Bioenergetic and

Oxidative
Phosphorylation- A-1
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* The ATP/ADP transporter in the mitochondrial

…… inner membrane is inhibited by

Atractyloside

CN-

Barbiturates

Oligomycin
* Which of the following enzymes is not a
?member of the Mono-oxygenases

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Cytochrome P-450 oxygenase

Tryptophan hydroxylase

Homogentisic acid oxidase

* Complex 3 in the respiratory chain is

responsible for transferring electrons from...
...to

FADH to coenzyme Q

cytochrome Q to cytochrome c

cytochrome a3 to oxygen

cytochrome b to cytochrome c
* If the free energy change ∆G for a reaction is
:-46.11 kJ/mol, the reaction is

endergonic.

endothermic.

at equilibrium.

Exergonic

* Almost all of the oxygen (O2) one consumes

:in breathing is converted to

carbon monoxide and then carbon dioxide.

acetyl-CoA.

water.

carbon dioxide (CO2).

* Which of the complexes of the respiratory

?chain does not act as a proton pump

Cyt C reductase

Cytochrome C oxidase

Succinate Q Recuctase

NADH dehydrogenase
* Which of the following compounds causes
the uncoupling of oxidation from
?phosphorylation

Oligomycin

Rotenone

Thyroxine

Azide ion

* Which of the following complexes of the

?respiratory chain is inhibited by rotenone

II

IV

III
* Which of the following inhibits ATP synthesis
by transporting potassium ions by channel
?forming and eliminating proton gradients

Valinomycin

Oligomycin

Atractyloside

Gramicidin

* Which of the following statements about the

?chemiosmotic theory is correct

Electron transfer in mitochondria is

accompanied by an asymmetric release of
protons on one side of the inner
mitochondrial membrane.

The membrane ATP synthase has no

signiTcant role in the chemiosmotic theory.

The effect of uncoupling reagents is a

consequence of their ability to carry
electrons through membranes.

It predicts that oxidative phosphorylation

can occur even in the absence of an intact
inner mitochondrial membrane.
* Which one of the following compounds has a
?large negative free energy of hydrolysis

ATP

Glucose-1,6 bis phosphate

Glucose-6 phosphate

Phosphoenolpyruvate

* Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol

(DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial aerobic
phosphorylation. Which of the following
statements correctly describes the mode of
?action of the three inhibitors

Oligomycin and cyanide inhibit the synthesis

of ATP; 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibits the
respiratory chain.

Cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the

respiratory chain, and oligomycin inhibits
the synthesis of ATP.

Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain,

whereas oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenol
inhibit the synthesis of ATP.

Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol

compete with O2 for cytochrome oxidase
(Complex IV).
* Which of the following antibiotics inhibits ATP
?synthetase in the electron transfer chain

Oligomycin

Antimycin A

Chloramphenicol

Tetracycline

* In which membrane is the ADP-ATP

?antiporter located

Endoplasmic reticulum

Plasma

Lysosome

Mitochondrial interior

* The major carrier of chemical energy in all

:cells is

adenosine triphosphate.

cytosine tetraphosphate.

adenosine monophosphate.

acetyl triphosphate.
* Which cytochrome in the electron transport
?chain causes water production

cb

p450

c1

a3

* All the following compounds are part of

electron transfer chain in mitochondria,
:except

NADP

FAD

NAD

FMN
* In the respiratory chain, cytochrome a is
..…located in complex

IV

II

III

* The rate of oxidative phosphorylation in

:mitochondria is controlled primarily by

the availability of NADH from the TCA cycle.

the concentration of citrate (or) the glycerol-

3-phosphate shuttle.

feedback inhibition by CO2.

the mass-action ratio of the ATD-ADP

system.
 * In the electron transfer chain, which of the
?following components contain copper ions

NADH dehydrogenase

Cytochrome aa 3

Cytochrome bc1

Succinate Q Recuctase

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Carbohydrates
Metabolism(1) A-2
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The rate of absorption of sugars by the small *

intestine is highest for:

A. Pentoses

B. Disaccharides

C. Polysaccharides

D. Hexoses
What is the committed step in glycolysi *

Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-

phosphate

Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to
fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

Conversion of glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate
to 1-3-bisphosphoglycerate

Conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate to 2-
phosphoglycerate

Tissues form lactic acid from glucose. This *

phenomenon is termed as

(A) Aerobic glycolysis

(B) Oxidation

(C) Oxidative phosphorylation

(D) Anaerobic glycolysis

Which of the following glucose transporter *
(GLUT) is important in insulin-dependent
glucose uptake?

GLUT1

GLUT4

GLUT2

GLUT3

Which of the following is not an enzyme *

involved in glycolysis?

Hexokinase

Enolase

Glucose oxidase

Aldolase
Energy requiring metabolic pathways that *
yield complex molecules from simpler
precursors are:

anabolic.

autotrophic.

amphibolic.

Catabolic.

Which of the following step is inhibited during *

arsenate poisoning?

a) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
dehydrogenase

b) 3-phosphoglycerate mutase

c) Enolase

d) Pyruvate kinase
Cori’s cycle transfers *

Glucose from muscles to liver

Lactate from muscles to liver

Lactate from liver to muscles

Pyruvate from liver to muscles

Erythrocytes undergo glycolysis for the *

production of ATP. The deficiency of
……………........ enzyme leads to hemolytic
anemia?

Phosphofructokinase

Pyruvate Kinase

Phosphoglucomutase

Glucokinase
The anaerobic conversion of 1 mol of *
glucose to 2 mol of lactate by fermentation is
accompanied by a net gain of:

2 mol of NADH

1 mol of NADH.

2 mol of ATP.

1 mol of ATP.

In absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted *

into lactate in muscle because.....

Lactate is the substrate from the

downstream pathway

Lactate acts as a substrate for the

formation of amino acid

during the product of lactate two ATP are

produced

during lactate formation, NADH is

reconverted into NAD.
Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate is formed by the *
action of

Fructose biphosphate isomerase

Phosphofructokinase-2

Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase

Phosphofructokinase-1

The following are the negative regulators of *

phosphofructokinase except

a) ATP

b) AMP

c) Citrate

d) pH
Which of the following statement is true? *

Glycolysis occurs only in mammalian cells

Glycolysis occurs in mitochondria

Glycolysis occurs in the presence and

absence of oxygen

Glycolysis occurs when ATP concentration

is high

Which of the following metabolite negatively *

regulates pyruvate kinase

Alanine

Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate

Acetyl CoA

Citrate
During strenuous exercise, the NADH formed *
in the glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
dehydrogenase reaction in skeletal muscle
must be reoxidized to NAD+ if glycolysis is to
continue. The most important reaction
involved in the reoxidation of NADH is:

pyruvate " lactate

glucose 6-phosphate " fructose 6-phosphate

isocitrate " Alpha-ketoglutarate

dihydroxyacetone phosphate " glycerol 3-

phosphate

Which of the following is a cofactor in the *

reaction catalyzed by glyceraldehyde 3-
phosphate dehydrogenase?

ATP

Cu2+

heme

NAD
Which of the following hormone decreases *
blood glucose and increases the uptake of
glucose in various tissues like skeletal
muscle, and adipose tissues?

Glucagon

Epinephrine

Cortisol

Insulin

In glycolysis, ATP is produced by the *

following enzyme:

Enolase

Phosphoglycerate kinase

Phosphohexose isomerase

Hexokinase
 Which of the following glucose transporter *
(GLUT) is important in fructose transport in
the intestine?

c) GLUT5

a) GLUT1

b) GLUT3

d) GLUT7

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 Carbohydrates Metabolism (2)-A-1
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Glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in

Dehydrogenation of succinic acid to fumaric acid requires the following hydrogen

:carrier
 :Gluconeogenesis is increased in the following condition

In the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl coenzyme-A, all of the following are
:involved, Except

The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and CO2

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
:require the following for their oxidative decarboxylation

:Glucose can be synthesized from all except

Tricarboxylic acid cycle to be continuous requires the regeneration of

Mechanism of action of pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme is similar to which of
?the following enzymes

The number of ATP produced in the succinate dehydrogenase step is

:In TCA cycle, substrate level phosphorylation take place in

 .One molecule of Acetyl co-A gives rise to ________ ATP molecules

The conversion of alanine to glucose is termed

What high energy phosphate compound is formed in the citricacid cycle through
?substrate level phosphorylation
 :Conversion of Alanine to carbohydrate is termed

‫أﺧﺮى‬

The normal resting state of humans, most of the blood glucose burnt as “fuel” is
consumed by

Name the enzyme which is responsible for the conversion of pyruvate to

?Oxaloacetate
 Which of the following enzymes is involved in the production of methyl malonyl-
?CoA

Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver and kidneys. Which is of the following

enzyme are important for gluconeogenesis and are expressed exclusively in
?these tissues

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‫ﻧﻤﺎذج‬
Carbohydrates
Metabolism (3)-A-2
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Which of the following is most * 1 point

lipogenic?

Glucose

Ribose

Galactose

Fructose
Which one of the following enzymes * 1 point

use NADP as conenzyme?

Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

Beta hydroxy acyl coA dehydrogenase

Lactate dehydrogenase

One molecule of glucose gives ______ * 1 point

molecules of CO2 in one round of HMP

shunt.

(A) 6

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3
Mutation in which of the following * 1 point

enzymes leads to a glycogen storage

disease known as Tarui’s disease?

a) Glucokinase

c) Phosphoglucomutase

b) Phosphofructokinase

d) Pyruvate Kinase

The following enzyme is required for * 1 point

the hexose monophosphate shunt

pathway:

(C) Aldolase

(B) Phosphorylase

(D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
Galactosemia is commonly due to * 1 point
deficiency of:

Glucose-6-phosphatase

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

Glucose-1-phosphatase

Galactose-1-phosphatase

Glucose-6-phosphatase is absent or * 1 point

deficient in

(A) Von Gierke’s disease

(B) Pompe’s disease

(C) Cori’s disease

(D) McArdle’s disease

Which of the following enzyme is * 1 point

responsible for the hydrolysis of α (1-6)

glyosidic bond present at a branching
point of glycogen molecules?

α- Glucosidase

Glycosidase

Phosphorylase

β-Glucosidase

The first product of glycogenolysis is: * 1 point

Glucose-6-phosphate

Fructose-1-phosphate

Glucose-1-phosphate

Glucose 1,6 diphosphate

McArdle’s disease is due to the * 1 point
deficiency of

Liver phosphorylase

muscle phosphorylase

Glucose-6-phosphatase

Phosphofructokinase

Which of the following organs does not * 1 point

have glycogen storage?

a) Liver

b) Muscle

c) Intestine

d) Erythrocytes
Glycogen is converted to * 1 point
monosaccharide units by:

A) glucokinase.

B) glucose-6-phosphatase

C) glycogen phosphorylase.

D) glycogen synthase.

Which of the following reaction gives * 1 point

lactose?

(A) UDP galactose and glucose

(B) UDP glucose and galactose

(C) Glucose and Galactose

(D) Glucose, Galactose and UTP

A patient with hereditary fructose * 1 point
intolerance is deficient in which of the
following enzymes?

Triokinase

Aldolase

Fructokinase

All of the above

Which of the following enzyme is * 1 point

responsible for glycogen breakdown?

) Glycogen phosphorylase

b) Glycogen phosphatase

c) Glycogen hydrolase

d) Glycogen phospho beta-glucosidase

Which of the following enzyme is * 1 point
defective in galactosemia- a fatal
genetic disorder in infants?

UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase

Glucokinase

Galactokinase

Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyl transferase

Glycogen synthesis is increased by: * 1 point

GH

Insulin

Epinephrine

Cortisone
Which of the following is not the direct/ * 1 point
indirect activator of glycogen
phosphorylase in muscle?

a) AMP

b) Ca++

c) Epinephrine

d) Insulin

Pentose production is increased in * 1 point

(A) HMP shunt

(B) Uromic acid pathway

(C) EM pathway

(D) TCA cycle

 In response to glucagon and * 1 point
epinephrine, cells undergo a series of
changes in signal-transducing
molecules that phosphorylates and
activates glycogen phosphorylase.
Which of the following enzyme is
responsible for covalent modification
of glycogen phosphorylase?

Protein kinase C

Protein kinase A

Phosphorylase kinase

Protein kinase B

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Which apolipoprotein inhibits lipoprotein *

lipase?

A) A-I

B) A-II

C) C-III

D) C-I
What is the primary cause of atherosclerosis? *

A) High levels of LDL-C particles

B) Low levels of HDL particles

C) High levels of VLDL particles

D) High levels of TAGs

What is the fate of glycerol released from *

TAG?

A) Phosphorylated by hepatic glycerol

kinase to produce glycerol 3-phosphate

B) Taken up by the liver

C) ReesteriKed to produce TAG molecules

D) Oxidized to produce energy

What is the function of chylomicrons? *

A) Carry cholesterol to peripheral tissues

B) Carry oxygen in the blood

C) Transport dietary fat from the small

intestine to the rest of the body

D) Transport bile acids back to the liver

Which of the following is a rare, autosomal- *
recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of
LPL or its coenzyme apo C-II?

A) Type II hyperlipoproteinemia

B) Type III hyperlipoproteinemia

C) Type I hyperlipoproteinemia

D) Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia

What is the fate of chylomicron remnants in *

the circulation?

A) They are taken up by the liver through the

thoracic duct

B) They are stored in adipose tissue for later

use as energy

C) They are degraded in the lysosome,

releasing amino acids, free cholesterol, and
FA

D) They are rapidly removed from the

circulation by the liver through lipoprotein
receptors that recognize apo E
What is the role of scavenger receptor class *
A (SR-A)?

A) To bind apo B-48 in LDL particles

B) To regulate cholesterol homeostasis

C) To bind only oxidized LDL particles

D) Mediating the inUux of lipids into the

macrophages

What is necessary for VLDL particles to *

become functional?

A) Cholesterol ester transfer protein (CETP)

and apo B-100

B) LDL and HDL

C) HDL and IDL

D) Apo CII and apo E from circulating HDL

Which of the following is not a major *
lipoprotein in the plasma?

A) Chylomicrons

B) Lipoprotein a (Lpa)

C) Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)

D) High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

What are the primary products of hydrolysis *

of TAG molecules?

A) Free cholesterol

B) Lysophospholipids

C) Phospholipids

D) 2-monoacylglycerol and free fatty acids

What plasma enzyme immediately esterifies *

cholesterol taken up by HDL?

A) Hepatic lipase

B) CETP

C) LDL receptor

D) LCAT
What is the function of lingual and gastric *
lipases?

A) To degrade TAG molecules with short- or

medium-chain fatty acids

B) To absorb free fatty acids

C) To complete lipid digestion in the small

intestine

D) To stabilize lipid droplets

What is the function of secretin in the *

digestive system?

A) Stimulates insulin secretion

B) Stimulates pancreas to release digestive

enzymes

C) Releases bicarbonate rich Uuid to

neutralize chyme

D) Stimulates gall bladder to release bile

Which apolipoprotein is recognized by LDL *
receptors?

A) Apo B-100

B) Apo B-48

C) Apo E

D) Apo A-I

What is the role of ACAT in cellular *

cholesterol homeostasis?

A) To increase intracellular cholesterol

B) To produce a cholesteryl ester that can

be stored in the cell

C) To reduce the expression of the LDL

receptor gene

D) To degrade the reductase

What is the main role of bile salts in the *
absorption of dietary lipids?

A) Forming mixed micelles

B) Regenerating TAG and cholesteryl esters

C) Synthesizing protein

D) Activating long-chain fatty acids

What is the function of the cystic fibrosis *

transmembrane conductance regulator
(CFTR) gene?

A) Producing digestive juices

B) Developing mucus

C) Creating sweat

D) Producing a chloride ion channel

What is the main function of VLDL? *

A) To transport glucose from the liver to

peripheral tissues

B) To carry endogenous TAGs from the liver

to peripheral tissues

C) To carry primarily exogenous lipids to

peripheral tissues

D) To store TAGs in the liver

What happens to chylomicrons as they *

circulate and undergo degradation by LPL?

A) They decrease in size and increase in

density

B) They disintegrate and release their

components into the circulation

C) They increase in size and decrease in

density

D) They decrease in density and increase in

size
What is the primary fate of chylomicron *
remnants after most of the TAG has been
removed?

A) They are transported in the blood in

association with serum albumin

B) They enter adjacent muscle cells and

adipocytes

C) They are degraded to their component

parts in the capillaries of muscle and
adipose tissues

D) They are taken up by the liver

What converts HDL2 to HDL3 during their *

metabolism?

A) Hepatic lipase

B) ABCA1

C) CETP

D) LDL receptor
 Which disease is a rare deficiency of the *
transport protein ABCA1?

A) Hypercholesterolemia

B) Alzheimer's disease

C) Atherosclerosis

D) Tangier disease

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The conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA *

is the rate-limiting step in fatty acid
synthesis . Which of the following enzyme
catalyzes the above-mentioned reaction?

a) Acetyl CoA carboxylase

b) Malonyl CoA synthetase

c) Acetyl CoA decarboxylase

d) Malonyl CoA synthase

What activates and inhibits ACC? *

A) Citrate activates ACC and palmitoyl CoA

inhibits it

B) Citrate activates ACC and glucagon

inhibits it

C) AMPK activates ACC and insulin inhibits

it

D) Palmitoyl CoA inhibits ACC and glucagon

activates it

NADPH is produced when this enzyme acts *

(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

(B) Malic enzyme

(C) Succinate dehydrogenase

(D) Malate dehydrogenase

Where are fatty acids elongated and *
desaturated in the body?

A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C) Nucleus

D) Golgi apparatus

Fatty acid synthesis takes place in the *

presence of the coenzyme:

(A) NAD+

(B) Reduced NAD

(C) NADP+

(D) Reduced NADP

What is the preferred level of LDL cholesterol *

in the blood?

A) < 250 mg/dL

B) > 126 mg/dL

C) < 100 mg/dL

D) < 160 mg/dL

Which enzyme is responsible for cleaving the *
thioester bond in fatty acid synthesis?

A) 3-Ketoacyl-ACP reductase

B) Enoyl-ACP reductase

C) 3-Hydroxyacyl-ACP dehydratase

D) Palmitoyl thioesterase

Acetyl CoA required for extra mitochondrial *

fatty acid synthesis is produced by

(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

(B) Citrate lyase

(C) Thiolase

(D) Carnitine-acyl transferas

Which lipid disorder is associated with *
increased VLDL but without changing the CM
levels?

A) Type 2b

B) Type 1

C) Type 5

D) Type 4

What is the difference between primary and *

secondary hyperlipidemia?

A) Primary is familial and may be genetic or

acquired while secondary is acquired due to
another disorder or drug use

B) Primary can cause pancreatitis while

secondary cannot

C) Primary is acquired and secondary is

genetic

D) Primary is caused by lifestyle habits and

secondary is caused by a genetic defect
What is the allosteric regulator of acetyl CoA *
carboxylase?

a) Fatty acid

b) ATP

c) Citrate

d) Acetyl CoA

All of the following are necessary for fatty *

acid synthesis in the liver except:

A) Malic enzyme and citrate

B) Pentose phosphate pathway and Acetyl

CoA

C) ATP and NADPH

D) NADH and FADH

Which type of hyperlipidemia is associated *
with defects in ApoE protein variants?

A) Type 1

B) Type 2b

C) Type 3

D) Type 4

Acetyl CoA formed from pyruvate can be *

used for the synthesis of all the following
except:

(A) Glucose

(B) Fatty acids

(C) Cholesterol

(D) Steroid hormones

Adipose tissue lacks *

(A) Hormone-sensitive lipase

(B) Glycerol kinase

(C) cAMP-dependent protein kinase

(D) b- oxidation enzymes

What is the end product of the fatty acid *
synthesis process?

A) Acetyl-CoA

B) NADPH

C) Palmitate

D) Malonyl-CoA

Acyl Carrier Protein contains the vitamin: *

(A) Biotin

(B) Lipoic acid

(C) Pantothenic acid

(D) Folic acid

Propionyl CoA is formed on oxidation of *

(A) Monounsaturated fatty acids

(B) Polyunsaturated fatty acids

(C) Fatty acids with odd number of carbon

atoms

(D) None of these

 Which lipoprotein is elevated in type I *
hyperlipidemia?

A. VLDL

B. IDL

C. LDL

D. Chylomicrons

What is the regulated step in fatty acid *

synthesis?

A) Desaturation of acetyl CoA to malonyl

CoA

B) Activation of insulin by ACC

C) Carboxylation of acetyl CoA to malonyl

CoA by ACC

D) Transfer of malonyl CoA to acyl

acceptors

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In what cellular compartment does fatty acid *

β-oxidation occur?

A) Golgi apparatus

B) Mitochondrial matrix

C) Endoplasmic reticulum

D) Cytosol
What is the fate of acetone in the body? *

A) It is excreted in the urine

B) It is metabolized by the liver

C) It is excreted in the feces

D) It can be detected in the breath

Option 1

Net ATP generation on complete oxidation of *

stearic acid is

(A) 129

(B) 131

(C) 146

(D) 148
Ketone bodies are synthesized in *

(A) Adipose tissue

(B) Liver

(C) Muscles

(D) Brain

All statements regarding 3-OH-3 methyl *

glutaryl CoA are true except

(A) It is formed in the cytoplasm

(B) Required in ketogenesis

(C) Involved in synthesis of Fatty acid

(D) An intermediate in cholesterol

biosynthesis
Which of the following is the rate-limiting *
step of fatty acid oxidation and is also
inhibited by malonyl CoA?

a) Thiokinase

b) Carnitine Palmitoyl transferase I

c) Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase

d) Thiolase

What is the function of perilipin during *

lipolysis?

A) To limit access of hormone-sensitive

lipase

B) To bind to plasma membranes

C) To limit access of hormones to the

adipocyte

D) To activate hormone-sensitive lipase

What is the least severe form of CPT-II *
deficiency?

A) Affects the liver

B) Causes muscle weakness

C) Affects cardiac muscle

D) Is caused by defects in a membrane

transporter

Which enzyme transfers the acyl group from *

CoA to carnitine?

A) Carnitine–acylcarnitine translocase

B) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I (CPT-I) or

CAT-I

C) Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II (CPT-II)

or CAT-II

D) Pyruvate carboxylase
Which of the following step is unique to the *
formation of ketone bodies?

a) Formation of Acetoacetyl CoA catalyzed

by thiolase

b) Formation of HMG CoA catalyzed by

HMG CoA synthase

c) Splitting of HMG CoA to acetyl CoA and

acetoacetate catalyzed by HMG CoA lyase

d) Reduction of acetoacetate to aceton

catalyzed by 3-hydroxybutyrate
dehydrogenase

What is the major excretory pathway of *

excess cholesterol in the body?

A) Respiratory system

B) Sweat

C) Bile salts

D) Urine
The complete beta-oxidation of palmitoyl *
CoA yield

a) 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16 NADH

b) 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16 FADH2

c) 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA, 7 NADH, and

7 FADH

d) 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16

NADPH

High rate of beta-oxidation in the liver leads *

to ketogenesis (ketone body synthesis).
Which of the following condition may result
in ketogenesis?

a) Uncontrolled Type I diabetes

b) Pregnancy

c) Starvation

d) All of the above

What enzyme is responsible for the *
breakdown of triacylglycerol stored in
adipocytes?

A) Carboxylase

B) Hormone-sensitive lipase

C) Synthase

D) Lipase

What is the main action of fibric acid *

derivatives or fibrates?

A) Decreases total cholesterol levels

B) Decreases LDL cholesterol levels

C) Increases HDL cholesterol levels

D) Decreases triglyceride levels

In β-Oxidation of fatty acids, which of the *
following are utilized as coenzymes?

(A) NAD+ and NADP+

(B) FADH2 and NADH + H+

(C) FAD and FMN

(D) FAD and NAD+

What is the rate-limiting step in the synthesis *

of ketone bodies?

A) Oxidation of 3-hydroxybutyrate by 3-
hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase

B) Combination of a third molecule of acetyl

CoA with acetoacetyl CoA by HMG CoA
synthase

C) Formation of acetoacetyl CoA

D) Cleavage of HMG CoA by HMG CoA lyase

What is the end product of each cycle of β- *
oxidation for saturated fatty acids?

A) Two acetyl CoA + two FADH2 and two

NADH

B) Two acetyl CoA + one NADH

C) One acetyl CoA + one FADH2

D) One acetyl CoA + one NADH

What is required for the transport of long- *

chain fatty acids from the cytosol to the
mitochondrial matrix?

A) The carnitine shuttle

B) Adenosine monophosphate

C) Pyruvate

D) Malonyl CoA
 All the following can be oxidized by β- *
oxidation except

(A) Palmitic acid

(B) Phytanic acid

(C) Linoleic acid

(D) Fatty acids having an odd number of

carbon atom

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Which enzyme catalyzes the opening of the *

porphyrin ring during heme degradation?

A) Heme oxygenase

B) Biliverdin reductase

C) Microsomal bilirubin UDP-

glucuronosyltransferase

D) Ferrochelatase
The porphyrias are classified as *
erythropoietic or hepatic based on:

A) Age of onset

B) Symptom severity

C) Enzyme deJciency location

D) Inheritance pattern

What is the term for the yellow coloration of *

the skin, nail beds, and sclerae caused by
increased bilirubin levels in the blood?

A) Hyperbilirubinemia

B) Hemolysis

C) Jaundice

D) Cholestasis
Lead poisoning is associated with a severe *
deficiency of:

A) ALA synthase

B) ALA dehydratase

C) Uroporphyrinogen III synthase

D) Uroporphyrinogen III decarboxylase

What is the major pathophysiology of the *

porphyrias?

A) Accumulation of toxic intermediates

B) DeJciency of heme biosynthesis

enzymes

C) Impaired iron metabolism

D) Disruption of oxygen transport

What can cause hepatocellular jaundice? *

A) Cirrhosis

B) Hepatitis

C) Liver damage

D) All of the above

Coproporphyrinogen III is converted to *
protoporphyrin IX by:

A) Uroporphyrinogen III synthase

B) Uroporphyrinogen III decarboxylase

C) Coproporphyrinogen III oxidase

D) Ferrochelatase

Which treatment option is helpful in *

porphyrias with photosensitivity?

A) Intravenous hemin and glucose

B) Phlebotomy

C) Protection from sunlight

D) β-carotene supplementation
Which type of jaundice is caused by *
increased heme degradation from extensive
hemolysis?

A) Hemolytic (prehepatic) jaundice

B) Hepatocellular (hepatic) jaundice

C) Obstructive (posthepatic) jaundice

D) Physiologic jaundice

Heme, the most prevalent metalloporphyrin in *

humans, consists of which metal ion?

A) Ferrous

B) Ferric

C) Copper

D) Zinc
How is bilirubin transported through the *
blood to the liver?

A) Bound to albumin

B) Bound to globulin

C) Bound to transferrin

D) Bound to hemoglobin

Which enzyme catalyzes the condensation of *

two ALA molecules to form porphobilinogen?

A) δ-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALAS)

B) ALA dehydratase (PBG synthase)

C) Uroporphyrinogen III synthase

D) Uroporphyrinogen III decarboxylase

Porphyrias are defects in: *

A) Heme degradation

B) Heme biosynthesis

C) Iron metabolism

D) Oxygen transport
What is the end product of bilirubin *
metabolism in the intestine?

A) Urobilinogen

B) Urobilin

C) Stercobilin

D) Biliverdin

Where is the major site of heme biosynthesis *

in the body?

A) Kidney

B) Liver

C) Spleen

D) Bone marrow

What is the green pigment formed during *

heme degradation?

A) Bilirubin

B) Biliverdin

C) Urobilinogen

D) Stercobilin
What is the common treatment for elevated *
bilirubin levels in newborns?

A) Phototherapy

B) Medication

C) Surgery

D) Blood transfusion

Bilirubin is formed by the reduction of: *

A) Biliverdin

B) Carbon monoxide (CO)

C) Fe3+

D) Urobilinogen
Which enzyme deficiency can lead to *
hemolytic jaundice?

A) Microsomal heme oxygenase

B) Biliverdin reductase

C) Microsomal bilirubin UDP-

glucuronosyltransferase

D) Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

(G6PD)

Which enzyme catalyzes the conjugation of *

bilirubin with glucuronic acid in the
hepatocyte?

A) Heme oxygenase

B) Biliverdin reductase

C) UDP-glucuronosyltransferase

D) Ferrochelatase
 Porphyria cutanea tarda is associated with a *
deficiency of:

A) Uroporphyrinogen III synthase

B) ALA dehydratase

C) Uroporphyrinogen III decarboxylase

D) Coproporphyrinogen III oxidase

Urobilinogen, a product of bilirubin *

degradation, is further oxidized to:

A) Biliverdin

B) Carbon monoxide (CO)

C) Fe3+

D) Stercobilin

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What is the function of dihydrofolate *

reductase?

a) Conversion of dihydroorotate to orotate

b) Conversion of dihydrofolate to
tetrahydrofolate

c) Conversion of dUMP to dTMP

d) Conversion of UDP to CTP

What is the final product of pyrimidine *
degradation?

a) Uric acid

b) Adenosine

c) Orotic acid

d) β-alanine

Which compound is an activated pentose *

involved in the synthesis and salvage of
purines and pyrimidines

a) PRPP

b) ATP

c) GTP

d) N10-formyl-THF
Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of *
PRPP and glutamine to 5-
phosphoribosylamine?

a) PRPP synthetase

b) Glutamine:PRPP amidotransferase

c) Creatine kinase

d) Inosine monophosphate synthase

Which of the following is an indicator of heart *

damage and is used in the diagnosis of
myocardial infarction?

a) Creatine kinase

b) Creatinine

c) Adenosine diphosphate

d) Phosphocreatine
What is the consequence of a deficiency in *
hypoxanthine–guanine phosphoribosyl
transferase (HGPRT)?

a) Increased synthesis of purine nucleotides

b) Decreased production of uric acid

c) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome and

hyperuricemia

d) Improved salvage of hypoxanthine and

guanine

Which of the following is an inhibitor of *

thymidylate synthase?

a) UTP

b) PRPP

c) dATP

d) 5-Ruorouracil
The hereditary disease orotic aciduria is *
caused by a deficiency of which enzyme?

a) Orotate phosphoribosyltransferase

b) Orotidylate decarboxylase

c) Uridine monophosphate synthase

d) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with a *

deficiency of which enzyme

a) Ribonucleotide reductase

b) Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase

c) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl
transferase

d) Thymidylate synthase
Which enzymes are involved in purine base *
salvage to nucleotides?

a) Adenosine deaminase and guanosine

kinase

b) Adenine phosphoribosyltransferase and

hypoxanthine–guanine
phosphoribosyltransferase

c) Purine nucleoside phosphorylase and

xanthine oxidase

d) Ribonucleotide reductase and

thymidylate synthase

Which enzyme is targeted by the anticancer *

drug methotrexate?

a) Adenosine deaminase

b) Ribonucleotide reductase

c) Dihydrofolate reductase

d) Thymidylate synthase
What adverse effects can individuals *
experience when taking purine synthesis
inhibitors for cancer treatment

a) Hair loss and skin dryness

b) Enhanced immune system function

c) Increased bone marrow production

d) Improved gastrointestinal health

Which enzyme converts dUMP to dTMP? *

a) Thymidylate synthase

b) Ribonucleotide reductase

c) Orotate phosphoribosyltransferase

d) Dihydroorotase

What is the final product of purine nucleotide *

degradation?

a) Adenosine

b) Guanosine

c) Uric acid

d) Xanthine
What is the role of nucleotides like cAMP and *
cGMP in signal transduction pathways?

a) They regulate gene expression.

b) They serve as energy sources for cells.

c) They act as second messengers.

d) They inhibit key enzymes in metabolic

pathways

Which enzyme is the first responsible enzyme *

for the synthesis pyrimidine synthesis?

a) Adenosine deaminase

b) Ribonucleotide reductase

c) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II

d) Thymidylate synthase
Creatine is synthesized in the liver and *
kidneys from which of the following
compounds?

a) Glucose

b) Arginine

c) Lysine

d) Phenylalanine

In pyrimidine biosynthesis, carbamoyl *

phosphate is synthesized from:

a) Glutamine and aspartate

b) Glutamine and CO2

c) PRPP and aspartate

d) UTP and CO2

What is the role of orotate phosphoribosyl *
transferase?

a) Conversion of orotate to orotidine

monophosphate

b) Conversion of orotidine monophosphate

to UMP

c) Conversion of UMP to UDP

d) Conversion of UDP to CTP

Which condition is characterized by a *

deficiency of adenosine deaminase?

a) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

b) Gout

c) Severe combined immunodeYciency

disease (SCID)

d) Hyperuricemia
 How do synthetic inhibitors of purine *
synthesis, such as sulfonamides, affect
human cells?

a) They promote rapid cell division.

b) They inhibit ATP production.

c) They interfere with DNA and RNA

synthesis.

d) They enhance purine salvage pathways

The conversion of IMP to AMP requires which *

energy source?

a) ATP

b) GTP

c) NADPH

d) SAM

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* Glucose-dependent release of insulin into the blood is mediated through a

?rise in which ion concentration

a) Sodium

b) Potassium

c) Calcium

d) Chloride

* Which gastrointestinal peptide hormone increases the sensitivity of beta cells

?to glucose

a) Glucagon

b) Epinephrine

c) Glucagon-like peptide-I (GLP-I)

d) Gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP)

* Which of the following hormones induces the expression of
?(phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK

a) Insulin

b) Glucagon

c) Epinephrine

d) Cortisol

* ?Insulin increases glycogen synthesis in which tissues

a) Liver and muscle

b) Brain and kidney

c) Adipose tissue and pancreas

d) Stomach and intestine

* What is the main source of carbon skeletons for gluconeogenesis during

?fasting

a) Glucose

b) Amino acids

c) Fatty acids

d) Ketone bodies
* ?What happens to glucose transport into adipocytes during the well-fed state

a) It increases due to elevated insulin levels.

b) It decreases due to elevated insulin levels.

c) It increases due to elevated glucagon levels.

d) It decreases due to elevated glucagon levels.

* ?What is the primary metabolic effect of glucagon during fasting

a) Increased glycogen synthesis

b) Increased fatty acid synthesis

c) Increased protein breakdown

d) Increased ketone body synthesis

* Which enzyme is responsible for the hydrolysis of stored triacylglycerols in

?adipose tissue

a) Acetyl coenzyme A carboxylase (ACC)

b) Fatty acid synthase (FAS)

c) Hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL)

d) Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)

* What is the primary source of cytosolic acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA) for
?fatty acid synthesis in the liver

a) Glucose 6-phosphate

b) Pyruvate

c) Glycerol 3-phosphate

d) Malonyl CoA

* What is the primary fuel used by almost all tissues during the absorptive
?state

a) Glucose

b) Fatty acids

c) Ketone bodies

d) Amino acids

* ?Which of the following is a result of decreased insulin levels during fasting

a) Increased glucose uptake by tissues

b) Increased fatty acid oxidation

c) Increased glycogen synthesis

d) Increased amino acid uptake by tissues

 * ?What is the main fuel source for skeletal muscle during fasting

a) Glucose

b) Fatty acids

c) Ketone bodies

d) Amino acids

* ?Which hormone is primarily responsible for preventing hypoglycemia

a) Insulin

b) Glucagon

c) Epinephrine

d) Cortisol

* ?What happens to fatty acid synthesis in adipose tissue during fasting

a) It increases.

b) It decreases.

c) It remains the same.

d) It depends on the speciNc fatty acid

* ?What effect does fasting have on ketone body synthesis in the liver

a) It increases.

b) It decreases.

c) It remains the same.

d) It depends on the speciNc ketone body

* ?What happens to fatty acid uptake by adipose tissue during fasting

a) It increases.

b) It decreases.

c) It remains the same.

d) It depends on the speciNc fatty acid

* :Insulin promotes the storage of nutrients as -

a) Glycogen, TAG, and protein

b) Fatty acids and glucose

c) Amino acids and lipids

d) Vitamins and minerals

* During the absorptive state, which hormone is primarily responsible for
?promoting the uptake of glucose by tissues

a) Glucagon

b) Insulin

c) Epinephrine

d) Cortisol

* ?What is the primary stimulus for insulin secretion

a) Glucagon

b) Amino acids

c) Blood glucose

d) Cortisol

* Which transporter is responsible for glucose uptake in muscle and adipose

?tissue

a) GLUT-1

b) GLUT-2

c) GLUT-3

d) GLUT-4
 * Which tissue plays a central role in processing and distributing dietary
?nutrients during the absorptive state

a) Liver

b) Adipose tissue

c) Skeletal muscle

d) Brain

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