TUS MICROBIOLOGY 2006

April 2006

41. Which of the following chemicals has sporicidal effect and high level disinfectant?
A) Glutaraldehyde
B) Alcohol
C) Phenol
D) Quarternary ammonium
E) Biguanide

(Answer A)
42. Which one below is not one of the enzymes produced by streptococcal species ?
A) Fibrinolysis
B) Catalase
C) Hyaluronidase
D) Diphosphopyridine nucleasedase
E) Hemolysis

(Answer B)
43. Gram-positive, non-sportive facultative anaerobe bacteria that cause sepsis in newborns and
meningitis in patients with suppressed immune system?
A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Erysipellothrix rhusipathia
D) Corynebacterium urealyticum
E) Rhodococcus equii

(Answer B)
44. It is learned from the history of a patient who developed a brain abscess that he had a tooth
extracted one month before the onset of his complaints.
Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to cause this clinical picture ?
A) Pseudomonas
B) Staphylococci
C) Mycoplasma
D) Gram (-) enteric bacilli
E) Anaerobic streptococci

(Answer E)
45. Which of the following is the cytokine whose serum level increases first in septic shock due to
Gram (-) bacteria?
A) Interferon-y
B) interleukin-1
C) Tumor necrosis factor
D) Type 1 interferon
E) Interleukin-1

(Answer C)
46. Which of the following is a feature of Sabin polio vaccine?
A) Providing passive immunity
B) Application by injection
C) Preparation from inactivated virus
D) Carrying the risk of causing illness, even if it is low
E) Can be used in people with immunodeficiency

(Answer D)
47. During the development of T lymphocytes, the negative selection of those who do not tolerate
the body's own antigens occurs in which of the following?
A) Bone marrow
B) Thymus
C) Spleen
D) liver
E) Lymph nodes

(Answer B)
48. When the T cell receptor is stimulated with antigen, which of the following molecules is involved
in the transmission of the stimulation?
A) CD2
B) CD3
C) CD4
D) CD8
E) CD10

(Answer B)
49. Which of the below given antigenic subtypes of Influenza A viruses rarely infect humans from
birds?
A) H1N1
B) H2N2
C) H3N2
D) H3N8
E) H5N1
(Answer E)
50. Which of the following is most likely to cause complications such as serum sickness, polyarthralgia,
polyarteritis nodosa and glomerulonephritis, which may develop in hepatitis B infections ?
A) Difference in the genetic makeup of the virus
B) Presence of circulating immune complexes
C) The patient receiving interferon therapy
D) Presence of hepatitis delta co-infection
E) High liver damage

(Answer B)
51. Spongiform encephalopathy is observed in which of the following diseases?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
C) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
D) Guillain-Barré syndrome
E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

(Answer E)
52. Painful vesicular skin rash with dermatomal spread was detected on the left side of the chest in a 65-
year-old female patient who was being treated for lung cancer.
In this case, which of the following should be considered first as a factor?
A) Herpes zoster virus
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Aspergillus fumigatus
D) Cytomegalovirus
E) Larva migrans

(Answer A)
53. In which of the following does the virus cause latent infection in the opposite cell? Virus Cell
A) Rabies virus Ganglion cell
B) Herpes simplex virus Nerve cell
C) Epstein-Barr virus Glia cell
D) Measles virus Endothelial cell
E) Enterovirus type 72 Intestinal epithelial cell

(Answer B)
54. Adenoviruses are not included in the etiology of the following infections ?
A) Keratoconjunctivitis
B) Gastroenteritis
C) Suppurative arthritis
D) Acute pharyngitis
E) Hemorrhagic cystitis
(Answer C)
55. Which of the following can cause cervical cancer in women?
A) human adenovirus
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Ureaplasma urealyticum
D) human papilloma virus
E) Gardnerella vaginalis

(Answer D)
56. Which of the following candidiasis tables has the longest treatment time ?
A) Candida glossitis
B) Systemic candidiasis
C) Central nervous system candidiasis
D) urinary candidiasis
E) Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

(Answer E)
57. The phenol oxidase test is used as a discriminator in the diagnosis of the following fungi?
A) Cryptococcus neoformans
B) Candida albicans
C) Candida tropicalis
D) Geotrichum candidum
E) Trichosporon beigelii

(Answer A)
58. Muscle biopsy is used in the diagnosis of which of the following helminths?
A) Trichuris trichiura
B) Trichinella spiralis
C) Taenia saginata
D) Wuchereria bancrofti
E) Strongyloides stercoralis

(Answer B)
59. Which of the following parasites does not cause diarrhea ?
A) Babesia microti
B) Cryptosporidium
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Cyclospora
E) Isospora belli

(Answer A)
60. Which of the following is not one of the signs of visceral leishmaniasis ?
A) Fever
B) Eosinophilia
C) Splenomegaly
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) Excessive weight loss

(Answer B)
61. Accumulation of immune complexes in tissue plays a role in the pathogenesis of the following
diseases?
A) Good pasture syndrome
B) Post Streptococcal glomerulonephritis
C) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
D) Myasthenia gravis
E) Graves disease

(Answer B)

SEPTEMBER 2006

41. Which of the following is responsible for the endotoxin activity in the cell wall of Gram (-)
bacteria?
A) teichoic acids
B) Porin
C) Teikuronik acid
D) peptidoglycan
E) Lipid A

(Answer E)
42. Which of the following mechanisms is used for the passage of resistance genes between bacteria
through the F-factor?
A) Transformation
B) Conjugation
C) Transposition
D) Transduction
E) Transfection

(Answer B)
43. Which of the following staphylococcal toxins exhibits superantigen properties ?
A) Alpha toxin
B)Exfoliative toxin
C) Toxic shock syndrome toxin
D) Leukocidin
E) Delta toxin

(Answer C)
44. The following Which bacteria do not have the ability to synthesize ATP ?
A) Rickettsia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Coxiella
D) Chlamydia
E) Brucella

(Answer D)
45. Which of the following bacteria should not be considered as a factor in a 31-year-old male patient
admitted to the hospital with complaints of fever, nausea-vomiting, severe abdominal pain and
watery-bloody diarrhea ?
A) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
B) Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli
C) Yersinia enterocolitica
D) Campylobacter jejuni
E) Shigella dysenteriae

(Answer A)
46. Which of the following is a microorganism that can cause diarrhea with 102-103 microorganisms
and rarely enter the bloodstream?
A) Salmonella typhimurium
B) Campylobacter jejuni
C) Bacillus cereus
D) Clostridium difficile
E) Shigella flexneri

(Answer E)
47.In a patient who was taken to the intensive care unit after a long and difficult operation, intensive
antibiotic treatment was administered when symptoms of sepsis developed. Gram (-) nonfermentative
rods were grown in blood culture and in susceptibility experiments, bacteria were found to be sensitive
to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, resistant to cephalosporins, antipseu-domonal penicillins,
aminoglycosides, imipenem and quinolones.
Which of the following bacteria should be considered to cause the clinical picture in this patient?
A) Salmonella typhi
B) Escherichia coli
C) Clostridium difficile
D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
E) Brucella melitensis

(Answer D)
48. Which of the following microorganisms causes the formation of cold agglutinin?
A) Riketsia ricketsii
B) Chlamidya trochomatis
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
E) Chlamidya pneumonia

(Answer C)
49. Which of the following microorganisms cause atypical pneumonia in humans by transmitting
especially from building cooling systems or pools?
A)Streptococcus pneumonia
B) Leigonella pneumophila
C) Hemophilus influenza
D) Chlamydya pneumonia
E) Adenovirus

(Answer B)
50 Which of the following plays a primary role in the development of immune response against
Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) NK cells
B) Plasma cells
C) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D) B lymphocytes
E) Macrophages

(Answer E)
51. Which of the following is not one of the escape mechanisms of protozoa and helminths from the
host immune response ?
A) Transforming into cyst form
B) Maskingwith host antigens
C) Ability tolive in macrophages
D) Preventing the formation of phagosomes
E) Change in surface antigens
There is no correct answer to this question.
References to the question are below. "Evasion of immune mechanisms by parasites: Animal parasites
have developed remerkable mechanisms for establishing chronic infections in the vertabrete host. These
mechanisms include intracellular growth, inactivation of phagocytic killing, release of blocking antigen
(T.brucei, p.falciparum) and development of cysts (E.histolytica, T.spiralis) to limit access by the immune
response.The African trypanosomes can reengineer the genes for their surface antigen (variable surface
glycoprotein) and therofore change their antigenic apperance.Schistosomes can coat themselves with
host antigens, including MHC molecules. "

52. Which of the following immune mechanisms develops the Arthus reaction?
A) Atopy
B) Type I hypersensitivity
C) Type II hypersensitivity
D) Type III hypersensitivity
E) Type IV hypersensitivity

(Answer D)
53. I- DNA polymerase used during viral genome replication.
II- DNA dependent RNA polymerase
III- Reverse transcriptase IV-
Which of the RNA dependent RNA polymerase enzymes must be encoded by the virus?
A) Only II
B) III Only
C) I and II
D) I and IV
E) III and IV

(Answer E)
54. Which of the following is not one of the methods used in the preparation of virus vaccines ?
A) Attenuation with multiple passages
B) Inactivation with physical and chemical agents
C) Polysaccharide isolation and purification
) Recombination in eukaryotic cells
E) Combination with multiple different vaccine strains

(Answer C)
55. Which of the following viruses causes erythema infectiosum?
A) Rubella virus
B) Parvovirus B19
C) Coxsackie B virus
D) Echovirus
E) Human papilloma virus

(Answer B)
56. Inactive influenza In which of the following are the viral components contained in the virus
vaccine correctly given?
A) Hemagglutinins of A, B and C types
B) Nucleoprotein and neuraminidase of A and B types
C) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of A and B types
D) Hemagglutinins of A and C types
E) Nucleoproteins of A, B and C types

(Answer C)
57. Which of the following storage molds produces aflatoxin?
A) Rhizopus arrhizus
B) Microsporum auduinii
C) Aspergillus flavus
D) Trichophyton rubrum
E) Mortierella vvolfii

(Answer C)
58. Which of the following antifungal drugs has the most penetration through the blood-brain barrier?
A) Amphotericin-B
B) Nystatin
C) Griseofulvin
D) Ketoconazole
E) Fluconazole
(Answer E)
59. In which of the following parasitic diseases is life-threatening when the immune response is
suppressed may develop disturbing hyperinfections?
A) Enterobius vermicularis
B ) Taenia saginata
C) Necator americanus
D) Strongyloides stercoralis
E) Echinococcus granulosus
(Answer D)
60. Which of the following parasites is the causative agent of blackwater fever?
A) Plasmodium falciparum
B) Toxoplasma gondii
C) Trypanosoma gambiense
D) Leishmania tropica
E) Leishmania donovani
(Answer A)
61. In which organ is liquefaction necrosis most common ?
A) Liver
B) Lung
C) Spleen
D) Kidney
E) Brain
(Answer E)
 TUS MICROBIOLOGY 2007
APRIL 2007

41. Synthesis and processing of eukaryotic mRNA in which of the following cell organelles?
A) Cell membrane
B) Nucleus
C) Nucleolus
D) Cytoplasm
E) Ribosome

(ANSWER B)
42. Which of the following is one of the essential aerobic bacteria?
A) Actinomyces israelii
B) Bacteroides fragilis
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis
E) Clostridium tetani

(ANSWER C)
43 from Turkey, three days after the return to neighboring countries in the south of the five-day trip
that a group of members fever, watery diarrhea symptoms appeared. Lactose (-), uniform colonies were
observed in stool culture. Motility test was found to be (+).
Which of the following microorganisms should be considered to cause this clinical picture?
A) Klebsiella
B) Proteus
C) Shigella
D) Salmonella
E) Escherichia

(ANSWER D)
44. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli produced verotoxin similar to the toxin produced by which of
the following bacteria?
A) Shigella dysenteriae
B) Salmonella typhi
C) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Proteus vulgaris

(ANSWER A)
 45. Which of the following microorganisms secretes endotoxins is the one that activates complement
in an alternative way?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Enterococcus faecalis
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Bacillus cereus

(ANSWER D)
46. Which of the following is the aerobe, Gram (+), catalase (+), acid-resistant stained microorganism
that causes pyogenic abscess?
A) Nocardia asteroids
B) Bacillus anthracis
C) Mycobacterium leprae
D) Actinomyces israelii
E) Staphylococcus aureus

(ANSWER A)
47. Which of the following is used in the serotyping of Streptococcus pneumoniae strains?
A) Optokine sensitivity
B) Catalase test
C) Antistreptolysin O determination
D ) Bile dissolution test
E) Quellung reaction

(ANSWER E)
48. Which of the following methods can be used to determine the location of an infectious agent in
tissues or cells?
A) Dot blot hybridization
B) Southern blot hybridization
C) Polymerase chain reaction
D) In situ hybridization
E) Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction

(ANSWER D)
49. Which of the following does not have a role in the formation of immune complexes ?
A) Skin rash in Hepatitis B infection
B) Joint findings in Rubella infection
C) Skin rash in meningococcemia
D) Joint findings in serum disease
E) Skin rash in erythema infectiosum
(ANSWER C)
 50. Which of the following statements about gamma interferon is false ?
A) It is a glycosylated protein.
B) It plays a role as an immune regulator.
C) It is induced by mitogens.
D) It is sensitive to pH 2.
E) Synthesized by neutrophils.

(ANSWER E)
51. Which of the following is one of the enveloped DNA viruses?
A) Herpesvirus
B) Adenovirus
C) Papillomavirus
D) Parvovirus
E) Polyomavirus

(ANSWER A)
52. Which of the following antibodies are not specific to Epstein-Barr virus in a patient with
infectious mononucleosis ?
A) Early antigen antibody
B) Nuclear antigen antibody
C) Capsid antigen antibody
D) Membrane antigen antibody
E) Heterophilic antibody

(ANSWER E)
53. Which of the following treatments should be administered to a person who is bitten by a dog
suspected of having rabies as soon as possible ?
A) Rabies immunoglobulin + alpha interferon
B) Rabies immunoglobulin + diploid cell vaccine
C) Ribavirin + rifampicin + diploid cell vaccine
D) Rabies immunoglobulin + bromodeoxyuridine
E) Diploid cell vaccine + zidovudine + ribavirin

(ANSWER B)
54. Which of the following statements about prions is false ?
A) Incubation period may take years.
B) Resistant to formaldehyde sterilization.
C) It consists of protein and nucleic acid.
D) They form vacuoles in the central nervous system.
E) They do not create an immune response in the host.

(ANSWER C)
 55. The viral RNA can be determined qualitatively and quantitatively by molecular methods in
patients with hepatitis C. This method is not used in the following situations ?
A) In the diagnosis of acute infection before seroconversion
B) In the confirmation of positive patients with suspectedantibodies
C) In the typing of the virus in antibody positive patients
D) In screening the population for the presence of virus
E) In the follow-up of the response to antiviral therapy

(ANSWER D)
56. Which of the following causes infection only in the skin and nails?
A) Epidermophyton floccosum
B) Microsporum canis
C) Microsporum gypseum
D) Trichophyton mentagrophytes
E) Trichophyton rubrum

(ANSWER A)
57. Which of the following dermatophytes causes more inflammatory reaction than others?
A) Trichophyton schoenleinii
B) Trichophyton rubrum
C) Trichophyton tonsurans
D) Trichophyton verrucosum
E) Epidermophyton floccosum

(ANSWER D)
58. Which of the following parasites is transmitted through the digestive tract with the cyst form
causing amoebic dysentery?
A) Giardia intestinalis
B) Cyclospora cayetanensis
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Leishmania donovani
E) Balantidium coli

(ANSWER C)
59. A 25-year-old person who completed his military service in Mardin applies for sudden onset of
asthma-like symptoms. In the stool examination of this patient, who had no complaints of asthma
before, oval structures made of 40- 50 layers are detected.
Which of the following could be the parasite causing the clinical picture in this patient?
A) Taenia saginata
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Hymenolepis nana
D) Dicrocoelium dendriticum
E) Enterobius vermicularis

(ANSWER B)
60. Eggs are detected in the stool of a patient who eats a meal prepared with an infected liver and less
cooked. Which of the following is the parasite that causes false parasitism in this person?
A) Schistosoma haematobium
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Ascaris lumbricoides
D) Cryptosporidium parvum
E) Fasciola hepatica

(ANSWER E)

SEPTEMBER 2007

41. Why are primers necessary for DNA synthesis?

A) They bind DNA polymerase.
B) They direct the helicase.
C) They combine the synthesized DNA fragments.
D) They open the secondary structure.
E) They form a free 3'OH tip.

(ANSWER E)
42. RNA polymerase enzyme binds to which of the following on DNA to initiate transcription?
A) Promoter
B) Locus control sequences
C) CpG islets
D) Intron
E) Exon

(ANSWER A)
43. What is the name of bacteria that do not require an organic carbon source to reproduce?
A) Anaerobe
B) Autotroph
C) Acidophil
D) Heterotroph
E) Psychrophil

(ANSWER B)
44. As a result of mutation in the DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) enzyme, which of the following drugs
is expected to develop resistance?
A) Streptomycin
B) Rifampicin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Isoniazid
E) Tetracycline

(ANSWER C)
45. Which of the following nucleic acid detection methods used for microbiological diagnosis is based
on signal amplification?
A) Polymerase chain reaction
B) Transcription-mediated amplification
C) Ligase chain reaction
D) Hybrid capture
E) In situ hybridization

(ANSWER D)
46. Which of the following cells is involved with T cells in initiating cellular immune response?
A) Effector cells
B) Memory cells
C) Natural killer cells
D) Antigen presenting cells
E) B lymphocytes

(ANSWER D)
47. Which of the following HLA tissue groups is closely associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
A) HLA-A4
B) HLA-B8
C) HLA-B27
D) HLA-D12
E) HLA-D24

(ANSWER C)
48. Which of the following is the pneumonia agent Gram (-) bacillus, which is mixed with Lcysteine,
ferric pyrophosphate and activated charcoal for its production, hydrolyzes hippurate and does not
grow on blood agar medium?
A) Legionella pneumophila
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Chlamydia pneumoniae
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(ANSWER A)
49. Inhibition of phagocytosis plays a role in the pathogenesis of the infection caused by the following
microorganisms?
A) Salmonella typhimurium
B) Shigella flexneri
C) Streptococcus viridans
D) Brucella melitensis
E) Neisseria meningitidis

(ANSWER E)
50. The toxin produced by which of the following bacteria acts by inhibiting elongation factor-2
inactivation and protein synthesis in the target cell?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Clostridium botulinum
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Bacillus anthracis
E) Vibrio cholerae

(ANSWER C)
51. Pneumonia developed in an elderly patient who was hospitalized for by-pass surgery on the 8th day
of the operation. In the sputum culture, Gram (-) bacilli, which did not ferment carbohydrates, formed
green pigment, were oxidase positive and were positive.
Which of the following bacteria should be considered to cause the clinical picture in this patient?
A) Klebsiella pneumonia
B) Serratia marcescens
C) Proteus vulgaris
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Enterobacter aerogenes

(ANSWER D)
52. Which of the following bacteria causing respiratory tract infection can be grown, culture of nasal
swab or nasopharynx aspiration material is required?
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pneumonia
E) Haemophilus influenzae

(ANSWER B)
53. A 52-year-old female patient, who was operated on for intraabdominal infection, developed fever,
abdominal cramps and watery diarrhea on the fourth day of antibiotic treatment.
Which of the following microorganisms should be considered to cause the clinical picture in this
patient?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Adenovirus type 40
C) Clostridium difficile
D) Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
E) Cryptosporidium parvum

(ANSWER C)
54. In which of the following is a virus delivered with its viral attachment protein? Virus Protein
A) Epstein-Barr virus Acetylcholine receptor
B) Rhinovirus Complement receptor 2
C) Influenza virus ICAM-1
D) Rabies virus Sialic acid
E) Parvovirus B19 Erythrocyte P antigen

(ANSWER E)
55. Which of the following statements about varicella-zoster virus is false?
A) Humans are the only known reservoir for virus.
B) It is a member of the Herpesviridae family.
C) The vaccine developed against the virus can be used in healthy and immunosuppressive children.
D) The frequency of infection is around 30% in the first year of stem cell transplant patients.
E) Medulla spinalis involves only the dorsal root ganglia.

(ANSWER E)
56. Which of the following viruses is most likely to infect the lower respiratory tract in children?
A) Rhinovirus
B) Respiratory syncytial virus
C) Coxsackievirus
D) Parainfluenzae virus
E) Coronavirus

(ANSWER B)
57. For which of the following fungal infections is sclerotic bodies seen in infected tissue samples
diagnostic value?
A) Candidiasis
B) Mycetome
C) Sporotrichosis
D) Chromoblastomycosis
E) Aspergillosis

(ANSWER D)
58. Which of the following antifungal drugs is not used in the treatment of infections of Aspergillus
species?
A) Itraconazole
B) Voriconazole
C) Fluconazole
D) Amphotericin B
E) Caspofungin

(ANSWER C)
59. A male kidney transplant patient developed 8-10 bowel movements per day and watery, bloodless
diarrhea. As a result of acid-resistant staining of the stool of the patient , blunt-edged oocysts of 25 m μ
length, 15 m μ width, ovoid structure, with a sporocyst in the middle were detected.
This parasitic structure belongs to which of the following?
A) Isospora belli
B) Linkidium coli
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Entamoeba histolytica
E) Encephalitazoon intestinalis

(ANSWER A)
60. Which of the following parasites should be considered first in a 12-year-old child admitted to the
hospital for rectal prolapse?
A) Trichinella spiralis
B) Trichuris trichiura
C) Ascaris lumbricoides
D) Necator americanus
E) Toxocara roof

(ANSWER B)

TUS MICROBIOLOGY 2008

APRIL 2008

41. In addition to being dehydrated, the resistance to heat of bacterial spores is provided by which
substance in the spore protoplast?
A) 3-phosphoglycerate
B) Calcium dipicolinate
C) Lipoprotein
D) Keratin
E) Peptidoglycan

(ANSWER B)
 42. Which of the following is the most common factor responsible for the development of resistance
against aminoglycoside antibiotics in Aerobic Gram (-) bacteria?
A) 16S ribosomal RNA mutation
B) Reduced outer membrane permeability
C ) Modifying enzyme synthesis
D) Mesosomal mutation
E) Cytoplasmic membrane mutation

(ANSWER C)
43. The use of β- lactam group antibiotics is not appropriate in the treatment of infections caused by
the following bacteria ?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Neisseria meningitides
E) Streptococcus pyogenes

(ANSWER B)
43. The use of β-lactam group antibiotics is not appropriate in the treatment of infections caused by
the following bacteria?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Moraxella catarhallis
C) Haemophilus influenza
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E) Streptococcus pneumonia

(ANSWER D)
It was asked exactly in our mock exam.
44. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute cystitis developing out of hospital in
women of childbearing age?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Proteus mirabilis
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(ANSWER A)
44. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute cystitis developing out of hospital in
women of childbearing age?
A) Staphybococcus saprocphyticus
B) Proteus mirabilis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(ANSWER C)
45. Which of the following is the test most commonly used to distinguish Streptococcus species from
Staphylococcus species ?
A) Coagulase test
B) Catalase test
C) Urease test
D) Oxidase test
E) Bacitracin test

(ANSWER B)
46. Which of the following microorganisms that can cause disease in the gastrointestinal system
most frequently causes bacteremia ?
A) Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Shigella sonnei
D) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
E) Salmonella typhi

(ANSWER E)
47. Which of the following bacteria has a polypeptide capsule composed of D-glutamic acid units?
A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Streptococcus pneumonia
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Enterobacter aerogenes

(ANSWER A)
47. Which of the following bacteria has a polypeptide capsule composed of D-glutamic acid units?
A) Salmanella typhi
B) Streptococcus pneumonia
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Bacillus anthracis

(ANSWER E)
48. Ampicillin was started in a 30-year-old female patient for lower urinary tract infection. On the fifth
day of the treatment, the patient developed fever and bloody diarrhea 7-8 times a day.
In this case, which microorganism should be considered first ?
A) Bacteroides fragilis
B) Salmonella typhi
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Clostridium difficile
E) Campylobacter jejuni

(ANSWER D)
48. In the anamnesis taken from a 30-year-old male patient who presented with fever, abdominal pain
and bloody diarrhea for three days, it was learned that he used clarithromycin about two weeks ago
with the diagnosis of lower respiratory tract infection. In the examination of the patient, temperature
was 38.5 0 C, pulse was 112 / minute, and arterial blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg.
In this case, which microorganism should be considered first ?
A) Bacteroides fragilis
B) Clostridium difficile
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Campylobacter jejuni
E) Salmonella typhi

(ANSWER B)
It was asked exactly in our mock exam.
49. In a patient who presented with diarrhea complaint, abundant leukocytes were observed in direct
examination of the stool and a motile bacteria with a single flagellum was observed in dark field
microscopy. Which of the following microorganisms should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Clostridium difficile
B) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
C) Campylobacter jejuni
D) Vibrio cholerae
E) Clostridium perfringens

(ANSWER C)
50. In a patient who presented with urethral discharge, Gram staining of the discharge revealed
abundant neutrophils, but no bacteria could be seen. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies were observed
in cytological examination.
Which of the following microorganisms should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Candida albicans
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Coxiella burnetii
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

(ANSWER B)
51. Which of the following antiviral agents does not work by inhibiting viral polymerase?
A) Vidarabin
B) Zidovudine
C) Ganciclovir
D) Foscarnet
E) Trifluridine
(ANSWER B)

52. In the response of the helper T cell (TH) against a protein-like antigen, which of the following
molecules should be carried on the surface of the antigen presenting cells?
A) Class II MHC and CD4
B) CD4 and costimulators
C) Class II MHC and CD8
D) Class I MHC and CD4
E) Class II MHC and costimulators

(ANSWER E)
53. From the history of a female patient diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma, it is learned that she
underwent hysterectomy in 1989 and received 3 units of blood transfusion during the operation.
Which of the following viruses should antibodies be investigated in this patient?
A) Human immunodeficiency virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Herpes simplex type 2 virus
D) Human herpes virus type 6
E) Human herpes virus type 7

(ANSWER A)
54. Which of the following is the antiviral drug effective on human immunodeficiency virus type 1
and type 2 and hepatitis B virus?
A) Ganciclovir
B) Amantadine
C) Trifluridine
D) Sidofovir
E) Lamivudine

(ANSWER E)
54. Which of the following is effective on HIV and hepatitis B virus?
A) Ganciclovir
B) Ribavirin
C) Foscarnet
D) Lamivudine
E) Trifluridine
(ANSWER D)
It was asked exactly in our mock exam.
55. HPV type 11
II. HPV type 16
III. HPV type 18
IV. HPV type 31
Which of the above types of human papillomavirus (HPV) have the highest risk of malignant
transformation?
A) I and II
B) I and IV
C) II and III
D) II and IV
E) III and IV

(ANSWER C)
56. Which of the following fungi can cause infection in a person without underlying disease or risk
factors?
A) Candida
B) Rhizopus
C) Aspergillus
D) Histoplasma
E) Fusarium

(ANSWER D)
57. Determination of galactomannan antigen in serum is a test that can aid early diagnosis of which
of the following invasive fungal infections?
A) Candidiasis
B) Aspergillosis
C) Cryptococcosis
D) Zygomycosis
E) Fuzaryosis

(ANSWER B)
58. A thirty-seven year old HIV (+) male patient is admitted to the hospital with symptoms similar to
pneumonia. Cough, sore throat, weakness, fever and breathing difficulties are detected in physical
examination. Infiltration is observed in the alveolar space in the chest radiography. In laboratory
examinations, it is determined that a normal hemogram accompanies hypoxia without acidosis. In the
staining of the material obtained as a result of bronchoalveolar lavage with Giemsa, rosette-shaped
structures with 4-8 nuclei, 5-12 μm in size, are detected.
Which of the following microorganisms should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Pneumocystis jirovecii
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Cyclospora cayetanensis
D) Sarcocystis lindemanni
E) Blastocystis hominis

(ANSWER A)
58. PA chest radiography of an adult male patient who presented with the complaints of fever, cough,
chest pain, and shortness of breath showed infiltration from the hilus to the periphery in both lungs and
a groundglass appearance in the lungs. The patient's CD4 + lymphocyte count was found to be 80 / mm
3, who was found to be anti-HIV and HIV RNA positive during the examinations . Cystic structures were
observed in the preparations stained with Giemsa stain of the sample taken by bronchoalveolar lavage.
Which of the following microorganisms should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Sarcocystis lindemanni
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Cyclospora cayetanensis
D) Blastocystis hominis
E) Pneumocystis jirovecii

(ANSWER E)
It was asked with the same options in our mock exams.
 59. What is the name given to the lesion caused by ulcers, necrosis and thickening of the mucosa in
Entamoeba histolytica infection?
A) Amebula
B) Metacystic trophozoite
C) Ameboma
D) Amebic colitis
E) Aschoff nodule

(ANSWER C)
60. Findings such as hematuria and obstructive uropathy are observed depending on which of the
following helminths?
A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Toxocara cati
C) Diphyllobothrium latum
D) Paragonimus westermani
E) Schistosoma haematobium

(ANSWER E)

SEPTEMBER 2008

41. In the bacterial genome, regions where proteins involved in a metabolic reaction sequence are
coded collectively and expressed with a single mRNA transcript given?
A) Transposon
B) Operon
C) Intron
D) Operator
E) Promoter

(ANSWER B)
42. Which of the following is the bacterial cell building block that causes the Shwartzman reaction?
A) Lipopolysaccharide
B) Murein
C) Teichoic acid
D) Capsule
E) Glycocalyx

(ANSWER A)
43. Abundant leukocytes were found in a smear made from the stool of a child with fever, abdominal
pain and severe diarrhea findings. . Which of the following is the mechanism of diarrhea in this
patient?
A) Toxigenic
B) Invasive
C) Secretory
D) Allergic
E) Autoimmune

(ANSWER B)
44.In a neutropenic patient, fever and ectima gangrenosum-like bullous, necrotic lesions developed
on the legs. As a factor in these patients primarily should be considered which of the following
organisms?
A) Neisseria meningitidis
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Streptococcus spp.
E) Rickettsia spp.

(ANSWER C)
45. Which of the following Gram (+) anaerobic bacillus can cause shunt infection in patients with
ventriculoabdominal shunt?
A) Bacteroides
B) Fusobacterium
C) Veillonella
D) Propionibacterium
E) Peptostreptococcus

(ANSWER D)
46 Most common bacteria causing pulmonary infection in cystic fibrosis cases are given together in
which of the following?
A) Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B), Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae
C), Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Staphylococcus aureus,
D), Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E), Klebsiella pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus

(ANSWER C)
47. In which of the following clinical forms caused by Francisella tularensis lymphadenopathy is not
prominent ?
A) Ulseroglandular
B) Glandular
C) Oculoglandular
D) Pharyngeal
E) Typhoidal

(ANSWER E)
48. Following In which diseases is the lepromine skin test important in monitoring the patient's
immune status?
A) Lepromatous leprosy
B) Lymphogranuloma venereum
C) Diphtheria
D) Tuberculoid lepra
E) Histoplasmosis

(ANSWER D)
49. Which of the complement components given below have anaphylatoxin properties since they
cause histamine secretion from mast cells, increase vascular wall permeability and contraction of
smooth muscles in the host?
A) C1q, C1r
B) C3a, C5a
C) C4b, C2b
D) C4b, C5b
E) C5b, C6

(ANSWER B)
50. Which of the following molecules does not belong to the immunoglobulin superfamily ?
A) T cell receptor
B) B cell receptor
C) Class I tissue compatibility antigens
D) Class II tissue compatibility antigens
E) Class III tissue compatibility antigens

(ANSWER E)
51. In the event of antigen presentation to T lymphocytes, which of the following molecules on T
lymphocytes binds to the LFA-3 molecule on the antigen presenting cell?
A) CD2 antigen
B) LFA-1 antigen
C) ICAM-1 antigen
D) CD28 antigen
E) CD80 antigen

(ANSWER A)
 52. Which of the following viruses most frequently causes Herpanjina, especially in children aged1-7?
A) Echovirus
B) Parvovirus
C) Poliovirus
D) Coxsackie A virus
E) Coxsackie B virus

(ANSWER D)
53. Which of the following virus families is associated with human hepatocellular cancers?
A) Papilloma virus
B) Flavivirus
C) Retrovirus
D) Herpesvirus
E) Paramyxovirus

(ANSWER B)
54. Which of the following in a person with chronic hepatitis B virus infection is detected in serum
indicates the presence of active viral replication?
A) HBcAg
B) HBsAg
C) Anti-HBs
D) HBeAg
E) Anti-HBe

(ANSWER D)
55. Which of the following fungi is created by the spherical structure?
A) Blastomyces dermatitidis
B) Penicillium marneffei
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Rhinosporidium seeberi
E) Pneumocystis jiroveci

(ANSWER C)
56. In which of the following fungal diseases, the mannan antigen in serum is useful in diagnosis?
A) Aspergillosis
B) Fusariosis
C) Cryptococcosis
D) Candidiasis
E) Mucormycosis

(ANSWER D)
 57.Thin flamentous structures and Gram (+) bacilli are seen in the sputum smear of a patient with a
pulmonary infection with cavitation and a brain abscess.
Which of the following is the most likely factor in this patient ?
A) Nocardia asteroids
B) Aspergillus fumigatus
C) Actinomyces israelii
D) Fusobacterium nucleatum
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(ANSWER A)
58. A 4-core cyst was observed in a wet preparation stained with direct lugol made from the stool of a
patient who presented with blood, mucus, watery diarrhea. In the examination performed with
Trichrome stain, trophozoite shape containing nucleolus painted in the center of the nucleus was
defined. Which of the following is this parasite?
A) Cyclospora cayetanensis
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Isospora belli
E) Blastocystis hominis

(ANSWER C)
59.It was learned that a patient who was admitted to the hospital with complaints of muscle pain,
fever, periorbital edema and mild diarrhea had eaten raw meat one week before and his complaints
started a few days later. Eosinophilia was detected in the peripheral smear, and no results were
obtained from the feces and blood smears. The diagnosis was made as a result of muscle biopsy and the
diagnosis was confirmed serologically. Which of the following is the parasite detected in this patient?
A) Wuchereria bancrofti
B) Trichinella spiralis
C) Taenia saginata
D) Fasciola hepatica
E) Ascaris lumbricoides

(ANSWER B)
60. Chloroquine is primarily used in the treatment of the following parasitic diseases ?
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Leishmania spp.
C) Cryptosporidium
D) Pneumocystis jiroveci
E) Isospora belli

(ANSWER A)
 TUS MICROBIOLOGY 2009
APRIL 2009

41. In a recessive inherited disease, what is the condition in which individuals carrying the disease
alleles in a homozygous state are observed not to be sick?
A) Codominans
B) Incomplete penetrance
C) Missing dominance
D) Expression difference
E) Mosaicism

(ANSWER B)
42. What is the name of bacteria with flagella around the whole cell?
A) Lofotrichos
B) Amphitheater
C) Peritricus
D) Monotrichous
E) Semitricus

(ANSWER C)
43. A Staphylococcus aureus strain isolated from a blood culture was found to have the mecA gene.
This gene confers resistance to the bacteria against which of the following antibiotics?
A) Ofloxacin
B) Erythromycin
C) Vancomycin
D) Oxacillin
E) Tetracycline

(ANSWER D)
44. A fishy odor is noticeable in the vaginal discharge of a patient with vaginal discharge. Which of
the following findings helps to determine the causative microorganism?
A) pH of vaginal discharge below 4.5
B) Disease symptoms do not respond to metronidazole treatment
C) Appearance of Gram (+) coccobacilli in direct smear
D) Appearance of epithelial cells covered with bacilli on the smear.
E) Growth of Gram (-) bacilli on blood agar

(ANSWER D)
45. A 26-year-old male patient presents with complaints of painless, firm and clean-based ulcers in the
genital area. Gram staining and culture results of the exudate sample were found negative in the
laboratory examinations, and the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test was positive.
Which of the following should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Heamophilus ducreyi
E) Staphylococcus aureus

(ANSWER C)
46. Clinical findings suggestive of pseudomembranous colitis occurred in a 58-year-old female patient
who was hospitalized and on long-term antibiotic therapy. Which of the following examinations should
be performed for the diagnosis of the microorganism suspected of being causative in this patient?
A) Investigation of the presence of toxin A and toxin B in the stool sample
B) Isolation of the agent from blood culture
C) Investigation of microbial antigens in stool sample
D) Investigation of specific antibodies in serum sample
E) Parasitological examination of the stool sample

(ANSWER A)
47. It is learned from the history of a 21-year-old male patient diagnosed with meningococcal
meningitis that he also had meningococcal sepsis at the age of 15.
Which of the following immunological disorders that may cause recurrent meningococcal infections in
this patient should be considered first ?
A) Interferon- and interferon- release deficiency
B) Immunoglobulin A deficiency
C) Lack of mature dendritic cells
D) Natural killer (NK) cell dysfunction
E) Lack of complement components

(ANSWER E)
48. In the presence of microorganisms that infect macrophages, the main cytokine secreted and the
target cell activated were given together in which of the following? Cytokine Target cell
A) Interleukin-12 T H 1 cell
B) Interleukin-2 Cytotoxic T cell
C) Interleukin-4 B cell
D) Interferon Dendritic cell
E) Interleukin-4 TH2 cell

(ANSWER A)
49. Which of the following enzymes causes bacterial DNA to become supercoiled?
A) Helicase
B) Topoisomerase
C) Primase
D) Ligase
E) DNA polymerase

(ANSWER B)
50. Which of the following is one of the signal amplification methods?
A) Polymerase chain reaction
B) Transcription-mediated amplification
C) Nucleic acid sequence based amplification
D) Branched DNA system
E) Ligase chain reaction

(ANSWER D)
51. In immunity after influenza infections, antibodies against which of the following antigen pairs
belonging to the virus have protective properties?
A) Hemagglutinin and nucleoprotein
B) Neuraminidase and nucleoprotein
C) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
D) Neuraminidase and polymerase
E) Ribonucleoprotein and matrix

(ANSWER C)
52. A ten-year-old male patient is brought to the hospital with complaints of sore throat, redness in the
eyes and non-purulent discharge for 3 days. It is learned from his story that he swam in the pool.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of conjunctivitis for this patient ?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Adenovirus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Norwalk virus

(ANSWER B)
53. An eighteen-year-old male patient presents with complaints of fever, headache and sore throat,
tiredness and weakness. Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly are found on physical examination. In the
laboratory examinations, atypical mononuclear cells are detected in the blood smear and the
heterophile antibody test is positive.
Which of the following viruses should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Parvovirus B19
B) Adenovirus
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Enterovirus
E) Epstein-Barr virus
(ANSWER E)
 54. In which of the following is a DNA virus reproducing in the cytoplasm and an RNA virus replicating
in the nucleus? DNA virus RNA virus
A) Adenovirus Poliovirus
B) Herpesvirus Rotavirus
C) Hepatitis B virus Parainfluenza virus
D) Vaccinia virus Influenza virus
E) Papilloma virus Hepatitis A virus

(ANSWER D)
55. Cough, dyspnea and hemoptysis occur in a patient undergoing bone marrow transplantation. In the
direct microscopic examination of the sputum sample taken, hyaline, septal, branching hyphae are seen.
Which of the following fungi should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Coccidioides
B) Aspergillus
C) Microsporum
D) Sporothrix
E) Histoplasm

(ANSWER B)
56. Which of the following antifungal drugs works by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis?
A) Ketoconazole
B) Flucytosine
C) Amphotericin B
D) Griseofulvin
E) Terbinafine

(ANSWER A)
57. Which of the following infections is suggestive of the presence of septate, branching, hyaline
hyphae on microscopic examination of a scraped sample taken from an itchy, round skin lesion?
A) Chromoblastomycosis
B) Sporotrichosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Fahiphomycosis
E) Dermatophytosis

(ANSWER E)
58. Which of the following is one of the dyes used to differentiate amoebas and make the correct
diagnosis?
A) Trichrome
B) Indian ink
C) Gram
D) Acid-resistant staining
E) Wright

(ANSWER A)
59. Which of the following helminths is transmitted to humans by ingestion of metacercaria forms
that can be found on watercress?
A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Fasciola hepatica
E) Schistosoma haematobium

(ANSWER D)
60. Which of the following is the cell group whose number is increasing in the blood in invasive
parasitic infections and is especially involved in defense?
A) Neutrophils
B) B lymphocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) Dendritic cells
E) Monocytes

(ANSWER C)
61. Which of the following histomorphological findings most often indicates a delayed type of
hypersensitivity reaction ?
A) IgG accumulation around epidermis cells
B) Caseified granulomas in hilar lymph nodes
C) Acidophilic bodies in the liver
D) Fibrinoid necrosis in skin blood vessels
E) Multiple eosinophils in a nasal polyp

(ANSWER B)

SEPTEMBER 2009

41. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the loss of the cell wall of bacteria?
A) He loses his ability to move.
B) It loses its Gram staining feature.
C) It loses its ability to attach to other cells.
D) -lactam becomes sensitive to antibiotics.
E) It loses its ability to make biosynthesis.

(ANSWER B)
42. In which of the following metabolic pathways can bacteria use nitrate as the final electron
acceptor?
A) Fermentation
B) Pentose phosphate pathway
C) Anaerobic respiration
D) Photosynthesis
E) Aerobic respiration

(ANSWER C)
43. Which of the following media should be used for the production of causative bacteria from a
genital specimen taken from a male patient with suspected gonococcal urethritis?
A) Loeffler
B) Schaedler
C) Thayer-Martin
D) MacConkey
E) Sabouraud

(ANSWER C)
44. Which of the following toxins prevents protein synthesis by inhibition of elongation factor-2?
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A
B) Pertussis toxin
C) Clostridium difficile toxin A
D) Cholera toxin
E) Bacillus anthracis toxin

(ANSWER A)
45. In the urine culture of a 22-year-old female patient, white, nonhemolytic, Gram (+) coke growth was
observed on blood agar, and no growth was observed on MacConkey agar. The bacteria were found to
be coagulase negative, catalase positive and resistant to novobiocin.
Which of the following bacteria should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Enterococcus faecalis
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Enterococcus faecium
E) Staphylococcus saprophyticus

(ANSWER E)
 46. A two-week-old newborn is brought to the hospital with convulsions and fever. Gram (+) cocci are
seen in the microscopic examination of the cerebrospinal fluid taken. The bacterium is found to be
catalase negative, CAMP positive and bacitracin resistant.
Which of the following are hemolytic bacteria causing the clinical picture in this newborn?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Streptococcus mutans
E) Streptococcus anginosus

(ANSWER B)
47. What genetic structure provides erythrogenic toxin production in Streptococcus pyogenes strains?
A) Plasmid
B) R factor
C) Transposon
D) Integron
E) Bacteriophage

(ANSWER E)
48. A 57-year-old male patient, living in Eastern Anatolia and engaged in farming, developed a rapidly
necrotic skin lesion in the neck region surrounded by severe edema. As a result of staining the smear
prepared from the lesion with methylene blue, flat, long, wide and encapsulated bacilli were observed.
As a factor in these patients primarily should be considered which of the following bacteria?
A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Group A streptococci
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Nocardia asteroides
E) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

(ANSWER A)
49. Development of acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis after group A β-hemolytic
streptococcal infection is the result of one of the following immunological mechanisms?
A) Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
B) Late type hypersensitivity reaction
C) Immune complex accumulation
D) Cytotoxic T cell activation
E) Alternative complement activation

(ANSWER C)
50. Which of the following is not one of the events resulting from the classical activation of the
complement system ?
A) Neutrophil chemotaxis
B) Interferon production
C) Anaphylatoxic effect
D) Opsonization
E) Cell lysis

(ANSWER B)
51. Which of the following immune system cells is expressed on the surface of the IgM molecule
acting as an antigen receptor?
A) B lymphocytes
B) CD4 + T lymphocytes
C) CD8 + T lymphocytes
D) Macrophages
E) Neutrophils

(ANSWER A)
52. What is the condition of a patient with serological test results, HBsAg (-), anti-HBc (+), antiHBs (+)
in terms of hepatitis B virus infection?
A) Hepatitis B virus carrier.
B) Hepatitis B virus vaccine.
C) She got the infection naturally and was immunized.
D) There is chronic hepatitis B virus infection.
E) It is in the early stage of infection.

(ANSWER C)
53. Which of the following genetic changes should occur in a new strain of influenza virus type A that
will cause a pandemic?
A) Antigenic drift
B) Antigenic shift
C) M 1 mutation in protein
D) M 2 Mutation in protein
E) Point mutation in the genome

(ANSWER B)
54. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate oral route of avian flu (Influenza A sub type
H5N1) and can be metabolized in the liver?
A) Oseltamivir
B) Amantadine
C) Rimantadine
D) Zanamivir
E) Vidarabin

(ANSWER A)
 55. Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of naked viruses that cause infection in
humans ?
A) Containing DNA or RNA type nucleic acid
B) Entering the cell by pinocytosis or endocytosis
C) They are resistant to ether or lipid solvents
D) Contain single or double stranded nucleic acid
E) Show cubic or helical symmetry

(ANSWER E)
56. Which of the following fungi produces tubercular macroconidia?
A) Microsporum
B) Trichophyton
C) Fusarium
D) Histoplasma
E) Epidermophyton

(ANSWER D)
57. Microscopic examination of a bronchoalveolar lavage specimen taken with the prediagnosis of
invasive fungal infection shows frequent septa, smooth-edged hyphae.
This view does not apply to which of the following mushrooms ?
A) Aspergillus
B) Scedosporium
C) Fusarium
D) Acremonium
E) Rhizopus

(ANSWER E)
58. An immune-competent patient presents with the complaint of diarrhea attacks lasting for three
months. It is learned from his history that he had mild fever, fatigue, anorexia, vomiting, muscle pain,
defecation about 7 times a day and weight loss during diarrhea attacks. In the parasitological
examination of the stool, a pink-red oocyst with a granular structure is observed in the modified
acidresistant staining.
Which of the following parasites should be considered to cause this clinical picture?
A) Isospora belli
B) Entamoeba coli
C) Cyclospora cayetanensis
D) Encephalitozoon cuniculi
E) Entamoeba hartmanni

(ANSWER C)
59. Covered eggs were found in the stool examinations of a patient with multiple hypodense lesions in
the liver and eosinophilia. Which of the following should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) Fasciola hepatica
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Ascaris lumbricoides
D) Strongyloides stercoralis
E) Schistosoma mansoni

(ANSWER A)
60. For which of the following cestodes an intermediate host is not required ?
A) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Taenia saginata
C) Hymenolepis nana
D) Diphyllobothrium latum
E) Dipylidium caninum

(ANSWER C)

TUS MICROBIOLOGY 2010

APRIL 2010

41. Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic agent ?

A) Alcohol
B) Chlorhexidine
C) Peracetic acid
D) Triclosan
E) Povidone iodine

(ANSWER C)
42. Which of the following properties cannot be transferred from one bacterium to another via
plasmid ?
A) Gram staining feature
B) Toxin production
C) Antibiotic resistance
D) Disinfectant resistance
E) Resistance to heavy metals

(ANSWER A)
43. Which of the following is the bacteria whose capsule structure is poly-D-glutamic acid?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Haemophilus influenza
E) Bacillus anthracis

(ANSWER E)
44. A person who had eaten fish at dinner presented to the emergency room with sudden onset of
nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever and watery diarrhea. Leukocytes and 3-4 erythrocytes were
detected in the smear. Oxidase positive colonies were seen in culture on blood agar.
As a factor in this person first must be considered which of the following?
A) Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli
B) Salmonella Typhimurium
C) Shigella sonnei
D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
E) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

(ANSWER D)
45. When samples taken from the nasal mucosa and skin lesions of a patient with multiple nodular
lesions on the face and body are stained with the Ziehl-Neelsen technique, acid-fast bacilli are seen.
Reproduction is not detected in the cultures made.
Which of the following Mycobacterium species should be considered as a factor in this patient?
A) M. tuberculosis
B) M. leprae
C) M. intracellulare
D) M. avium
E) M. marinum

(ANSWER B)
46. In culture from the lesion of a farmer who presented with itchy, painful lesions on his hands and
wrists, Gram (+), immobile bacillus, which grew α-hemolysis, grew in blood agar within 48-72 hours. It
was found that the catalase test of this bacterium was negative and its H 2 S formation was positive.
As a factor in these patients primarily should be considered which of the following?
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Bacillus subtilus
C) Corynebacterium ulserans
D) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
E) Staphylococcus aureus

(ANSWER D)
47. Activation of the complement system in the classical way begins as a result of binding of the
complement 1 (C1) protein to which of the following?
A) IgA
B) Antigen-IgG complex
C) Factor B
D) C3
E) Endotoxin

(ANSWER B)
48. Which of the following cytokines does the helper T cell subgroup T h 1 play a role in inflammatory
reactions ?
A) IL-4
B) IL-6
C) IL-10
D) IL-13
E) IFN-γ

(ANSWER E)
49. Which of the molecules in the antigen-presenting cell interact with CD4 receptors on the T-cell
and play a role in the cellular immune response?
A) MHC class II molecule
B) LFA-3
C) Surface immunoglobulin
D) Interleukin-2
E) ICAM-1

(ANSWER A)
50. Which of the following virus families escapes the immune response by producing syncytium?
A) Adenoviruses
B) Orthomyxoviruses
C) Poxviruses
D) Paramyxoviruses
E) Reoviruses

(ANSWER D)
51.In a patient with positive hepatitis C virus antibodies (anti-HCV), which of the following should be
used to determine treatment response? most useful in ?
A) ALT level
B) Presence of immune complex
C) Anti-HCV antibody titer
D) Serum HCV-RNA level
E) Serum bilirubin level

(ANSWER D)
52. Which of the following herpes viruses is given with the associated cancer type? Herpes virus
Cancer type
A) Herpes simplex virus Oropharyngeal carcinoma
B) Varicella-zoster virus Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Cytomegalovirus T-cell leukemia
D) Human Herpes virus type 6 Kaposi sarcoma
E) Epstein-Barr virus Nasopharyngeal cancer

(ANSWER E)
53. What type of relationship does the antigenic shift event occurring in influenza type A viruses
arise between two different virus subtypes?
A) Conjugation
B) Complementation
C) Cross reactivation
D) Genetic reinsurance
E) Transcapsidation

(ANSWER D)
54. Which of the following is not a feature of pathological prions ?
A) Does not contain seed acid
B) Protein structure
C) Not forming interferon
D) Mainly located in the central nervous system
E) Resistance to disinfectants

(ANSWER C)
55. Although it causes infection in keratinized tissue, which of the following is the factor that
requires lipid in order to reproduce under in vitro condition?
A) Trichophyton verrucosum
B) Trichosporon beigelii
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Hortaea (ExophialA) werneckii
E) Piedraia hortae

(ANSWER C)
56. Which of the following is not one of the pathogenicity factors of Candida species ?
A) Ability to adhere to tissues
B) Cell surface hydrophobicity
C) Proteinase enzyme production
D) Melanin production
E) Phenotype change ability

(ANSWER D)
57. Which of the following is the most common cause of systemic aspergillosis ?
A) Aspergillus flavus
B) Aspergillus niger
C) Aspergillus fumigatus
D) Aspergillus terreus
E) Aspergillus nidulans

(ANSWER C)
58. Which of the following fungal species are effective Ekinocandin group antifungal drugs?
A) Candida species
B) Zygomycetes species
C) Cryptococcus spp.
D) Trichosporon species
E) Fusarium species

(ANSWER A)
59. In a patient who received cancer treatment, pneumonia and meningitis developed, and in sputum
and stool examinations, rabditiform larvae were found. As a factor in these patients primarily should
be considered which of the following?
A) Echinococcus granulosus
B) Pneumocystis jiroveci
C) Enterobius vermicularis
D) Naegleria fowleri
E) Strongyloides stercoralis

(ANSWER E)
60. Which of the following is a parasitic disease transmitted by ticks?
A) Babesiosis
B) Lyme disease
C) Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
D) African sleeping sickness
E) Plague

(ANSWER A)

DECEMBER 2010

41. Which of the following microorganisms have prokaryotic cell structure and need an intracellular
environment in order to reproduce?
A) Treponema
B) Chlamydia
C) Mycoplasma
D) Virus
E) Mushroom

(ANSWER B)
42. Which of the following bacteria does not protect against phagocytosis ?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes M protein
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae capsule
C) Escherichia coli K antigen
D) Vibrio cholerae enterotoxin
E) Mycobacterium tuberculosis cord factor

(ANSWER D)
43. Which of the following is the antibiotic that shows antibacterial effect by binding to the α subunit
of DNA gyrase and inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis?
A) Rifampin
B) Metronidazole
C) Gentamycin
D) Ciprofloxacin
E) Doxycycline

(ANSWER D)
44. Which of the following is one of the specific antigens used in the immunological diagnosis of
tuberculosis infection?
A) Early release antigenic target 6 (ESAT-6)
B) Lipoarabinomannan (LAM)
C) Peptidoglycan
D) Arabinogalactan
E) Mucolic acid

(ANSWER A)
45. In three blood culture samples taken froma 75-year-old patient with sepsis,α-hemolysis bacteria
with Gram (+) cocci morphology grew. It was found that the microorganism was catalase negative,
optokin resistant and PYR-positive; It was found to be resistant to vancomycin, gentamicin and
ampicillin. As a factor in these patients primarily should be considered which of the following?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Enterococcus faecium
E) Staphylococcus aureus

(ANSWER D)
 46. Catalase negative, α-hemolytic, Gram (+) cocci were produced in the analysis of blood culture of a
patient who was followed up for subacute endocarditis . Which of the following could be this bacteria
resistant to optokines and negative bile dissolution test?
A) Streptococcus pneumonia
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Streptococcus viridans
E) Enterococcus faecalis

(ANSWER D)
47. Gram (-) coccobacillus was observed in the culture of the ulcer of the patient who was admitted to
the hospital with genital ulcer and inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following is this bacterium that requires X factor for reproduction?
A) Gardnerella vaginalis
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Escherichia coli
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Moraxella catarrhalis

(ANSWER B)
48. For which of the following microorganisms is the only known reservoir human?
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Salmonella Choleraesuis
C) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D) Listeria monocytogenes
E) Brucella melitensis

(ANSWER A)
49. Which of the following is the most prominent mechanism of action of corticosteroids used for
immunosuppression ?
A) Blocking the proliferation of lymphocyte precursors
B) Inhibiting T cell proliferation by blocking IL-2 binding
C) Reducing inflammation by inhibition of macrophage cytokine secretion
D) Blocking lymphocyte proliferation by inhibition of IL-2 signaling
E) Reducing the number of T cells by binding to CD3

(ANSWER C)
50. Which of the following diseases is not due to a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Polyarteritis nodosa
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C) Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
D) Serum sickness
E) Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

(ANSWER B)
51. In serological tests, which of the following is the property of the antibody based on its
multivalent binding power with the antigen?
A) Isotype
B) Idyotype
C) Allotype
D) Avidity
E) Affinity

(ANSWER D)
52. Which of the following is not one of the target organs in secondary viremia caused by
enteroviruses ?
A) Liver
B) Leather
C) Brain
D) Heart
E) Pancreas

(ANSWER E)
53. In which of the following cells does human herpes virus type 1 remain latent?
A) Neuron
B) B cells
C) T cells
D) glands
E) Mucoepithelial cells

(ANSWER A)
54. Which of the following is one of the integrase inhibitors used in HIV treatment?
A) Enfuvirtid
B) Lopinavir
C) Tenofovir
D) Delavirdine
E) Raltegravir

(ANSWER E)
55. Clinical aspergillosis in a patient thought to be useful in diagnosing Which of the following does
not provide ?
A) Direct microscopic examination of the sample
B) Making culture from the sample
C) Checking for mannan antigen in serum
D) Measuring galactomannan antigen in serum
E) Checking β-D glucan antigen in serum

(ANSWER C)
56. In which class are fungi with undetermined sexual reproduction?
A) Zygomycetes
B) Ascomycetes
C) Basidiomycetes
D) Deuteromycetes
E) Dermatophytes
(ANSWER D)
57. A yeast is isolated from a swab taken from a lesion of a neutropenic patient with oral lesions. When
the morphological appearance of this yeast on the corn flour tween 80 medium is examined,
blastospores and pseudohyphae are seen.
Which of the following cannot be the yeast fungus isolated from this patient ?
A) Candida glabrata
B) Candida parapsilosis
C) Candida kefyr
D) Candida guilliermondii
E) Candida lusitaniae
(ANSWER A)
58. Which of the following trematodes have both male and female?
A) Fasciolopsis buski
B) Fasciola hepatica
C) Dicrocoelium dendriticum
D) Paragonimus westermani
E) Schistosoma haematobium
(ANSWER E)
59. Xenodiagnosis is used in the diagnosis of the following parasitic agents?
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Schistosoma mansoni
C) Trypanosoma cruzi
D) Loa loa
E) Wuchereria Bancroft
(ANSWER C)
60. Which of the following Plasmodium species causes severe microvascular disease?
A) P. ovale
B) P. falciparum
C) P. berkhei
D) P. malariae
E) P. vivax
(ANSWER B)