NMAT Review 2020

Mock Exam
July/August 2020

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1
Recommended timetable

Subtest Number of Items Time Allotment Optimal Time per Item

PART 1

Verbal 40 40 min 1 min

Inductive 40 50 min 1 min 15s

Quantitative 40 50 min 1 min 15s

Perceptual 40 40 min 1 min

Time limit 3 hours

BREAK

PART 2

Biology 50 35 min 42s

Physics 50 40 min 48s

Social Science 50 35 min 42s

Chemistry 50 35 min 48s

Time limit 2.5 hours

Indicated above is the recommended timetable to follow while answering this mock exam. This mock exam was made
with accuracy to the actual NMAT in mind. As such, the number of items will follow the template of the normal annual
NMAT. In order for this mock exam to be most helpful to you, please make sure to ascribe to the recommended time
allotment for both the total time per section and item. It may be helpful to deduct five to ten minutes from each portion of
the allotment in order to fully prepare and allow for some leftover time to return to other items and double check.

Good luck and godspeed!

This document is protected by the Philippine Laws on Intellectual Property R.A. 8293 and cannot be shared to those who have not
availed and paid for the aforementioned resources. Any and all violators of this rule will be prosecuted to the fullest extent of the law.

© Michelle Lao 2020

2
PART 1: 6. MISER : PARSIMONIOUS :: PHILANTHROPIST :

TEST A. VERBAL (A) patient (C) magnificent

Section 1. Analogies (B) intelligent (D) munificent

1. PRAISE : ODE :: LAMENT :

(A) epic (C) tale 7. EVANGELIST : PREACH :: MENDICANT :

(B) elegy (D) romance (A) beg (C) PRAY

(B) heal (D) wander

2. APPLAUSE : PRAISE :: CURTSY :

(A) exit (C) obedience 8. GENOCIDE : RACE :: PATRICIDE :

(B) servility (D) respect (A) father (C) family

(B) mother (D) sibling

3. WATER : THIRST :: SALVE :

(A) ointment (C) scar 9. PARABLE : FABLE :: IDYLL :

(B) wound (D) cure (A) rhyme (C) interlude

(B) ode (D) octet

4. CAUTION : ACCIDENT :: IMMUNIZATION :

(A) inoculation (C) disease 10. SAFE : JEWELRY :: CANISTER :

(B) resistance (D) antibodies (A) shelf (C) jar

(B) sugar (D) juice

5. POVERTY : SHACK :: AFFLUENCE :

(A) limousine (C) mansion 11. BOOK : PREFACE :: OPERA :

(B) hotel (D) money (A) concert (C) overture

(B) score (D) aria

12. TORR : PRESSURE :: ANGSTROM : 18. CAPTAIN : SHOAL ::

(A) weight (C) mass (A) lawyer : litigation (C) soldier : ambush

(B) force (D) length (B) pilot : radar (D) doctor : hospital

13. ATLAS : MAPS :: ANTHOLOGY : 19. MENDACITY : HONESTY ::

(A) poems (C) laws (A) courage : cravenness (C) courage : fortitude

(B) charts (D) cultures (B) truth : beauty (D) turpitude : depravity

14. SWARM : BEE :: ARMADA : 20. INDIGENT : WEALTH ::

(A) artillery (C) galleon (A) contented : happiness

(B) sailor (D) navy (B) aristocratic : stature

(C) smug : complacency

15. POWER : ABDICATE :: OFFICE : (D) emaciated : nourishment

(A) hire (C) impeach

(B) resign (D) terminate Section 2. Reading Comprehension

Selection 1

16. REBEL : AMNESTY :: CRIMINAL : The moment that it had all finally ended,

(A) detain (C) reprieve Church bells rang, and I awoke

(B) pardon (D) sentence From an unsettling dream.

I had drifted back many years,

17. DISTANCE : DISCUS :: HEIGHT : To a time and place still familiar to me.

(A) shot-put (C) pole vault I was a schoolgirl, waving a paper flag

(B) long jump (D) skydiving On the Boulevard, as limousines sped by.

That evening, after having left the dream,

2
I managed to find the paper flag There was no boulevard.

It had been wedged between bundles There were only people,

Of flyers in a box that sat Free people, waving flags.

On my closet shelf. It had all finally begun.

The flag had yellowed

But otherwise intact. It was dawn, and it burned

The years had been kind. So fiercely orange I swore it was red.

I held the flag in my hands

And turned the radio up. 21. The flag in the second stanza best represents

As I listened, a subtle chaos (A) the symbol of a country

Filtered through. Mostly it was noise. (B) a treasure loved and kept

Some called it jubilation, (C) the spirit of freedom long subdued but still alive

Others called it liberation. (D) a people silenced by an oppressive rule

Everyone called it winning.

Everyone called it victory. 22. In the sixth stanza, “... free people, waving flags”

refers to

Mostly it was noise, so I turned it off. (A) people celebrating their freedom

Sadly, perhaps angrily, (B) a crowd waving at an arriving state dignitary

I prayed for more honest days. (C) people who are returning from war

I sought refuge in my sleep. (D) a group of people rallying for peace

I returned to my dream.

In my dream, it was many years from now,

And I, no longer a schoolgirl,

Waved my paper flag.

3
23. Which of the following does the poet experience in sea against the continents, pressing up to the very

the last stanza? threshold of the land, while the ebbs expose a strange

(A) confusion and unfamiliar world.

(B) amazement The sound of a rising tide is heard most clearly

(C) jubilation on shores far from the swell of the open ocean. On such

(D) contentment a shore, the tides shape the nature and behavior of life.

Their rise and fall give every creature that lives between

24. The actual event in this poem is the high-tide and the low-tide lines, a twice-daily

(A) the arrival of a political liberator experience of land life. For those that live near the

(B) a girl’s spiritual transformation low-tide line, the exposure to sun and air is brief; for

(C) a people’s awakening those higher on the shore, the interval in an alien

(D) the celebration of Independence Day environment is more prolonged and demands greater

powers of endurance. But in all the intertidal area, the

25. In the dream narration, the poet uses the figure of pulse of life is adjusted to the rhythm of the tides.

speech known as In a world that belongs alternately to the sea and

(A) simile land, marine animals that breathe oxygen dissolved in

(B) metaphor the sea water must find ways of keeping moist. The few

(C) hyperbole air-breathers who have crossed the high-tide line from

(D) personification the land must protect themselves from drowning in the

flood tide by bringing with them their own supply of

Selection 2 oxygen. When the tide is low, there is little or no food

On a shore where tidal action is strong and the for most intertidal animals, and indeed the essential

range of the tide is great, one day has a daily, hourly processes of life usually have to be carried on while

awareness of the ebb and flow of water. Each recurrent water covers the shore. The tidal rhythm is therefore

high tide is a dramatic enactment of the advance of the

4
reflected in a biological rhythm of activity and A shiver runs down your spine and your bare

quiescence. legs feel the sharp, licking tongue of coldness. You pull

down the blanket that has been on your lap for quite a

26. The high tide occurs while to cover your naked legs to starve off the cold of

(A) hourly (C) thrice a day the chilly world. You feel fine, sitting like this, alone in

(B) twice a day (D) once every two days a room of a tall house on top of a long flight of stairs

with the cascading, thundering downpour to keep you

27. The activity phase of intertidal animals living near company, and once more, you feel human and alive and

the low-tide line is you think wistfully of the life you have lived. So you go

(A) shorter than those living near the high-tide line on sitting alone in the dark to enjoy the genial warmth

(B) longer than those living near the high-tide line and glow of your fire.

(C) just as long as the activity of those living near the But what now? You turn your head with a jerk,

high tide line as if an unseen hand had pulled your neck sideward, and

(D) not mentioned in the selection you feel heavy as if a strong, heavy weight had been

dumped on your head. What now? A strange sound

Selection 3 comes from the corner of the room, jolting your thoughts

It’s supposed to be a parchingly hot month, and from the security and comfort of your fire. What could it

you wonder why tropical temper and moods are so be? It could not be the wind or the rain. Ah, yes, yes, it

sickeningly unpredictable as now. The night is cold and must be those pestering little mice that come once in a

the rain comes down in torrents like a million silver while out of the attic, expecting crumbs of food you may

fingers. Along the streets, the sewerage system gurgles have on your hand.

with queer, foamy splashes of rain, and the sky is an

inky mantle laid over the weeping face of the earth. You 28. What figure of speech is used in the first sentence?

can’t sleep, and so you keep vigil over the wakefulness (A) simile (C) personification

of the mad, weary night. (B) metaphor (D) allusion

5
29. The word “mantle” as used in the selection With your fresh thoughts care for, can you?

symbolizes? Ah! as the heart grows older

(A) relief (C) regret It will come to such sights colder

(B) grief (D) refuge By and by, not spare a high

Though worlds of wanwood leafmeal lie;

30. The two contrasting visual images presented in the And yet you weep and know why,

selection are Now, no matter, child, the name,

(A) noise and silence (C) fire and rain Sorrow’s springs are the same,

(B) life and death (D) man and weather Nor mouth had, no, not, mind expressed

What the heart heard of, ghost guessed;

31. The prevailing conflict spin around man and It is the blight man was born for,

(A) society (C) nature It is Margaret you mourn for.

(B) himself (D) God

33. On the literal level, “worlds of wanwood leafmeal

32. The author used the second person point of view in life” refers to

order to (A) deep dark forests

(A) emphasize the solitude of the character (B) rotting trees and leaves

(B) draw a vivid picture of the character (C) heavily wooded areas

(C) specify the kind of character (D) tall and leafy trees

(D) point an accusing finger at the character 34. Margaret, the girl addressed in this poem, and the

speaker represent the contrast between

Selection 4 (A) youth and age

Margaret, are you grieving (B) spring and fall

Over Goldengrove unleaving? (C) innocence and wisdom

Leaves, like things of man, you (D) joy and sorrow

6
35. The most commonly used figures of speech in the economists quite as much as the United States.

poem are Economists in the two countries differ from one another

(A) personification and metaphor chiefly in that they work toward different goals.

(B) simile and metaphor Economics, its basic tenets, is amoral, that is, lacking in

(C) symbolism and irony ethical judgements. It applies as well to dope peddling as

(D) apostrophe and symbolism to food production.

Since economics deals with the use of scarce

Selection 5 resources to meet given goals, it is always concerned

Economics deals with less than the whole man. with the parceling out of restricted amounts of desired

It concerns the activities of man in the satisfying of goods. Its focus is on human wants. It was for this reason

human wants. It assumes that self-interest is the that Thoman Carlyle referred to economics as the

governing motive in human affairs, that men are “dismal science.” And there is some merit in this

infallible in judging their interests and single-minded in appellation. With wants insatiable and means unlimited,

pursuing them. This abstracted creature is called the the economist, who is concerned with the allocation

“economic man.” process, is always saying “no” to somebody.

Economics thus has something useful to say

about the use of resources and the consumption of 36. That economics is separate from ideology means that

goods. But it explains very little about the love of a man economics is

for his family, or his dedication to some deep cause, or (A) not basically communistic

his appreciation of beauty. (B) not essentially altered by political beliefs

Economics in its basic form is separate and apart (C) more concerned with practice

from ideology. It is concerned with the use of scarce (D) and honorable profession

resources to attain given goals, and the economist is

generally quite willing to let someone else state the

goals. Thus, the Soviet Union needs the services of

7
37. Based on the assumption that self-interest is the 40. The writing style of the author can be best described

governing motive in human affairs, the author shows that as

(A) profit is evil (A) technical (C) realistic

(B) allocation of scarce resources is a problem (B) humorous (D) paradoxical

(C) somebody is bound to lose in any given transaction

(D) nobody loses in a voluntary exchange

38. Which of the ff. statements best expresses the main

idea of the selection?

(A) man by nature is selfish

(B) economics is a dismal science

(C) economics deals mainly with the use of resources to

satisfy human wants

(D) economics is necessary for progress and is not

identified with any ideology

39. The selection is most likely addressed to

(A) economics students

(B) the reading public

(C) a convention of economists

(D) a presidential staff

8
TEST B. INDUCTIVE REASONING

Section 1. Figure patterns

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

9
6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11.

10
Section 2. Figure Grouping

12.

13.

14.

11
15.

16.

17.

12
18.

19.

20.

21.

13
22.

23.

Section 3. Number and Letter Series

24. 4 12 7 21 16 27. CZE GXI KVM OTQ

(A) 11 (D) 13 (A) TSV (D) SRU

(B) 80 (E) 48 (B) RST (E) TQU

(C) 19 (C) STU

25. 16 25 37 52 70 28. XV TR PN LJ HF

(A) 76 (D) 79 (A) BD (D) CA

(B) 88 (E) 91 (B) EC (E) DC

(C) 82 (C) DB

26. B H M Q T V 29. 7 18 23 33 38 47 52

(A) W (D) S (A) 57 (D) 57

(B) V (E) X (B) 61 (E) 60

(C) R (C) 58

14
30. 7 4 8 13 7 14 35. 10 2 8 2 8 4

(A) 6 (D) 22 (A) 16 (D) 6

(B) 7 (E) 28 (B) 2 (E) 12

(C) 23 (C) 8

31. E V G T J R L P 36. 37 38 19 15 16 8

(A) N (D) M (A) 12 (D) 6

(B) O (E) P (B) 4 (E) 10

(C) Q (C) 9

32. BDH HGI LHN QSH 37. 18 9 36 6

(A) VHX (D) THX (A) 48 (D) 54

(B) UHV (E) HVW (B) 24 (E) 72

(C) HVX (C) 3

33. 10 15 22 13 2 15 38. 18 6 9 36 18 21 63 63

(A) 0 (D) 1 (A) 21 (D) 126

(B) 29 (E) 30 (B) 66 (E) 65

(C) 20 (C) 189

34. T U R S O P M N 39. 40 48 8 16 4 12

(A) M (D) J (A) 20 (D) 6

(B) L (E) I (B) 2 (E) 3

(C) K (C) 18

15
40. CDE EFG LJK NOP OPQ

(A) WXY (D) UVW

(B) TUV (E) VWX

(C) XYZ

16
TEST C. QUANTITATIVE

Section 1. Fundamental Operations 6.

x−y
(A) 3x − 5 (C) 3x x− 5
1.
x − 3y y
(B)​ 3x − 5 (D) 3x − 5
(A) 7 (C) 11/3

(B) 13/3 (D) 1

7.
2.

(A) x - 4 (C) x​2​ - x + 4

(B) x + 4 (D) x​2​ - 16

3. 13 x 6 + 2 x 24 + 8

(A) 13 (C) 117

(B) 72 (D) 203 8.

(A) 5m​4​ - 3m​3​ + 2m - 4

(B) 5m​4​ + 2m + 2m​2​ + 2m + 4

(C) 5m​4​ + 5m​3​ + 2m​2​ + 2m + 4

4.
(D) 5m​4​ + 5m​3​ - 2m​2​ + 2m + 4
(A) √12 (C) 12

(B) 6 (D) 144

9.

5.

(A) 3 (C) 18

(B) 9 (D) 27

17
10. Given 30​2 - ? + 15 = 1222, what value should be 14. A newsboy earns 20 cents per newspaper and 40

substituted to “?” to make the equation true? cents per magazine sold. On a lucky day, he sells a total

(A) 73 (C) -89 of 70 newspapers and magazines and earns 20 pesos.

(B) 81 (D) -9 The number of newspapers sold is

(A) 30 (C) 40

11. 37 12 % of 192 + 33 13 % of 306? (B) 38 (D) 48

(A) 174 (C) 274

15. Thirty percent in a class are accounting majors, 20%
(B) 198 (D) 498
are marketing majors, and the rest are economics majors.

If there are 30 students in the class majoring in

12. (9 √x + 2 )(5 √x − 3 ) =
economics, how many students are majoring in
(A) 18x - 10 √x - 15 (C) 5x - 17 √x - 6
marketing?
(B) 45x - 17 √x - 6 (D) 45x - 10 √x -6
(A) 12 (C) 30

(B) 18 (D) 60
Section 2. Problem Solving

13. A brand new car could travel 15km on a gallon of

gas. After two years, this same car travels only 80% of

the distance on the same amount of gas. How many

gallons of gas will the old car need in order to travel

90km?

(A) 7.0 (C) 8.5

16. A milk company always sells its powdered milk
(B) 7.5 (D) 9.0
product in cylindrical cans of the same height ​b but with

either of two base areas. Regardless of size, the cans are

always shipped in rectangular cartons of the size shown

in the figure above. If it is assumed that the thickness of

18
the cans is negligible, how much less space is wasted in 19. In an ice cream parlor, 87 customers ordered either

the carton by packing four small cans instead of one vanilla or chocolate or both flavors. If 62 ordered vanilla

large can? (volume of a cylinder = 𝝅r​2​h) only and 68 ordered chocolate only, how many ordered
2
(A) 0 (C) a 8 b both flavors?

2 2
(A) 130 (C) 44
(B) a16b (D) a 4 b
(B) 87 (D) 43

17. Armand and his brother, Julius, are each given a 10% 20. Collectively, Jose, Pepe, and Boy weigh 396lb. Pepe

deduction for misdemeanors. They started off two weeks is 10lb heavier than Jose while Boy weighs 10lb more

ago with a weekly allowance of 100 pesos each but than Pepe. They are medical interns assigned with senior

Armand’s allowance was first raised by 10% and later residents in pairs. Resident Del weighs as much as his

lowered by 10% while Julius’ was first lowered by 10% partner Jose, Carlos is twice as heavy as his partner,

and then raised by 10%. Comparing their present while Albert is one and one-half times as heavy as the

allowances, it can be said that intern assigned to him. If the six weigh 1000lb, what is

(A) Armand is getting 10 pesos more than Julius the weight of Pepe’s partner?

(B) Julius is getting 1 pesos more than Armand (A) 132lb (C) 198lb

(C) Armand and Julius are receiving a weekly allowance (B) 142lb (D) 213lb

of 100 pesos each

(D) Armand and Julius are each receiving a 99 peso 21. Mario can finish a job two hours longer than Pepe.

weekly allowance After working for 1 hour, Pepe joins him and they

complete the job in 3 more hours. How long would it

18. If 5 cats can catch 5 mice in 5 mins, how many cats take Mario to finish the job if he worked alone?

are required to catch 100 mice in 100 mins? (A) 5hr (C) 8hr

(A) 5 (C) 100 (B) 6hr (D) 10hr

(B) 20 (D) 200

19
22. Louie predicts that a sum of a pair of dice will be 25. A flower shop purchased 250 plants for 6.00 pesos

equal to 6 for 2 consecutive throws. Ben predicts that the each. It is estimated that 10% of the plants will have to

sum will be equal to 5 for the same number of throws. be discarded without being sold. What should the selling

What is the probability of Ben’s prediction? price of a plant be if a gross profit of 20% of the cost on

25 7 the whole shipment is desired?

(A) 1296 (C) 10

(A) 9.00 pesos (C) 7.20 pesos

5
(B) 36 (D) 19
(B) 8.00 pesos (D) 6.70 pesos

23. Juan de la Cruz lived a sixth of his life as a child, a 26. A 3900-sq field is to be fertilized with a fertilizer

twelfth a s an adolescent, and an eighth as a bachelor. that can only be bought by the bag at 90 pesos per 10kg

Five years later, Juan became the father of a son who or 70 pesos per 7kg bag. The bags come in only two

lived half as long as Juan and died four years before him. sizes and 1kg is needed for every 60sq m area. What

If Juan died in 1980, how old was Juan when he died? would be the minimum cost to effectively fertilize the

(A) 96 (C) 60 field?

(B) 72 (D) 48 (A) 585 pesos (C) 610 pesos

(B) 590 pesos (D) 630 pesos

24. Each year, a car depreciates a certain fraction of its

value. During the first year, it depreciates 1/3 of its 27. In our civilization, each single person on the average

value, while during the second year it depreciates 1/4 of needs 60sq m of land for housing, 40sq for public

the value, and during the third year, it depreciates 1/5 of buildings and sports facilities, 90sq m for traffic, and

its value. What fraction of its original value is the value 4000sq m for production of food. In the Philippines,

of the car at the end of the third year? arable and habitable land amounts to 194,040 sq m. For

(A) 2/5 (C) 13/60 how many people could the country provide adequate

(B) 3/5 (D) 59/50 space?

(A) 46 000 (C) 4 600 000

20
(B) 460 000 (D) 46 000 000 Section 3. Data Interpretation

28. What is the value of x - y if √x - √y = 2 and

√x - √y = 1?

(A) 1 (C) 3

(B) 2 (D) 9/4

29. A five-digit number is to be formed using the

numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5, without repetition. The total

The pie chart above show the monthly budget of
number of ways in which this can be done is
the Reynoso family for 1987 and 1988. The family’s
(A) 12 (C) 600
annual income for 1987 and 1988 are 72000 pesos and
(B) 240 (D) 720
76000 pesos, respectively.

30. Find the probability of drawing 4 queens and a King

31. How much more did the family spend on medical
from a standard deck of cards
expenses in 1988 than in 1987?

(A) 1520php (C) 7200php

(A) (C)
(B) 6920php (D) 9120php

(B) (D)
32. How much was the percent increase in the family’s

expenses for food and drinks?

(A) 4.0% (C) 5.0%

(B) 4.9% (D) 5.2%

21
33. The budget of the Reynosos for 1989 will be the

same as that of 1988. In 1989, if they will spend

5950php for entertainment, how much will their savings

be?

(A) 3040php (C) 4250php

(B) 3400php (D) 8500php

34. If the family spent 10500 pesos for food in 1987, 36. Approximately how much more must the

how many percent did they spend on drinks? Warehousing and Shipping Division contribute to meet

(A) 4.2% (C) 14.6% its goal?

(B) 3.4% (D) 9.0% (A) 2000 php (C) 3000 php

(B) 2500 php (D) 3500 php

35. In 1987, how much did they pay for rent each

month? 37. Which two divisions need the least percentage of

(A) 24 320php (C) 2026php contributions to reach their goal?

(B) 18 000php (D) 1500php (A) Accounting & Services and Personnel Divisions

(B) Accounting & Services and Sales & Marketing

At the start of the year, Reilly Corporation sets a goal for Divisions

contributions from each division to the Community (C) Sales & Marketing and Warehousing & Shipping

Fund. From time to time, a bulletin is issued to Divisions

employees showing the contributions to date and the (D) Warehousing & Shipping Divisions and Personnel

goal to be reached for the year. At the end of July, the ff. Divisions

graph was issued.

22
38. The average monthly contribution of the

Warehousing and Shipping Division to the total fund is

approximately

(A) 1857php (C) 750php

(B) 1500php (D) 1285php

39. The contribution of the Accounting and Services

Division is how many percent of the contribution of the

Sales and Marketing Division?

(A) 46.15% (C) 30%

(B) 38.46% (D) 7%

40. Of the total actual contributions, how many percent

was contributed by the Personnel Division?

(A) 1.7% (C) 21%

(B) 16.9% (D) 89%

23
TEST D. PERCEPTUAL ACUITY

Section 1. Hidden Figures

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

24
6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

25
11.

12.

13.

Section 2. Mirror Image

14.

26
15.

16.

17.

18.

27
19.

20.

21.

22.

23.

28
24.

25.

26.

29
Section 3. Identical Information (E) Dosage: 1-2 drops 4-6 times a day for first 72 hours,

27. Directions for mixing: Slowly add 11 mL of water depending upon the severety of the condition.

and shake moderately until uniformly mixed.

(A) Directions for mixing: Slowly add 11 ml of water 29. Special Precautions: Caution must be exercised when

and shake moderately until uniformly mixed. given to patients with gastric or duodenal ulcers, severe

(B) Directions for mixing: Slowly add 11 mL of water gastritis, or ulcerative colitis.

and shake moderately until uniformly mixed. (A) Special Precautions: Caution must be exercised

(C) Directions for mixing: Slowly add 10 mL of water when given to patients with gastric or duodenal ulcers,

and shake moderately until uniformly mixed. severe gastritis, or ulcerative colitis.

(D) Direction for mixing: Slowly add 11 mL of water (B) Special Precautions: Caution must be exercised

and shake moderately until uniformly mixed. when given to patient with gastric or duodenal ulcers,

(E) Directions for mixing: Slowly add 11 mL of water severe gastritis, or ulcerative colitis.

and shake moderately until uniformly mixes. (C) Special Precautions: Caution must be exercised

when given to patients with gastric or doudenal ulcers,

28. Dosage: 1-2 drops 4-6 times a day for first 72 hours, severe gastritis, or ulcerative colitis.

depending upon the severity of the condition. (D) Special Precautions: Caution must be exercised

(A) Dosage: 1-2 drops 4-6 times a day for first 72 hours, when given to patients with duodenal or gastric ulcers,

depending upon the severity of the condition severe gastritis, or ulcerative colitis.

(B) Dosage: 1-2 drops 5-6 times a day for first 72 hours, (E) Special Precautions: Caution must be exercised when

depending upon the severity of the condition. given to patients with gastric or duodenal ulcers, severe

(C) Dosage: 1-2 drps, 4-6 times a day for first 72 hours, gastritis, and ulcerative colitis.

depending upon severity of the condition.

(D) Dosage: 1-2 drops 4-6 times a day for first 72 hours,

depending upon the severity of the condition.

30
30. West, J.B. Respiratory Physiology, Williams and 32. Contents: Pancreatin 700 mg equivalent to amylase

Wilkin, Baltimore: 1974. 22,000 units, lipase 28,000 units, protease 1,500 units,

(A) West, J.B. Respiratory Physiology, Williams and bile dispert 75 mg.

Wilkins, Baltimore: 1974. (A) Contents: Pancreatin 700 mg equivalent to amylase

(B) West, J.B. Respiratory Physiology, Williams and 22,000 units, lipase 28,000 unit, protease 1,500 units,

Wilkin, Baltimore; 1974. bile dispert 75 mg.

(C) West, B.J. Respiratory Physiology, Williams and (B) Contents: Pancreatin 700 mg equivalent to amylase

Wilkin, Baltimore: 1974. 22,000 units, lipase 28,000 units, protease 15,000 units,

(D) West, J.B. Respiratory Physiology, Williams and bile dispert 75 mg.

Wilkin, Baltimore: 1974. (C) Contents: Pancreatin 700 mg equivalent to amylase

(E) West, J.B, Respiratory Physiology, Williams and 22,000 units, lipase 28,000 units, protease 1,500 units,

Wilkin, Baltimore: 1974. bile dispert 75 mg.

(D) Contents: Pancreatin 700 mg equivalent to amylase

31. Mezur, A. and Robertson, L.S. Biology and Social 22,000 units, lipose 28,000 units, protease 1,500 units,

Behavior, The Free Press, New York, N.Y., 1972. bile dispert 75 mg.

(A) Mezur, A. and Roberston, L.S. Biology and Social (E) Contents: Pancreatin 700 mg equivalent to amylase

Behavior, The Free Press, New York, N.Y., 1972. 22,000 units, lipase 28,000 units, protease 1,500 units,

(B) Mezur, A. and Robertson, L.S. Biology and Social bile dispent 75 mg.

Behavior, The Free Press, New York, NY., 1972.

(C) Mezur, A. and Robertson, L.S. Biology and Social

Behavior, The Free Press, New York, N.Y., 1972.

(D) Mesur, A. and Robertson, L.S. Biology and Social

Behavior, The Free Press, New York, N.Y., 1972.

(E) Mezur, A. and Robertson, L.S. Biology and Social

Behaviour, The Free Press, New York, N.Y., 1972.

31
33. Amino acids are organic acids containing amino 34. Textile Printing Auxiliaries Room 701, 429 Victoria

groups and carboxyl groups at the first or last C-atom (or Bldg., Araneta Ave. Cor. Kapiligan, Quezon City

both). (A) Textile Printing Auxiliaries Room 701, 492 Victoria

(A) Amino acids are organic acids containing amino acid Bldg., Araneta Ave. Cor. Kapilingan, Quezon City

groups and carboxyl groups at the first or last C-atom (or (B) Textile Printing Auxiliaries Room 701, 429 Victoria

both). Bldg., Araneta Ave. Cor. Kalipigan, Quezon City

(B) Amino acids are organic acids containing amino (C) Textile Printing Auxiliaries Room 107, 429 Victoria

group and carboxyl groups at the first or last C-atom (or Bldg., Araneta Ave. Cor. Kapiligan, Quezon City

both). (D) Textile Printing Auxiliaries Room 701, 429 Vitoria

(C) Amino acids are organic acids containing amino Bldg., Araneta Ave. Cor. Kapiligan, Quezon City

groups and cardoxyl groups at the first or last C-atom (or (E) Textile Printing Auxiliaries Room 701, 429 Victoria

both). Bldg., Araneta Ave. Cor. Kapiligan, Quezon City

(D) Amino acids are organic acids containing amino

groups and carboxyl groups at the first or last C-atom (or 35. Contra-Ind: Thyrotoxicosis, acute myocardial

both). infection, uncorrected adrenal insufficiency.

(E) Amino acids are organic acids containing amino (A) Contra-Ind: Thyrotoxycosis, acute myocardial

groups and carboxyl groups at the first or last G-atom (or infection, uncorrected adrenal insufficiency.

both). (B) Contra-Ind: Thyrotoxicosis, acute myocardial

infection, uncorrected adrenal insufficiency.

(C) Contra-Ind: Thyrotoxicosis, acute myocardial

infection, uncorrected renal insufficiency.

(D) Contra-Ind: Thyrotoxicosis, acute miocardial

infection, uncorrected adrenal insufficiency.

(E) Contra-Ind: Thyrotoxicosis, acute myocardial

infection, uncorrected adrenal defficiency.

32
36. Blue vitriol (CuSO​4​·5H​2​O) is hydrated copper 38. Each mL contains 125 I.U. antitoxin. The product is

sulfate. stabilized with glycine 2.25% and preserved with

(A) Bleu vitriol (CuSO​4​·5H​2​O) is hydrated copper thimerosal 0.01%.

sulfate. (A) Each mL contains 125 I.V. antitoxin. The product is

(B) Blue vitriol (CuSO​4​·6H​2​O) is hydrated copper stabilized with glycine 2.25% and preserved with

sulfate. thimerosal 0.01%.

(C) Blue vitriol (CuSO​4​·5H​2​O) is hydrated copper (B) Each mL contains 125 I.U. antitoxin. The product is

sulfate. stabilized with glicine 2.25% and preserved with

(D) Blue vitriol (Cu SO​4​·5H​2​O) is hydrated copper thimerosal 0.01%.

sulfate. (C) Each mL contains 125 I.U. antitoxin. The product is

(E) Blue vitroil (CuSO​4​·5H​2​O) is hydrated copper stabilized with glycine 2.25% and preserved with

sulfate. thimerosal 0.10%.

(D) Each mL contains 125 I.U. antitoxin. The product is

37. Oxalic acid is a dicarboxylic acid represented by the stabilized with glycine 2.25% and preserved with

formula (COOH)​2​ or H​2​C​2​O​4​. thimerosal 0.01%.

(A) Oxalic acid is a dicarboxilic acid represented by the (E) Each mL contains 125 I.U. antitoxin. The product is

formula (COOH)​2​ or H​2​C​2​O​4​. stabilized with glycine 2.25% and preserved with

(B) Oxalic acid is a dicarboxylic acid represented by the themerosal 0.01%.

formula COOH​2​ or H​2​C​2​O​4​.

(C) Oxalic acid is a dicarboxylic acid represented by the

formulae (COOH)​2​ or H​2​C​2​O​4​.

(D) Oxalic acid is a dicarboxylic acid represented by the

formula (COOH)​2​ or H​2​C​2​O​4​.

(E) Oxalic acid is a dicarboxylic acid represented by the

formula (COHH)​2​ or H​2​C​2​O​4​.

33
39. Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is necessary

for production of prothrombin in the liver.

(A) Vitamin K, the antihemorhagic vitamin, is necessary

for production of prothrombin in the liver.

(B) Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is

necessary for production of prothrombon in the liver.

(C) Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is

necessary for production of prothrombin on the liver.

(D) Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin, is

necessary for production of prothrombin in the liver.

(E) Vitamin K, the antihemorrhagic vitamin is necessary

for production of prothrombin in the liver.

40. Phosphorous acid, H​3​PO​3​, can be prepared by the

action of water upon P​4​O​6​, PCl​3​, PBr​3​, or PI​3​.

(A) Phosphorous acid, H​3​PO​3​, can be prepared by the

action of water upon P​4​O​6​, P​3​Cl, PBr​3​, or PI​3​.

(B) Phosphorous acid, H​3​PO​3​, can be prepared by the

action of water upon P​6​O​4​, PCl​3​, PBr​3​, or PI​3​.

(C) Phosphorous acid, HPO​3​, can be prepared by the

action of water upon P​4​O​6​, PCl​3​, PBr​3​, or PI​3​.

(D) Phosphorous acid, H​3​PO​3​, can be prepared by the

action of water upon P​4​O​6​, PCl​3​, PBr​3​, or PI​3​.

(E) Phosphouros acid, H​3​PO​3​, can be prepared by the

action of water upon P​4​O​6​, PCl​3​, PBr​3​, or PI​3​.

34
PART 2: (B) The embryo converts tryptophan into indoleacetic

TEST A: BIOLOGY acid

1. In the meat industry, it is a well known fact that (C) The embryo releases gibberellins which triggers the
carcasses of animals that have been slaughtered
synthesis of enzymes that break down the endosperm
immediately after heavy exercise do not keep as well as
(D) The embryo produces enzymes which break down
those that were rested for several hours before
slaughtering. The bacteria that are responsible for the endosperm cells
putrefaction could be more active in the “tired”
carcasses. This could be because the “tired” carcasses
contain a higher concentration of: 4. Compared to its energy content at rest, a vertebrate
muscle that has just undergone heavy exercise would

(A) ATP (C) Lactic acid have:

(B) glucose (D) glycogen

(A) more ATP and more ADP

(B) more ATP and less ADP

2. The central dogma of molecular biology states that
(C) less ATP and more ADP
genetic information is transferred by three steps. Which
of the following steps is NOT a part of this process? (D) less ATP and less ADP

(A) Translocation of genes from proteins to DNA

5. Groups of compounds capable of catalyzing the
(B) Transcription of DNA into RNA breakdown of cell compounds are present within most

(C) Translation of genetic information into protein living cells. However, these compounds do not normally
destroy the cell itself. This can be explained by the fact
(D) Duplication of DNA
that they:

(A) act only on protein not found in the cell

3. Which is the best statement regarding the role of the
embryo in hormone production? (B) are localized within organelles

(C) become chemically active only when the cell is old

(A) The embryo breaks down protein in the endosperm
or dead
cells to produce auxin
(D) carry out other activities om the living cells

35
6. Cilia which are hairlike processes found on free
surfaces of certain cells originate from 9. At what part of the day do the leaves of plants have
the lowest sugar and starch content?
(A) endoplasmic reticulum
(A) dawn (C) noon
(B) centrioles
(B) mid-morning (D) late afternoon
(C) microtubules

(D) cell membrane

7. The sweet colorless water in the coconut fruit is

actually the

(A) cotyledon (C) rainwater

(B) embryo (D) endosperm

10. The effect of increasing carbon dioxide

8. A large number of shades between dark and light are
concentration on the rate of photosynthesis per unit leaf
found in human skin color. From this observation, it can
area is studied and a graph of results is shown above.
be assumed that:
The experiment is repeated at three different light
(A) genes for one color are completely dominant over
intensities A, B, and C. The temperature is maintained
the others
constant during the experiment. Based on the graph,
(B) all light people gave more dominant genes for skin
which of the following factors determine(s) the rate of
color
photosynthesis when the CO2 concentration is more than
(C) there is more than one pair of genes for skin color
30 mmHg?
(D) the population contains large numbers of hidden
(A) temperature
dark genes
(B) CO2 concentration

36
(C) light intensity ● At points L1 and L2 show no contraction of the

(D) all of these muscle

● At point L3 shows contraction of the muscle

Step 3: The right nerve trunk of the same animal was

In items 11 and 12, refer to the following information: isolated.

The left nerve trunk supplying nerve fibers to some

muscles was isolated in an animal. The nerve trunk

illustrated below shows two swellings, ganglia A​L and

B​L​, where nerve cells and synapses are possibly located. Step 4: Stimulation of the right nerve at points R1, R2,

and R3, one at a time resulted in contraction of the

muscle each time.

Step 5: After application of the chemical at A​R​,

To determine where along the nerve trunk the synapses
stimulation at R1, using the same strength of electricity
of the nerve fibers to the muscles are located, the
as before,
following procedures were performed:
11. The experimental variable in this experiment is the:
Step 1: The nerve trunk was stimulated at points L1, L2,
(A) strength of the electrical stimulus
and L3, one at a time, using a constant strength of
(B) dose of the applied chemical
electrical current. Following each stimulation the muscle
(C) site of application of the chemical
contracted.
(D) contraction of the muscles
Step 2: A chemical, which can permanently prevent

transmission of excitation across a synapse, was applied

12. What assumption must be made in order to draw a
to ganglion B​L​. Restimulation of the nerve trunk using
conclusion from the results?
the same strength of electrical stimulation gave the
(A) The nerve trunks (right and left) are anatomically
following results:
similar

(B) The nerve trunks are anatomically different

37
(C) The muscles are supplied by nerve fibers which form (C) the plant under green light will carry on

synapses at ganglia A and B photosynthesis at a greater rate than the one under blue

(D) The muscles are supplied by nerve nerve fibers light

which form synapses at ganglion B only (D) the plant under blue light will carry on

photosynthesis at a greater rate than the one under green

13. The contents of the stomach change from an acidic light

pH toward and alkaline pH as they enter the small 15. Why is penicillin generally toxic to bacteria but not

intestine. This change is caused by: so to animals?

(A) bacteria are one of the lowest forms of organisms

(A) the neutralization of amino acids
(B) bacteria have less amount of protoplasm
(B) the removal of hydrogen ions in reactions with salts
(C) most animals have an enzyme which can inactivate
in the intestinal secretions
penicillin
(C) a decrease in the secretion of of HCL in the stomach
(D) animal cells do not have a cell wall
(D) the digestion of acid molecules by enzymes of the

intestine
16. A dairy farm used a pesticide to control the spread of

flies within its area. Two applications were done two

14. One bean plant is illuminated with green light and
weeks apart. The first application was successful.
another plant of similar size and leaf area is illuminated
However, on the latter application, the flies no longer
with blue light. If all other conditions are identical, how
responded to the pesticide. Which of the following
will the photosynthetic rates of the plants most probably
accounts for the results?
compare?

(A) the pesticide used was not effective

(A) neither plant will carry on photosynthesis
(B) the environment favored reproduction of flies
(B) photosynthesis will occur at the same rate in both
(C) flies were sensitive to pesticides
plants
(D) flies developed resistance to the pesticide

38
 19. The adaptation of cactus to the different

17. Which of the following is a group which includes the environmental changes in the desert gives evidence to

other three groups? support the theory of:

(A) mutation
(A) ecosystem (C) population
(B) natural selection
(B) species (D) community
(C) genetic equilibrium

(D) acquired inheritance

Parts per million DDT 20. When species of plants and animals are introduced
residues
into a new habitat, they often become pests in the new
Water 0.00005
habitat, even though they were not pests in their native
Plankton 0.04000
habitats. The most probable reason for this is that in the
Silverside minnow 0.23000
new habitat the species
Heron (feeds on small 3.57000
animals)

Herring gull (scavenger) 6.00000

Fish hawk (osprey egg)
Merganser (fish-eating
duck)
(A) have fewer natural enemies
13.0000
(B) have a much lower mutation rate
22.8000
(C) learn to use different foods

(D) develop better resistance to climate

18. The table above shows the concentration of DDT in a

given food chain. It illustrates the phenomenon of: 21. Down’s syndrome is often a result of the failure of

(A) eutrophication paired homologous chromosomes to separate at synapse,

(B) biodegradability thus producing a gamete of one or more extra

(C) biological magnification chromosomes. This syndrome may also result when a

(D) microbiological decomposition portion of a chromosome is broken off and becomes

attached to another chromosome. This is known as

39
(A) deletion 24. When compared to a lung cell, a muscle cell would

(B) inversion possess:

(C) nondisjunction (A) more mitochondria

(D) translocation (B) less mitochondria

(C) more RER

22. In sex by sedimentation, the heavier sperm sink to (D) less RER

the bottom, while the lighter ones remain floating at the

top. In order to produce a male offspring by artificial 25. Which of the following is true of the Calvin cycle or

insemination, the sperm should be drawn from the dark reaction of photosynthesis?

(A) the top (A) it produces one molecule of glucose per revolution

(B) the middle (B) it produces glyceraldehyde phosphate

(C) the middle (C) it is an energy-yielding process

(D) any layer (D) it splits the water molecule into H+ and O2 gas

23. A woman who has dimples is married to a man who 26. An erythrocyte is placed in a beaker with a

does not have such a feature. Two of their four children hypertonic solution. What do you think will happen to

are also dimpled. Which of the following represents the the cell after several minutes?

cross between the parents if ​A ​represents the dominant (A) it will crenate

allele and ​a ​the recessive allele? (B) it will plasmolyze

(A) Aa x AA (C) it will become turgid

(B) Aa x Aa (D) it will become flaccid

(C) AA x aa

(D) Aa x aa 27. Which of the following is NOT a function of

membrane proteins?

(A) being transport vesicles

40
(B) cell-to-cell communication 29. Living organisms have the ability to maintain a

(C) cell-to-cell recognition site stable internal environment and transform from an

(D) attachment to the cytoskeleton and extracellular immature to a mature functional form. These attributes

matrix are:

(A) adaptation and growth, respectively

28. Mutation is the alteration of the form of a particular (B) homeostasis and growth, respectively

gene or chromosome that results in a new trait to be (C) adaptation and development, respectively

inherited. Mutations can occur in chromosome structure (D) homeostasis and development, respectively

of chromosome number. Several types of mutations may

occur, such as insertion or deletion. Here are examples 30. Vitiligo is a disorder in which melanocytes (cells that

of changes applied in a sentence: produce melanin pigment) are unable to function. As a

Insertion of “I” result, white patches appear on the skin. Albinism is a

THE CAT AND DOG RUN chromosomal mutation that may result in the cessation

THE CA​I​ TAN DDO GRU N of melanin production or a considerable decline in the

amount of melanin.

Deletion of “E” A man who is an intermediate albino (Aa) with vitiligo

THE CAT AND DOG RUN (Bb) marries a woman who is an albino (aa) but has

THC ATA NDD OGR UN normal skin (bb). What percent of their offspring is

considered as purebred?

From the given examples, we can classify these (A) 25%

mutations as (B) 50%

(A) point mutations (C) 75%

(B) frameshift mutations (D) 100%

(C) carcinogenic mutations

(D) none of the above

41
31. Developmental biology deals with the study of the 33. A diploid cell has 28 chromosomes. When meiosis

development of animals. It also deals with the processes occurs, how many chromosomes are there during

involved in the transformation of a fertilized egg to a Prophase 1?

more complex individual. Which of the following is the (A) 14 (B) 28

CORRECT sequence of the development of a simple cell (C) 56 (D) 84

to a more complex organism?

34. Which of the following apples will ripen the fastest?

(A) fertilization - gametogenesis - gastrulation - cleavage (A) an apple often flushed with carbon dioxide

- organogenesis - growth and histological differentiation (B) an apple with an ethylene-releasing banana enclosed

(B) gametogenesis - fertilization - cleavage - gastrulation in a bag

- growth and histological development - organogenesis (C) an apple with a beaker of an ethylene-releasing

(C) fertilization - gametogenesis - cleavage - gastrulation chemical in a plastic bag

- growth and histological differentiation - organogenesis (D) choices b and c

(D) gametogenesis - fertilization - cleavage - gastrulation

- organogenesis - growth and histological differentiation 35. The DNA sequence below shows the segment of the

gene for human hemoglobin starting with amino acid

32. Biome is defined as an ecological community residue 24.

dominated with distinctive plants and animals. Which of Normal: 5’ AGT TGG TGG TGA GGC CCT GGC CAG

the following types of biomes has the greatest number GCT 3’

and diversity of species? Which of the following amino acid sequences will

(A) taiga change the proline at position 29 to valine, making the

(B) estuary sequence mutant?

(C) savannah Use the following amino acid sequence key:

(D) tropical rainforest Valine - GTT, GTC

Alanine - GCT, GCC

42
Arginine - AGA, AGG (A) chance events result in a change of allele frequency

Proline - CCT, CGA (B) as the conditions of nature change, individuals that

are fittest and most adaptable will survive and evolve

(A) 3’ AGT TGG TGG GTT GGC CCT GGC CAG (C) populations exchange members to converge toward

GCT 5’ one another

(B) 5’ AGT TGG GTC TGA GGC CCT GGC CAG (D) as the organism continues to use a certain part of its

GCT 3’ body, it enlarges or elongates

(C) 3’ AGT TGG TGG TGA GGC GTC GGC CAG

GCT 5’ 38. Which of the following is NOT achieved by the cell

(D) 5’ AGT TGG TGG TGA GGC GTC GGC CAG after cleavage?

GCT 3’ (A) formation of the blastula

(B) increase in cell number

36. The naming of organisms follow the Linneus (C) development of the neural crest

binomial system. Which of the following is the (D) increase in amount of genetic material

CORRECT way of writing the scientific name of

tomatoes? 39. One of the processes that enables cells to harvest the

(A) Lycopersicon Esculentum energy stored in food is cellular respiration. Which of

(B) ​lycopersicon esculentum the following is FALSE?

(C) ​Lycopersicon esculentum (A) it is a catabolic pathway

(D) ​Lycopersicon esculentum (B) it is an anabolic pathway

(C) it is an oxidation - reduction process

37. Biologist Charles Darwin emphasized that evolution (D) it occurs in the mitochondria of cells

can best be explained as a consequence of natural

selection. Which of the following statements 40. The energy pyramid shows the decreasing pattern of

CORRECTLY describes Darwin’s “Natural Selection”? energy from producers to consumers and from one

43
trophic level to another. Producers are placed at the base 43. In the autonomic nervous system, which of the

of the energy pyramid because: following is an effect of the parasympathetic division?

(A) they are used up at a faster rate (A) the trachea widens

(B) they have the most amount of energy available (B) the heart rate increases

(C) they can be found in aquatic and terrestrial (C) the liver is stimulated to release glucose

ecosystems (D) the muscular contractions of the stomach increases

(D) they are capable of producing their own food

44. The germinal layers, which include the ectoderm,

41. If a patient is suffering from retention of too much mesoderm, and endoderm are rudiments from which the

urine, there might be a problem regarding the secretion different organs of the body are derived. The ectoderm

of which hormone? gives rise to the skin epidermis and organs of the

(A) oxytocin nervous system. The mesoderm is considered as the

(B) growth hormone origin of the skeletal muscles and blood vascular system.

(C) antidiuretic hormone The endoderm develops the digestive tracts and glands.

(D) adrenocorticotropic hormone Which of the following organs MOST LIKELY

originated from the mesoderm?

42. The structure of DNA can be described as a double (A) cloaca

strand twisted with one another to form a spiral staircase. (B) pancreas

One chain of DNA contains 16% A, 24% C, 32% T, and (C) hypophysis

28% G. What will be the composition of the (D) vertebral column

complementary strand?

(A) 32% T, 12% G, 16% A, 56% C 45. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder

(B) 32% A, 12% C, 16% T, 56% C in which blood fails to clot properly due to genetic

(C) 16% A, 24% C, 32% T, 28% C mutations. A person with hemophilia may experience

(D) 16% T, 24% G, 32% A, 28% C

44
easy bruising and sudden bleeding. The pedigree vegetation that grow close to the foliage of the acacia

diagram below shows the inheritance of hemophilia tree. This illustrates what type of symbiotic relationship?

(A) predation

(B) mutualism

(C) parasitism

(D) commensalism

47. Uterine contractions force the baby out of the uterus

during labour. What hormone is responsible for this?

(A) prolactin

(B) oxytocin

What would be the possible genotypes and phenotypes (C) luteinizing hormone

of the parents? (D) follicle stimulating hormone

(A) X​H ​Y (normal male) and X​H ​X​h ​(female carrier) 48. Carefully examine the image. What structures are

(B) X​h ​Y (hemophilic male) and X​H ​X​H ​(normal female) common from each animal during the period of

(C) X​h ​Y (hemophilic male) and X​h ​X​h ​(hemophilic development?

female)

(D) X​h ​Y (hemophilic male) and X​H ​X​h ​(female carrier)

46. Bull’s horn acacias have hollow thorns that house

stinging ants of the genus Pseudomyrmex. The ants feed

on sugar produced by nectarines on the tree, sting other

insects, remove fungal spores, and clip the surrounding

45
 I. Tail 49. If a much higher dose of P were administered in a

II. Gill pouches second experiment, which of the following could be

III. Hind legs expected?

IV. Forelimbs (A) the plateau would be reached later than day 6

(B) the plateau would be reached on day 6

(A) I and II only (C) the plateau of the response would be reached sooner

(B) I, II, and III than day 6

(C) I, III, and IV (D) no plateau would be reached

(D) all of the above

50. Based on the graph, it can be deduced that the single

For items 49 and 50, refer to the following information. dose of P used in the trial was

The following graph represents data obtained from a (A) less than enough to elicit the highest possible

group of animals receiving a single daily dose of a drug response

P. A portion of this group was given the dose at day 1 (B) just enough to elicit the highest possible response

and the response was noted. The same number of (C) more than enough to elicit the highest possible

animals were given the dose at day 2, and so on, up to response

day 10. (D) completely eliminated from the body in less than 24

hours

46
TEST B: PHYSICS (C) The vector sum of all forces is zero.

1. What graph represents the condition of a car at full (D) The vector sum of all torques is zero.

stop?

4. What will be the kinetic energy of a 10-kg body that is

dropped from a height of 5 meters (g=10 m/s​2​)

(A) 5J (C) 500J

(B) 50 J (D) 5000J

5. Based on Newton’s Third Law, if the action force on a

falling ball is the earth’s pull on the ball, what is the

reaction force?

(A) Air resistance against the ball

(B) Acceleration of the ball

(C) Weight of the ball

2. The gravitational attraction between two objects
(D) Ball’s pull on the earth
decreases as the objects

(A) Become more massive

6. A 1000-kg car travelling with a speed of 10 m/s runs
(B) Increase their charge
into a 500-kg car which is at rest. The cars then move
(C) Move farther apart
together in the same direction as the 1000-kg car. The
(D) Increase their magnetism
new speed of the car is

(A) 2 ⅔ m/s (C) 6 ⅔ m/s

3. Which of the following is true of a particle when it is
(B) 5 m/s (D) 10 m/s
in equilibrium?

(A) It is at rest.
7. If a ball is thrown upward with an initial speed of 98
(B) Acceleration is constant
m/s, how high can it go?

47
(A) 4,802 m (C) 960.4 m (A) 107.0 cal (C) 1070.0 cal

(B) 980 m (D) 490.0 m (B) 128.4 cal (D) 1284.0 cal

8. A constant volume gas tank has a pressure of 2.0 atm 11. When 200 grams of water is heated from 30°C to

at 273.16 K. If the tank is heated until a pressure of 5.0 70°C the amount of heat it will absorb is

atm is recorded, the final temperature is (A) 8.0 kcal (C) 63 kcal

(A) 136.58 K (B) 46.6 kcal (D) 8000 kcal

(B) 682.90 K

(C) 1365.80 K 12. The ideal efficiency of an engine working between

(D) 2731.60 K two temperatures is given by the equation:

T 1 −T 2
E = T1 × 100%

9. Why does the pressure that a gas exerts on the walls of
its container increase when the volume of the gas is held
constant and its temperature is increased?
(A) The masses of the molecules increase.
(B) The molecules lose more kinetic energy when they
strike the wall.
What should be done to increase the efficiency?
(A) Increase T​2​ but keep T​1​ constant.
(B) Increase T​1​ and T​2​ by the same amount.
(C) Decrease T​1​ and increase T​2​.
(D) Decrease T​2​ but keep T​1​ constant.

(C) The molecules are in contact with the wall for a 13. On a 210-volt circuit, what resistance is necessary to
shorter time. obtain a flow of 15 amperes??
(D) The molecules gain speed and strike the wall more (A) 15 ohms (C) 14.5 ohms
often. (B) 14 ohms (D) 14.2 ohms

10. How much heat is needed to raise the temperature of 14. An example of electromagnetic induction if the
a 100-gram block of aluminum from 10°C to 60°C? production of a
(Specific heat of aluminum = 0.214 cal/g °C) (A) Magnetic field about a conductor carrying a current

48
(B) Force between a magnet and wire where current 18. Which of the following is an accurate conclusion,

flows based on the given data?

(C) Current in a wire due to a changing magnetic field

Substance Index of refraction
(D) Force between two wires carrying electric current Air 1.0003

Water 1.3300

15. If the distance between two charges is doubled, the Gasoline 1.3800

electrostatic force between them is Ordinary glass 1.5000

(A) Increased two times Diamond 2.4200

(B) Increased four times

(A) Light travels fastest in diamond.
(C) Decreased to one-half
(B) Light travels faster in liquid than in gas.
(D) Decreased to one-fourth
(C) Light travels fastest in air.

(D) Light travels fastest in solid.

16. Compared to the speed of light, the speed of sound in

air is
19. As water is poured into a tumbler, a coin placed at
(A) Faster
the bottom seems to rise because of
(B) Slower
(A) reflection (C) dispersion
(C) The same
(B) refraction (D) interference
(D) indeterminable

20. The bending of light rays when travelling at an

17. An object 20 cm in front of a lens forms a virtual
oblique angle between two transparent substances is due
image 10 cm behind the lens. What is the focal length of
to
the lens?
(A) Interference
(A) 25 cm (C) 10.00 cm
(B) Surface tension
(B) 20 cm (D) 6.67 cm
(C) The difference in density of the substances

49
(D) The difference in temperature of the substances moving on the moon 2 seconds after it is dropped from

rest?

21. According to the wave theory of light,light entering (A) 0.33 m/s (C) 3.27 m/s

obliquely a denser medium is bent toward the normal (B) 1.63 m/s (D) 19.60 m/s

because it

(A) Is travelling in a curved space 25. Based on Coulomb’s law, the force ​F between two

(B) Loses total energy particles of charges ​Q1 and ​Q2 separated by distance s

(C) Gains total energy may be expressed as follows:

Q1Q2
(D) Is slowed down F = h s2 , where ​h​ is a constant.

If the distance is reduced to one-half, the force will be

22. Which of the following properties of light differ(s) (A) Decreased to one-half

from one color to another? (B) Decreased to one-fourth

I. Intensity (C) Increased two times

II. Wavelength (D) Increased four times

III. Frequency

(A) I only (C) I and III only 26. A 4-kg object is pulled across the floor by a constant

(B) II only (D) II and III only force of 10 N. If the frictional force is 2 N, the

acceleration of the object is

23. Which particle is emitted when ​70​Ag​106 transforms (A) 3.0 m/s​2 (C) 2 m/s​2

into ​48​Cd​106​? (B) 2.5 m/s​2 (D) 32 m/s​2

(A) Positron (C) Neutron

(B) Electron (D) Proton 27. Which of the following circuit diagrams consisting

of four resistors of equal resistance would result to the

24. If the acceleration due to gravity of the moon is ⅙ the greatest amount of current?

value on earth, how fast will a freely falling stone be

50
 elevator moves upward with a constant acceleration of

0.5 m/s​2​, the reading on the scale is

(A) Equal to zero

(A) (B) Equal to 1078 N

(C) Greater than 1078 N

(D) Less than 1078 N

(B)

30. All of the following are true about weight except

I. It decreases as the object goes above the ground.

II. It decreases as the object moves toward the

ground.
(C)
III. It varies depending on your location.

(A) I only (C) I and III

(B) II only (D) III only

(D)
31. Joy is driving her car and is accelerating. Suddenly,

a small cat crosses the road, which makes her stop the
28. When three resistances of 3 ohms, 5 ohms, and 6
car. Her body is thrown forward, causing her head to
ohms, respectively; are connected in parallel, what is the
bump on the steering wheel as she is not also wearing a
joint resistance?
seatbelt. Which law of motion applies in the situation?
(A) 14.00 ohms (C) 1.428 ohms
(A) Law of Inertia
(B) 1.50 ohms (D) 0.700 ohms
(B) Law of Interaction

(C) Law of Gravitation

29. Jeriza and JP are standing on a scale in an elevator.
(D) Law of Acceleration
Jeriza’s mass is 50 kg while JP’s mass is 60 kg. As the

51
32. A rock falls from a cliff that is 320 m high. How (C) Directed into the page

long will it take the rock to reach the ground? (D) Directed out of the page

(A) 4 s (C) 12 s

(B) 8 s (D) 16 s 36. Mr Andres is pulling his travelling bag with an

applied force of 980 N for a distance of 15 m. He has to

33. Two forces are pulling a box. One is on the left side do that for 20 seconds so that he will be on time for his

with a force of 90 N while the other is on the right side, flight. What is the power rating of Mr. Andres?

with a force of 80 N. What is the resultant force and in (A) 3.27 W (C) 1,306 W

what direction does the box move? (B) 735 W (D) 294,000 W

(A) -10 N, right (C) -170 N, right

(B) 10 N, left (D) 170 N, left 37. A 2,500 kg van moving to the right with a speed of

10 m/s collides with a stationary fod cart that is 1,000

34. If you are farsighted, what type of lens will correct kg. After the collision, the food cart moves 5 m/s.

your vision? Calculate the final velocity of the van.

(A) concave (C) plane (A) 2.5 m/s (C) 8 m/s

(B) convex (D) both A and B (B) 5 m/s (D) 30 m/s

35. A current-carrying wire creates a magnetic field 38. A heater absorbs heat and uses it to warm a house. It

around itself as shown below. In what direction does the does 140 J of work on the pump and delivers the

current flow? remaining 60 J of heat to the house. What is the

efficiency of this engine?

(A) 30% (C) 57%

(B) 43% (D) 70%

(A) Directed to the left

(B) Directed to the right

52
39. Which of the following colors of visible light has the (A) 0.75 V (C) 3.00 V

correct arrangement from lowest to highest energy? (B) 1.33 V (D) 12.0 V

(A) Green, red, violet

(B) Violet, blue, green 43. Two pipes with different diameters are connected.

(C) Red, yellow, indigo Inside the pipes is flowing water. The velocity of water

(D) Indigo, orange, yellow inside the larger pope is 5 m/s, while the velocity of the

water in the smaller pipe is thrice as fast as the larger

40. If 22.54 J of heat is needed to completely melt 0.35 pipe. The cross-sectional area of the smaller pipe is

grams of a substance, what is the latent heat of fusion of 0.0625m2. Calculate the radius of the larger pipe.

the substance? (A) √0.0597 cm (C) √1.6 cm

(A) 6.64x101 J/kg (B) √0.24 cm (D) √2.34 cm

(B) 6.44x104 J/kg

(C) 7.89x10-3 J/kg 44. A particle has the charge -3.20 nC. It is placed in a

(D) 7.89x101 J/kg uniform electric field and experiences a downward force

of 64.32x10​-9 N. What is the magnitude and direction of

41. The isotope Cobalt-57 has a half-life of 272 days. the electric field?

How long does it take for this isotope to decay to about (A) 20.10 N/C upward

one-sixteenth of its original amount? (B) 20.10 N/C downward

(A) 544 days (C) 1,128 days (C) 20.10x10​-9​ N/C upward

(B) 1,088 days (D) 2,176 days (D) 20.10x10​-9​ N/C downward

42. Three resistors of 2Ω, 3Ω, and 4Ω are connected in 45. A car is traveling at a constant speed when an

parallel with a 3-volt battery. A voltmeter is included to ambulance heading towards the same direction passes

measure the voltage across the 4Ω resistor. What will the by. What does the listener inside the car observe as the

voltmeter reading be? ambulance passes by and leaves it behind?

53
(A) An increase in both pitch and intensity of the siren (A) The image is 10 cm in size and is located 30 cm

(B) A decrease in both pitch and intensity of the siren behind the lens

(C) A constant pitch but a decrease in the intensity of the (B) The image is 10 cm in size and is located 20 cm

sound behind the lens

(D) A constant pitch but an increase in the intensity of (C) The image is 20 cm in size and is located 20 cm

the sound behind the lens

(D) The image is 40 cm in size and is located 30cm

46. Which particle (x) is emitted in this nuclear reaction: behind the lens

49. What causes food to cook faster in a pressure cooker

than in an open pot?

(A) positron (C) antineutrino
(A) The increased pressure in the cooker allows water to
(B)electron (D) alpha particle
boil much faster at a temperature lower than 100°C
47. A hypothetical atom has 3 energy levels: the ground
and cooks the food in less time.
level, 2.00 eV, and 5.00 eV above the ground level.
(B) The tight-fitting lid of the pressure cooker keeps the
Which frequency of the spectral lines cannot be emitted
cold from entering so that most of the heat energy
when excited?
applied is used solely for cooking the food.
(h = 4.136x10​-15​ eV·s
(C) The increased pressure in the cooker prevents the
14​ -14​
(A) 4.84x10​ Hz (C) 9.67x10​ Hz
water from boiling immediately and raises its
(B) 7.25x10​14​ Hz (D) 12.1x10​14​ Hz
temperature above 100°C, which cooks the food

faster.
48. A 20 cm object is placed 15 cm in front of a
(D) The tight-fitting lid of the pressure cooker does not
converging lens with a focal length of 10 cm. What is
allow heat to escape, increasing the water pressure,
the height and location of the image created by the lens?
which in turn increases its temperature and cooks the

food in less time.

54
50. What is the total current passing through the circuit

in the figure below?

(A) 0.25 A (C) 1.5 A

(B) 1.0 A (D) 3.0 A

55
TEST C: SOCIAL SCIENCE 4. Which of the following is NOT a concern of the

1. Which of the following persons is most associated hypothalamus?

with behaviourism? (A) balance and coordination

(A) Skinner (B) Freud (B) eating and drinking

(C) James (D) Maslow (C) motivation and emotion

(D) sexual behavior

2. “The whole is still greater than the sum of its parts”

exemplifies which school of thought in Psychology? 5.At which stage of sleep does sleepwalking and sleep

(A) Structuralism talking usually take place?

(B) Functionalism (A) stage 1

(C) Behaviorism (B) stage 2

(D) Gestalt psychology (C) stage 3

(D) stage 4

3. Maria suffers from damage to the cerebellum. She

would most likely suffer from: 6. While sleeping Mang Pablo exhibits repeated periods

(A) respiratory failure of cessation of breathing for 10 seconds or longer. He is

(B) heart failure suffering from:

(C) loss of hearing (A) Hypersomnia

(D) loss of muscle coordination (B) sleep apnea

(C) night terrors

(D) sleep agnosia

7. Which of the following is NOT a stimulant?

(A) caffeine (B) nicotine

(C) amphetamines (D) heroin

56
8. Which of the following drugs would elicit symptoms (A) culture shapes and conditioned the actions and

of cold sweats, vomiting, convulsion, and beliefs of a human being

hallucinations? (B) reason moves man to action

(A) Cocaine (B) LSD (C) biological needs determines man’s acts and beliefs

(C) heroin (D) barbituates (D) free will determines man’s action

9. At what stage does an individual become fit to 12. Racial stratification systems are generally more

function in society? closed than class stratification systems because

(A) during his academic training (A) race is achieved

(B) upon graduation from college (B) race is ascribed

(C) when he starts attending social functions (C) class is achieved

(D) when he learns the accepted norms and practices (D) class is ascribed

10. The concept of socialization refers to the process of: 13. The population of Metro Manila has considerably

(A) learning roles, attitudes, and the corresponding increased in the past decades as a result of natural

behavior proper to a society or group growth and movement of people from the rural areas.

(B) making oneself acceptable to other members of a However, population growth has not been met by an

social group increase of housing facilities, thus resulting in

(C) participating in the activities of a group overcrowding. This discrepancy illustrates the concept of

(D) determining the principles of behavior governing the (A) cultural lag

give-and-take of services in a society (B) culture complex

(C) cultural pluralism

11. The statement “Much of what man does in life, he (D) cultural relativism

does as a cultural being” means that

14. Which of the following best exemplifies innovation?

57
(A) the continuance of old patterns of life 17. Which of the following statements supports the

(B) the introduction of gasoline engines to fishing boats psychoanalytic perspective on the development of the

by a majority of the villagers sense of self?

(C) the acceptance of new ways of farming by a small (A) a child internalizes his parents’ ideas about right and

group of farmers wrong in the form of a superego

(D) the maintenance of good habits and practices (B) self-awareness among infants starts with the

perception that their actions produces a response in

15. The biological theory of human behavior views others

man’s actions as (C) in middle childhood, a child acquires a sense of what

(A) a product of learning people expect from him and where he fits into the

(B) a desire to achieve certain goals overall scheme

(C) a direct consequence of conceptual thought (D) infants whose needs are met consistently and

(D) instinctive and genetically developed warmly acquire a basic sense of trust

16. Which of the following illustrated 18.When a person under stress slips back to an earlier

compartmentalization as a way of reducing conflict? psychosexual level, the process involved is called

(A) a man feels fortunate that he did not marry the girl (A) fixation

who rejected him (B) reversion

(B) a manager is domineering to his employees but (C) regression

subservient to his wife (D) identification

(C) a worker joins a labour union that can negotiate for

his welfare 19. A learned predisposition to respond to people,

(D) a husband takes a different route to avoid drinking objects, or institutions in a positive or negative way is

with his gang (A) norm (B) belief

(C) attitude (D) stereotype

58
20. Which of the following expresses the central theme (B) displacement

of Maslow’s Theory of Motivation? (C) rationalization

(A) man is basically controlled by his instincts (D) reaction formation

(B) man must first satisfy his basic needs

(C) human motives are directed towards extrinsic goals 24. A person who dislikes gaming weight but loves to

(D) human behavior is cognitively determined eat is experiencing

(A) approach - avoidance conflict

21. The shadow archetype of Carl Jung is analogous to (B) approach - approach conflict

the (C) avoidance - avoidance conflict

(A) id of Freud (D) external - internal conflict

(B) meta-need of Maslow

(C) social interest of Adler 25. In a farming village, the boys usually grow up into

(D) reinforcement of Skinner men who have strong physique, are skilled in

agriculture, and behave according to the village customs.

22. The humanistic approach to motivation holds that One particular boy, however, had a drunkard for a father

men are motivated who often mistreated him. He grew up very much like

(A) to seek the truth the other boys but developed a strong reaction to

(B) towards self-actualization authority. Based on this case, it can be said that the

(C) by their instincts potential of an individual are shaped and modified

(D) to seek positive reinforcement (A) by common as well as unique experiences

(B) through maturation and learning

23. A person who, after having been fired from his job, (C) by vicarious experiences

says that the job was not a good one anyway, is (D) by unique experiences more than by common ones

exhibiting

(A) projection

59
26. “Give me a dozen healthy infants, well-formed, and (D) one way of doing things is as good as another

my own specific world to bring them up in, and I’ll

guarantee to take any one at random and train him to 29. Closeness, nearness, similarity, and continuation are

become any type of specialist I might select.” WHich categories of

view does this quotation assert? (A) cognitive style

(A) the instinct theory of human development (B) perceptual integration

(B) environmental determinism (C) perceptual organization

(C) biological determinism (D) cognitive organization

(D) the Freudian theory of socialization

27. According to Freud’s structural theory of mental

functioning, which of the following is (are) the main

source(s) of biological energy that express(es) itself in

the instinctual drives of a person?

(A) Id 30. A boy’s drawing of a house on a hill is shown above,

(B) Ego Based on Piaget;s stages of cognitive growth, it would

(C) Libido be LEAST difficult for the child to tell

(D) All of the above (A) stories about his parents

(B) that he has a brother and that his brother has a

28. Which of the following statements adequately brother

describes cultural relativism? (C) that a basketball seen from afar has the same size as

(A) all cultures are equally good when he is holding it

(B) culture can be evaluated according to the standard of (D) that the amount of milk will not change when poured

the observer from one glass to another of different shape

(C) each culture must be valued on its own terms

60
31. Which of the following situations indicate an (A) A vegetarian had to eat pork because there was

open-class society? nothing else to eat.

I. A member of the minority group becomes the (B) A Visayan girl became fluent in Tagalog after a few

president of a big business enterprise. years stay in Manila.

II. An outcast was put to death for trying to approach a (C) A modern Chinese woman no longer followed the

member of the ruling class. practice of binding her feet because of its impracticality.

III. A son inherits the lowly job of his father in spite of (D) A child whose parents were very strict grew up to be

his superior talent and interest in another occupational shy and withdrawn.

field.

IV. A boy from the elite group marries the girl he loves 34. Which of the following is NOT true of the

from the working class. relationship among members of large secondary groups?

(A) Primary relations tend to persist in the form of

(A) I and III only intimate cliques.

(B) I and IV only (B) There is emphasis on the efficiency by which people

(C) I, II, and III only accomplish their jobs.

(D) II, III, and IV only (C) It is unlikely that every member is aware of every

other member.

32. Any human action which is considered sufficiently (D) The goal is to provide for the personal needs of the

out of the ordinary so as to be regarded as unique or members.

unprecedented is a(an)

(A) deviant act (B) diffusion 35. Archaeologists have found evidence to show the

(C) innovation (D) invention widespread use of local pottery wares throughout the

Philippines during the later part of the New Stone Age.

33. Which instance supports the notion that culture is This would imply that prehistoric Filipinos must have

learned? (A) already discarded their use of stone tools

61
(B) developed new ways of preparing food (C) preoperational level

(C) discovered clay deposits throughout the country (D) formal operational level

(D) had enough food and water receptacles for their

needs 39. Under relaxed circumstances, most people remember

uncompleted tasks better than they do completed tasks.

36. If one could influence the bending of a metal rod by This is known as the

merely thinking about it, this would be an example of (A) von Restorff effect

(A) clairvoyance (B) psychokinesis (B) Zeigarnik effect

(C) precognition (D) telepathy (C) Greenspoon effect

(D) Muller-Lyer illusion

37. Mark is a young man who tends to withdraw from

others. He has flight of ideas and often shows 40. A child is conditioned to fear a furry black cat. Soon,

inappropriate affect. He claims to hear voices calling she becomes fearful of any black object. This response is

him "Jesus – The Savior." Most probably, Mark is an example of

exhibiting symptoms of (A) negative transfer

(A) affective disorder (B) spontaneous recovery

(B) generalized anxiety (C) operant conditioning

(C) panic reaction (D) stimulus generalization

(D) schizophrenia

41. According to the behaviorists, phobias are learned

38. According to Piaget's stages of cognitive growth, an through

adult who makes decisions based on what fortune-tellers (A) desensitization

tell him is functioning at the (B) modeling

(A) operational level (C) classical conditioning

(B) sensorimotor level (D) operant conditioning

62
42. Which of the following statements reflects a (C) muslims immediately recognize a mosque by the

functionalist understanding of the family? crescent and star above it

(A) the family is composed of a father, a mother, and at (D) food preparation among Kapampangans is passed

least one child down across generations

(B) the family is source of genes from which the human

species evolves 45. What is the fundamental task of social institutions in

(C) the family is the site of different interests that are any society?

usually in a state of conflict (A) socialization of new members

(D) the family ensures the continuance of a society (B) protection of members from harm

through reproductive and socialization of children as (C) provision of meaningful activities for members

new members of the society (D) distribution of resources to members

43. What do you call the societies that trace kinship 46. A behaviorist and a biopsychologist were discussing

descent through fathers? attraction and love. Which of the following would you

(A) matrilineal most likely hear from their conversation?

(B) matrilocal (A) Behaviorist: Love is a choice; Biopsychologist: Love

(C) patrilineal stems from unconsciousness

(D) patrilocal (B) Behaviorist: love happens when you are rewarded;

Biopsychologist: love is a matter of remembering good

44. Which of the following descriptions illustrates that experiences

culture is based on a system of shared symbols? (C) Behaviorist: love is due to the pleasant consequences

(A) tribes tend to use the same set if tools for agriculture that happen in a relationship; Biopsychologist: love is

(B) urban women tend to use the same methods of child due to increasing levels of dopamine

rearing

63
(D) Behaviorist: love happens because of pheromones; Which of the following conditions would the symptoms

Biopsychologist: love is needed to survive and adapt in be more likely associated with?

the environment (A) low dopamine (B) high dopamine

(C) low GABA (D) high GABA

47. A mother trained her children to follow the curfew

hours. Whenever they do not follow, their cell phones 49. RJ started to drive his car and after some time, he

would be confiscated and they would see the phones heard an annoying sound in his car. He immediately

placed inside a red paper bag. Because of this, whenever stopped and put on his seatbelt. Suddenly, the sound

the red paper bag is present, they anticipated that one of stopped. This _____ prompted him to always put his

them will have to give up his/her cell phones for a week, seatbelt on.

If they follow the curfew hours, however their mother (A) positive reinforcement

would cook their favorite snacks for a week. What is the (B) negative reinforcement

conditioning applied in this situation? (C) positive punishment

(A) establishment of curfew hours as part of house rules (D) negative punishment

(B) following curfew hours and enjoying the use of cell

phones 50. Which of the following could be the focus of a study

(C) association between the red paper bag and a on the influences of nature on prenatal development?

confiscated cell phone (A) similarities among monozygotic twins separated at

(D) confiscation of cell phone for rule breaking and birth

cooking snacks for following the rule (B) similarities between dizygotic twins separated at

birth

48. Lately, Jan, a stage play actor, tends to forget her (C) differences among monozygotic twins separated at

lines. She seems unable to focus and concentrate. She is birth

having a hard time getting up each morning. She could (D) differences among dizygotic twins separated at birth

not explain to her co-actors how less motivated she is.

64
TEST D: CHEMISTRY 6. What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO​4​?

1. What isotope is used in the treatment of cancer? (A) +7 (C) +3

(A) Cobalt 60 (C) Chromium (B) +5 (D) -7

(B) Tritium (H​3​) (D) Iron 59

7. When NaCl is added to an aqueous solution of

2. Atoms of a given element that differ from one another substance B, a precipitate is formed. Substance B must

in atomic mass are called be

(A) isomers (C) isotopes (A) PbCO​3 (C) K​2​CO​3

(B) isobars (D) allotropes (B) BaSO​4 (D) AgNO​3

3. If the [H​+​] concentration of a solution is 1.0 x 10​=5​, 8. A reaction between magnesium metal and oxygen gas

then its pH is is classified as

(A) 1 (C) 9 (A) replacement reaction

(B) 5 (D) 10 (B) decomposition reaction

(C) composition reaction

4. A sample of gas occupies 31.5 liters at 18ºC and 780 (D) ionic reaction

torr. What will its volume be if the temperature is kept

constant but the pressure is changed to 78 torr? 9. Which of the following contains the greatest number

(A) 3,250 L (C) 3.150 L of neutrons?

(B) 315 L (D) 0.315 L (A) 112​

​ Cd​48 (C) 112​
​ Ag​47

(B) 114​
​ Cd​48 (D) 114​
​ Ag​47

5. Abnormal properties of water such as great

cohesiveness and high boiling point can be attributed to

(A) ionic bond (C) covalent bond

(B) hydrogen bond (D) coordinate bond

65
10. Cobalt 60 has a half-life of 5.27 years. If 200 grams 13. Which halogen acid can exist in polymeric form due

of Co-60 was placed in a storage vault and was opened to the intermolecular H-bonding that it exhibits?

after 31.62 years, how much of the Co-60 will be left? (A) 3HF (C) HBr

(A) 6.250 g (C) 25 g (B) HCl (D) HI

(B) 3.125 g (D) 100 g

14. A student wants to prepare 500 mL of 6 N HCl from

11. What is the total number of p-electrons in the the concentrated HCl solution, which is 12 N. What

electronic configuration of a phosphorous atom with an volume of concentrated acid does he need?

atomic number of 15? (A) 500 mL (C) 50 mL

(A) 3 (C) 9 (B) 250 mL (D) 25 mL

(B) 5 (D) 10

15. What is the molality of the solution if 36 g of NaCl is

2Al + 3Cl​2​ → 2AlCl​3 dissolved in 100 g of water? (Atomic weights: Na = 23;

12. Based on the equation, what is the maximum amount Cl = 35.5)

of aluminum chloride that can be produced by the (A) 6.16 molal (C) 0.616 molal

reaction of 75 grams of aluminum with 75 grams of (B) 5.20 molal (D) 0.520 molal

chlorine gas?

(A) 96.253 g 16. What is the [H​+​] in a 0.0050 M solution of NaOH?

(B) 95.000 g (A) 5 x 10​-3 (C) 2 x 10​12

(C) 94.286 g (B) 2 x 10​-3 (D) 5 x 10​-12

(D) 93.450 g

66
 The choice of buffer system is determined by the
Compound K​sp

PbS 3.4 x 10​-28 Henderson-Hasselbalch equation which is shown below

CdS 3.6 x 10​-29
FeS 3.7 x 10​-19
CoS 7.0 x 10​-23

19. In the above equation, proton acceptor refers to the

17. The table above gives the solubility-product constant
concentration of
of four compounds. If saturated H​2​S is added to a
(A) a weak acid
solution containing 0.1 mole each of Cd​2+​, Fe​2+​, Pb​2+​,
(B) the salt of a weak acid
and Co​2+ ions in a liter of solution, which of these ions
(C) a protonated component
will be precipitated first as sulfide?
(D) any of these
(A) Pb​2+ (C) Fe​2+

(B) Cd​2+ (D) Co​2+

20. To prepare an efficient buffer, the pK value of the

weak acid component should be

18. In which of the following instances does nuclear
(A) higher than the pH desired
fission occur?
(B) much lower than the pH desired
(A) The combination of two light nuclei
(C) close to the desired pH
(B) The splitting of a single heavy nucleus
(D) adjustable to a wide range of pH
(C) The splitting of a single light nucleus

(D) The combination of two heavy nuclei

21. When current is passed through an aqueous solution

of MgCl​2​, which of the following reactions takes place in

In items 19 and 20, refer to the following information:
the anode?

(A) 2Cl​-​ → Cl​2​ + 2e

Preparation of a buffer is necessary when an in vitro
(B) Mg​++​ + 2e → Mg​o
system has to be maintained at a certain favorable pH.
(C) MgCl​2​ → Mg​++​ + 2Cl​-

(D) Cl​2​ + 2e → 2Cl​-

67
 Composition: C = 53.3%, H = 11.1%, O = 35.6% (C) CH​3​C==O
|
22. The percentage composition of an unknown CH​3

compound is given above. Which of the following is the (D) CH​3​CH​z​C==O

|
empirical formula of the compound? (Atomic weights: C H

= 12. H = 1, O = 16)
26. Hardness of water may be determined by the use of
(A) C​2​H​5​O (C) C​2​H​5​OH
(A) EDTA
(B) CH​3​OH (D) C​4​H​8​O
(B) Lucas reagent

(C) anhydrous CaCl​2

23. What is the equivalent weight of KMnO​4 if the
(D) anhydrous CuSO​4
permanganate ion is reduced to Mn​++​? (Atomic weights:

K = 39, Mn = 55, O = 16)

27. If ​25​X​57 undergoes a beta emission to produce ​Z​Y​A the
(A) 55 (C) 79
values of A and Z, respectively, are
(B) 60 (D) 158
(A) 57 and 26

(B) 57 and 25
24. The direction of heat transfer from one substance to
(C) 58 and 24
another is determined by
(D) 58 and 26
(A) temperature (C) energy

(B) calorie (D) BTU

25. A compound reduces Benedict’s Reagent and is

oxidized in an acid. If its molecular formula is C​3​H​6​O,

what is the structure of this compound?

(A) CH​s​==CH—O—CH​s

(B) CH​2​==CHCH​s​—OH

68
 Structure Ionization Constant (K​b​)

CH​3​CH​2​NH​2 4.7 x 10​-4

CH​3​NH 5.1 x 10​-4

|
CH​3

CH​3​NH​2 4.4 x 10​-4

NH​3 1.8 x 10​-5

28. In the above illustration of a thin layer of 30. Based on the table above, which compound is the
chromatographic plate for amino acids, the unknown ​X is most acidic?
most probably a mixture of (A) CH​3​CH​2​NH​2
(A) ​K​ and ​L (C) ​K a​ nd ​M (B) CH​3​NH
|
(B) ​L​ and ​M (D) ​K​, ​L​, and ​M
CH​3

(C) CH​3​NH​2
29. Which process occurs when a compound with double
(D) NH​3
bonds undergo a chemical reaction?

(A) Substitution (C) Photolysis

31. How many molecules of oxygen are required for
(B) Addition (D) Neutralization
each molecule of carbon dioxide formed in the

combustion of ethyl alcohol (C​2​H​5​OH)?

(A) 0.670

(B) 1.500

(C) 9.033 x 10​23

(D) 12.044 x 10​23

69
32. Using Markovnikov’s rule in the hydration of (B) As the particles move faster, kinetic energy

alkenes, what is the product of CH​3​CH​2​CH​2​CH==CH​2 + increases

HI? (C) Temperature is described as the heat content of

(A) CH​3​CH​2​CH​2​CHICH​3 particles

(B) CH​3​CH​2​CH​2​CH​2​CH​2​I (D) There are no attractive forces or repulsive forces

(C) CH​2​ICH​2​CH​2​CH​2​CH​3 between gas particles

(D) CH​3​CHICH​2​CHI​2​CH​3

36. Arrange the following in order of increasing ionic

33. Lithium carbonate is a compound used to treat radius: Kr, K​+​, F​-​, O​2-​, Ba​2+

schizophrenia. Its chemical formula is _____. (A) Kr < F < O​2-​ < K​+​ < Ba​+

(A) LiCO (C) Li​3​CO​3 (B) O​2-​ < F​1​ < Kr​-​ < K​+​ < Ba​2+

(B) Li​2​CO​2 (D) Li​2​CO​3 (C) Ba​2+​ < K​+​ < Kr < F​-​ < O​2-

(D) F​+​ < O​2-​ < K​+​ < Ba​2+​ < Kr

34. Sugar is one of the biomolecules in our body. It

provides energy. What type of carbohydrate do fructose 37. What is the name of the organic compound below?

and sucrose belong, respectively?

(A) disaccharide ; polysaccharide

(B) disaccharide ; oligosaccharide

(C) monosaccharide ; disaccharide

(D) monosaccharide ; polysaccharide

(A) 5,6-diethyl-5-nonen-2-yne
35. The behavior of gases can be explained by the
(B) 4-ethyl-3-heptene-2-butyne
Kinetic Molecular Theory. Which of the following is ​not
(C) 4-ethyl-3-propyl-3-octene-6-octyne
explained by this theory?
(D) 5-ethyl-6-propyl-5-octene-2-octyne
(A) Particles of a gas collide with each other

70
38. Specific heat is the amount of heat needed to raise 40. Refer to the chemical reaction below. Which of the

the temperature of a given mass of substance by 1ºC. In following elements is oxidized?

the table below are four substances with different Fe​2​O​3(s)​ + 2 Al​(s)​ → 2 Fe​(s)​ + Al​2​O​3(s)

specific heat capacities. (A) O (C) Fe

(B) Al (D) None of the choices

Substance Specific Heat Capacity

A 4.2

B 0.53 41. Nucleic acids are molecules that contain the

C 1.8 information needed for cellular growth and reproduction.

D 3.5 Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) contains all the genetic

information. It is made up of millions of nucleotides.

Which of the following statements is ​correct​?
What makes up a nucleotide?
(A) Substance A cools faster than substance B
(A) sugar and a nitrogenous base
(B) Substance B cools faster than substance D
(B) sugar, nitrogenous base, and sulfate
(C) Substance C cools faster than substance B
(C) sugar, nitrogenous base, and phosphate
(D) Substance D cools faster than substance C
(D) sugar, nitrogenous base, and carboxylic acid

39. Triglyceride can either be fat or oil. Fats or oils in

42. In the reaction below, the entropy change of the
our body are good sources of heat. They are formed
system (∆S) is negative. Why is this so?
because of the formation of ester bonds between _____.
CaO​(s)​ + CO​2(g)​ → CaCO​3(s)
(A) a fatty acid and a phosphate group
(A) Because the number of moles of gaseous
(B) a fatty acid and a long-chain alcohol
compound is increased after the reaction
(C) fatty acids and glycerol containing three-OH
(B) Because the total number of moles of gaseous
(D) fatty acids and glycerol, sphingosine and a sugar
compound CO​2​ is diminished

(C) Because there is no net change in the total

number of CO​2​ gas molecule

71
 (D) The sign of the amount of entropy change 45. Sugar can either be composed of an aldehyde or a

cannot be determined by given reaction ketone group. What kind of sugar is shown below?

43. According to Le Chatelier’s Principle, if a system at

equilibrium is disturbed, which means a stress is applied,

the system will react in a way that will restore it to a new

equilibrium state. Study the chemical reaction below.

H​2​ + I​2​ + 20J → 2 HI

An increase in temperature will shift the reaction

towards the _____.

(A) reactant (C) still in equilibrium

(A) aldohexose (C) ketohexose
(B) product (D) cannot be determined
(B) aldopentose (D) ketopentose

44. Determine the normality of 5 M of sulfuric acid.

46. Refer to the reaction below.
(Atomic weights: H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)
C​3​H​8​ + O​2​ → CO​2​ + H​2​O
(A) 7 N (C) 9 N
If 30 g of propane (C​3​H​8​) reacts with 20 g of oxygen,
(B) 8 N (D) 10 N
how much carbon dioxide will be produced?

(A) 16.5 g CO​2 (C) 35.0 g CO​2

(B) 47.4 g CO​2 (D) 0.6 mol CO​2

72
47. Isomers are molecules that have the same molecular 49. The function of protein relies on its structure. When

formula but different in structure and properties. the natural structure of protein is altered, it is said to be

Enantiomer is a type of isomer. Which of the following denatured. Which of the following is ​not considered as a

is the enantiomer of the molecule shown below? denaturing agent?

(A) heat (C) organic solvent

(B) ultraviolet rays (D) none of the choices

50. Which of the following is the ​most ​soluble amine in

water?

(A) butylamine (C) pentylamine

(B) hexylamine (D) methylamine

48. All kinds of chemical reactions can be expressed as

rate law. The rate law of chemical reaction 2 NO + O​2 →

2 NO​2​ is

(A) Rate = k[NO​2​]​2​[NO]​2

(B) Rate = k[NO​2​]​2​/[O​2​]

(C) Rate = k[NO]​2​[O​2​]

(D) Rate = k[NO]​2​[O​2​]/[NO​2​]

73