming methods.
3. How did the spread of electricity help farmers in Palampur?
4. What are the important sources of irrigation? Explain the importance of irrigation facilities in
increasing production?
5. Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you
agree?
6. Modern farming methods require the farmers to start with more cash than before. Why?
7. What is the working capital required by the farmer using modern farming methods?
8. Explain how farmers arrange the inputs that they need for production.
9. Explain the factors responsible for degradation of soil.
10. Discuss the problem of uneconomic size of land holding in villages.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. What are the farming and non-farming activities? Explain their importance in the development
of rural economy.
2. What is production activity? What are the inputs required to do this activity?
3. Explain the four factors of production.
4. Discuss the ways through which intensive use of the same piece of land is possible. Give
examples.
5. What do you mean by Green Revolution? Discuss its need and impact.
6. Why is it necessary to emphasize on sustainable use of land?
PEOPLE AS RESOURCE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Human Capital includes stock of


a. Skill, Knowledge and Enterprise b. Knowledge only
c. Healthy people d. Educated people
2. An agricultural worker can be converted into an asset by imparting training on the use of:
a. Traditional technology b. Capital
c. Labour d. Modern Technology
3. Which age group constitutes the workforce population?
a. 10-40 years b. 12-60 years
c. 15-59 years d. 20-60 years
4. In rural areas there is mainly
a. Seasonal and disguised b. Frictional unemployment
unemployment
c. Educated unemployment d. Technological unemployment
5. During 1951-2000 crude death rate has dropped to
a. 26.1 b. 12
c. 8.7 d. 15.6
6. During 1951-2000 crude birth rate has dropped to
a. 8.7 b. 26.1
c. 15 d. 18.7
7. Infant mortality rate is the death rate of a child
a. Under 1 year of age b. Under 5 years
c. Under 2 years d. Under 6 months
8. The Tenth Plan outlay on education has increased to
a. 43,285 crores b. 251 crores
c. 151 crores d. 50,000 crores
9. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan is a significant step toward providing
a. General Education b. Middle Education
c. Elementary Education d. Higher Education
10. Increase in longevity of life is an indication of
a. Reduction in infant mortality b. Reduction in death rate
rate
c. Reduction in birth rate d. Good quality of life and self
confidence.
11. Which states of India have poor health indices and few medical colleges?
a. Tamil Nadu and Andhra b. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Pradesh
c. Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra d. Bihar and UP
12. Economic activieis include
a. Market and Non Market b. Profit
activities
c. Market activities d. Flow of goods and services.
13. Primary sector constitutes the activities relating to exploitation of
a. Man-made resources b. National resources
c. Natural resources d. Raw-material
14. Virtuous Cycle means
a. Human Development causing b. Poverty causing poverty
human development
c. Human development causing d. Economic development due to more
poverty production
15. An unemployed person is one who is
a. Willing to work b. Who is able and willing to work but
cannot get work.
c. Able to work d. Not able to work so cannot get
work.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What do you understand by ‘People as a resource’?


2. How is human resource different from other resources like land and physical capital?
3. What is the role of education in human capital formation?
4. What is the role of health in human capital formation?
5. What part does health play in the individual’s working life?
6. What are the various activities undertaken in the primary, secondary and tertiary sectors?
7. What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?
8. Why are women employed in low paid work?
9. How will you explain the term ‘unemployment’?
10. What is the difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Define human capital formation. How is human capital formation important for the
development of a country?
2. Explain how a large population can be turned into a productive asset.
3. Investment in human capital has resulted in increase in efficiency and production. Explain with
the help of examples.
4. Differentiate between Market and non-market activities.
5. Give a brief account of literacy in India.
6. Discuss the measures adopted by the government to promote education in India. Mention any
four points.
7. Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower resources. Explain. Mention any four points.
8. Statistically, unemployment rate in India is low. Explain.
9. Explain the virtuous cycle of human development.
10. Explain how investment in human resource helped the country in becoming a developed
country.
Question Bank
SOCIAL STUDIES
Class IX

HISTORY

FOREST SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Who are the people who move from one place to the other to lend their sheep, sheep, goats
and cattle?
a. Forest dwellers b. Shifting cultivators
c. Pastoralists d. Food gatherers
2. Between 1700 to 1995, how much area of forest cover in the world was cleared for industrial
uses, cultivation, pastures and firewood?
a. 10 million square km. b. 13.9 million square km.
c. 20 million square km. d. 25.5 million square km.
3. How much India’s landmass was under cultivation in 1600?
a. About one-third of India’s b. About one-fourth of India’s landmass
landmass
c. About one-fifth of India’s landmass d. About one-sixth of India’s landmass
4. How many sleepers were required for each mile of railway track?
a. About 1000 to 2000 b. About 1500 to 2500
c. About 1760 to 2000 d. About 1360 to 1500
5. What is meant by deforestation?
a. Disappearance of forests b. Not planting new trees
c. Selling trees to industrialists d. None of the above
6. When was the Indian Forest Service setup?
a. In 1564 b. In 1566
c. In 1764 d. In 1864
7. Which Act was passed in 1865?
a. The Regulatory Act b. The Pitt’s India Act
c. Indian Forest Act d. The First Factory Act
8. In 1906, where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute setup?
a. Lahore b. Peshawar
c. Nagpur d. Deharadun
9. Which Forest Act divided Indian forests into three categories-reserved, protected and village
forests?
a. The 1660 Forest Act b. The 1760 Forest Act
c. The 1878 Forest Act d. The 1881 Forest Act
10. How many tigers were killed between 1875-1925?
a. About 80,000 b. About 150,000
c. About 200,000 d. The 250,000
11. Where is Bastar located?
a. In Chattisgarh b. In Andhra Pradesh
c. In Orissa d. In Maharashtra
12. Which types of trees are useful for building ships and railways?
a. The pipal trees b. The mango trees
c. The Jamun trees d. Teak and Saal trees
13. Java was in the possession of which colonial power?
a. The Japanese b. The English
c. The Dutch d. The French
14. Which one of the following things is not a forest product?
a. Gum b. Resin
c. Rubber d. Fish
15. Silk worms are fed on the leaves of which trees?
a. Mango b. Jamun
c. Mulberry d. Gauva
16. Which country occupied Indonesia during the Second World War?
a. Germany b. Japan
c. France d. England

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Write any three advantages of Forests.


2. Why did the people of Bastar rise in revolt against the British?
3. Suggest three measures to conserve forests and explain them.
4. How did the Forest Acts (1865, 1878 and 1927) create difficulties for people, especially the
Adivasis and other peasant users?
5. Why are forests affected by wars?
6. What were the reasons for the expansion of cultivation in the colonial period?
7. What are the similarities between colonial management of the forests in Bastar and in Java?
8. Write the total number of different plants we find the Western Ghats of India or in the
Amazon forests.
9. Write name of one dense forest found in Chattisgarh.
10. What is meant by the term ‘deforestation’? Since when is it felt as a problem?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. “Forests are the National Wealth”. Illustrate your answer with suitable examples.
2. Why is it necessary to increase the areas under forests? Give five important reasons.
3. Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following
groups of people:
a. Shifting cultivators
b. Nomadic and Pastoralist Communities
c. Firms dealing in timber / forest produce
d. Plantation owners
e. Kings/British officials engaged in Shikar.
4. Between 1880 and 1920, forest cover in the Indian subcontinent declined by 9.7 million
hectares, from 108.6 million hectare to 93.9 million hectares. Discuss the role of the following
factors in this decline.
5. Discuss the similarities of colonial Management in Bastar and Java.
6. Explain the reasons for cultivation expansion during the colonial period.
7. Why did the Bhumkal rebellion fail.
PASTORALISTS IN THE MODERN WORLD

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What are Bugyals?


a. They are wastelands b. They are natural pastures in the low
mountains
c. They are natural pastures on the d. They are deserts
high mountains above 12,000 ft.
2. Who are nomads?
a. They move from one place to the b. They are rich farmers in the valleys
other to earn their living
c. They are poor farmers in the d. They are thieves and dacoits
mountains
3. Which one of the following is not a pastoral community?
a. The Bhotiyas b. The Sherpas
c. The Kinnuries d. The Jains
4. Name the people who are still great herders of goats and sheep.
a. The Rajputs b. The Marathas
c. The Gujjar Bakarwalas of Jammu & d. The Dhangars of Maharashtra
Kashmir
5. In which part of India, the Gaddi shepherds live?
a. Jammu & Kashmir b. Himachal Pradesh
c. Maharashtra d. Karnataka
6. Name the pastoralist community/communities which live in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
a. Gujjar Bakarwalas b. Gaddi Shepherd
c. Dhangars d. The Gollas, Kurumas
7. What are Dhars?
a. High meadows b. Deep valleys
c. Fertile plains d. Desert land
8. Which one fo the following is not a herder tribe of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
a. Gollas b. Gaddis
c. Kurumas d. Kurulias
9. Name one of the following areas where Banjaras are not generally found:
a. Kerala b. Punjab
c. Rajasthan d. Uttar Pradesh
10. Which one of the following factors affect the seasonal movements of the Dhangars of
Maharashtra?
a. Cold and snow b. Climatic disturbance
c. Drought and flood d. Alternate monsoon and dry season.
11. Which one of the following acts was passed in 1871?
a. Wasteland Rules b. The criminal Tribes Act
c. The Forest Act d. Grazing Tax
12. In which one type of forests, no pastoral activity was allowed?
a. Protected forests b. Reserved forests
c. Village forests d. Wild Forests
13. In which area, the Raikas lived?
a. Jammu & Kashmir b. Rajasthan
c. Maharashtra d. Punjab
14. Which one of the following is not a pastoral community of Africa?
a. The Bedouins b. The Maasai
c. The Dhangars d. The Berbers
15. In which continent of the world about half the population of the world lives as pastoralists.
a. Asia b. Africa
c. Europe d. America
16. Which one of the following is the game reserve of Tanzania?
a. The Masai Mare Park b. The Seregeta Park
c. The Samburu National Park d. The Anand Vana

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Discuss the life style of the Banjaras.


2. What is the difference between the lives of the mountain pastoralists and the pastoralists of
the Deccan Plateau?
3. How have the Raikas of Rajasthan coped with the changes posed by the partition of the
country?
4. Give an account of the Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu & Kashmir.
5. Give an account of the Gaddi Shepherds of Himachal Pradesh.
6. Give a pen picture of the life of the Dhangars of Maharashtra.
7. To sustain their life, the pastoral groups had to consider different factors. Name and explain
them.
8. When the colonial government put so many hurdles in the way of the pastoralists – by passing
Wasteland Rules, Forest Acts, Criminal Tribes Act and Grazing Tax etc. – how did the
pastoralists cope with these changes?
9. Discuss the main features of the pastoral nomads of two major regions or states of the
southers India i.e. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
10. Where do the Raikas live? Mention the characteristics of their life and economy.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks Each)

1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the
advantages to the environment of their continuous movement?
2. What were the effects of the different laws passed by the Colonial Government on the
Pastoralists?
3. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai Community lost their grazing lands.
4. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives
of the pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write any two examples of changes which
were similar for Indian pastoralists and Maasai herders.
5. What are Gujjar Bakarwals?
6. Why did Gadd shepherds move up and down the Himalayas?
PEASANTS AND FARMERS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. When was the large part of England quite open?


a. Before the sixteenth century b. Before the seventeenth century
c. Before the eighteenth century d. Before the nineteenth century
2. What did the enclosure imply?
a. It meant the piece of land enclosed b. It meant an open field
from all sides
c. It meant green fields d. It meant vast area of marshy land
3. Why was the land enclosed in the sixteenth century?
a. To provide more area for sheep b. To build new houses
farming
c. To install new factories d. To stock food grains
4. Why were the enclosures opposed by the poor people?
a. They deprived them of their b. They took away their jobs
common lands
c. The destroyed their homes and d. The forced them to migrate to urban
hearth. areas.
5. Why did the peasants protest against the threshing machines in the 19th century?
a. They were dangerous b. They were too difficult to operate
c. The deprived the workers of their d. They were too costly to buy
livelihood
6. Name the crop which improved the soil and improved its fertility.
a. Gauva b. Jute
c. Sugarcane d. Turnip
7. Why did the people migrate from the rural areas to urban areas in England?
a. To avoid atrocities by the farmers b. In search of jobs
c. For the better education of their d. To get better healthcare
children
8. Whey was the land enclosed for food production?
a. In the 16th century b. In the 17th century
c. In the 18th century d. In the 20th century
9. Till the 1780s, white American settlements were limited to which areas?
a. A small narrow strip of coastal land b. A small narrow area in the western
I the east. coast of America
c. Central America d. South America
10. When did the White American move into the Missippi?
a. Between 1600 to 1650 b. Between 1650 to 1700
c. Between 1750 to 1800 d. Between 1800 to 1850
11. Who was Captain Swing?
a. He was a captain in the British army b. It was a mythical name to threaten the
farmers
c. He was a leader of the factory d. He was the savior of the cultivators.
workers
12. How much land did the white barons possess individually?
a. Between 500-1000 acres b. Between 1000-1500 acres
c. Between 1500-2000 acres d. Between 2000-2500 acres
13. Who was the inventor of the first mechanized reaper in USA?
a. John Kay b. James Hargreaves
c. Samual Crompton d. Cyrus Mc Cormick
14. What is meant by Black Blizzards?
a. High rising sea waves b. Terrifying dust storms
c. Devastating earthquakes d. Furious floods
15. Which ruler did not allow the British traders to trade in Opium with his country?
a. Rulers of South Korea b. Rules of North Korea
c. The Chinese Ruler d. The Japanese Ruler
16. Which country came to be known as the bread basket of the world?
a. Russia b. USA
c. India d. Vietnam

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Why were the threshing machines opposed by the poor in England?


2. Who was Captain Swing? What did the name symbolize or represent?
3. Which lessons can be drawn from the conversion of the countryside in the USA from the
breadbasket to the dust bowl?
4. Write a paragraph on why the British insisted on growing opium in India?
5. Why were Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium?
6. Explain briefly what the open field system meant to rural people in the 19th Century England.
7. Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England.
8. What was the impact of the enclosures on the poor?
9. Why were Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium?
10. Write a paragraph on why the British insisted on farmers growing opium in India.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks Each)

1. Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England.


Look at the system from the point of view of:
a. A rich farmer
b. A labourer
c. A peasant woman
2. Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosure in England.
3. What was the impact of the westward expansion of the settlers in the USA?
4. What were the advantages and disadvantages of the use of mechanical harvesting machines in
the USA?
5. How were the unwilling cultivators made to produce opium?
HISTORY & SPORT – THE STORY OF CRICKET
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which country invented the game of cricket?


a. India b. England
c. West Africa d. Australia
2. Which one of the following is not a part cricket?
a. Bat b. Ball
c. Wickets d. Net
3. Which one is the peculiarity of the test cricket?
a. It can go up to five days b. It can go for one day
c. It requires a football to play d. It requires good swimmers
4. What is the length of the cricket pitch?
a. 10 yards b. 15 yards
c. 18 yards d. 20 yards
5. Which cricket ground is oval or nearly circular in shape?
a. The Adelaide cricket ground b. The Melborne cricket ground
c. Feroze Shah Kotla cricket ground d. The Chepauk cricket ground
6. When were the laws of cricket first drawn up?
a. In 1744 b. In 1640
c. In 1761 d. In 1772
7. What should be the measurement of the ‘Stumps’?
a. 10 inches high b. 20 inches high
c. 22 inches high d. 24 inches high
8. What should be the weight of the ball?
a. 2 to 3 ounces b. 3 to 4 ounces
c. 4 to 5 ounces d. 5 to 6 ounces
9. The Merylebon Cricket Club (MCC) was formed in which year?
a. 1785 b. 1787
c. 1788 d. 1789
10. Which practice of the cricket game was evolved between 1760s and 1770s?
a. To pitch the bass through the air b. To declare leg before wicket
rather than roll it along the ground
c. To restrict the cricket game up to d. To make the blade of the ball of the bat
20 overs of the willows wood.
11. Who tried to play cricket with another material than wood?
a. Dennis Lillee of Australia b. Kapil Dev of India
c. Shahid Afridi of Pakistan d. Mahmudullah of Bangladesh
12. Which one of the following games came to be known as colonial game?
a. Hocey b. Football
c. Cricket d. Badminton
13. Out of the following, which was the first Cricket Club of India?
a. The Calcutta Cricket Club b. The Bombay Cricket Club
c. The Delhi Cricket Club d. The Chandigarh Cricket Club
14. The origin of Indian cricket can be traced to which city?
a. Bombay (Mumbai) b. Delhi
c. Calcutta (Kolkata) d. Madras (Chennai)
15. Which was the first Indian community to start playing cricket in India?
a. The Jains b. The Buddhists
c. The Sikhs d. The Parsis
16. Who was India’s first Test Captain of the Cricket Team?
a. Vijay Hazare b. C.K. Nayadu
c. Palwankar Baloo d. Sunil Gavaskar.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Why were the rich, who played cricket, called amateurs? What was the difference between
the Amateurs and the Professionals?
2. Why is it said that the battle of Waterloo was won on the playing ground of Eton?
3. The revision of the laws by MCC in the later half of the 18 th century brought in what changes in
the game of cricket?
4. Which changes were introduced in the game of cricket during the 19th century?
5. Describe one way in which in the 19th century technology brought about a change in
equipment and give an example where no change in equipment took place.
6. Explain why cricket became popular in India and the West Indies. Can you give reasons why uit
did not become popular in countries of South America.
7. How have advances in technology, especially television technology, affected the development
of contemporary cricket?
8. Discuss how cricket is a different game from other team games.
9. Describe one way in which in the 19th century, technology brought about a change in
equipment and give one example where no change is equipment took place.
10. It’s often said that ‘Battle of Waterloo was won on the play field of Eton’. Explain.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks Each)

1. Test cricket is a unique game in many ways. Discuss some of the ways in which it is different
from other team games.
2. How are the peculiarities of the Test Cricket shaped by its historic beginning as a village game?
3. Give brief explanation why Parsis’ were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in
India.
4. Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentagular Tournament. Give a brief explanation.
5. Why was the name ICC changed from the Imperial Cricket Conference to International Cricket
Conference. Give a brief explanation.
6. Give brief explanation about the significance of shifting of the ICC headquarters from London
to Dubai.
CLOTHING: A SOCIAL HISTORY
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What were the laws known as which controlled the dress and food behavior of the social
inferiors in Medieval France?
a. Advision Laws b. Sumptuary Laws
c. Suffocating Laws d. Moral Laws
2. What is the right to vote called?
a. Suffrage b. Clientage
c. Blockage d. Hostage
3. What is meant by Sans and Culottes?
a. It meant with knee breeches b. It meant without knee breeches
c. It meant without clothes d. It meant European clothing
4. Which one of the following color was not the favorite color of France?
a. Blue b. Black
c. Red d. White
5. Which was the favorite dress of Gandhiji?
a. Turban and dhoti b. Bushirt and pant
c. Pant and tie d. Pyjama and overcoat
6. What is meant by corset?
a. A close fitting under the bodice b. A tight pyjama
worn by women
c. A loose shirt d. A long coat
th
7. In the 19 century, women of which country agitated against corsets and tight dressings?
a. Women of England b. Women of France
c. Women of Germany d. American women
8. Why was there a movement in England against the use of long shirts and gown?
a. Because they swept the grounds b. Because they required too much cloth
and collected dirt
c. Because the were costly to buy d. Because the spoiled.
9. When were the heavy, restrictive underclothes discarded in England?
a. In the 1850s b. In the 1870s
c. In the 1890s d. In the 1920s
10. Who were the first Indian to adopt Western style clothing?
a. The Parsi’s b. The Punjabis
c. The Buddhists d. The Kashmiris
11. Wearing of which two things created misunderstanding between the Indians and the British?
a. Turban and shoes b. Kurta and pyjama
c. Turban and dhoti d. Pant and coat
12. Which person refused to take off his shoes before entering the courtroom?
a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Lala Lajpat Rai
c. Sardar Bhagat Singh d. Monockjee Cowasjee
13. Which movement heralded the use of Indian goods as against the western goods?
a. The Non-cooperation Movement b. The Swadeshi Movement
c. The Khilafat Movement d. The Quit India Movement
14. Who used cloth as a symbol of weapon against the British rule?
a. Sardar Patel b. Swamin Dayananad
c. Mahatma Gandhi d. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
15. Which leader adopted a loin cloth and the Chaddi as his dress?
a. Subhash Chandra Bose b. Mohammad Iqbal
c. Mohammad Ali Jinnah d. Mahatma Gandhi
16. Which event ended all distinctions of dress worn by different classes of France?
a. The French Revolution b. Nepoleonic Laws
c. Suffrage Movement d. The American Revolution.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. a. What was the dress of the Aristocratic French lady n the eve of the French Revolution
(1789)?
b. What was the dress of the aristocrat noblemen on the eve of the French Revolution?
2. Which changes made possible in Britain to make changes in the traditional dress?
3. Explain the reason for the changes in clothing patterns and materials in the eighteenth
century?
4. What were the sumptuary laws in France?
5. How did the French Revolution end all the distinctions imposed by the Sumptuary Laws?
6. How did the women react to the dress norms in nineteenth century?
7. “Changes in the women’s clothing came about as result of the two world wars.” Discuss the
statement beifly.
8. What do societal norms of clothing determine?
9. What circumstances were clothing styles dependent on before the 18th century?
10. What were the factors that influenced change in clothing styles after the 18th century?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Give any two examples of the ways in which European dress codes were different from Indian
dress codes.
2. Suggest reasons why women in the nineteenth century were obliged to continue wearing
Indian dress even when men switched over to the more convenient western clothing. What
does this show about the position of women in the society?
3. Winston Churchill described Mahatma Gandhi as a ‘seditious Middle Temple Lawyer’ now
posing as ‘a half naked fakir’. What provoked such a comment and what does it tell you about
the symbolic strength of Mahatma Gandhi’s dress?
4. How did Mahatma Gandhi’s dream of clothing the nation in Khadi appeal only to some
sections of the Indians?
5. Discuss in a paragraph about women’s reactions about dress norms in modern age.
GEOGRAPHY:
CLIMATE
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Place receiving the highest rainfall in the world:


a. Silchar b. Cherrapunji
c. Mawsynram d. Guwahati
2. The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers:
a. Kalbaisakhi b. Trade Winds
c. Loo d. None of the above
3. Which one of the following causes rainfall in winter in north-western parts of India?
a. Cyclonic depression b. Western disturbances
c. Retreating monsoon d. S.W. Monsoon
4. Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
a. Early May b. Early June
c. Early July d. Early August
5. Which one of the following characterizes the cold weather season in India?
a. Warm days and warm nights b. Warm days and cold nights
c. Cool days and cold nights d. Cold days and warm nights
6. Which one of the following is not a element of weather and climate?
a. Temperature b. Precipitation
c. Atomsphere d. Ocean currents
7. Which part of India experiences the highest range of temperature?
a. Thar desert of Rajasthan b. Part of Jammu and Kashmir
c. Part of Manipur d. Parts of Tripura
8. Which one of the following is frequently struck by Tropical Cyclones?
a. Rajasthan b. Punjab
c. Jharkhand d. Andhra Pradesh
9. Which one of the following is frequently struck by Tropical cyclones?
a. Rajasthan b. Punjab
c. Jharkhand d. Andhra Pradesh
10. Which one of the following states is affected by ‘Kal Baisakhis’?
a. Haryana b. Rajasthan
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Assam
11. What are the two characteristics features of the tropical climate?
a. Relatively high temperature b. High rainfall throughout the year
throughout the year
c. Predominantly dry winters d. Snow and cold throughout the year
12. When does the retreating South West Monsoon season begins in India?
a. July b. August
c. September d. October
13. What are the jet streams?
a. S.W. Monsoons which begin in the b. N.E. Monsoons which begin in the
month of October month of March
c. The cyclones which hit Bengal and d. Fast flowing winds which blow in a
Orissa narrow zone in upper atmosphere
14. Name the rainiest month in Chennai.
a. October b. November
c. March d. April
15. Name the driest month in Chennai?
a. January b. February
c. March d. April
16. Name the month when the Monsoons approximately arrive in India.
a. May b. June
c. July d. August

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Why do the north-east trade winds change their direction while blowing through the Ganga
Valley?
2. Give reasons as to why parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the Leeward side of the Western Ghats
are drought prone.
3. Explain with reasons, the weather conditions created by Western disturbances in Northern
India in winter as distinct from the Northern Eastern Trade Winds.
4. What is a Rain Shadow?
5. Why are south-west monsoons less rainy in Tamil Nadu or Madras (Now Chennai)?
6. The Tamil Nadu Coast receives winter rainfall. Give reasons.
7. The Punjab and Haryana also receive rain in winter. Why?
8. Why does Mawsynram receive the highest rainfall in the world?
9. Why does Poona receive less rainfall than Bombay?
10. Give one example each of the following:
a. An aquable climate
b. An extreme type of climate
c. The rainfall maxima during the south-west and retreating monsoon
d. Rainfall due to western disturbances and monsoons in India.
11. What is annual range of temperature? Explain it by giving examples.
12. Why has Trivandrum (Thiruananthapuram) equable climate? Give two reasons.
13. Write two characteristics of Arabian Sea Branch of south-west monsoons.
14. Discuss the distribution of precipitation in the country and the consequences of its uneven
distribution.
15. Why is the distribution of rainfall in India uneven? Give four reasons.
16. Why does the rainfall decrease from east to the west in Northern India?
17. Rainfall decreases from east to west in the Northern plain while it increases in the Peninsular
India. Give two reasons for this pattern in each.
18. Why does Delhi receive more rain than Jodhpur?
19. Give reasons as to why the bulk of rainfall is concentrated over a few months.
20. The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclone. Give reasons.
21. Define monsoons. What do you understand by ‘break’ monsoon?
22. What causes the reversal of N.E. Monsoon winds? What influence does this have on South-
East Coast of India?
23. Distinguish between weather and climate.
24. Distinguish between Equable and Extreme climates.
25. Distinguish between rainfall and precipitation.
26. Distinguish between Windward Side and Leeward Side.
27. Why do the south-westerly winds cause rainfall in India?
28. Distinguish between North-East Monsoons and Retreating Monsoon.
29. Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. What are the controls affecting the climate of India?


2. Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable
examples.
3. Discuss the factors controlling the Indian weather conditions.
4. Discuss the mechanism of monsoons.
5. What are the monsoons? How are they caused? Describe briefly the summer monsoons and
the winter and the winter monsoons.
6. How many seasons can be recognized in India? Give their names.
7. Discuss how the Himalayas and monsoonal regime of rainfall lead to climate unity of India.
NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILD LIFE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What was the first form of life to appear on the Earth?


a. Plants b. Animals
c. Men d. Dinosaurs
2. Which one factor among the following did not contribute to the importance of plants?
a. Animals depend on plant life b. Men depend on plant life
c. Factories depend on plant life d. Heavenly bodies depend on plant life
3. What is meant by ‘Biome’?
a. Biome means plant communities b. It means the cluster of stars
occurring in distinct groups in areas
having same climatic conditions
c. It means an area of dense forests d. It means deep valley.
4. There are how many types of flowering plants in India?
a. About 5000 b. Abut 10,000
c. About 15,000 d. About 20,000
5. What is the approximately number of species of plants in India?
a. About 27,000 b. About 37,000
c. About 47,000 d. About 57,000
6. Which among the following important trees is not found in Tropical Ran Forests?
a. Ebony b. Mangoes
c. Mahagony d. Rosewood
7. Which one state among the following has not the Tropical Deciduous Forests?
a. Jharkhand b. Foothills of the Himalayas
c. Chhattisgarh d. Punjab
8. In which one of the following states, the thorny forests are not found in large numbers?
a. Rajasthan b. Gujarat
c. Jammu & Kashmir d. Madhya Pradesh
9. Where are the Sunderbans located?
a. Haryana b. Gujarat
c. Rajasthan d. Kerala
10. Which is the natural habitat of the Indian Lion?
a. Bengal b. Gujarat
c. Rajasthan d. Madhya Pradesh
11. How many animal species are in India?
a. About 29,000 b. About 59,000
c. About 79,000 d. About 89,000
12. How many species of birds India has?
a. 1000 b. 1100
c. 1200 d. 1300
13. Among the following, which are the two migratory birds which came to India?
a. Siberian Crane b. Vultures
c. Hawks d. Flamingo
14. Which is our national animal?
a. Tiger b. Lion
c. Elephant d. Cow
15. Which is our national bird?
a. Parrot b. Peacock
c. Pigeon d. Dove
16. Choose the two states where elephants are found:
a. Jungles of Assam b. Jungles of Kerala
c. Jungles of Jammu & Kashmir d. Jungles of Himachal Pradesh
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What do you mean by natural resources? What is their importance?


2. Write a short note on ‘Importance of Plant Kingdom’.
3. Suggest two measures to conserve natural vegetation in Western Rajasthan.
4. Why is thorny type of vegetation found in Rajasthan? Give two reasons.
5. Why do the tropical deciduous forests shed their leaves during the summer?
6. What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples.
7. Name any eight biosphere reserves along with the states where they are situated.
8. What is meant by vegetation? How much natural is the ‘Natural Vegetation’ of India today?
9. Write a short note on: Indian Flora.
10. What is Biome? State the number of biomes into which the land ecosystem is divided and also
the basis for the grouping.
11. Discuss how the relief and rainfall influence the distribution of natural vegetation in India.
12. Distinguish between: Flora and Fauna.
13. Distinguish between: Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests.
14. Distinguish between: Moist and Dry Deciduous Forests.
15. Write a short note on: Extinct and Endangered Species.
16. Quite a few species of plants and animals are endangered. Why?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Name two animals having habitat in tropical and montane type of vegeration.
2. What are the main characteristics of the Tropical Deciduous Forests?
3. What are the main characteristics of the Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs?
4. What are the main characteristics of the Temperate Forests and Grasslands?
5. Write what you know about the characteristics of the Montane (or Alpine and Tundra)
Vegetation.
6. Write in about 100 words about the Tidal Forests.
7. Why has India a rich heritage of Flora and Fauna?
8. What is the great need of conserving the natural vegetation?
9. What steps are taken by government to conserve our natural vegetation?
10. Describe the different measures that have been taken by the government to conserve our wild
life and varied fauna.
POPULATION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in:
a. The area of departure b. The area of arrival
c. Both the area of departure and d. None of the above
arrival
2. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of:
a. High birth rates b. High death rates
c. High life expectancies d. More married couples
3. The magnitude of population growth refers to:
a. The total population of an area b. The number of persons added each year
c. The rate at which the population d. The number of females per thousand
increases males
4. According to the Census 2001, a ‘literate’ person is one who
a. Can read and write his/her name b. Can read and write any language
c. Is 7 years old and can read and d. Knows 3 r’s (reading, writing and
write any language with arithmetic)
understanding
5. Which two of the following countries are the most populated countries of the world.
a. Canada b. China
c. India d. Japan
6. What was India’s population according to the Census of 2001?
a. 80 crores b. 90 crores
c. 102.7 crores d. 110.8 crores
7. What was the density of India’s population according to the Census of 2001?
a. 200 persons per square km b. 250 persons per square km
c. 324 persons per square km d. 438 persons per square km
8. What was the average annual rate of growth of population in India in the 199’s?
a. 1.93% b. 2.1%
c. 2.4% d. 3.2%
9. What is the sex ration in India according to the Cesus of 2001?
a. 933 females to 1000 males b. 810 females to 1000 males
c. 736 females to 1000 males d. 1200 females to 1000 males
10. What year is considered a great demographic divide in India?
a. 1911 b. 1921
c. 1931 d. 1751
11. What is the life expectancy of birth in India now?
a. 61 years in 2001 b. 41 years in 2001
c. 51 years in 2001 d. 81 years in 2001
12. Which is the largest state in terms of area in India?
a. Madhya Pradesh b. Rajasthan
c. Uttar Pradesh d. Maharashtra
13. Which state/Union Territory had the lowest population according to the Census of 2001?
a. Delhi b. Chandigarh
c. Sikkim d. Lakshdweep
14. Which state/Union Territory had the highest density of population in India?
a. Punjab b. Delhi
c. West Bengal d. Orissa
15. Which state has the least density of population in India?
a. Assam b. Nagaland
c. Manipur d. Arunchal Pradesh
16. Name the least densely populated Union Territory.
a. Delhi b. Chandigarh
c. Lakshdweep d. Andaman & Nicobar Islands

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. a. What is Census?
b. Define sex ration.
2. “Upto a point, the total number of people which a country possesses, has its own significance.
But beyond that it is the quality of the people which matters” How far do you agree with this
view?
3. Discuss the four main causes responsible for the rapid population growth in India.
4. What is the change in the pattern in increase in the growth population during the period
1901–1931 and 1981-91?
5. Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?
6. Why has the number of women per thousand of men been steadily decreasing?
7. What is the dependency ration? What does the comparison of such ratios between India and
Japan reveal us?
8. What is natural growth rate of population? How can birth rate be brought down? Give two
methods for it.
9. What is ‘child labor’? why is child labor banned? Write two reasons.
10. Inspite of mechanization of agriculture and improvement in cottage industry, rural migration
continues to increase. Give two reasons.
11. West Bengal is more densely populated than Punjab. Give reasons.
12. Kerala state is densely populated. Give two reasons.
13. What makes West Bengal the most thickly populates state in India? State three reasons.
14. State in millions the exact difference between the total population of males and females in
India as per 2001 Census.
15. a. Compare the percentage of urban population as it was obtained in 1901 and 1991.
b. Name three ‘million-plus’ cities one each from Tamil Nadu Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
16. Why has there been such a sudden abrupt rise in population of India since 1921?
17. What are the three major aspects of population study?
18. While studying population growth, what are the two characteristics to be kept in mind?
Distinguish between the two.
19. The population in India has been growing very fast. Why? What measures would you suggest
to control it?
20. Explain the concept of optimum population.
21. How does occupational structure reflect the levels of growth of a country?
22. Write a short note on Urbanisation of India.
23. Why is adolescents indentified as a special group?
24. Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.
25. Discuss the major components of population growth.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Why is it important to study population?


2. Explain the densely, moderately and sparsely populated parts of India in the light of the major
factors that determine the distribution of population.
3. Point out the main factors which influence the population distribution of India.
4. What are the demerits of over-population? Explain giving examples from different parts of
India.
5. How should we solve the problem arising out of the rapid growth of population?
6. Why is it necessary to change the present occupational structure of India? Explain it by giving
five reasons.
7. What problem India has to face because of her higher percentage of dependent population?
8. What are the significant features of the National Population Policy, 2000?
POLITICAL SCIENCE

ELECTORAL POLITICS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections is/are false?
a. Elections enable people to judge b. People select the representative of their
the performance of the choice in an election
government.
c. Elections enable people to evaluate d. People can indicate which policies they Q
the performance of the judiciary. prefer.
2. Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic.
a. India has the largest number of b. India’s Election Commission is very
voters in the world. powerful.
c. In India, everyone above the age of d. In India, the losing parties accept the
18 years has a right to vote electoral verdict.
3. Which party ruled over Haryana between 1982 and 1987?
a. The Samajwadi Party b. The Bahujan Samaj Party
c. The Congress Party d. The Bhartiya Janata Party
4. Who formed the new party named as Lok Dal?
a. Mrs. Mayawati b. Choudhary Devi Lal
c. Mr. Rajiv Gandhi d. Mr. L.K. Advani
5. When did the Lok Dal and BJP combined formed the government in Haryana?
a. In 1985 b. In 1986
c. In 1987 d. In 1988
6. How many Lok Sabha Constituencies are there at present?
a. 540 b. 543
c. 547 d. 563
7. Area wise which is the largest Lok Sabha Constituency in our country?
a. Karol Bagh b. Ghaziabad
c. Mumbai East d. Ladakh
8. Area wise which is the smallest Lok Sabha Constituency in our country?
a. Chandni Chowk b. Gurgaon
c. Outer Delhi d. West Mumbai
9. What is an Electoral Roll?
a. A list which contains the particulars b. The list which contains the particulars of
of eligible voters the winning candidate
c. The list of those persons who were d. The list of total persons employed in
caught using unfair means during one booth.
the elections
9. Who has given the slogan of ‘Garibi Hatao’?
a. Indira Gandhi b. Rajiv Gandhi
c. Sonia Gandhi d. Pt. Nehru
10. When government officers work in election duty, they are under the control of:
a. The government b. Election Commission
c. The Parliament d. The judiaciary
11. Which of the two options make the elections democratic?
a. Free and Fair elections b. Universal Adult Franchisee
c. Directive Principles of State Policy d. Fundamental Rights
12. What is Bye-election?
a. Elections held to fill a vacancy b. Elections held after a specific period
caused by the death or any other
reasons.
c. Elections held to form the new d. Elections held in between the fixed term
government of the house.
13. What is Mid-Term elections?
a. Elections held to fill a vacancy b. Election s held before the expiry of the
caused by any reason full term of any House
c. Elections held after the expiry of
full term any House.
14. Who is the President of the Congress Party at present?
a. Sonia Gandhi b. Sharad Pawar
c. Manmohan Singh d. Varun Gandhi
15. An incumbent representative is
a. The representative of the b. The sitting representative
opposition party
c. The future representative d. The previous representative

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What makes an election democratic?


2. Why do modern democracies have representative governments?
3. Is it good to have political competition? Discuss.
4. What is the importance of symbols allotted to the political parties? Who allots symbols?
5. Are the elections too expensive for our country?
6. Write a short note on the Secret Ballot System in 30 words.
7. Give three arguments in favour of lowering the voting age of Indian voters from 21 to 18 years.
8. In modern election system, most of the candidates belong to political parties. Why? Write any
three reasons.
9. What is the significance of the election manifesto?
10. Illustrate the major shortcomings of a simple majority.
11. How far is it necessary to regulate Elections campaign to ensure that every political party and
candidate gets a fair and equal chance?
12. What is a Model code of Conduct which different political parties have agreed to follow during
an Election Campaigns?
13. What can be the consequences of the anomalies of a simple majority system? Are there other
systems which are free from these anomalies?
14. Write short note on ‘Election Petition’.
15. What is the difference between the by-election and mid-term election?
16. Surekha is an officer-in-charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency
in the state. Describe what should she focus on for each of the following states of electon:
a. Election campaign
b. Polling day
c. Counting day
17. Can we draw the following conclusions from the information given in this chapter? Give two
facts to support your position for each of these.
a. Election commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair
elections in the country.
b. There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country.
c. It is very easy for the party in power to win an election.
d. Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair.
18. Chinnappa was convicted for torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing
untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision
go against the principles of democratic elections?
19. Here are some electrical malpractices from different parts of the world. Is there anything that
these countries can learn from India to improve their elections? What would you suggest in
each case?
a. During an election in Nigeria, the officer in charge of counting of votes deliverately
increase the votes of one candidate and declared him elected. The court later found
out that more than five lakh votes for one candidate were counted in favour of
another.
b. Just before elections in Fiji, a pamphlet was distributed warning voters that a vote for
former Prime Minister, Mahendra Chaudyary will lead to bloodshed. This was a threat
voters of Indian Origin.
c. In the US, each state has its own method of voting, its own procedure of counting and
its own authority for conducting elections. Authorities in the state of florida took many
controversial decisions that favoured Mr. Bush in the presedential elections in 2000.
But one could change those decisions.
20. Her are some reports of malpractices in Indian elections . Identify what the problem in each
case is. What should be done to correct the situation?
a. Following an announcement of elections, the minister promised to provide financial
aid to reopen the closed sugar mill.
b. Opposition parties alleged that their statements and campaign was not given the due
attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio.
c. An inquiry by the Election Commission showed that electoral rolls of a state contain
names of 20 lakh fake voters.
d. The hoodlums of a political party were moving with guns, physically preventing
supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of
other parties.
21. Arun was not in class when his chapter was being taught. He came the next day and repeated
what he had heard from his father. Can you tell Ramesh what is wrong with these statements?
a. Women always vote the way men tell them to. So what is the point of giving them the
right to vote?
b. Party politics creates tension in society. Elections should be decided by consensus not
be competition.
c. Only graduates should be allowed to stand as candidates for elections.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Discuss the importance of elections in a democracy.


2. How can the electorates exercise control over the Government?
3. What is a Universal Adult Franchise? Why has it been adopted in India? Give two reasons.
4. Is educational qualification necessary or not for the voters/candidates. Give arguments in
support of your answer.
5. What is a reserved constituency? Why do we have this system?
6. What are the different methods used by political parties during the election campaign to seek
votes?
7. Describe the significance of the Election Commission in organizing free and fair elections in
India.
8. What are the different measures taken to ensure free and fair elections in India?
9. Discuss the different processes of election in brief.
10. A person has been guilty for treating women cruelly or practicing untouchability is not allowed
to contest elections in India. This decision violates principles of democracy or respects the
spirit of democracy? Discuss.
WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decisions can you take on
your own?
a. Select the person you like as Prime b. Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a
Minister majority in Lok Sabha
c. Ask for reconsideration of a bill d. Nominate the leaders of you choice to
passed by both the Houses the Council of Ministers.
2. Who among the following is a part of the political executive?
a. District Collector b. Secretary of the Ministry of Home
Affairs
c. Home Ministers d. Director General of Police
3. Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false?
a. Every law passed by the Parliament b. Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes
needs approval of the Supreme against the spirit of the Constitution.
Court.
c. Any citizen can approach the courts
if his/her rights have violated.
4. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country?
a. The Supreme Court b. The President
c. The Prime Minister d. The Parliament
5. Who is at present the Prime Minister of India?
a. Shri V.P. Singh b. Shri Rajiv Gandhi
c. Smt. Sonia Gandhi d. Shri Manmohan Singh
6. Who is at present the President of India?
a. Sh. A.P. J. Abul Kalam b. Smt. Pratibha Patil
c. Sanjeeva Reddy d. Shri Rajendra Prasad
7. Which of the following is not an institution of the Parliamentary democracy?
a. Legislature b. Executive
c. Autocracy d. Judiciary
8. The Lower House of the Indian Parliament is called:
a. The Lok Sabha b. The Rajya Sabha
c. The Congress d. The Senate
9. Name the Upper House of the National Legislature of Great Britain.
a. The House of Commons b. The Rajya Sabha
c. The Congress d. The Senate
10. Name the Upper House of the National Legislative of USA.
a. The House of Commons b. The House of Lords
c. The Congress d. The Senate
11. How many members can the President nominate in the Rajya Sabha?
a. 6 b. 12
c. 18 d. 24
12. How many ministers can be appointed in the Cabinet?
a. 10 b. 30
c. 20 d. Upto 15% of the total strength of the
Lok Sabha
13. Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces?
a. The Prime Minister b. The President
c. The Home Minister d. The Commander-in-Chief
14. From 1962-67, who was the President of India?
a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad b. Dr. Radhakrishnan
c. Sh. Sanjeeva Reddy d. Gaini Zail Singh
15. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India from which date to which date?
a. 1947-1964 b. 1966-1977
c. 1984-1989 d. 1991-1996
16. Identify the ministry which may have released/started the following new items?
Government announces a new policy that is being made to increase the jute exports from the
country.
a. Ministry of Transport and b. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Communications
c. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food d. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
and Public Distribution

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Can you name the President of the Indian Union till date?
2. Name the different Prime Ministers till date?
3. What are the essential qualifications for a person to become a member of Parliament?
4. Write a short note on “No Confidence Motion”.
5. Compare the powers of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in the field of Ordinary Bills.
6. Compare the powers of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha in the field of the Money Bills.
7. Name the various bicameral and unicameral legislatures to Indian states.
8. State two differences between the parliamentary and presidential forms of government.
9. Mention the qualifications of the office of the President of India.
10. How is the President of India elected?
11. How is the President of India removed?
12. Write a short note on the “The Vice President of India”.
13. Mention any three functions of the Prime Minister vis-à-vis the President of India.
14. Write a short note on: Union Council of Ministers.
15. Write a short note on “Collective Responsibility”.
16. Name the two Houses of the Indian Parliament and their tenure.
17. Write a short note on the Speaker.
18. Distinguish between a Money Bill and an Ordinary Bill.
19. Under what circumstances can the President’s rule be proclaimed in a state? Examine the
necessary changes in the State Government that follow the President’s rule.
20. Mention two (or three) situations where the Indian Parliament can legislate on the subjects
provided in the State List.
21. Of all the institutions that we have studied in this chapter, name the one that exercises the
powers on each of the following matters:
a. Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigation etc.
and different welfare activities for the citizens.
b. Considers the recommendation of the Committee on a law to regulate the Stock
Exchange.
c. Decides on legal dispute between two state governments.
d. Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake.
22. Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Give reasons for your
answer.
23. Three friend went to watch a film that showed the hero becoming Chief Minister for a day and
making big changes in the state. Imran said this is what the country needs. Rizwan said this
kind of personal rule without institutions is dangerous. Shanker said all this is a fantasy. No
minister can do anything in one day. What should be our reaction to such a film?
24. A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two students to act as
leaders of two political parties. She gave them an opinion: Each one should choose to have a
majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to
you, which one would you choose and why?
25. After reading the example of reservation order, three students had different reactions about
the role of the judiciary. Which view, according to you, is correct reading of the role of
judiciary?
a. Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not
independent.
b. Anjaiah says that Judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against
the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it.
c. Vijaya thinks that the Judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a
mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those
who supported and those who opposed the order.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. What are the Executive Powers of the President of India?


2. What are the Legislative Powers of the President of India?
3. What are the Judicial Powers of the President of India?
4. What are the Financial Powers of the President of India?
5. Describe the few Ceremonial Powers of the President of India.
6. Examine the Emergency Powers of the President of India in the light of the following
statement: “The President holds the office of great prestige but very little power.”
7. Describe the powers and functions of the Prime Minister.
8. Discuss the powers and functions of the Parliament.
9. How does the Parliament exercise control over the Government?
10. How is an Ordinary Bill passed in the Parliament?
11. What is the difference in the procedure of passing an Ordinary Bill and a Money Bill?
12. Estimate the role of Judiciary in India’s federal set up. How does this institution of
parliamentary democracy function?
13. Throw some light on the working and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
14. What do you know about the functions and powers of the High Courts of India?
15. Write a short note on ‘Independence of Judiciary’.
16. What is the need for bureaucracy or the Civil Services in the administrative set up of India?
DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?


a. Workers from Bihar go the Punjab b. Christian missions set up a chain of
for work on farms. missionary schools.
c. Men and Women government d. Parents’ property is inherited by their
employees get the same salary children.

2. Which of the following freedom is not available to an Indian citizen?


a. Freedom to criticize the b. Freedom to participate in armed
government revolution
c. Freedom to start movement to d. Freedom to oppose the central values of
change the government the Constitution.
3. Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution?
a. Right to work b. Right to adequate livelihood
c. Right to protect one’s culture d. Right to privacy
4. Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following falls:
a. Freedom to propogate one’s b. Right to life
religion
c. Abolition of untouchability d. Ban on Bonded labour.
5. Which of the following statements do not come under the qualities of Right?
a. It is reasonable b. Such a claim is recognized by the rich
c. Such a claim is recognized by the d. Such a claim is sanctioned by the law
society
6. Which one fo the following is not a Civil Right?
a. Right to vote b. Right to life
c. Right to Equality d. Right to Freedom
7. Which one of the following is not a Political Right?
a. Right to contest elections b. Right to vote
c. Right to seek any political office d. Right to Freedom
8. Which of the following is not an Economic Right?
a. Right to work b. Right to earn a reasonable wage
c. Right to fulfill basic needs d. Right to family
9. Which thing makes any political system democratic?
a. The availability of different civil, b. To attract anybody who is against you.
political and economic rights
c. To drink in a public place d. To drive car rashly
10. Which one of the following is not characteristics of untouchability?
a. Not to allow the Dalits to enter the b. Not to allow all the people to dine in a
temple public hotels.
c. Not to establish matrimonial d. Not to refuse entry to anybody in the
relations with the Dalits temple
11. Which one of the following countries has provided that any person unable to support himself
or his dependants shall be entitled to receive assistance from the government.
a. Egypt b. Pakistan
c. Denmark d. Spain
12. Which one of the following is not a sound reason to call the Rights as Fundamental Rights:
a. They are essential for the all-round b. These rights have been given by the
development of the citizens. constitution
c. No democratic government is d. Military regimes allow these rights to
possible to run without giving their citizens.
these rights to citizens.
13. Which one of the following cannot be called the Right against Exploitation?
a. Right against forced labour b. Right against employment of children
below the age of 14
c. Right against taking action against
thieves and robbers.
14. Which among the following a citizen does not owe to the government.
a. We should pay different taxes b. We should obey the law of the land
c. We should allow the police to
arrest anybody without sufficient
proof.
15. Which one of the following acts cannot be allowed on rallies.
a. These rallies should be peaceful b. The processionists should not carry
weapons
c. There should be prior permission d. The processions try to block traffic.
16. Which of the following restrictions s not justified in the Right of Freedom.
a. Citizens are restricted to enter the b. Citizens are not allowed to buy property
border areas for reasons of security in some areas for the protection of local
people
c. The government bans the political d. No person is allowed to kill his/her
parties that criticizes it every new female children.
and then

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. What is the meaning of Fundamental Rights?


2. Why are these right called Fundamental?
3. Write a short note on ‘Right Against Exploitation’.
4. Mention three major cinstitutional provisions for the protection of women and children in
India.
5. Mention any two Directive Principles of State Policy concerning economic rights of citizens.
6. What is the significance or importance of Fundamental Rights?
7. Explain the Right to Equality enjoyed by the citizens of India? What is its importance?
8. Mention any two exceptions to the Right of Equality.
9. Right to Constitutional Remedies is very special right. What is so special about this right?
10. What safeguards are provided against arbitrary arrest and detention?
11. Write a short note on ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’.
12. Write a short note on ‘Cultural and Educational Rights’.
13. Distinguish between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
14. What will happen if a law passed to enforce one of the Directive Principles violates a
Fundamental Right?
15. Why have Fundamental Duties been included in the Constitution?
16. Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more
valid? Give reasons for your preference.
a. Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens
b. Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy
c. Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.
17. Are these restrictions on the right to freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer.
a. Indian citizen need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of
security
b. Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the
local population.
c. The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in
the next elections.
18. Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take
his application and said, “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager. Has anyone done
this job in you community? Go to the municipality office and apply for sweeper’s position.”
Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance? Spell these out in a
letter from Manoj to the District Collector.
19. When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her, “You can’t
write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o A.K.Banerjee. You are married, so you must give
your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to
Madhurima Rao.” She did not agree. She said, “If my husband’s name is not changed after
marriage, why should mine?” In your opinion, who is right in this dispute? Why?
20. Thousands of Tribals and other forest dwellers gathered at Piparia in Hoshangabad district in
Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from Satpura National Part,
Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmari Wildlife Sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement
is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs. Government claims that their displacement is
essential for the development of the area and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on
behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC, a response from the government and report of
NHRC on this matter.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Mention the Fundamental Rights that are given in the Indian Constitution.
2. “The Right to Freedom is a cluster of six freedoms.” Explain.
3. What are the chief characteristics or features of the Fundamental Rights?
4. Write a short note on the National Human Rights Commission.
5. Why the Constitution specifies the cultural and educational rights of the minorities?
6. Why do we need rights in a democracy?
7. Mention some of the rights of Saudi Arabia.
ECONOMICS
POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. How many people in India live in poverty?


a. 10 crore b. 16 crore
c. 20 crore d. 26 crore
2. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Every second person in India lives b. Every third person in India lives in
in poverty povety
c. Every fourth person in India lives in d. Every fifth person in India lives in
poverty poverty
3. Name a social institution which caused social exclusion in society.
a. The family b. The marriage system
c. The purdah system d. The caste system
4. What is the accepted average calories required per person per day in rural areas?
a. 2400 calories b. 2800 calories
c. 3200 calories d. 3600 calories
5. What is the accepted average calories required per person per day in urban areas?
a. 3000 calories b. 2100 calories
c. 2200 calories d. 2300 calories
6. What are the main reasons of the requirement of more Calories per person per day in rural
areas than in the urban areas?
a. Because people in rural areas have b. Because people in the rural areas are
to face more natural calamities poor
c. Because people in rural areas have d. Because in rural areas, people are more
to do harder physical work illiterate.
7. Which organization in India carries out survey for determining the poverty line?
a. UNO b. UNESCO
c. SAARC d. National Sample Survey Organisation
8. Which one of the following social groups is not so much vulnerable to poverty in India?
a. Scheduled Classes b. Scheduled Tribes
c. Agricultural Labour d. Factory owners.
9. What is average for people below poverty line for all groups in India?
a. 20% b. 26%
c. 30% d. 36%
10. Which one of the following states continues to be poor in India?
a. Punjab b. Bengal
c. Bihar d. Orissa
11. Identify the two states of India where poverty rate is the lowest.
a. Punjab b. Jammu & Kashmir
c. Uttar Pradesh d. Bengal
12. In which country of the world, the poverty line rose from 41% in 1981 to 46% in 2001?
a. France b. England
c. Sahara d. Sri Lanka
13. What is the international poverty line?
a. $1 a day b. $2 a day
c. $4 a day d. $8 a day
14. Which of the two categories are regarded as the poorest of the poor?
a. Women b. Elder person
c. Electrician d. Farmers
15. Which one category of rural people does not come under the category of poverty ridden
families?
a. Unemployed b. Zamindars
c. Landless peasants d. The tribals
16. Which one category of urban people does not come under the category of urban poor?
a. The casual workers b. The unemployed
c. The shopkeepers d. The rickshaw pullers.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. How is unabated population growth one of the major causes of poverty?


2. How is illiteracy responsible for poverty in India?
3. What is poverty line?
4. Do you think that present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate?
5. Mention any three measures to reduce poverty in India.
6. Mention two steps taken by the government to alleviate poverty in rural areas.
7. What are the Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojna (PMRY) and Swaranjayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojna
(SHSRY)?
8. Describe the poverty trends in India since 1973.
9. Give an account of inter-state disparity in poverty in India.
10. Describe global poverty trends.
11. What are the main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005?
12. Identify the social and economic groups which are more vulnerable to poverty in India.
13. a. Even if poverty ratio declined between 1973-74 and 1993-94, why did the number of
poor remain at about 300 million in 1993-94?
b. Are the dynamics of poverty reduction the same in rural and urban India?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India.


2. Describe current government strategy of poverty alleviation.
3. Give the analysis of poverty based on social exclusions.
4. Explain the similirities and dissimilarities between the rural and urban poverty.
5. How do inequality of wealth and income contribute towards poverty?
FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What is meant by food security?


a. Availability of food to the rich b. Availability of food for the urban people
people
c. Availability of food for all sections d. Availability of food to the poor.
of the people
2. In which year, there was a devastating famine in Bengal?
a. 1941 b. 1942
c. 1943 d. 1944
3. To whom the yellow card is issued?
a. To rickshaw pullers b. To unemployed
c. People living in slums d. People below the poverty line.
4. What is the number of women and children who constitute an important segment of the good
insecure population?
a. About 10 crores b. About 11 crores
c. About 12 crores d. About 14 crores
5. Which are the two places in Orissa where some starvation deaths have been reported?
a. Kalahandi b. Cuttack
c. Brahmapur d. Kashipur
6. Baran district is of which state where starvation deaths have been reported?
a. Orissa b. Bengal
c. Rajasthan d. Gujarat
7. Which place of Jharkhand witnessed starvation deaths recently?
a. Dhanbad b. Ranchi
c. Palamau d. Puri
8. Why does Ramu remain unemployed during a part of the year?
a. Because he was shunted out of b. Because he is often ill
his factory
c. Because there was strike in his d. Because agriculture is a seasonal
factory activity.
9. Which of the two states witnessed high growth of food grains?
a. Jammu & Kashmir b. Punjab
c. Haryana d. Himachal Pradesh
10. In which year our country crossed 200 million tones mark in food production?
a. 2000-2001 b. 2001-2002
c. 2002-2003 d. 2003-2004
11. In which year there was s decrease in food production in India?
a. 2001-2002 b. 2002-2003
c. 2003-2004 d. 2004-2005
12. When was the Integrated Child Development Service (ICDS) introduced?
a. 1965 b. 1975
c. 1985 d. 1995
13. When was the food for work program launched?
a. 2002 b. 2003
c. 2004 d. 2005
14. When was the Antyodaya Anna Yojna Scheme launched?
a. 1999 b. 2000
c. 2001 d. 2002
15. Which year was declared as the drought year by the government?
a. 2001-2002 b. 2002-2003
c. 2003-2004 d. 2004-2005
16. Which of the following one is not valid reason for famine?
a. There is scarcity of food b. There widespread deaths due to
famines
c. There is bumper production of d. There are epidemics due to use of
crops. decaying food.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks Each)

1. Write short note on Minimum Support Price.


2. What are three dimensions of food security?
3. Which are the people more prone to food insecurity?
4. Which states are more food insecure in India?
5. Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger.
6. Why is the buffer stock created by the government?
7. A section of people in India are still without food. Explain.
8. What is subsidy?
9. When may the persons above the poverty line be food insecure?
10. What does affordability to food imply?
11. Mention the land reform measures introduced in India after independence.
12. Explain the following dimensions of food security:
a. Availability
b. Accessibility
c. Affordability of food

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 Marks Each)

1. How is food security ensured in India?


2. Discuss any two schemes launched by the government to provide food security to the poor.
3. Do you believe that Green Revolution has made India self sufficient in food grains? How?
4. What are the problems of the working of the ration shops?
5. Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items.
6. Write down the functions of the Food Corporation of India.
7. Write down the history of the Public Distribution System in India.
8. On what grounds has PDS been criticized?

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