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WORKBOOK
Fundamentals Health Care
Philippine Midwifery Licensure Examination
NAME:
c. lateral to the eye
1. Anemia is deficiency in: d. none of the above
a. iron 10. During home delivery, profuse bleeding occurs.
b. phosphorus What is your initial action?
c. calcium a. Observe
d. vitamin A b. Inspect where the blood comes
2. What is the angle for IM injection? c. Apply vaginal packing
a. 45° subcu d. Refer
b. 90° 11. Compression site if forearm bleed?
c. 15° a. Radial
d. 180° b. Brachial
3. Fever that falls to normal everyday: c. Temporal
a. remittent d. popliteal
b. intermittent 12. Instructions when collecting sperm:
c. relapsing a. Sperm maybe collected in the clinic
d. constant b. Put it in a container
4. Which is a good source of thiamine? c. Abstinence for 2 days before collection
a. whole grains d. Sex with a condom is the best way of
b. cheese and butter collecting specimen
c. whole bread 13. What is best position for patient with severe degree
d. legumes of difficult respiration as in cardiac disease and
5. What is the term for a powerful pulse that suddenly asthma?
collapses? A. Flat in bed
A. Bounding B. Fowler’s
B. Irregular C. Trendeleburg
C. Corrigan D. Sim’s
D. Thready 14. All of the following are considered objective data,
6. Pressure on this artery prevent severe bleeding of an except:
open leg wound: A. 100/60 mmHg
A. Carotid B. Client cries in an interview
B. Femoral C. Client states she is hungry
C. Brachial D. Lung sounds
D. Radial 15. All of the following are considered as a method of
7. A 2 year old child has passed 2 roundworms, the microorganism transmission, except:
mother asked advice to the midwife and her answer A. Droplet
should be: B. Direct
a. handwashing C. Indirect
b. refer to a pediatrician D. Eye to eye contact
c. do not let the child eat with barehand 16. Which of the following is an example of a hypotensive
d. always use footwear drug?
8. If OPV, DPT, & TT are in liquid form, BCG and A. Apresoline
measles are in what form: B. Hemostan
a. powder form C. Methergine
b. freeze dried D. Terbutaline
c. capsule 17. What is the normal axillary temperature of an infant?
d. tablet A. 38.3
9. Where is the site of popliteal pulse: B. 37.8
a. below the knee C. 36.8
b. posterior the ankle D. 37.5
18. The heat loss from our body through air current: d. To strengthen the abdominal, thigh and hip
A. Convection muscles
B. Radiation 28. Which of the following are the best sources of
C. Conduction protein?
D. Vaporization a. Internal organs
19. Which of the following is not a surgical needle? b. Meat, fish, poultry
A. Cutting c. Oysters, clams
B. Round d. Yellow vegetables, fruits
C. Taper point 29. What method is used in Breast Self Examination?
D. Hypodermic 1. Auscultation
20. What is true in the practice of aseptic technique? 2. Percussion
1. From cleanest to least clean area 3. Palpation
2. Inside to outside in a circular motion a. 1, 2, 3
3. Wearing protective barrier when handling body b. 2 & 3
fluids c. 3 only
a. 1,2,3 d. 2 only
b. 1 & 3 only 30. Which of the following has a diuretic effect?
c. 3 only a. Yerba Buena
d. 1 only b. Sambong
21. One benefit of family planning is that it can limit the c. Ampalaya
number of child/ children to how many? d. Bayabas
A. 4 31. Rooming-in means that the mother and baby stays
B. 2 together within how many minutes/hours post
C. 3 normal delivery?
D. 1 a. 30 mins
22. Bedsore can be prevented by the following procedure, b. 90 mins
except: c. 4
A. Always keep the bedding clean and dry d. 8
B. Keep linen free from folds 32. Prolonged immobilization can result to:
C. Promote moisture a. Hemorrhage
D. Change the position of the client every 2 hours b. Infection
23. Refers to capability to harm the host is called: c. Loss of muscle tone
A. Disease d. High fever
B. Infectivity 33. The midwife was ordered by the doctor to give STAT
C. Pathogenicity medication. STAT means:
D. Antigenicity a. Immediate
24. The following are part of the digestive system b. As needed
except: c. As much as needed
a. Stomach d. Indefinitely
b. Lung 34. Deep penetration in the skin and even into the
c. Alimentary canal muscles which can either be intentional or
d. Intestine unintentional:
25. The following will promote proper fecal excretion or a. Laceration
defecation, except: b. Puncture
a. Have a regular bowel habit c. Abrasion
b. Increase fluid intake d. Incision
c. Minimal exercise 35. Which of the following characteristic is not a sign of
d. Consume fruits and vegetables infected wound?
26. Handwashing before applying the bag technique is a. High fever
done to: b. Throbbing pain
a. Prevent contamination of the bag c. Affected part is swollen
b. Protect the uniform d. Obstruction of air passage
c. Protect the instruments and area 36. Which of the following is not a sign/symptom of
d. Prevent the spread of infection shock?
27. Pelvic rocking is useful: a. Pupils dilated
a. To relieve leg cramps b. Shallow and rapid breathing
b. To improve breathing c. Irregular pulse
c. To relieve backpain d. Fever and headache
37. Indication for IV(multiple select)
 1. treatment for shock 45. To palpate lymph nodes, the midwife uses which
2. for hydration technique?
3. profuse bleeding a. Use the flat of all four fingers in a vertical and
a. 1,2 and 3 then side to-side motion.
b. 1 and 2 b. Use the back of the hand and feel for
c. 1and 3 temperature variation between the right and left
d. 2and 3 sides.
38. Nutrients responsible for the for the formation of c. Use the pads of two fingers in a circular
new cells: motion.
a. protein d. Compress the nodes between the index fingers
b. Vit A of both hands.
c. Vit.B9 46. Which of the following heart sounds is heard on the
d. Iron right second intercostal space?
39. A hilot attended birth and the woman remained lying a. Aortic
down for 2 weeks post partum. What complication b. Erb’s point
can happen? c. pulmonic
A. varicosities d. mitral
B. edema 47. After auscultating the abdomen, the midwife should
C. thrombophlebitis report which finding to the primary care provider?
D. urinary retention a. soft clicking sounds heard all over the 4
40. Muscle weakness and paralysis is a characteristic quadrants
symptom of what disease? b. Absence of bowel sounds for 60 seconds
a. typhoid fever c. Continuous bowel sounds over the ileocecal
b. parasitism valve
c. diphtheria d. A completely irregular pattern of bowel sounds
d. polio 48. What cranial nerve is being checked in the
41. A 17 y/o adolescent has not been menstruating. This assessment of neck and shoulder strength?
is? a. Abducens
a. Primary amenorrhea b. Spinal accessory
b. Delayed menarche c. Glossopharyngeal
c. Secondary amenorrhea d. Hypoglossal
d. Menopause 49. Auditory assessment includes Rinne Test. Which of
42. What disease is more likely to happen due to Vit. D the following is the normal result?
deficiency? a. Sound should lateralize on both ears.
a. Scurvy b. Bone conduction is longer than air conduction.
b. rickets c. Sound should lateralize on affected ear.
c. pernicious anemia d. Air conduction is longer than bone
d. beri beri conduction.
43. For a client with a previous blood pressure of 138/74 50. A midwife is assessing for the fifth vital sign. Which
and pulse of 64, approximately how long should the statement by the midwife indicates that she is doing
midwife take to release the blood pressure cuff in such assessment?
order to obtain an accurate reading? a. “Do you have any complaints?”
A. 10–20 seconds b. “Are you experiencing any discomfort right
B. 1–1.5 minutes now?”
C. 30–45 seconds c. “Is there anything I can do for you?”
D. D. 3–3.5 minutes. d. Do you have any complaints of pain?”
44. An 85-year-old client has had a stroke resulting in 51. The following are correct actions when taking radial
right-sided facial drooping, difficulty swallowing, and pulse except:
the inability to move self or maintain position a. Put the palms downward
unaided. The midwife determines that which sites b. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
are appropriate for taking the temperature? Select c. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at
all that apply. the inner wrist
1. Oral 2. Rectal 3. Axillary d. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and
4. Tympanic 5. Temporal artery bilateral quality
a. all except 2 52. What type of normal breath sound is loud, high
b. 3 and 4 pitched and can be auscultated upon the trachea?
c. 3, 4 and 5 a. vesicular
d. all are appropriate b. wheeze
c. bronchial
 d. bronchovesicular
53. When a client has hematuria, the midwife should
observe for:
a. Diarrhea
b. Acetone in urine
c. Symptoms of peritonitis
d. Gross blood in the urine
54. What is the best site for intramuscular injection if
the patient is 8 months old and the dosage is more
than 1 ml?
a. Deltoid
b. Ventrogluteal
c. Dorsogluteal
d. Vastus Lateralis
55. Which of the following is/are true about intradermal
injection?
a. Do not massage area if it is for allergy
testing.
b. Hold syringe with the bevel of needle down.
c. It is commonly used to administer heparin
medication.
d. It can be administered across the scapula.
56. The midwife is to administer 0.75 mL of medication
subcutaneously in the upper arm to a 50-year-old
300-pound client. The midwife can grasp
approximately 2 inches of the client’s tissue at the
upper arm. Which is the most appropriate for the
midwife to use?
a. A tuberculin syringe, #25–#27 gauge, 1/4- to
5/8-inch needle
b. Two 3-mL syringes, #20–#23 gauge, 1 1/2-
inch needle
c. 2-mL syringe, #25 gauge, 5/8-inch needle
d. 2-mL syringe, #20–#23 gauge, 1-inch
needle
57. For tuberculin skin testing, how long do we need to
wait to check for positive result?
a. 15 to 60 minutes
b. 24 hours
c. 1 to 3 days
d. 30 minutes
e. wait until solution is not present anymore on
the skin of patient
58. The best way to instill eye drops is to:
a. Instruct the patient to look upward, and
drop the medication into the conjunctiva
b. Instruct the patient to look ahead, and drop
the medication directly to the eye
c. Drop the medication into the inner canthus
regardless of eye position
d. Drop the medication into the center of the
canthus regardless of eye position
59. During application of medication into the ear, which
of the following is inappropriate action?
A. In an adult, pull the pinna upward.
B. Instill the medication directly into the
tympanic membrane.
C. Warm the medication at body temperature
D. Press the tragus of the ear a few times to
assist flow of medication into the ear canal.
60. The physician orders a rectal suppository for an
adult patient. When administering the rectal
suppository, the midwife should:
A. Lubricate the medication before
insertion
B. Warm the medication to body temperature
C. Insert the medication at least two inches into
the rectum
D. Place the patient in the prone position to
administer the medication
61. The midwife instructs a patient to gently close
his/her eyes after the administration of eye drops.
The midwife understands that this is done to:
A. Limit corneal irritation
B. Squeeze excess medication from the eyes
C. Disperse the medication over the eyeballs
D. Prevent medication from entering the lacrimal
duct
62. Which of the following behaviors by Midwife Jane
Robles demonstrates that she understands well the
elements of effective charting?
A. She writes in the chart using a no. 2 pencil.
B. She noted: appetite is good this afternoon.
C. She signs on the medication sheet after
administering the medication.
D. She signs her charting as follow: J.R
63. Which of the following is appropriate intervention for
a client who is grieving over the death of her child?
A. Tell her not to cry and it will be better.
B. Provide opportunity to the client to tell
their story.
C. Encourage her to accept or to replace the lost
person.
D. Discourage the client in expressing her
emotions.
64. It is the gradual decrease of the body’s temperature
after death.
a. Livor mortis
b. Rigor mortis
c. . Algor mortis
d. None of the above
65. To evaluate a patient for hypoxia, the physician is
most likely to order which laboratory test?
A. Red blood cell count
B. Sputum culture
C. Total hemoglobin
D. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
66. An active process by which an individual progresses
towards maximum potential possible, regardless of
current state of health.
a. Health
b. Illness
c. Disease
d. Wellness
67. High-level wellness defined health as:
a. The absence of disease
 b. An integrated method of functioning that is c. Examine the medication record for anti-
oriented towards maximizing one’s potential hypertensive medications
within the limitation of the environment. d. Review the graphic record of her vital
c. A state of complete physical, mental, signs on the record.
and social well-being, and not merely 74. Which of these chart entries is most defensible in
the disease or infirmity. court?
d. A dynamic state of being in which the a. the client fell out of bed
developmental and behavioral potential for an b. the client looked drunk upon admission
individual is realized to the fullest extent c. large bruise on left thigh
possible. d. notified dr. jones of bp 90/40 mmHg
68. In this Health and Wellness model, people are 75. As a health care professional engaging in different
viewed as physiologic systems with related diagnostic and surgical procedures, one must be
functions, and health is identified by absence of acknowledgeable of the principles of asepsis in order
signs and symptoms of disease or injury. to promote patient safety and prevent untoward
a. Role Performance Model events. The chain of infection is broken/halted at
b. Clinical Model which element when a midwife remembers to
c. Adaptive Model handwash?
d. Eudemonistic Model a. Mode of transmission
69. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, All b. Portal of entry
of this are factors that affects health and illness, c. Reservoir
except: d. portal of exit
a. Reservoir 76. In a case of a patient infected with N.gonorrhea.
b. Agent Which of these corresponds to the portal of exit in
c. Environment its chain of infection?
d. Host a. Sexual intercourse
70. Is a multi-dimensional model developed by Pender b. Mosquito
that describes the nature of persons as they interact c. Intact skin
within the environment to pursue health? d. vagina
a. Ecologic Model 77. What is a persons’s first line of defense against
b. Health Belief Model microorganisms?
c. Health Promotion Model a. Intact skin and mucous membranes
d. Health Prevention Mode b. Cellular – mediated immunity
71. This is a type of a documentation system where c. Antibody-antigen response
each person or department makes notation in a d. B&C
separate section/s of the client’s chart. 78. A client with diabetes has very dry skin on her feet
a. Source-oriented record and lower extremities. The midwife plans to inform
b. Problem-Oriented record the client to do which of the following to maintain
c. service-oriented record intact skin?
d. treatment oriented record a. Soak her feet frequently
b. Use of non-perfumed lotion
72. Which of the following qualities are relevant in c. Apply Foot powder
documenting patient care? Select all that apply. d. Avoid knee-high elastic stockings
i. Accuracy and conciseness 79. A midwife notices that a client’s hair was matted
ii. use of locally accepted abbreviation with blood. What should she do to remove the
iii. thoroughness and correctness blood?
iv. legibly written, properly dated, and signed a. Use clean gloves to prevent the transmission
v. systematically and orderly of infection.
a. i, ii, iv, v b. Rinse the hair with saline then with warm
b. ii, iii, iv , v water
c. i, iii, iv, v c. Apply mineral oil from root to the hair tips
d. i, iii, iv evenly
73. During the first day a midwife, caring for a patient d. use hydrogen peroxide on the stained
who has been in the hospital for three days, has areas
identified that the client’s BP seems high. What is 80. Where should the midwife start when bathing the
the best step she should do next? patient in bed?
a. Ask the client of her past BP findings a. Back and extremities
b. Review the progress notes included in the b. Chest and axilla
client’s record c. Abdomen and perineum
d. Face and neck
81. A midwife is rendering oral care to an unconscious c. Breathing – Circulation – Airway
client. Which of these patient positions that the d. Breathing – airway – circulation
midwife understands the safety concepts in 90. This is a common bed position when the head of the
performing oral care to unconscious? bed is on 30 degrees angle.
a. Flat on bed, supine a. semi-fowler
b. Semi-fowlers, head tilted to the side b. fowler
c. Side-lying with head of bed elevated c. trendelenburg
d. Side-lying with head of bed lowered d. reverse trendelenburg
91. The client is complaining of shortness of breath. His
82. The following situations are considered to stop CPR, respirations are 28 and labored. The bed is currently
except: in the flat position. The midwife puts the bed in
a. Patient is revived which position?
b. Patient have HIV a. Fowler’s
c. Patient is dead b. Semi-Fowler’s
d. EMS has arrived c. Trendelenburg
83. In cases of fire, we need to do RACE, what does A d. Reverse Trendelenburg
mean? 92. The following are physiologic effects of cold
a. administer first aid therapy, except:
b. activate alarm a. vasoconstriction
c. approach victim b. decrease pain by relaxing muscles
d. air compression
84. In patients who experienced poisoning, what is the c. decrease pain by numbing the area
initial thing to do? d. anesthetic effect
a. Have the patient expel the poison by inducing 93. Which of the following massage technique uses the
vomiting. heel of hands?
b. Position client in left side lying position a. effleurage
c. Position client in right side lying position b. tapotement
d. Administer ipepac syrup c. petrissage
85. In cases of nosebleed, what should the patient do d. friction stroke
first? 94. This transmission based precaution is used when the
a. Lean backward and pinch nose. droplet nuclei is larger than 5 microns.
b. Sit upright and lean forward. a. Airborne
c. Blow nose. b. Droplet
d. Lean forward then pinch nose. c. Direct
86. A midwife observes the husband of a patient d. Indirect
clenching his fist on his chest and suddenly fainted 95. The midwife determines that a field remains sterile if
to the floor. In relation guidelines, what should the which of the following conditions exist?
midwife do first? a. Tips of wet forceps are held upward when
a. Activate AED held in ungloved hands.
b. Check for unresponsiveness b. Be wary of aseptic technique
c. Check for pulse c. Keeping damp materials in the sterile field
d. Start chest compressions d. The midwife reaches over the field rather than
87. In delivering chest compressions in an arrested around the edges.
person, what is the chest compression rate as stated 96. After teaching a client and family strategies to
in the 2015 AHA guidelines? prevent infection, which statement by the client
a. Approximately 100 per minute would indicate effective learning has occurred?
b. Maximum 120 per minute a. “We will use antimicrobial soap and hot water
c. at least 100 per minute to wash our hands at least three times per
d. about 80 per minute day.”
88. What should be the depth of chest compressions b. “We must wash or peel all raw fruits and
delivered to an adult? vegetables before eating.”
a. Approximately 1.5 to 2 inches c. “A wound or sore is not infected unless we
b. Around 4 – 5 cm see it draining pus.”
c. At least 2 inches d. “We should not share toothbrushes but it is
d. 2 – 2.4 inches OK to share towels and washcloths.”
89. What sequence should a lay rescuer follow in giving 97. After 5 minutes of giving the enema, Sam complains
CPR to an arrested client? of abdominal cramping. The most appropriate action
a. Compression – Airway – Breathing to take is:
b. Airway – Breathing – Circulation a. Clamp the tubing temporarily.
 b. Encourage the client to change position.
c. Remove the rectal tube.
d. Take no action as this is expected.
98. What height would be appropriate for elevation of
the enema bag for a cleansing enema?
a. Slightly above the hips
b. 12 – 18 inches above the hips
c. Less than 12 inches above the hips
d. 18 – 24 inches above the hips
99. What is the best position for the patient during an
enema?
a. Lithotomy
b. Right lateral Sim’s
c. Dorsal recumbent
d. Left lateral Sim’s
100. After 5 minutes of giving the enema, Sam
complains of abdominal cramping. What is the
probable cause?
a. The solution is too warm
b. The solution is too cold
c. The solution is too low
d. this is expected