TUS PHARMACOLOGY 2006

April 2006

81. Which of the following drugs should be used in the treatment of atonia, ileus and urinary
retention that occur in the digestive system and urinary system after a surgical intervention?
A) Betanekol
B) Scopolamine
C) Ipratropium
D) Acetylcholine
E) Propantheline

(Answer E)

82. Which of the following drugs must be administered parenterally in order to produce
cholinomimetic effect in the central nervous system?
A) Neostigmine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Physostigmine
D) Edrophonium
E) Betanekol

(Answer C)

83. Which of the following is the acetylcholine esterase inhibitor drug used in the treatment of
Alzheimer's disease?
A) Donezepil
B) Memantine
C) Fluoxetine
D) Lecithin
E) Carbamazepine

(Answer A)

84. Which of the following does not occur by stimulation of β2-adrenergic receptors?
A) Relaxation of vascular smooth muscles
B) Activation of glycogenolysis in the liver
C) Positive inotropy, positive chronotropy in the heart
D) Relaxation in the uterine muscle
E) Renin secretion from the kidneys

(Answer E)
 85. A patient will be given spinal anesthesia for a long surgical intervention in the pelvis. Which of the
following should be preferred in order not to reduce the blood flow of the spinal cord and not to use
asolution containing vasoconstrictor?
A) Procaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Lidocaine
D) Mepivacaine
E) Prilocaine

(Answer B)

86. Which of the following drugs is a selective inhibitor of the cAMP-specific phosphodiesterase IV
enzyme?
A) Theophylline
B) Salbutamol
C) Fenoterol
D) Isoproterenol
E) Methoxamine

(Answer A)

87. Which of the following is the least likely to occur in a patient brought to the emergency room for
amitriptyline intoxication ?
A) Warm and dry skin
B) Decreased bowel sounds and movements
C) tachycardia
D) Pin head pupilla
E) Hypotension

(Answer D)

88. In which of the following drugs are inconvenient to terminate their treatment immediately?
A) Valproate and ethosuximide
B) Phenytoin and phenobarbital
C) Phenobarbital and clonazepam
D) phenytoin and carbamazepine
E) Clonazepam and valproate

(Answer C)

89. Which of the following drugs can cause nausea, vomiting, postural hypotension, hallucinations,
red and painful swelling of the standing and hand?
A) Dantrolene
B) Ketamine
C) Digoxin
D) Bromocriptine
E) Lithium

(Answer D)

90. Which of the following is not an indication for opioid use ?

A) Postoperative pain
B) Cough
C) Dyspnea seen in acute left ventricular failure
D) Disturbing, non-specific diarrhea
E) Delaying labor

(Answer E)

91. Which of the following is the most important feature of second generation H1-receptor blockers?
A) Strong anticholinergic effects
B) Very little sedative effects
C) Preference in pregnancy vomiting
D) Strong effects against motion sickness
E) Strong antiparkinsonian effects

(Answer B)

92. Which of the following statements about acetaminophen is correct?

A) It prolongs the bleeding time.
B) It is a specific cyclooxygenase (Cox-2) inhibitor.
C) It often causes gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) It is inconvenient to use in children.
E) May cause fatal liver necrosis.

(Answer E)

93. Which types of antihypertensive drugs should be preferred in hypertensive patients with diabetes
along with kidney disease?
A) Diuretics
B) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
C) Beta blockers
D) Calcium channel blockers
E) Ganglion blockers

(Answer B)

94. Which of the following antibiotics can cause pseudotumor cerebria in infants?
A) Tetracyclines
B) Sulfonamides
C) Aminoglycosides
D) Chloramphenicol
E) Cephalosporins

(Answer A)

95. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency in individuals with acceptable use which of the
following is not ?
A) Primaquine
B) Sulfamethoxazole
C) Cefazolin
D) Nitrofurazon
E) Chloroquine

(Answer C)

96. Which of the following is the tuberculosis drug whose effect is prolonged when used in individuals
with slow acetylating properties due to genetic polymorphism?
A) Rifampin
B) Streptomycin
C) Ethambutol
D) Isoniazid
E) Pyrazinamide

(Answer D)

97. Which of the following antiviral drugs is effective against both human Influenza A and B viruses?
A) Acyclovir
B) Idoxuridine
C) Vidarabin
D) Amantadine
E) Oseltamivir

(Answer E)

98. Which of the following is the drug used to reduce estrogen synthesis in breast cancer and steroid
synthesis in Cushing's disease?
A) Mifepristone
B) Metirapon
C) Aminoglutetimide
D) Mitotane
E) Ketoconazole

(Answer C)
99. Which of the following glucocorticoid drugs has the longest duration of action?
A) Cortisone
B) Cortisol
C) Prednisone
D) Triamcinolone
E) Dexamethasone

(Answer E)

100. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of type 2 diabetes with its activities in the
periphery without increasing insulin secretion in the pancreas?
A) Chlorpropamide
B) Nateglinid
C) Glyburide
D) Rosiglitazone
E) Gliclazide

(Answer D)

40. Which of the following inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue?

A) Riboflavin
B) Pantothenic acid
C) Nicotinic acid
D) Folic acid
E) Vitamin E

(Answer C)

101. Which of the following is not one of the indications for intravenous fluid therapy in a patient with
dehydration ?
A) persistent vomiting that cannot be stopped
B) Excessive abdominal distension
C) Severe hyponatremia (symptomatic)
D) 5% reduction in body weight
E) loss of consciousness

(Answer D)

140. In which of the following increases the 24-hour radioactive iodine uptake of the thyroid gland?
A) Exogenous thyroid hormone intake
B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C) Subacute thyroiditis
D) Iodine deficiency
E) Use of antithyroid drugs
(Answer E)

152. Which of the following should be considered in the case of miotic pupils in an unconscious
patient?
A) Brain death
B) Mesencephalic infarction
C) Anticholinergic drug intoxication
D) Opiate intoxication
E) Cerebellar hemorrhage

(Answer D)

153. A 60-year-old male patient is brought to the emergency room 2 hours after the onset of acute right
hemiparesis and aphasia. It is learned from the history of the patient that he had not had any disease
other than hypertension before. The patient's blood pressure is determined as 160/85 mmHg. Which of
the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient whose computed tomography result
is normal ?
A) Intravenous tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
B) Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
C) Warfarin
D) Intravenous heparin
E) Aspirin

(Answer A)

192 to be a mother which of the following drugs are used, a contraindication to breastfeeding does
not create ?
A) Methotrexate
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Prednisolone
D) Lithium
E) Cyclosporine

(Answer C)

195. Which of the following does not increase prolactin levels ?

A) High dose estrogen
B) Cocaine
C) Tricyclic antidepressants
D) Alpha-methyl dopa
E) Cabergoline

(Answer E)
SEPTEMBER 2006

81. Which of the following drugs induces microsomal enzymes in the liver?
A) Cimetidine
B) Erythromycin
C) Phenobarbital
D) Chloramphenicol
E) Phenylbutazone

(Answer C)

82. Which of the following is the statement that best describes the competitive antagonist ?
A) It is the substance that creates the opposite of the effect of the drug.
B) It is the substance that increases the excretion of the drug.
C) It is a substance that prevents its effect by binding to the drug molecule.
D) Reversible binding to the drug receptor is the substance that prevents the drug from binding.
E) It is a substance that prevents the binding of the drug by irreversibly binding to the drug receptor.

(Answer D)

83. In which of the following synapse groups does acetylcholine not act as the main neurotransmitter
? A) Sympathetic postganglionic nerve-effector organ synapse
B) Motor nerve-striated muscle synapse
C) Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve effector organ synapse
D) Autonomous preganglionic nerve end-adrenal medulla cell
E) Vagus nerve endings- sinoatrial node cell in the heart

(Answer A)

84. Which of the following effects of intravenous acetylcholine injection is not prevented by atropine?
A) Miosis
B) Bradycardia
C) Fasciculations in striated muscles
D) Increased drooling
E) Increase in bowel movements

(Answer C)

85. Which of the following are drugs used as nasal decongestants with sympathomimetic activity is
not one?
A) Adrenaline
B) Pseudoephedrine
C) Phenylephrine
D) Oxymethozoline
E) Terbutaline
(Answer E)

86. By which of the following mechanisms prolongation of the effects of succinylcholine (succinylconil
apnea) occurs?
A) Anaphylactic reaction
B) Plasma cholinesterase deficiency
C) Acute tolerance
D) Rapid hydrolysis of the drug
E) Active radical formation

(Answer B)

87.Combination of the following drugs increases the serum level of theophylline ?

A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Rifampicin
C) Griseofulvin
D) Cefaclor
E) Gentamicin

(Answer A)

88. Which of the following is used as an antagonist in benzodiazepine toxicity?

A) Midozolan
B) Flumazenil
C) Naloxone
D) Niketamide
E) Dantrolene

(Answer B)

89. From the following which is not one of the side effects of antipsychotic medication?
A) Postural hypotension
B) Constipation
C) Acute dystonia
D) Excessive salivary secretion
E) Tardive dyskinesia

(Answer D)

90. Which of the following drugs should be preferred in the treatment of status epilepticus?
A) Phenytoin
B) Valproate
C) Carbamazepine
D) Phenobarbital
E) Diazepam
(Answer E)

91. Which of the following is used in acute narcotic analgesic poisoning?

A) Tramadol
B) Naloxone
C) Dextromethorphan
D) Diphenoxylate
E) Fentanyl

(Answer B)

92. Which of the following causes an increase in the synaptic 5-HT level by inhibiting 5-HT reuptake?
A) Fluoxetine
B) Reserpine
C) Amphetamine
D) p-chlorophenylalanine
E) Ketanserin

(Answer A)

93. Which of the following is the early sign of aspirin intoxication?

A) Delirium
B) Dyspnoea
C) Excitation
D) Hallucination
E) Tinnitus

(Answer E)

94. Which of the following antihypertensive drug groups causes erectile dysfunction more often than
others?
A) Alpha 1 adrenoceptor blockers
B) Beta adrenoceptor blockers
C) Thiazide group diuretics
D) Calcium channel blockers
E) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

(Answer C)

95. Which of the following is not an indication for calcium channel blockers?
A) Reynaud's phenomenon
B) Angina
C) Cardiomyopathy
D) Bradycardia
E) Hypertension
(Answer D)

96. Which of the following drugs used in peptic ulcer treatment does not inhibit gastric acid secretion?
A) Anticholinergics
B) Antacids
C) Proton pump inhibitors
D) H 2 receptor blockers
E) Prostaglandins

(Answer B)

97. Which of the following diseases methotrexate not used in treatment ?

A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C)Psoriasis
D) Small cell lung cancer
E) Trophoblastic disease

(Answer D)

98. Which of the following is the antimicrobial drug that can cause cardiac arrhythmia?
A) Doxycycline
B) Linezolit
C) Amikacin
D) Ornidazole
E) Telithromycin

(Answer E)

99. Which of the following can be used in the treatment of hypocalcemia?

A) Calcitonin
B) Calcitriol
C) Furosemide
D) Alendronate
E) Prednisolone

(Answer B)

100. Which of the following toxins is competitive in the central nervous system of glycine receptors. is
the antagonist?
A) Citryknin
B) Bungarotoxin
C) Batracotoxin
D) Apamin
E) Tubocurarine
(Answer A)

58. Which of the following antifungal drugs has the most penetration through the blood-brain barrier?
A) Amphotericin-B
B) Nystatin
C) Griseofulvin
D) Ketoconazole
E) Fluconazole

(Answer E)

132. Which of the following drugs has little effect on plasma lipoproteins and has no place in the
current treatment of hypercholesterolemia ?
A) Cholestyramine
B) Nicotinic acid
C) Pravastatin
D) Probucol
E) Kolestipol

(Answer D)

133. Which of the following has no place in the treatment of chronic occlusive artery disease of the
lower extremities ?
A) Oral anticoagulation
B) Quitting smoking
C) Using clopidogrel
D) Using aspirin
E) Performing surgical revascularization

(Answer A)

150. Which of the following options for Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever is wrong ?
A) The causative agent is a virus from Bunyaviridae group
B) Disease can be transmitted by contact with the patient's blood
C) Infected tick bite is the most common way of transmission,
D) Parenteral acyclovir is administered in its treatment
E) It is most frequently seen in the spring and summer in endemic areas

(Answer D)

152.A 16-year-old girl presents with a history of cryptic tonsillitis 20 days ago and then arthritis in the
right knee and then in the left ankle. Physical examination revealed a body temperature of 37 ° C, a
pulse rate of 74 / min, swelling and tenderness in the left ankle, and fluid in the right knee. ECG and
cardiovascular system examination are natural. The examinations performed include ESR: 60 / hour,
ASO: 400, Todd / U. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment method?
A) Giving benzathine penicillin + aspirin and continuing benzathine penicillin prophylaxis until the age of
21
B) Giving procaine penicillin + aspirin followed by benzathine penicillin for life
C) Giving procaine penicillin and prednisolone followed by benzathine penicillin prophylaxis for life
D) Administration of procaine penicillin and sulfasalazine
E) Administration of procaine penicillin, aspirin and prednisolone

(Answer A)

170. Which of the following is not one of the mediators involved in the emergence of
vasoconstriction, the first response after tissue injury ?
A) Thromboxane A2
B) Nitric oxide
C) Endothelin
D) Serotonin
E) Bradykinin

(Answer B)

171. Which of the following drugs is due to surgery? the leastIf it is not cut 5 days ago, it may cause
complications during and after the operation?
A) Antithyroid drugs
B) Antidiabetic drugs
C) Steroids
D) Antiaggregant drugs
E) Digital preparations

(Answer D)

172. Which of the following is not applied for immunosuppression in transplantation surgery ?
A) Tacrolimus
B) Plasmapheresis
C) Corticosteroids
D) Cyclosporin A
E)Antilymphocytic globulin

(Answer B)

181. Which of the following inhalation anesthetics is inorganic gas ?

A) halothane
B) Chloroform
C) Nitrozoksit
D) Diethylether
E) Trichlorethylene
(Answer C)

192. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in the treatment of chronic hypertension during
pregnancy?
A) Methyldopa
B) Hydralazine
C) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
D) Labetalol
E) Calcium channel blocker

(Answer C)

193. Which of the following is not one of the appropriate approaches in a 35-week-old pregnant
woman whose amniotic membranes are opened and the water is drained ?
A) Administration of two doses of betamethasone every 12 hours
B) Induction of labor
C) Starting antibiotics
D) Waiting for labor under sterile conditions
E) Electronic external monitoring

(Answer A)
 TUS PHARMACOLOGY 2007
APRIL 2007

81. The bioavailability of A and B drugs used orally and containing the same active substance is 40%
and 80%, respectively. If drug A is used at a dose of 10 mg, at what mg dose should drug B be used in
order to maintain the same pharmacokinetic profile?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 80
E) 100

(ANSWER A)

82. Aspirin used in the treatment of migraine attacks occurs in a shorter time if it is given together
with the following?
A) With propranolol, which reduces blood flow in the small intestine,
B) With sodium bicarbonate,which increases thepH of gastric juice
C) With potassium iodide that increases saliva secretion
D) With metoclopramide that accelerates gastric emptying
E) With methyl cellulose that forms mass by holding water in the colon

(ANSWER D)

83. In which of the following drug development stages, the drug is tried in healthy volunteers?
A) Preclinical studies
B) Phase I
C) Phase II
D) Phase III
E) Phase IV

(ANSWER B)

84. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of the term tolerance in the
pharmacological sense ?
A) after repeated drug use and reduction in response to drug
B) after repeated drug use levy dose required to sustain drug efficacy
C) increased metabolism after repeated drug use
D) after repeated drug use can not be achieved drug concentration levels required in plasma
E) after repeated use drug receptor decreased binding affinity There are two correct answers to this
question: A and B.

(ANSWER A)
85. Which of the following is not one of the side effects of neostigmine ?
A) Blurred vision
B) Sweating
C) Constipation
D) Nausea, vomiting
E) Bronchospasm

(ANSWER C)

86. Which of the following does not have nicotinic receptors ?

A) Parasympathetic ganglion
B) Skeletal muscle
C) Sympathetic ganglion
D) Adrenal medulla
E) Bronchial smooth muscle

(ANSWER E)

87. Which of the following drugs is not used in glaucoma treatment ?

A) Pilocarpine
B) Apraclonidine
C) Demecarium
D) methazolamide
E) indoramin

(ANSWER E)

88. Intra-venous administration of droperidol and fentanyl to a patient undergoing a minor surgical
intervention,
I. relaxation of striated muscles
II. calming down
III. loss of consciousness
IV. decrease in motor activity
V. analgesia

Which of the conditions can reveal?

A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) II, IV and V
E) III, IV and V

(ANSWER D)
89. Which of the following drugs has antidepressant efficacy due to the inhibition of the MAO-A
enzyme?
A) Bupropion
B) Mianserin
C) Moclobemide
D) Maprotilin
E) Fluoxetine

(ANSWER C)

90. Which of the following antiasthmatics is not beneficial in acute bronchospasm because of its late
onset ?
A) Salbutamol
B) Salmeterol
C) Terbutaline
D) Adrenaline
E) Metaproterenol

(ANSWER B)

91. Which of the following is one of the drugs used as an antidiarrheal?

A) Loperamide
B) Lactulose
C) Domperidone
D) Granisetron
E) bisacodyl

(ANSWER A)

92. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the properties of the iNOS (NOS-2)
enzyme?
A) It is found in neurons.
B) It is associated with the 12th chromosome.
C) It is induced by endotoxin.
D) It is dependent on calcium.
E) Not found in smooth muscle cells.

(ANSWER C)

93. Which of the following drug combination is more effective than others in the treatment of
vomiting due to cancer chemotherapy?
A) Domperidone + apomorphine
B) Trimethobenzamide + scopolamine
C) Dimenhydrinate + prochlorperazine
D) Metoclopramide + meclizine
E) Ondansetron + dexamethasone

(ANSWER E)

94. Which one of the following angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor is not ?
A) Fosinopril
B) Perindopril
C) Trandolapril
D) Minoxidil
E) Benazepril

(ANSWER D)

95. Which of the following is the cellular basic action mechanism of cardiac glycosides ?
A) Na + , K + - ATPase inhibition
B) Decrease in Na + concentration
C) Increase of ATP level
D) increase of cAMP level
E) Decrease of Ca 2+ entry into the cell

(ANSWER A)

96. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated in patients with congestive heart
failure?
A) Perindopril
B) Carvedilol
C) Verapamil
D) Chlortalidone
E) Valsartan

(ANSWER C)

97. Which of the following is the calcium channel blocker that should be especially preferred in
subarachnoid hemorrhages?
A) Nifedipine
B) Nimodipine
C) Verapamil
D) Nitrendipine
E) Diltiazem

(ANSWER B)

98. Which of the following drugs is not used in the treatment of Leprosy disease ?
A) clofazimine
B) Rifampin
C) Dapsone
D) Sulfokso sodium
E) capreomycin

(ANSWER E)

99. Which of the following antiviral drugs is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
A) Zidovudine
B) Acyclovir
C) Vidarabin
D) Trifluridine
E) Foscarnet

(ANSWER A)

100. Which of the following disrupts the synthesis of all hormonally active steroids?
A) Drospirenone
B) Eplerenone
C) Triamcinolone
D) Aminoglutethimide
E) Metyrapone

(ANSWER D)

37. Which of the following drugs does not inhibit the biosynthesis of purines ?
A) Vidarabin
B) 6-mercaptopurine
C) Sulfonamides
D) Folate analogues
E) Azaserin

(ANSWER A)

7. Which of the following is not one of the appropriate approaches in the treatment of diabetic
ketoacidosis ?
A) Administrationof bicarbonate if the pH level is less than 7
B) Monitoring of serum potassium level
C) Administration of regular insulin as 0.10 U / kg infusion after 0.10-0.15 U / kg bolus intravenous
administration
D) 1000 ml 0.45% NaCl infusion in the first hour making
E) monitoring the amount of liquid received by and exit

(ANSWER D)
19. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of cystic disease due to Echinococcus
granulosus?
A) Albendazole
B) Metronidazole
C) Ornidazole
D) Dihydroemetin
E) Primetamine

(ANSWER A)

37. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach in acute rheumatic fever prophylaxis ?
A) Intramuscular administration of benzathine penicillin G every 3-4 weeks
B) Administration of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole every day
C) Administration of a single dose of rifampicin every day
D) Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone every 3-4 weeks
E) Oral ampicillin administration every day

(ANSWER A)

SEPTEMBER 2007

81. Which of the following reliability studies should be completed before phase 1 studies were carried
out while developing the drug?
A) Toxicity tests on selected patients
B) Short term toxicity studies in animals
C) Toxicity studies in large patient populations
D) Dose determination studies in selected patients
E) Multi-center toxicity studies

(ANSWER B)

82. Which of the following does not develop as a result of cholinergic nerve stimulation?
A) Miosis
B) Bradycardia in the heart
C) enlargement of the bronchi
D) Increase in stomach secretion
E) Erection in the male sex organ

(ANSWER C)

83. Which of the following is a hypnotic that causes serious adverse effects related to the central
nervous system such as delirium, aggression and violence?
A) Triazolam
B) Zolpidem
C) Pentobarbital
D) Flurazepam
E) Phenobarbital

(ANSWER A)

84. In a schizophrenic patient treated with fluphenazine, the drug had to be discontinued because
tardive dyskinesia started. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs should be preferred as the
second choice for this patient?
A) Chlorpromazine
B) Haloperidol
C) Thioridazine
D) Clozapine
E) Pimozide

(ANSWER D)

85. Which of the following is a benzodiazepine that can act in myoclonic convulsions as well as in
absence epilepsy?
A) Chlordiazepoxide
B) Temazepam
C) Clonazepam
D) Oxazepam
E) Alprazolam

(ANSWER C)

86. In which of the following situations is Bromocriptine not used?

A) Acromegaly
B) Migraine prophylaxis
C) Adenomas that secrete prolactin
D) Parkinson's disease
E) Suppression of physiological lactation

(ANSWER B)

87. Which of the following pharmacological properties differs from meperidine from morphine?
A) delaying gastric emptying
B) Decreasing peripheral resistance
C) Increase histamine release
D) Creating miosis
E) Negative inotropic effect on the heart

(ANSWER E)
88. Which of the following opioid analgesics has the shortest duration of analgesia?
A) Buprenorphine
B) Methadone
C) Morphine
D) Alfentanil
E) Propoxyphene

(ANSWER D)

89. Which of the following prostaglandin derivatives are used in the treatment of open angle
glaucoma?
A) Latanoprost
B) Carboprost
C) Epoprostenol
D) Alprostadil
E) Misoprostol

(ANSWER A)

90. Which of the following is the drug of choice in acute gout attacks because of its uricosuric and
anti-inflammatory effects?
A) Aspirin
B) Colchicine
C) Phenylbutazone
D) Allopurinol
E) Probenesit

(ANSWER C)

91. Which of the following should be preferred for pain relief in a patient using anticoagulants?
A) Naproxen
B) Acetaminophe
C) Aspirin
D) Proxicam
E) Ketorolac

(ANSWER B)

92. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs should be preferred primarily in patients with
myocardial infarction and tachyarrhythmias?
A) Metoprolol
B) Ramipril
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Amlodipine
E) Doxazosin

(ANSWER A)

93. Which of the following is not an effect of angiotensin II?

A) Increased production of growth factors
B) Increased proto-oncogene expression
C) Increase in renal sympathetic tone
D) Increased noradrenaline reuptake
E) Release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla

(ANSWER D)

94. Can be used in the treatment of a patient suffering from angina,

I.Propranolol,
II. verapamil,
III. isosorbide dinitrate
Which of the drugs cause an increase in heart rate?
A) I only
B) Solo II
C) Solo III
D) I and II
E) I and III

(ANSWER C)

95. Which of the following has the least ability to enhance the nephrotoxic effect of aminoglycosides?
A) Furosemide
B) Polymyxin B
C) Vancomycin
D) Amphotericin B
E) Penicillin

(ANSWER E)

96. Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of tuberculosis?
A) Cefaclor
B) Metronidazole
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Gentamycin
E) Levofloxazin

(ANSWER E)
97. Which of the following drugs is one of the androgen receptor antagonists?
A) Finasteride
B) Gosipol
C) Flutamid
D) Leuprolide acetate
E) Clomiphene

(ANSWER C)

98. In which of the following situations should glucocorticoids not be used?

A) Cataract
B) Leukemia
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Cerebral edema
E) Uveitis

(ANSWER A)

99. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs is one of the competitive inhibitors of intestinal
αglucosidase?
A) Troglitazon
B) Miglitol
C) Rosiglitazone
D) Tolazamide
E) Glyburide

(ANSWER B)

100. Oral hypoglycemic drugs act on pancreatic β cells by blocking which of the following?
A) ATP sensitive K + channels
B) L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels
C) T-type voltage-dependent calcium channels
D) Voltage dependent sodium channels
E) Chlorine channels

(ANSWER A)

44. As a result of mutation in the DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) enzyme, which of the following drugs
is expected to develop resistance?
A) Streptomycin
B) Rifampicin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Isoniazid
E) Tetracycline
(ANSWER C)

58. Which of the following antifungal drugs is not used in the treatment of infections of Aspergillus
species?
A) Itraconazole
B) Voriconazole
C) Fluconazole
D) Amphotericin B
E) Caspofungin

(ANSWER C)

2. Which of the following drugs can be used to prevent the progression of the disease in a patient
diagnosed with chronic heart failure?
A) Diuretics
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Digoxin
D) Calcium channel blockers
E) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

(ANSWER B)

7. Cardiac autonomic neuropathy, characterized by tachycardia and prolonged QT interval at rest,

occurred in a patient with hypertension who had been followed up with the diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus for 20 years. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is not appropriate for this
patient?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Alpha-blockers
D) Calcium channel blockers
E) Angiotensin receptor blockers

(ANSWER C)

8. Physical examination of a 65-year-old female patient who presented with sudden onset of severe
back pain revealed sensitivity in the upper lumbar spine and spasm in the paraspinal muscles. A
compression fracture in L1 is observed on direct radiographs. Serum calcium and protein electrophoresis
are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach in addition to giving calcium and
vitamin D to this patient who did not accept hormone replacement therapy?
A) Fluoride administration
B) Administration of bisphosphonates
C) Calcitonin administration
D) Physical therapy twice a week
E) Administering anabolic androgenic steroids
(ANSWER B)

14. A 35-year-old female patient, previously healthy, presents with the complaints of sudden fever and
confusion. In the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination of the patient who had neck stiffness on physical
examination, 1000 / mm 3 polymorphic leukocytes and Gram (+) diplococci were detected. Which of the
following antibiotics should not be used in empirical treatment to be initiated before the results of
CSF culture and antibiotic sensitivity in this patient?
A) Cefotaxime
B) Vancomycin C) Ceftriaxone
D) Meropenem
E) Penicillin

(ANSWER E)

17. A renal biopsy is performed on a patient with hemoptysis and acute nephritic syndrome. Crest
formation is detected in 70% of the glomeruli in light microscopy. Linear involvement is observed in the
glomerular basement membranes in the immunofluorescence study. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis for this patient?
A) Wegener granulomatosis
B) Lupus nephritis
C) Goodpasture syndrome
D) Berger's disease
E) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

(ANSWER D)

18. Which of the following should be done first in the treatment of the patient mentioned in the
previous question (17)?
A) Hemodialysis
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) Immunosuppressive therapy
D) Colchicine
E) ACE inhibitors

(ANSWER C)

39. Which of the following drugs are used for medical closure of the ductus in a newborn baby with
patent ductus arteriosus?
A) Prostaglandin E 1
B) Prostaglandin E 2
C) Tolazoline
D) Propranolol
E) Indomethacin
(ANSWER E)

53. Which of the following is recommended for regular use in the long-term treatment of bronchial
asthma?
A) Albuterol
B) Terbutaline
C) Metaproterenol
D) Ipratropium
E) Montelukast

(ANSWER E)

79. Which of the following anesthetic agents causes nystagmus?

A) Propofol
B) Enflurane
C) Duroperidol
D) Ketamine
E) Halothane

(ANSWER D)

86. Which of the following drugs used in the medical treatment of pain due to pelvic endometriosis
has an antiprogestinic effect?
A) Medroxyprogesterone acetate
B) Danazol
C) Linestrenol
D) Dydrogesterone
E) Megestrol acetate

(ANSWER B)
 TUS PHARMACOLOGY 2008
APRIL 2008

81. What is the name of a drug that inhibits the agonistic effect of isoproterenol by binding to β -
adrenergic receptors and not exerting any effect on these receptors?
A) Pharmacological antagonist
B) Partial agonist
C) Physiological antagonist
D) Chemical antagonist
E) Noncompetitive antagonist

(ANSWER A)

82. Activation of Gq protein-coupled receptors in vascular smooth muscle does not cause any of the
following ?
A) Increase in intracellular calcium amount
B) Increase of intracellular inositol phosphates
C) Activation of phospholipase C enzyme
D) Activation of protein kinase C enzyme
E) Activation of guanylate cyclase enzyme

(ANSWER E)

83. Which of the following enzymes does not have a physiological role in the synthesis process that
starts from tyrosine and ends with adrenaline ?
A) Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
B) Tyrosine hydroxylase
C) Catechol-ortho-methyltransferase
D) Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase
E) Dopamine β-hydroxylase

(ANSWER C)

84. Which drug is not effective in acute migraine treatment but effective in migraine prophylaxis?
A) Sumatriptan
B) Ergotamine
C) Ibuprofen
D) Amitriptyline
E) Naproxen

(ANSWER D)

84. Which drug is not effective in acute migraine treatment but effective in migraine prophylaxis?
A) Sumatriptan
B) Ergotamine
C) Amitriptyline
D) Ibuprofen
E) Naproxen

(ANSWER C)

It was asked with the same options in our mock exams.

85. Which of the following is not one of the indications for sympathomimetic drugs ?
A) Accelerating labor
B) Reducing regional blood flow
C) Bronchial asthma
D) Heart failure
E) Creating mydriasis

(ANSWER A)

86. Which of the following local anesthetics is more likely to cause allergic reactions than others?
A) Lidocaine
B) Procaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
E) Prilocaine

(ANSWER B)

87. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for patients with bronchial asthma?
A) Atropine
B) Phentolamine
C) Cimetidine
D) Propranolol
E) Dihydroergotamine

(ANSWER D)

88. Which of the following is the metabolite involved in methanol poisoning?

A) Acetaldehyde
B) Glutaraldehyde
C) Ethylene glycol
D) Acetic acid
E) Formaldehyde

(ANSWER E)
88. Which of the following is the metabolite involved in methanol poisoning?
A) Acetaldehyde
B) Formaldehyde
C) Ethylene glycol
D) Acetic acid
E) Glutaraldehyde

(ANSWER B)

It was asked with the same options in our mock exams.

90. Which of the following is an H1 histamine receptor antagonist without sedating side effects?
A) Loratodine
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Doxylamine
D ) Hydroxyzine
E) Promethazine

(ANSWER A)

90. Which of the following is an H1 histamine receptor antagonist without sedating side effects?
A) Hydroxyzine
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Doxylamine
D) Carbinoxamine
E) Cetirizine

(ANSWER E)

It was asked exactly in our mock exam.

91. Which of the following is the anti-inflammatory drug recommended for the first time in the
treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Methotrexate
B) Aspirin
C) Chloroquine
D) Hydroxychloroquine
E) Gold compounds

(ANSWER B)

91. Which of the following is the anti-inflammatory drug recommended for the first time in the
treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Methotrexate
B) Gold compounds
C) Chloroquine
D) Aspirin
E) Prednol

(ANSWER D)

Questions and options are asked exactly in our trial exams.

92. Which of the following is not included in the treatment of digital poisoning ?
A) Quinidine
B) Potassium administration
C) Lidocaine
D) Cholestyramine
E) Fab segment of digoxin-specific antibody

(ANSWER A)

93. Which of the following blocks Ca 2+ channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum ?

A) Digoxin
B) Amiloride
C) Propranolol
D) Verapamil
E) Ryanodine

(ANSWER E)

94. Which of the following is an undesirable effect of nitrates used in the treatment of angina?
A) Decrease in ventricular stroke volume
B) Decrease in arterial blood pressure
C) Strengthening of heart contraction as a reflex
D) Increase in collateral blood flow
E) Vasodilation in epicodial coronary arteries

(ANSWER C)

95. Which of the following diuretics should be preferred if the glomerular filtration rate is below 30 ml
/ min in a patient with heart failure?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Furosemide
C) Amiloride
D) Spironolactone
E) Acetazolamide

(ANSWER B)
96. Which of the following is used in diabetic gastroparesis because of its antiemetic and prokinetic
activity?
A) Metoclopramide
B) Scopolamine
C) Diphenhydramine
D) Sucralfate
E) Dimenhydrinate

(ANSWER A)

96. Which of the following is used in diabetic gastroparesis because of its antiemetic and prokinetic
activity?
A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Scopolamine
C) Metoclopramide
D) Sucralfate
E) Erythromocine

(ANSWEER C)

It was asked exactly in our mock exam.

97. Which of the following converts plasminogen to plasmin?

A) Heparin
B) Warfarin
C) Vitamin K1
D) Streptokinase
E) Toluidine blue

(ANSWER D)

98. Which of the following is not one of the dopamine receptor agonists ?
A) Bromocriptine
B) Cabergoline
C) Pergolid
D) L-dopa
E) Gonadorelin

(ANSWER E)

99. One of the indications for use of androgen Which of the following is not ?
A) Endometriosis
B) Cancer cachexia
C) Hypogonadism in men
D) Male breast cancer
E) Delayed puberty in boys

(ANSWER D)

100. Which of the following side effects can be seen in antidiabetic treatment with metformin?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Weight gain
C) Lactic acidosis
D) Ketoacidosis
E) Constipation

(ANSWER C)

100. Which of the following is the most important side effect of lactic acidosis?
A) Glyneid
B) Metformin
C) Acarbose
D) Rosiglitosan
E) Chorpromomide

(ANSWER B)

It was asked exactly in our mock exam.

37. Disulfiram, which can be used in the treatment of chronic alcoholism, causes an increase in the
concentration of which compound in the body?
A) Glycerol
B) Methanol
C) Acetic acid
D) Acetaldehyde
E) Acetyl-CoA

(ANSWER D)

39. Which of the following is an inhibitor of thymidylate synthase?

A) Allopurinol
B) Fluorouracil
C) Azaserin
D) 6-mercaptopurine
E) Cytosine arabinoside

(ANSWER B)
39. Which of the following inhibits thymine biosynthesis?
A) Allopurinol
B) Cytosine arabinoside
C) Azaserin
D) 6-mercaptopurine
E) Fluorouracil

(ANSWER E)

It was asked exactly in our mock exam.

40. What is the purpose of intravenous administration of benzoic acid or phenylacetic acid to a
patient?
A) To treat alkalosis in the patient
B) To provide substrate for folate synthesis
C) To excrete phenylketones in the urine
D) To reduce the ammonia concentration
E) To treat glycinuria

(ANSWER D)

42. Which of the following is the most common factor responsible for the development of resistance
against aminoglycoside antibiotics in Aerobic Gram (-) bacteria?
A) 16S ribosomal RNA mutation
B) Reduced outer membrane permeability
C ) Modifying enzyme synthesis
D) Mesosomal mutation
E) Cytoplasmic membrane mutation

(ANSWER C)

51. Which of the following antiviral agents does not work by inhibiting viral polymerase?
A) Vidarabin
B) Zidovudine
C) Ganciclovir
D) Foscarnet
E) Trifluridine

(ANSWER B)

54. Which of the following is the antiviral drug effective on human immunodeficiency virus type 1 and
type 2 and hepatitis B virus?
A) Ganciclovir
B) Amantadine
C) Trifluridine
D) Sidofovir
E) Lamivudine

(ANSWER E)

54. Which of the following is effective on HIV and hepatitis B virus?

A) Ganciclovir
B) Ribavirin
C) Foscarnet
D) Lamivudine
E) Trifluridine

(ANSWER D)

It was asked exactly in our mock exam.

71. Which of the following does not cause an increase in gastric cancer frequency ?
A) Hypochlorhydria
B) High nitrites in the diet
C) Smoking
D) Partial gastrectomy
E) Use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

(ANSWER E)

9. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus mainly acts by
decreasing glucose production in the liver?
A) Biguanide
B) α-glucosidase inhibitors
C) Sulfonylurea
D) Meglitinide
E) Thiazolidinedione

(ANSWER A)

11. A thirty-eight-year-old female patient presented with 6 weeks of fatigue, constipation, menorrhagia
and 4 kg weight gain. In physical examination, pulse 56 / minute, blood pressure 150/94 mmHg, thyroid
gland diffusely large, skin dry and prolongation of deep tendon reflexes are detected. In laboratory
examinations, TSH level is high, free T4 level is low. Which of the following should be done in the next
step for this patient?
A) TRH stimulation test
B) Thyroid hormone replacement therapy
C) Thyroid ultrasonography
D) 123 I uptake and scintigraphy
E) Fine needle aspiration biopsy
(ANSWER B)

13. Which of the following antimalarial drugs is absolutely contraindicated for use in pregnant women
? A) Primaquine
B) Doxycycline
C) Atovaquone + proguanil
D) Quinine
E) Chloroquine

(ANSWER B)

17. An asthmatic patient applies due to hypotension, shortness of breath and urticaria after using
painkillers. Which of the following drugs should be used urgently in this patient ?
A) H 2 receptor antagonist
B) Proton pump inhibitor
C) Adrenaline
D) Atropine
E) Theophylline

(ANSWER C)

17. An asthmatic patient presents with hypotension, shortness of breath and urticaria after aspirin use.
Which of the following drugs should be used urgently in this patient ?
A) H 2 receptor antagonist
B) Salbutamol
C) Adrenaline
D) Atropine
E) Theophylline

(ANSWER C)

It was asked exactly in our mock exam.

32. drawbacks in temporary or long-term breast-feeding a baby mother's drug use, which of the
following is not ?
A) Anticancer drugs
B) Metimazole
C) Penicillin group drugs
D) Tetracycline
E) Radiopharmaceuticals

(ANSWER C)

79. Which of the following should be the first choice in the treatment of a 37-year-old female patient
who presented with complaints of sudden pain in the leg, swelling in the leg and increased
temperature after childbirth and who had a positive Homan sign ?
A) Oral anticoagulants
B) Heparin
C) Elastic bandage
D) Surgical treatment
E) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

(ANSWER B)

80. By adding the following to local anesthetics, the duration of action of these anesthetics is
extended?
A) Atropine
B) Adrenaline
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Scopolamine
E) Naloxone

(ANSWER B)

97. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of hirsutism works by inhibiting the 5
αreductase enzyme?
A) Ketoconazole
B) Finasteride
C) Flutamid
D) Metformin
E) Spironolactone

(ANSWER B)

100. Intrauterine device containing levonorgestrel does not lead to a reduction in which of the
following?
A) Menstrual bleeding amount
B) Dysmenorrhea severity
C) Contraceptive efficacy
D) Myoma uteri size
E) Frequency of pelvic inflammatory disease

(ANSWER C)

SEPTEMBER 2008

81. Which of the following does not induce human liver P450 enzymes ?
A) Phenytoin
B) Rifampin
C) Carbamazepine
D) Omeprazole
E) Disulfiram

(ANSWER E)

82. The maximal plasma concentration value (C max ) of a drug does not depend on which of the
following ?
A) To the rate of bioavailability
B) Absorption half-life
C) The dose applied
D) The volume of distribution of the drug
E) The efficacy of the drug was

(ANSWER E)

83. After which of the following drug development phases is an application made for drug licensing?
A) Preclinical phase
B) Phase I
C) Phase II
D) Phase III
E) Phase IV

(ANSWER D)

84. PPAR-Gama Which of the following is the drug that reduces the resistance of tissues to insulin by
binding to its receptors?
A) Metformin
B) Rosiglitazone
C) Glibenclamide
D) Tolbutamide
E) Repaglinide

(ANSWER B)

85. Adequate Which of the following does not occur in a person treated with atropine doses ?
A) Decreased gastric secretion
B) Increased intestinal peristalsis
C) Drying in the mouth
D) Increased body temperature
E) Decreased sweating

(ANSWER B)
86. In a patient with moderate bronchial asthma Which of the following adrenergic beta receptor
blockers can be used for the treatment of hypertension and severe angina pectoris?
A) Propranolol
B) Nadolol
C) Timolol
D) Pindolol
E) Metoprolol

(ANSWER E)

87. Which of the following benzodiazepines can be used alone to create general anesthesia for a
surgical procedure that will take 10-15 minutes?
A) Midazolam
B) Propofol
C) Chlordiazepoxide
D) Flurazepam
E) Clorazepat

(ANSWER A)

88. Used in asthma treatment Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of
drugs is false ?
A) Terbutaline increases cAMP by stimulating Beta 2 -adrenoceptors.
B) Theophylline inhibits the phosphodiesterase enzyme that breaks down AMP.
C) Corticosteroids inhibit lymphocyte and eosinophil-induced inflammation in the airway mucosa.
D) Chromoline reduces the tone of airway smooth muscles by affecting the chlorine channels.
E) Ipratropium antagonizes muscarinic receptors.

(ANSWER D)

89. in the treatment of tardive dyskinesia secondary to antipsychotic medications primarily Which of
the following drugs should be preferred?
A) Diazepam
B) Levodopa
C) Chromazine
D) Haloperidol
E) Droperidol

(ANSWER A)

90. Which of the following statements about the pharmacological activities of striated muscle
relaxants is false ?
A) Diazepam increases the effectiveness of GABA.
B) Baclofen stimulates GABA B receptors.
C) Dantrolene stimulates GABA A receptors.
D) Tubacurarine blocks nicotinic receptors.
E) Succinylcholine stimulates nicotinic receptors.

(ANSWER C)

91. Which of the following is one of the properties of amphetaminesisn't it ?

A) Addiction
B) Using for doping
C) Sympathomimetic effects
D) Increasing appetite
E) Being useful in attention deficit and hyperactivity syndrome

(ANSWER D)

92. Which of the following antihistamines has no sedative effect ?

A) Diphenhydramine
B) Terfenadine
C) Doxylamine
D) Promethazine
E) Brompheniramine

(ANSWER B)

93. Aspirin can increase the incidence of Reye's syndrome in which of the following diseases?
A) Mumps
B) Measles
C) Chickenpox
D) Viral hepatitis
E) Rubella

(ANSWER C)

94. Which of the following is not one of the effects of cardiac glycosides ?
A) Na + , K + -ATPase inhibition
B) Positive inotropic effect
C) Intracellular cytosolic Ca 2+ increase
D) Indirect parasympathomimetic effect
E) Decrease in baroreceptor sensitivity

(ANSWER E)

95. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs does not affect the AV node causing prolongation of
the refractory period ?
A) Adenosine
B) Mexiletine
C) Sotalol
D) Verapamil
E) Propranolol

(ANSWER B)

96. Which of the following drugs can block both alpha and beta adrenoceptors?
A) Labetalol
B) Prazosin
C) Yohimbin
D) Propranolol
E) Phenoxybenzamine

(ANSWER A)

97. Which of the following causes a decrease in blood cholesterol level by increasing the
gastrointestinal excretion due to bile acids?
A) Clofibrate
B) Nicotinic acid
C) Colestipol
D) Lovastatin
E) Gemfibrozil

(ANSWER C)

98. Which of the following has the ability to accumulate in keratin tissue?
A) Arsenic
B) Alcohol
C) Copper
D) Barbiturates
E) Sulfuric acid

(ANSWER A)

99. Which of the following is the antidote to heparin?

A) Activated charcoal
B) Deferoxamine
C) Colestyramine
D) Protamine
E) Potassium permanganate

(ANSWER D)
100. Which of the following drugs causes hyperglycemia ?
A) Propranolol
B) Salicylates
C) Enalapril
D) Sulfonamides
E) Phenytoin

(ANSWER E)

33. Which of the following is the area where tumor markers are most commonly used?
A) Community screenings
B) Monitoring the treatment
C) Determining the cause of cancer
D) Determining the cancer risk
E) Determining the localization of the tumor

(ANSWER B)

4. Which of the following is not related to the nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) table ?
A) Obesity
B) Metabolic syndrome
C) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
D) High triglycerides, low HDL levels
E) Acetaminophen toxicity

(ANSWER E)

A 50-year-old male patient is being treated for active pulmonary tuberculosis. For another reason, the
dose of oral anticoagulant drug has to be doubled in this patient who is using warfarin. Which of the
following is the antituberculosis drug causing this condition?
A) Isoniazid
B) Rifampicin
C) Ethambutol
D) Pyrazinamide
E) Streptomycin

(ANSWER B)

14. Which of the following is the oral antidiabetic drug that should be preferred primarily in a 50-year-
old obese patient with a body mass index of 35 kg / m 2 , diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus ?
A) Metformin
B) Rosiglitazone
C) Repaglinide
D) Glipizide
E) Acarbose

(ANSWER A)

15. A patient who is followed up for small cell lung cancer develops lethargy. In the physical
examination, urinary osmolality is detected as 320 mOsm in the patient without signs of edema,
orthostatic hypotension or dehydration. In laboratory examinations, serum sodium level was 118 mEq /
L; Serum BUN, creatinine and glucose levels are normal. Which of the following should be done in the
initial treatment of this patient?
A) Physiological saline
B) Fluid restriction
C) 5% dextrose infusion
D) Desmopressin treatment
E) Dialysis application

(ANSWER B)

17. The development of clinically significant resistance to this antibiotic has not been identified in the
microorganism given against which of the following antibiotics . ? Antibiotics microorganisms
A) penicillin Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Ceftazidine I Klebsiella pneumoniae
C) imipenem of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Ciprofloxacin Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Vancomycin Enterococcus faecium

(ANSWER A)

33. Which of the following is not applied in the treatment of a premature baby with respiratory
distress syndrome ?
A) Sodium bicarbonate therapy
B) Surfactant therapy
C) Positive pressure mechanical ventilation
D) Inotropic drug (dopamine) therapy
E) Betamethasone therapy

(ANSWER E)

A 35-year-old male patient is admitted with sudden severe abdominal pain three hours ago. From his
history, it is learned that he has had pain in the epigastric region for three years. Widespread tenderness
and defense in the whole abdomen on physical examination; It is also found that liver dullness has
disappeared. In laboratory tests, hemoglobin, hematocrit, leukocyte count and urine tests are found to
be normal. Under current conditions, advanced examinations cannot be performed and the patient
cannot be transferred to another center. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for
this patient ?
A) Monitoring the patient by giving only watery foods orally
B) Administration of milk and antacids per hour
C) Nasogastric decompression, intravenous fluid and antibiotic administration
D) Checking the patient the next day using analgesic and antispasmodic
E) Giving high dose pump inhibitor

(ANSWER C)
 TUS PHARMACOLOGY 2009
APRIL 2009

81. Which of the following is not an indication for the use of muscarinic receptor agonists ?
A) Narrow angle glaucoma
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Tricyclic antidepressant poisoning
D) Paralytic ileus
E) Incontinence

(ANSWER E)

82. Which of the following prevents cardiac arrhythmia caused by succinylcholine?

A) Lidocaine
B) Anticholinergics
C) β-blockers
D) Verapamil
E) Digoxin

(ANSWER B)

83. Which of the following is used in the treatment of anal fissure and lower esophageal sphincter
associated spasms, blepharospasm, strabismus, and oromandibular dystonia?
A) Dantrolene
B) Botulinum toxin
C) Baclofen
D) Clonazepam
E) Tizanidine

(ANSWER B)

84. Which of the following antiasthmatic drugs both relax bronchial smooth muscle and prevent
inflammation?
A) Chromoline
B) Budesonide
C) Aminophilin
D) Montelukast
E) Ipratropium

(ANSWER C)

85. Which of the following does not work by binding to GABAA ?

A) Diazepam
B) Zolpidem
C) Bromocriptine
D) Zaleplon
E) Pentobarbital

(ANSWER C)

86. The reason why antipsychotics can cause amenorrhea, galactorrhea, infertility and impotence
depends on which of the following?
A) Blockade of adrenergic receptors
B) Blockade of dopamine receptors
C) Blockade of muscarinic receptors
D) Serotonin reuptake inhibition
E) Blockade of serotonin receptors

(ANSWER B)

87. Which of the following is an atypical antidepressant used in the treatment of nicotine addiction?
A) Amoxapine
B) Bupropion
C) Maprotiline
D) Nomifensin
E) Trazodone

(ANSWER B)

88. Which of the following opioid drugs can be used orally?

A) Fentanyl
B) Nalbufin
C) Buprenorphine
D) Butorfanol
E) Propoxyphene

(ANSWER E)

89. Which of the following statements about the effects of methylxanthines is false ?
A) They show a positive inotropic effect on the heart.
B) It has weak diuretic effects.
C) They suppress gastric acid secretion.
D) They cause relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.
E) They increase contractions in isolated skeletal muscle.

(ANSWER C)

90. Which of the following drugs should not be used in the treatment of a patient with rheumatoid
arthritis diagnosed with tuberculosis ?
A) Etanersept
B) Sulfasalazine
C) Penicillamine
D) Nabumeton
E) Piroxicam

(ANSWER A)

91. Which of the following drugs is not used in supraventricular tachycardias ?

A) Digoxin
B) Adenosine
C) Lidocaine
D) Propranolol
E) Verapamil

(ANSWER C)

92. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs causes exacerbation of extrapyramidal symptoms
in a patient being treated for Parkinson's disease?
A) Lysinopril
B) Prazosin
C) Methyldopa
D) Reserpine
E) Metoprolol

(ANSWER D)

93. Which of the following is one of the H1-receptor inhibitors effective in the treatment of
postoperative emesis?
A) Metoclopramide
B) Promethazine
C) Dronabiol
D) Ondansetron
E) Simethicone

(ANSWER B)

94. Which of the following drugs suppresses gastric acid secretion stimulated both by hunger and
food? A) Ranitidine
B) Magnesium hydroxide
C) Colloidal bismuth compounds
D) Sucralfate
E) Lansoprazole

(ANSWER E)
95. Which of the following antituberculosis drugs has an antibacterial effect through DNAdependent
RNA polymerase inhibition?
A) Rifampin
B) Ethambutol
C) Cycloserine
D) Amikacin
E) Isoniazid

(ANSWER A)

96. Which of the following drugs should be preferred first in the treatment of schistosomiasis ?
A) Mebendazole
B) Prazikuantel
C) Ivermectin
D) Niclosamide
E) Pirantel pamoate

(ANSWER B)

97. Which of the following antineoplastic drugs alkylating drugs does not take place ?
A) Mechlorethamine
B) Thioguanine
C) Melfalan
D) Busulfan
E) Karmustine

(ANSWER B)

98. Which of the following is an antineoplastic drug which is a pyrimidine antagonist used in the
treatment of metastatic cancer?
A) Capecitabine
B) Cladribine
C) Fludarabine
D) Thioguanine
E) Mercaptopurine

(ANSWER A)

99. Which of the following insulin preparations are long-acting?

A) Insulin lispro
B) Regular insulin
C) Insulin aspart
D) Insulin glargine
E) Insulin glulisine
(ANSWER D)

100. Which of the following is used as an antidote in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning?
A) Flumazenil
B) Fomepizole
C) Letrozole
D) Anastrozole
E) Leuprolid

(ANSWER B)

24. Which of the following lowers blood cholesterol level by blocking cholesterol transport in the
intestine?
A) Probukol
B) Statins
C) Nicotinic acid
D) Clofibrate
E) Cholestyramine

(ANSWER A)

30. Which of the following anticoagulants works by increasing the activity of antithrombin?
A) Citrate
B) Coumarin
C) Heparin
D) EDTA
E) Oxalate

(ANSWER C)

43. A Staphylococcus aureus strain isolated from a blood culture was found to have the mecA gene.
This gene confers resistance to the bacteria against which of the following antibiotics?
A) Ofloxacin
B) Erythromycin
C) Vancomycin
D) Oxacillin
E) Tetracycline

(ANSWER D)

56. Which of the following antifungal drugs works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis?
A) Ketoconazole
B) Flucytosine
C) Amphotericin B
D) Griseofulvin
E) Terbinafine

(ANSWER A)

13. Nineteen or evil then there are the symptoms of hypoglycemia continuing for three years in a female
nurse. When there is a symptom of hypoglycemia, blood glucose is measured as 35 mg / dL, 27 mg / dL
and 43 mg / dL on three different days. The C-peptide value taken during hypoglycemia is 0.1 ng / ml
(normal: 0.5-2.0 ng / ml). Carded evil 4 y i s are diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus hypoglycemia
in these patients should be considered which of the following reasons?
A) Insulinoma
B) Hepatoma
C) Do you use exogenous insulin ?
D) Nesidioblastosis
E) How to use sulfonylurea ?

(ANSWER C)

14. In a patient whose saphenous vein was removed due to coronary by-pass surgery , recurrent cellulite
attacks develop around the saphenous vein area removed from the second month after surgery. Which
of the following was given together with the bacteria most likely to cause this clinical picture and the
antibiotic to be used in treatment ? Bacteria Antibiotic
A) Staphylococcus aureus Vancomycin
B) Escherichia coli Amoxicillin / clavulanate
C) β-hemolytic streptococci Penicillin
D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae Erythromycin
E) Clostridium perfringens Clindamycin

(ANSWER C)

15. Erin şk was caused by Streptococcus pyogenes a patient ğ u in the treatment of bacterial
tonsilopharyngitis primarily to be a preferred antibiotic o fied Which is in?
A) Single dose benzathine penicillin G (1.2 million units intramuscular)
B) 10 days procaine penicillin (2 x 800 000 units intramuscular)
C) 10 days erythromycin (2 g / day peroral)
D) Single dose ceftriaxone (250 mg intramuscular)
E) Single dose of ciprofloxacin (500 mg peroral)

(ANSWER A)

16. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the approach to bleeding due to
MalloryWeiss tears?
A) specific treatment generally do i lmas then n is not required.
B) Sengstaken-Blakemore tube insert I should be I d i r.
C) surgery in patients with early ugulanmal s d i r.
D) Parenteral H 2 receptor blocker should be given.
E) Time ba şi should be given antacids.

(ANSWER A)

18. Gastroesophageal reflux disease in a person with an indication for endoscopy Which of the
following is the not favors ?
A) Treatment as i t that heartburn
B) Dysphagia
C) ğ r i l i swallow
D) Gastrointestinal bleeding
E) Weight loss I

(ANSWER A)

22. Mitral valve disease LIGHT n ba ğ l i acute ischemic stroke 54 brought to the emergency room or þi
After the patient's I n cranial computed shot I tomography has normally. Attack be evil lang i c i from 1
hour has passed since ğ i ö ğ Phenyl the patient then the physical examination se ğ hemiplegia and
aphasia determine heat exhaust. In these patients, urgent as building treatment Which of the
following line should be?
A) Thrombolytic therapy
B) Surgical cardiac thrombectomy
C) T I stayed I veins of the brain then surgical thrombectomy for my n
D) Clinical follow-up with antiaggregant / anticoagulant therapy
E) Rehabilitation

(ANSWER A)

34. Which of the following is the treatment to reduce the risk of developing bronchopulmonary
dysplasia in a baby born at 26 weeks of age and treated with a diagnosis of respiratory distress
syndrome?
A) Surfactant treatment
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) Indomethacin treatment
D) Vitamin A therapy
E) Positive inotropic therapy

(ANSWER D)

A 82 o fied on which of the local anesthetic longest is effective?

A) Lidocaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Tetracaine
D) Procaine
E) Prilocaine

(ANSWER B)

A 96 o fied Which of the stimulates gonadotropin-releasing hormone secretion?

A) Endogenous opioids
B) Corticotropin releasing hormone
C) Melatonin
D) Noradrenaline
E) Gamma-aminobutyric acid

(ANSWER D)

SEPTEMBER 2009

81. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is more risky than others in terms of causing
myocardial infarction in a patient with coronary artery disease?
A) Prazosin
B) Minoxidil
C) Hydralazine
D) Enalapril
E) Propranolol

(ANSWER C)

82. To which of the following effects of benzodiazepines does not develop intolerance ?
A) Hypnotic effect
B) Sedative effect
C) Antiepileptic effect
D) Respiration depressing effect
E) Effects on sleep periods

(ANSWER D)

83. By what mechanism do nitrites and nitrates primarily cause vascular relaxation?
A) Nitric oxide secretion from endothelial cells
B) Nitric oxide synthase induction in vascular smooth muscle
C) Formation of peroxynitrite radical with endogenous nitric oxide
D) Increase the half-life of nitric oxide
E) Nitric oxide release as a result of their metabolism

(ANSWER E)
84. Antiviral drug whose primary dose-limiting side effect is nephrotoxicity is one of the following?
A) Famciclovir
B) Pensiclovir
C) Sidofovir
D) Fomivirsen
E) Ganciclovir

(ANSWER C)

85. Which of the following is an antifungal drug with systemic action?

A) Fluconazole
B) Nystatin
C) Clotrimazole
D) Miconazole
E) Tioconazole

(ANSWER A)

86. Which of the following effects of drugs at a synapse with a known neurotransmitter causes the
excess of that synapse to become stronger?
A) Blockade of postsynaptic receptors
B) Activation of presynaptic autoreceptors
C) Inhibition of neurotransmitter re-uptake
D) Pseudo-neurotransmitter formation
E) Decreased postsynaptic receptor density

(ANSWER C)

87. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease block NMDA receptors?
A) Donepezil
B) Rivastigmine
C) Galantamine
D) Tacrin
E) Memantine

(ANSWER E)

88. Which of the following statements about competitive antagonism is false ?

A) Agonist and antagonist compete to bind to the same receptor.
B) Agonist concentration-response curve shifts to the right depending on the antagonist concentration.
C) The higher the antagonist concentration, the higher the agonist EC 50 value.
D) The antagonist binds to an allosteric site on the receptor.
E) The antagonist can inhibit the entire agonist response.

(ANSWER D)
89. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of anti-HIV active nucleoside
reverse transcriptase inhibitors ?
A) Prevention of the conversion of viral RNA to DNA
B) Prevention of the conversion of viral DNA to RNA
C) Prevention of incorporation of viral DNA into the cell genome
D) Increased viral RNA degradation
E) Inhibition of the incorporation of viral RNA into cell RNA

(ANSWER A)

90. Which of the following drugs inhibits monoamine oxidase in adrenergic nerve endings?
A) Neostigmine
B) Atropine
C) Tranylcypromine
D) Propranolol
E) Tetrodotoxin

(ANSWER C)

91. Which of the following statements about agents inhibiting the renin-angiotensin system is false ?
A) Clonidine decreases renin release by decreasing the activity of renal sympathetic nerves centrally.
B) Enalapril prevents the formation of angiotensin II by inhibiting the angiotensin converting enzyme.
C) Aliskiren decreases angiotensin II level by inhibiting plasma renin activity.
D) β-adrenergic receptor agonists reduce renin release by reducing the activity of renal sympathetic
nerves centrally.
E) Losartan inhibits this system by blocking candesartan angiotensin AT 1 receptors.

(ANSWER D)

92. Which of the following benzodiazepine derivative hypnotic drugs is used, the sedative effect is less
common than the others?
A) Diazepam
B) Triazolam
C) Flurazepam
D) Clorazepate
E) Chlordiazepoxide

(ANSWER B)

93. Which of the following drugs can have an anticonvulsant effect by inhibiting the GABA amino
transaminase enzyme?
A) Vigabatrin
B) Clonazepam
C) Ethosuximide
D) Carbamazepine
E) Phenobarbital

(ANSWER A)

94. In which of the following is not the endogenous agonist and the receptor system it acts by binding
to?
A) 5-HT - Ion channel receptor
B) Noradrenaline - G protein coupled receptor
C) T 3 thyroid hormone - G protein coupled receptor
D) Vitamin D - Nuclear receptor
E) Insulin - Receptor with tyrosine kinase activity

(ANSWER C)

95. After the drug is marketed, which of the following is the stage in which side effects and safety are
evaluated?
A) Preclinical phase
B) Phase I
C) Phase II
D) Phase III
E) Phase IV

(ANSWER E)

96.
Medicine ED 50 (mg TD 50 (mg
/ kg) / kg)

A 2nd 20

B 10 200

According to the table above, potency and therapeutic index comparisons of drugs A and B are given
in which of the following correctly?
Potency Therapeutic index
A) A<B A>B
B) A> B A <B
C) A <B A<B
D) A> B A = B
E) A> B A> B

(ANSWER B)

97. Which of the following statements about G proteins binding guanine nucleotides is false?
A) It is a receptor that crosses the cell membrane 3 times.
B) It has 3 subunits as α, β and γ.
C) α subunit binds nucleotides.
D) Subunits activate effectors such as adenylyl cyclase and phospholipase C.
E) There are different types such as G s , G i , G q , G t .

(ANSWER A)

98. Which of the following drugs is not used to increase the 5-HT level at the neuron synapse ?
A) Sertraline
B) Fluoxetine
C) Amitriptyline
D) Buspiron
E) Cytolopram

(ANSWER D)

99. Which of the following inhibits the vesicular pump engulfing acetylcholine from the cytoplasm to
the vesicle?
A) Hemicolinium
B) Tyramine
C) Cocaine
D) Tricyclic antidepressants
E) Vezamikol

(ANSWER E)

100. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of amebiasis is effective in the treatment of
amoebas located in the tissues and is not used in the treatment of colonic amebiasis ?
A) Metronidazole
B) Chloroquine
C) Diloxanide furoate
D) Iodoquinol
E) Paromomycin

(ANSWER B)

54. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate oral route of avian flu (Influenza A sub type
H5N1) and can be metabolized in the liver?
A) Oseltamivir
B) Amantadine
C) Rimantadine
D) Zanamivir
E) Vidarabi

(ANSWER A)
5. Which of the following bacteria that cause pneumonia outside the hospital is appropriate to use the
antibiotic given against it? Bacteria Antibiotic
A) Legionella pneumophila Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
B) Haemophilus influenzae Penicillin G
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae Cefuroxime
D) Staphylococcus aureus Amoxicillin
E) Chlamydia pneumoniae Clarithromycin

(ANSWER E)

16. Which of the following should be done first in a patient who develops widespread rash, itching,
urticaria-like rash along with severe shortness of breath and hypotension 10 minutes after the bee
sting?
A) Intravenous antihistamine
B) Intravenous corticosteroid
C) Intramuscular adrenaline
D) With nebulizer β 2 –agonist
E) Dopamine infusion

(ANSWER C)

22. Which of the following methods is not effective in preventing the progression of the
microalbuminuria period to overt proteinuria in diabetic patients. ?
A) Ensuring tight glycemic control
B) Restriction of protein intake
C) Using aspirin
D) Ensuring tight blood pressure control
E) Use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

(ANSWER C)

23. Which statement is correct about alpha glucosidase inhibitors used in the treatment of type 2
diabetes mellitus?
A) reduce insulin resistance.
B) HbA 1c lower more than sulfonylurea and biguanides.
C) They are used even in patients with serum creatinine levels above 2.5 mg / dL.
D) They lower blood glucose by reducing glucose absorption from the intestine.
E) They decrease hepatic glucose production.

(ANSWER D)

53. Which of the following is not recommended in acute asthma attack ?

A) Subcutaneous adrenaline injection
B) Inhaled steroids
C) Intravenous methylprednisolone
D) Intravenous aminophylline
E) Long acting β2-adrenergic drugs

(ANSWER E)

59. Which of the following is not suitable for the treatment of cyanotic seizures in children with
tetralogy of Fallot ?
A) Morphine
B) Propranolol
C) Giving the child a knee-chest position
D) Digoxin
E) Epinephrine derivative agents that increase peripheral resistance

(ANSWER D)

78. Which of the following local anesthetics causes methemoglobinemia?

A) Lignocaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Prilocaine
D) Ropivacaine
E) Cocaine

(ANSWER C)

88. Which of the following is not effective in treating postmenopausal hot flashes?
A) Raloxifene
B) Fluoxetine
C) Medroxyprogesterone acetate
D) Venlafaxine
E) Gabapentin

(ANSWER A)

94. Which of the following is not one of the drugs with proven or suspected teratogenic effect in
humans if used during pregnancy?
A) Methotrexate
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Tamoxifen
D) Lithium
E) Glucocorticoids

(ANSWER E)
 TUS PHARMACOLOGY 2010
APRIL 2010

81. Which of the following best describes the pharmacodynamic efficacy of a drug ?
A) It is the concentration at which the drug has an effect.
B) It is the concentration at which the drug creates the maximal effect.
C) It is the ability of the drug to bind to its receptor.
D) The ability of the drug to create stimuli by binding to the receptor.
E) The concentration at which the drug accounts for half of the maximal effect.

(ANSWER D)

82. Which of the following gives information about the variation in drug sensitivity in a population?
A) Kuvantal dose-response curve
B) Maximal efficiency
C) Drug potency
D) Therapeutic index
E) Graded dose-response curve

(ANSWER A)

83. Which of the following is the similarity between the partial agonist and the competitive neutral
antagonist?
A) Covalent bonding to receptors
B) To reduce the effects of the full agonist
C) Changes in receptors due to stimulation
D) Direct effects
E) Effects appear late

(ANSWER B)

84. Which of the following can be defined as a heteroreceptor?

A) Postsynaptic localization of a 2A adrenergic receptor in sympathetic neurons
B) Presynaptic localization of M 2 -muscarinic receptor in parasympathetic neurons
C) Presynaptic localization of a 2B adrenergic receptor in parasympathetic neurons
D) Presynaptic localization of the 5HT 1 receptor in serotonergic neurons
E) Postsynaptic localization of M 4 -muscarinic receptor in parasympathetic neurons

(ANSWER C)

85.Muscarinic agonists
I. bronchodilation
II. eye miosis
III. dry mouth
IV. bradycardia
V. hypotension
VI. decreased stomach secretion
Which of the effects can it create?
A) I, II and III
B) I, III and V
C) II, IV and V
D) II, IV and VI
E) IV, V and VI

(ANSWER C

86. Which of the following statements about peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma
(PPAR- γ ) is incorrect ?
A) It is the receptor coupled to the G protein.
B) It takes part in the activity of genes related to glucose and lipid metabolism.
C) It regulates the functions of genes involved in insulin signal transmission.
D) It plays a role in the differentiation of adipocytes.
E) Agonists of these receptors reduce the resistance to insulin in the tissues

(ANSWER A)

87. Which of the following general anesthetics administered intravenously induces dose dependent
cardiovascular stimulation with analgesic effect?
A) Etomidate
B) Fentanyl
C) Ketamine
D) Thiopental
E) Propofol

(ANSWER C)

88. Which of the following is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor used in the treatment of asthma?
A) Zafirlukast
B) Zileuton
C) Omalizumab
D) Budesonide
E) Chromoline

(ANSWER B)

89. In which of the following is an antiepileptic drug not given with its mechanism of action ?
Antiepileptic drug Mechanism of action
A) Vigabatrin GABA aminotransferase inhibition
B) Tiagabine GABA reuptake inhibition
C) Inactivation of Lamotrigine Na + channels
D) Increase in chlorine channel activity controlled by nitrazepam GABA
E) Gabapentin GABA receptor agonist

(ANSWER E)

90. Which of the following striped muscle relaxant drugs has the primary site of action in the central
nervous system?
A) Succinylcholine
B) Dantrolene
C) Baclofen
D) Atracurium
E) Pancuronium

(ANSWER C)

91. Which of the following statements about the pharmacological properties of levodopa is false ?
A) Absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is rapid.
B) The delay of gastric emptying decreases its absorption.
C) Its transmission rate to the central nervous system is approximately 1%.
D) It stimulates dopamine D 2 receptors with its direct effect .
E) The healing effect on bradykinesia and muscle rigidity is more pronounced.

(ANSWER D)

92. Aşağıdaki durumların hangisinde vazopresin peptidlerinin terapötik veya profilaktik etkinliği V1
reseptörleri aracılığı ile oluşmaz?
A) Özofagus varis kanaması
B) Akut hemorajik gastrit
C) Siklofosfamide ikincil hemorajik sistit
D) Ameliyat sonrası ileus
E) Santral diabetes insipidus

(ANSWER E)

93. Which of the following antifungal drugs is not effective on dermatophytes ?

A) Griseofulvin
B) Nystatin
C) Miconazole
D) Ketoconazole
E) Clotrimazole

(ANSWER B)
94. Which of the following is the antiviral and immunomodulatory drug used in the treatment of
genital condylomata acuminata?
A) Zanamivir
B) Ribavirin
C) Imiquimod
D) Lamivudine
E) Fomivirsen

(ANSWER C)

95. Which of the following best explains the anticarcinogenic activity of plant alkaloids such as
vinblastine, vincristine and vinorelbine ?
A) Inhibition of mitosis by inhibition of polymerization of microtubules in the cytoskeleton
B) Inhibition of DNA synthesis by alkylation of guanines in DNA
C) Inhibition of DNA synthesis by acting as a purine antagonist
D) Inhibition of DNA synthesis by acting as a pyrimidine antagonist
E) Disruption of cell integrity by binding to the cell membrane

(ANSWER A)

96. Which of the following is methotrexate's primary mechanism of action?

A) Being a folic acid antagonist
B) It is a pyrimidine analogue
C) Being a purine analog
D) Alkylation of guanines
E) Targeting microtubules in the cytoskeleton

(ANSWER A)

97. Aşağıdaki ilaçlardan hangisi fibrinoliz amacıyla kullanılır?

A) Aspirin
B) Heparin
C) Dikumarol
D) Hirudin
E) Reteplaz

(ANSWER E)

98. Which of the following is a thrombin inhibitor that acts independently of antithrombin activity and
binds directly to the active site of thrombin?
A) Heparin
B) Lepirudin
C) Daltaparin
D) Enoxaparin
E) Warfarin

(ANSWER B)

99. Which of the following is a pure estrogen receptor antagonist?

A) Tamoxifen
B) Rolexifene
C) Toremifene
D) Fulvestrant
E) Danazol

(ANSWER D)

100. The level of rhodopsin decreases in deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E

(ANSWER A)

11. Which of the following provides stabilization of microtubules?

A) Taxol
B) Colchicine
C) Vinblastine
D) Colcemide
E) Vincristine

(ANSWER A)

19. Which of the following is the anticoagulant whose effect is strengthened by heparin?
A) Thrombomodulin
B) Plasminogen
C) Protein C
D) Antithrombin IIIs
E) Tissue plasminogen activator

(ANSWER D)

41. Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic agent ?

A) Alcohol
B) Chlorhexidine
C) Peracetic acid
D) Triclosan
E) Povidone iodine

(ANSWER C)

103. Which of the following is not appropriate for a patient with pericardial tamponade before
pericardiocentesis ?
A) Bringing the patient to a sitting position
B) Hydration intravenously
C) Monitoring
D) Giving a diuretic
E) Positive inotropic agent administration

(ANSWER D)

109. Which of the following drugs is most suitable for the initial treatment of severe ulcerative colitis?
A) Sulfasalazine
B) Mesalamine
C) Metronidazole
D) Prednisolone
E) Cyclosporine

(ANSWER D)

118. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of metastatic breast cancer is an alkylating
agent?
A) Vinorelbine
B) Cyclophosphamide
C) Etoposide
D) Paclitaxel
E) Doxorubicin

(ANSWER B)

121. In the physical examination of a 38-year-old male patient who was brought to the emergency
department with the complaint of vomiting excessive bright red blood, confusion, body temperature
36.6 ° C, blood pressure 60/30 mmHg, pulse 120 / minute rhythmic and respiratory rate 24 / minute
were detected. Which of the following should be done first in this patient ?
A) Upper gastrointestinal system endoscopy
B) Fluid therapy and blood preparation by establishing vascular access
C) Mesenteric angiography
D) Direct abdominal radiography
E) Abdominal ultrasonography

(ANSWER B)
123. Which of the following should be preferred first in medical treatment in order to relieve the
symptoms of a 70-year-old female patient diagnosed with osteoarthritis in the knee and hip joints ?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B) Glucocorticoids
C) Hyaluronic acid
D) Acetylsalicylic acid
E) Paracetamol

(ANSWER E)

161. Which of the following is considered a form of active euthanasia?

A) Lowering the temperature of the patient room
B) Decreasing the patient's nutritional support
C) Withdrawal of the patient by reducing fluid support
D) Lethal dose drug administration to the patient
E) Reducing the patient's chemotherapy sessions

(ANSWER D)

179. Which of the following volatile anesthetics is more likely to cause liver damage than others?
A) Ether
B) Isoflurane
C) Sevoflurane
D) Halothane
E) Enflurane

(ANSWER D)

DECEMBER 2010

81. The elimination half-life of a drug with rapid oral absorption is 4 hours. The volume of distribution of
the drug is 50 L, its bioavailability is 100% and the administered dose is 1000 mg. The minimal effective
concentration of this drug is 5 mg / L. How many hours should this drug be administered at maximum
intervals in order to be used effectively in repeated doses ?
A) 2
B) 6
C) 8
D) 24
E) 48

(ANSWER C)
82. Which of the following makes it difficult for a drug to cross the placental barrier?
A) High ionization
B) High solubility in oil
C) Low binding to maternal proteins
D) Small molecular weight
E) Low placental metabolism

(ANSWER A)

83. Which of the following pharmacokinetic parameter should be considered first in dose adjustment
in penicillin treatment in an 85-year-old patient ?
A) Absorption from the intestines
B) Distribution in body fluids
C) Metabolism in the liver
D) Excretion from the kidneys
E) Crossing the blood-brain barrier

(ANSWER D)

84. A drug produces less response than the full agonist response and competitive antagonizes the full
agonist response. Which of the following is the most appropriate definition for this drug ?
A) Noncompetitive antagonist
B) Physiological antagonist
C) Inverse agonist
D) Neutral antagonist
E) Partial agonist

(ANSWER E)

85. Which of the following would not be expected in a patient who attempted suicide by taking high
doses of diphenhydramine (antihistamine) ?
A) Hallucinations
B) Bronchoconstriction
C) Mydriasis
D) Cardiac arrhythmia
E) Dry, hot and red skin

(ANSWER B)

86. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the mechanism of action of sertraline and
fluoxetine used in the treatment of depression?
A) It increases the 5-HT level at the synapse by blocking 5-HT 1A receptors.
B) It increases the 5-HT level at the synapse by activating the 5-HT transporter.
C) It increases 5-HT level at the synapse by stimulating 5-HT1D receptors.
D) It increases the 5-HT level at the synapse by inhibiting the 5-HT transporter.
E) It increases the 5-HT level at the synapse by activating 5-HT1A receptors.

(ANSWER D)

87. In what disease can prostaglandin F2 ? Analogs be used?

A) Glaucoma
B) Peptic ulcer
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Asthma
E) Impotence

(ANSWER A)

88. Which of the following is the effect of adrenaline that can be blocked by phentolamine but not by
propranolol?
A) Relaxation in bronchial smooth muscle
B) Increase in the contraction force of the heart
C) Contraction of the dilator muscle of the iris
D) Increase in renin release
E) Increase in the number of beats of the heart

(ANSWER C)

89. Which of the following antibiotics has a lower renal excretion than the others?
A) Doxycycline
B) Ceftazidime
C) Ofloxacin
D) Ampicillin
E) Nitrofurantoin

(ANSWER A)

90. Which of the following has no place in the treatment immediately after myocardial infarction ?
A) Aspirin
B) Nifedipine
C) Morphine
D) Lidocaine
E) Nitroglycerin

(ANSWER B)

91. Which of the following is an orally acting angiotensin AT1-receptor antagonist?

A) Aliskiren
B) Captopril
C) Benazepril
D) Candesartan
E) Saralazine

(ANSWER D)

92. In an intoxication case presenting with the findings of cholinergic hyperactivation, which of the
following findings primarily suggest an indirect rather than direct, indirect, cholinomimetic drug
intoxication?
A) Miosis
B) Excessive sweating
C) Increase in bowel movements
D) Involuntary incontinence
E) Contraction of striated muscles

(ANSWER E)

93. Which of the following antifungal drugs is not used in Candida infections ?
A) Itraconazole
B) Amphotericin B
C) Caspofungin
D) Griseofulvin
E) Nystatin

(ANSWER D)

94. Which of the following should be preferred in the treatment of pernicious anemia?
A) Oral iron
B) Parenteral vitamin B12
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral iron
E) Oral folic acid

(ANSWER B)

95. Which of the following is the drug with the highest glucocorticoid activity ?
A) Betamethasone
B) Triamcinolone
C) Prednisone
D) Cortisone
E) Paramethasone

(ANSWER A)
 96. Which of the following does immunosuppression by blocking antigen recognition of the T-cell
receptor complex?
A) Glucocorticoids
B) Tacrolimus
C) Muromonab-CD3
D) Basiliximab
E) Sirolimus

(ANSWER C)

97. Which of the following is not seen in hypoglycemia seizure due to overdose of insulin ?
A) Dryness of the skin
B) Shivering
C) tachycardia
D) Mental confusion
E) Anxiety

(ANSWER A)

98. Which of the following is not one of the indications for androgens ?
A) Hypogonadism
B) Endometriosis
C) Growth retardation in boys
D) Osteoporosis
E) Male breast cancer

(ANSWER E)

99. Which of the following side effects caused by neuroleptic drugs is not effective in the treatment of
antiparkinsonian drugs ?
A) Acute dystonia
B) Akathisia
C) Parkinsonism
D) Perioral tremor
E) Tardive dyskinesia

(ANSWER E)

100. Which of the following 5-HT receptors are the agonists of triptans used in migraine treatment?
A) 5-HT1A
B) 5-HT1D
C) 5-HT2A
D) 5-HT2C
E) 5-HT3
(ANSWER B)

43. Which of the following is the antibiotic that shows antibacterial effect by binding to the α subunit
of DNA gyrase and inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis?
A) Rifampin
B) Metronidazole
C) Gentamycin
D) Ciprofloxacin
E) Doxycycline

(ANSWER D)

54. Which of the following is one of the integrase inhibitors used in HIV treatment?
A) Enfuvirtid
B) Lopinavir
C) Tenofovir
D) Delavirdine
E) Raltegravir

(ANSWER E)

2. Which of the following should not be given to a patient presenting with paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia ?
A) Isoproterenol
B) Verapamil
C) Digitalis
D) Diltiazem
E) Adenosine

(ANSWER A)

3. Which of the following drugs used alone in the treatment of hypertension of a patient with
pheochromocytoma leads to a further increase in blood pressure?
A) Phentolamine
B) Labetalol
C) Sodium nitroprusside
D) Prazosin
E) Beta-blocking drugs

(ANSWER E)

14. 10 5 colonies / ml Escherichia coli are produced in the urine culture taken from a 25-year-old, 2.5-
monthold pregnant woman without any complaints . Which of the following statements is correct
regarding the treatment of this patient?
A) No treatment is required, urine culture is repeated after 2 weeks.
B) No treatment is required, there is no need for culture follow-up.
C) A single oral dose of 400 mg ofloxacin is given.
D) If the bacteria are sensitive, amoxicillin-clavulanate is given for 7 days.
E) Treatment is given only if the patient is symptomatic.

(ANSWER D)

15. Which of the following antibiotics is not a betalactam derivative ?

A) Ampicillin
B) Aztreonam
C) Cefazolin
D) Doripenem
E) Tigecycline

(ANSWER E)

32. Which of the following statements is correct regarding what should be done to prevent bleeding
due to vitamin K deficiency in newborn babies?
A) Since vitamin K deficiency is not seen in babies fed with breast milk, no special prevention is required.
B) A high dose of vitamin K is administered to the mother before birth.
C) Multivitamin is started on the 15th day for the baby.
D) 1 mg of intramuscular vitamin K is administered to the baby after birth.
E) Folic acid is started after the baby is born.

(ANSWER D)

39. Which of the following is not one of the principles of acute bronchiolitis treatment ?
A) Removal of bronchial obstruction
B) Acyclovir treatment
C) Correction of hypoxemia and acidosis
D) Prevention of potential cardiac complications
E) Treatment of secondary bacterial infections

(ANSWER B)

43. Which of the following is the major cause of thrombosis in acute lymphoblastic leukemia ?
A) Immobilization
B) Frequent infection
C) Decreased fibrinolysis
D) Procoagulant release from leukemic cells
E) L-asparaginase treatment

(ANSWER E)
79. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents produces a depolarizing type of
neuromuscular block?
A) Vecuronium
B) Atracurium
C) Succinylcholine
D) Rocuronium
E) Mivacurium

(ANSWER C)

99. Which of the following is the only bone-sparing treatment approach proven to reduce the risk of
fractures in a non-osteoporotic postmenopausal woman population ?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Selective estrogen receptor modulators
C) Calcitonin
D) Estrogen therapy
E) Calcium and vitamin D treatment

(ANSWER D)

100. Which of the following progestins in combined oral contraceptive pills is a spironolactone
derivative and is antagonist to both mineralocorticoids and androgens?
A) Norethindron
B) Dezogestrel
C) Gestoden
D) Drospirenone
E) Norgestimate

(ANSWER D)