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12TH Class Chapter Wise QP 2022-23-1
12TH Class Chapter Wise QP 2022-23-1
12TH Class Chapter Wise QP 2022-23-1
SECTION B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are
very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19 Equimolal solutions of NaCl and BaCl2 are prepared in water. Freezing point of NaCl is found to be
– 20C, What freezing point do you expect for BaCl2 solution?
20 Write down four important points of differences between an ideal and a non-ideal solution.
OR
Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in a solution containing 30% by mass of
it in CCl4.
21 What do you mean by Raoult’slaw ? What are the limitations of Raoult’s law ?
OR
How many types of azeotropes are there? Define them along with one example of each.
22 Plot a graph between vapour pressure and mole fraction of a solution obeying Raoult’s Law at
constant temperature?
23 A mixture of chlorobenzene and bromobenzene is a nearly an ideal solution but a mixture of
chloroform and acetone is not Explain?
24 What is the molality of 1.0 M solution of sodium nitrate (NaNO 3) if its density is 1.25 g cm-3?
25 The vapour pressure of water is 12.3 kPa at 300K; calculate the vapour pressure of 1 molar
solution of a solute in it.
SECTION C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions
are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
26 Miscible liquid pairs often show positive and negative deviation from Raoult’s law. Explain the
reason for such deviation? Give one example of each of liquid pairs.
27 A solution containing 18 g of non-volatile solute in 200g of water freezes at 272.07 K. calculate the
molecular mass of solute (given Kf = 1.86 K/m)
OR
Calculate the osmotic pressure at 270C of a solution formed by mixing equal volumes of two
solutions, one containing 0.05 mole of glucose in 250 ml of solution and the other containing
3.42 g of C12H22O11 in 250 ml of solution. [R = 0.082 L atm mol-1K-1]
28 An aqueous solution freezes at 272.4 K while pure water freezes at 273 K. Determine (i) Molality of
solution. (ii) Boiling point of solution (iii) Lowering of vapour pressure of water at 298 K.
29
The element A and B formed purely covalent compounds having molecular formula AB2 and AB4.
When dissolved in 20 gram of benzene 1 gram of AB2 lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K and of
AB4 by 1.3 K. Calculate atomic mass of A and B. The molar depression constant for freezing is
5.1 KKg mol-1
30
An aqueous solution of 2% non-volatile solute exerts a pressure of 1.004 bar at the normal
boiling point of the solvent. What is the molar mass of the solute? (Vapour pressure of pure
water at the boiling point (P0) = 1 atm = 1.013 bar)
OR
Explain the following colligative properties in brief under the following head: (Definition, Graphical
representation and related mathematical expression)
SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries
4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
31. Osmotic pressure results from a reduction in the chemical potential of a solvent in the presence
of a solute. The tendency of a system to have equal cemical potentials over its entire
volume and to reach a state of lowest free energy gives rise to the osmotic diffusion of matter. In
ideal and dilute solutions, the osmotic pressure is independent of the nature of the solvent and
solutes. At constant temperature it is determined only by the number of kinetically active partic
les—ions, molecules, associated species, and colloidal particles in a unit volume of the solution.
For very dilute solutions of nondissociating compounds, osmotic pressure is described with
sufficient accuracy by the equation πV = nRT, where n is the number of moles of solute, V is the
volume of the solution, R is the universal gas constant, and T is the absolute temperature. The
following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer
(i) Name and define the process/method which is used for purification of water?
(ii) Which colligative property is most suitable to measure molecular mass of proteins and why? (iii)
200 cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26 g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of
such a solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10-3 bar. Calculate the molar mass of the protein.
OR
A solution contains 0.8960g of K2SO4 in 500ml solution. Its osmotic pressure is found to be
0.690atm at 270C. Calculate the value of Van’t Hoff factor. (K=39.0, S=32, O=16, R=0.082atm mol-
1K-1)
32. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
[Ans: 1 (b), 2 (b), 3 (b), 4 (a), 5 (b), 6 (c), 7 (a), 8 (d), 9 (b), 10 (b), 11 (b), 12 (d), 13 (c), 14 (b), 15 (a), 16
(b), 17 (a), 18 (a)]
SECTION B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are
very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19 Equimolal solutions of NaCl and BaCl2 are prepared in water. Freezing point of NaCl is found to be
– 20C, What freezing point do you expect for BaCl2 solution? Ans: i for NaCl = 2 and i for BaCl2 = 3 ,
(ΔTf)NaCl / (ΔTf)BaCl2 = 2/3
(ΔTf)BaCl2 = 3 X 2 /2 = 30C So that Tf for BaCl2 = - 30C
20 Write down four important points of differences between an ideal and a non ideal solution. Ans:
Ideal Solution Non-Ideal Solution
Follows Raoult’s law at all temperature and Does not follow Raoult’s law at all temperature
concentrations. P = PA + PB and pressure. P ≠ PA + PB
OR
Calculate the mole fraction of benzene in a solution containing 30% by mass of
it in CCl4.
Ans: Mass of benzene =30g
Mass of CCl4 =70g
Molar mass of benzene= 78 g
Molar mass of CCl4= 154g mol-1
n C6H6=30g/78g=0.385mol
nCCl4=70g/154g=0.454mol
X C6H6= nC6H6/nC6H6 + nCCl4 =0.385 mol /0.385mol + 0.454mol = 0.459
21 What do you mean by Raoult’slaw ? What are the limitations of Raoult’s law ? Ans.
Raoult’s law – partial vapour pressure of any volatile component of a solution at any
temperature is equal to the product of vapour pressure of the pure component and
mole fraction of the component in solution.
25 The vapour pressure of water is 12.3 kPa at 300K; calculate the vapour pressure of 1 molar
solution of a solute in it.
Ans: 1 molar solution = 1mol/1000 g of H2O (assuming solution to
diluted) Mole fraction of solute = 1/1+55.5 = 0.0177
P0-Ps / P0 = X2 so 12.3- Ps/12.3 =
0.0177
Therefore Ps = 12.08 kPa SECTION C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions
are short answer type and carry 3 marks each.
26 Miscible liquid pairs often show positive and negative deviation from Raoult’s law. Explain the
reason for such deviation? Give one example of each of liquid pairs.
Ans:
Miscible liquid pairs often show positive and negative deviation from Raoult’s law are called non
ideal solutions. Explanation of the reason of such deviations is as follows:
Negative deviation Positive deviation
(i) The vapour pressure of solution is (i) The vapour pressure of solution is
lower than that of an ideal solution of the higher than that of an ideal solution of the
same composition. same composition.
(ii) A negative deviation is executed by (ii) A negative deviation is executed by
liquid pairs for which A-B molecular liquid pairs for which A-B molecular
interaction forces are stronger than the A-A interaction forces are weaker than the A-A
and B-B molecular interaction forces. This and B-B molecular interaction forces. This
means that molecules of A and B will find it means that molecules of A and B will find it
difficult to escape from a solution than from easier to escape from a solution than from
the pure components. This will result in the pure components. This will result in
decrease in vapour pressure which is known as increase in vapour pressure which is known
–ve deviation. as +ve deviation.
Eg. Acetone + Chloroform Eg. Ethanol + Cyclohexane
Intermolecular force of interaction between:
Acetone – Acetone, Diople dipole interaction Intermolecular force of interaction between:
Chloroform – Chloroform, Diople dipole Ethanol – Ethanol, H- Bonding Cyclohexane
interaction – Cyclohexane, London dispersions
Acetone – Chloroform, H- Bonding (Stronger Ethanol – Cyclohexane (Weaker than above
than above two) two)
27 A solution containing 18 g of non-volatile solute in 200g of water freezes at 272.07 K. calculate the
molecular mass of solute (given Kf = 1.86 K/m)
Ans. W2 = 18 g W1= 200g, kf = 1.86k/m Tf= 273K – 272.07K = 0.93K
M2 = = 180 amu
OR
Calculate the osmotic pressure at 270C
of a solution formed by mixing equal volumes of two
solutions, one containing 0.05 mole of glucose in 250 ml of solution and the other containing
3.42 g of C12H22O11 in 250 ml of solution. [R = 0.082 L atm mol-1K-1] Ans:
0.05 3.42
= CRT = (C1 + C2) RT = [ 1000 + ] .082 300 = 0.59112 atm (Ans)
250 342
28 An aqueous solution freezes at 272.4 K while pure water freezes at 273 K. Determine (i) Molality of
solution. (ii) Boiling point of solution (iii) Lowering of vapour pressure of water at 298 K.
Ans:
Given: Kf = 1.86 K Kg mol -1. Kb = 0.512 K Kg mol -1, V.P.of
pure water at 298 K = 23.756 mm Hg.
Tf 0.6 0.32mol / Kg
Solution: (i) ΔTf = Kf m Therefore m = = =
Kf 1.86
(ii) ΔTb = Kb m = 0.512 x 0.32 = 0.164 Therefore Tb = 373 + 0.164 = 373.16 K (iii)
∆P = P0.m.MA= 23.756 x 0.32 x 0.018 = 0.137 mm Hg.
29
The element A and B formed purely covalent compounds having molecular formula AB2 and AB4.
When dissolved in 20 gram of benzene 1 gram of AB2 lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K and of
AB4 by 1.3 K. Calculate atomic mass of A and B. The molar depression constant for freezing is
5.1 KKg mol-1
Ans:
Solution: MB = Kf WB 1000
Tf WA
5. 5.
Case 1: MAB2 = =110.87 g/mol Case 2: MAB4 = =196 g/mol
Now 2B = AB4 – AB2 = 196 – 110.87 = 85.13 g/mol, Therefore B = 42.56 g/ mol
Now A = AB2 – 85.13 = 25.74 g/ mol.
30 An aqueous solution of 2% non-volatile solute exerts a pressure of 1.004 bar at the normal
boiling point of the solvent. What is the molar mass of the solute? (Vapour pressure of pure
water at the boiling point (P0) = 1 atm = 1.013 bar) Ans:
Vapour pressure of the solution at normal boiling point (p1) = 1.004 bar
Vapour pressure of pure water at normal boiling
Mass of solute, (w2) = 2 g
Mass of solvent (w1) = 98 g mol-1
Molar mass of solvent (water),(M1)=18 g According to
Raoult’s law,
= 41.35 g mol−1
OR
Explain the following colligative properties in brief under the following head: (Definition,
Graphical representation and related mathematical expression) 1.
Elevation of boiling point 2. Depression of freezing point
Elevation of Boiling Point: ΔTb m [molality]
Difference between boiling ΔTb = Kb m
of solution containing non Kb=Molal Elevation Constant
volatile solute and B.P. of (Ebullioscopic Constant).
pure solvent is called The unit of Kb is K kg mol-1
elevation of B.P. ΔTb = Tb – Tob
Depression of Freezing ΔTf m [molality]
Point: ΔTf = Kfm
Difference in freezing point Kf =Molal Depression Constant
of pure solvent and freezing (Cryoscopic Constant).
point of solution is called The unit of Kf is K kg mol-1
‘Depression in Freezing
Point’.
ΔTf = T0f – Tf
Ans:
SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries
4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
31. Osmotic pressure results from a reduction in the chemical potential of a solvent in the presence
of a solute. The tendency of a system to have equal cemical potentials over its entire
volume and to reach a state of lowest free energy gives rise to the osmotic diffusion of matter. In
ideal and dilute solutions, the osmotic pressure is independent of the nature of the solvent and
solutes. At constant temperature it is determined only by the number of kinetically active partic
les—ions, molecules, associated species, and colloidal particles in a unit volume of the solution.
For very dilute solutions of nondissociating compounds, osmotic pressure is described with
sufficient accuracy by the equation πV = nRT, where n is the number of moles of solute, V is the
volume of the solution, R is the universal gas constant, and T is the absolute temperature. The
following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer (i)
Name and define the process/method which is used for purification of water?
Ans: Reverse Osmosis which is defined as: When an excess pressure greater than the osmotic
pressure is applied on solution, the solvent flows out of the solution. This phenomenon is known as
reverse osmosis.
(ii) Which colligative property is most suitable to measure molecular mass of proteins and why?
Ans: Osmotic pressure. This is because all measurements in osmotic pressure method are done at
room temperature and biomolecules are stable only at room temperature.
(iii) 200 cm3 of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26 g of the protein. The osmotic
pressure of such a solution at 300 K is found to be 2.57 × 10-3 bar. Calculate the molar mass of the
protein.
Ans. The various quantities known to us are as follows: Π = 2.57 × 10–3 bar,
V = 200 cm3 = 0.200 litre T = 300 K R = 0.083 L bar mol-1 K-1
Π = CRT = n x RT/V (n = W2/M2), Π = W2/M2 X RT/V
Therefore M2 = W2/ Π X RT/V Substituting values:
M2 = 1.26 g × 0.083 L bar K−1 mol−1 × 300 K / 2.57×10−3 bar × 0.200 L
= 61,022 g mol-1
OR
A solution contains 0.8960g of K2SO4 in 500ml solution. Its osmotic pressure is found to be
0.690atm at 270C. Calculate the value of Van’t Hoff factor. (K=39.0, S=32, O=16, R=0.082atm mol-
1K-1)
0.
MB == 63.9
32. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions have an internal
choice.
33. (i) Two liquids A and B on mixing form an ideal solution. At 300C vapour pressure of solution
containing 3 mol of A and 1 mol of B is 550 mmHg. But when 4 mol of A and 1 mol of B are mixed.
The vapour pressure of solution thus formed is 560 mm Hg. What would be the V.P of pure A and
B?
(ii) Explain the fact that Raoult’s Law is a special case of Henry’s Law
Ans (i)
Acetic acid is a weak electrolyte and will dissociate into two ions: acetate and hydrogen
Ans (b) Van’t Hoff factor is defined as the ratio of normal molar mass to the abnormal molar mass of
solute when dissolved in water. Its value for Association is < 1, for dissociation is >1 and for neither
association nor dissociation = 1
34. (a) What is meant by abnormal molar mass of solute? Discuss the factors which bring abnormality in
the experimentally determined molecular masses of solutes using colligative properties.
(b) If N2 gas is bubbled through water at 293 K, how many millimoles of N 2 gas would dissolve in 1
litre of water. Assume that N2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.987 bar. Given that Henry’s law constant
for N2 at 293 K is 76.48 kbar.
Ans: (a) The molecular mass obtained with the help of colligative property sometimes is different
from normal molecular mass, it is called abnormal molecular mass. The factors which bring
abnormality are:
Association: When the solute molecules undergo association, the number of particles becomes less
and molecular mass determined with the help of colligative property will be more.
Dissociation: It leads to increase in number of particles, therefore, increase in colligative property,
therefore, decrease in molecular weight because colligative property is inversely proportional to
molecular weight.
Ans: (b)The mole fraction of the gas in the solution is calculated by applying Henry’s law.
Thus: x(Nitrogen)=p(nitrogen)/KH=0.987bar/76,480bar=1.29×10-5
As 1 litre of water contains 55.5 mol of it, therefore if n represents no. of moles of N 2in solution
x(Nitrogen) = n mol/ n mol + 55.5 mol =n/55.5= 1.29 x 10-5
Thus n = 1.29 × 10–5 × 55.5 mol = 7.16 × 10–4 mol
=7.16×10−4 mol × 1000 millimoles /1 mol = 0.716 millimoles
OR
(a) What will happen when Red Blood Cell are placed in 0.5% NaCl Solution?
(b) The vapour pressure of solvent gets lowered, when a non- volatile solute is added to it. Why?
(c) What is de-icing agent? How does it work?
(d) What do you understand by the term that Kf for water is 1.86 K Kg mlo-1?
(e)The molecular mass of a solute is 120 g/mol and van’t Hoff factor is 4. What is its abnormal molecular
mass?
Ans (a) RBC’s will swell due to endosmosis.
Ans (b) When a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent, the surface area for escape of solvent
molecules decreases and vapour pressure gets lowered.
Ans (c) Common salt is called de-icing agent as it lowers the freezing point of water to such an
extent that it does not freeze to form ice. Thus, it is used to clear snow from roads. Ans (d) It
means that the freezing point of water is lowered by 1.86 K when 1 mole of a nonvolatile
solute is dissolved in 1000 g of water.
Ans (e)Abnormal molecular mass = Normal Molar Mass/ van’t Hoff factor = 120/4 = 30 g/mol
35. (a) Why is glycol and water mixture used in car radiators in cold countries?
(b) Give reason When 30 ml of ethyl alcohol and 30ml of water are mixed, the volume of resulting
solution is more than 60ml.
(c) Define cryoscopic constant?
(d) State (i) Azeotropes and (ii) Henry’s Law constant.
Ans (a): Ethylene Glycol reduces the freezing point of water. Due to this, the coolant in radiators will
not freeze.
Ans (b): Solution of water and ethyl alcohol shows positive deviation and hence 𝛥𝑉>0
Ans (c): It is the depression in freezing point when 1 mole of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 1000 g
of solvent.
Ans (d) (i) Azeotropes are constant boiling mixture of two or more liquids having same composition
of the components in liquid as well as in vapour phase.
(ii) Henry’s Law states that at a constant temperature the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly
proportional to the pressure of the gas.
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2022-23)
CHEMISTRY THEORY (043) ELECTROCHEMISTRY
M.M:70 Time:3 Hours
General instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are very
short answer type and carry 2 marks of each.
19. The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm-1. Calculate its molar
conductivity.
20. How much charge is required for the following reduction of
(i) 1 mol of Al3+ to Al
(ii) 1 mol of MnO4- to Mn2+
OR
How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce?
SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and
carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
31. Molar conductivity for weak electrolytes can be obtained from molar conductivities of strong
electrolytes at infinite dilution by doing algebraic addition. For example ,molar conductivity of weak
electrolyte like CH3COOH can be obtained from molar conductivities at infinite dilution of strong
electrolytes like CH3COONa , HCl and NaCl according to Kohlrauch’s law
Λ°m CH3COOH = [Λ°mCH3COO- + Λ°mNa+]+[ Λ°mH++ Λ°mCl-]-[ Λ°m Na+ + Λ°mCl-] (i)
What is the expression of Λ°m for an electrolyte AmBn ?
(ii) Define limiting molar conductivity.
(iii) Calculate Λ°m for AgCl if Λ°m (AgNO3) = 133.4, Λ°m(KCl)=149.9, Λ°m(KNO3)=144.9
Scm2mol-1
OR
Calculate Λ°m for HAc if Λ°m (HCl) = 425.9, Λ°m(NaCl)=126.4, Λ°m(NaAc)=91.0 Scm2mol-1
32. The standard electrode potentials are very important and we can extract a lot of useful information
from them. If the standard electrode potential of an electrode is greater than Zero then it’s reduced
form is more stable compared to hydrogen gas. Similarly, if the standard electrode potential is
negative than hydrogen gas is more stable than the reduced form of the species. It can be seen that
the standard electrode potential for Fluorine is the highest indicating that F 2 gas has the maximum
tendency to get reduced to Fluoride ion F- and therefore Fluorine gas is the strongest oxidizing agent
and Fluoride ion is the weakest reducing agent.
(i) Which element can act as the strongest reducing agent?
(ii) How cell potential can be measured?
(iii) Which electrode can work as anode in galvanic cell?
(iv) Find out E°Cell for Zn/Zn2+(0.1M//Cu2+(0.10M)/Cu
[given E°Zn2+/Zn and E°Cu2+/Cu are -0.76 V and +0.34 V respectively]
OR
Write cell reaction for the above galvanic cell and mention cathode and anode.
SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions have an internal
choice.
33. a. Why does the cell voltage of a mercury cell remain constant during its life time ?
b. Write the reaction occurring at anode and cathode and the products of electrolysis of aq
KCl.
c. What is the pH of HCl solution when the hydrogen gas electrode shows a potential of -0.59
V at standard temperature and pressure?
OR
a. Molar conductivity of substance “A” is 5.9×103 S/m and “B” is 1 x 10-16 S/m. Which of the two is
most likely to be copper metal and why?
b. What is the quantity of electricity in Coulombs required to produce 4.8 g of Mg from molten
MgCl2? How much Ca will be produced if the same amount of electricity was passed through molten
CaCl2?
(Atomic mass of Mg = 24 u, atomic mass of Ca = 40 u).
c. What is the standard free energy change for the following reaction at room temperature? Is the
reaction spontaneous?
Sn(s) + 2Cu2+ (aq) ---- Sn2+ (aq) + 2Cu+ (s)
(ii)Three electrolytic cells A, B, C containing solutions of ZnSO 4 , AgNO3 and CuSO4 respectively are
connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through them until 1.45 g of silver
deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current flow? What mass of copper and zinc were
deposited?
35. The molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L-1 methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm2mol- . Calculate its degree of
dissociation and dissociation constant. Given = 349.6 S cm2mol-1
and
OR
(a) Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction takes place.
Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq) →Zn2+(aq) + 2Ag Further show: (i) Which of the electrode is negatively charged? (ii)
The carriers of the current in the cell.
(iii) Individual reaction at each electrode.
(b) A solution of Ni (NO3)2 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5
amperes for 20 minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode?
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (2022-23)
CHEMISTRY THEORY (043) ELECTROCHEMISTRY
MARKING SCHEME SECTION –A
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. A
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. C
14. C
15. A
16. A
17. D
18. B
19. SECTION-B
K= 0.0248 Scm-1
c = 0.20 M
Therefore, Molar conductivity,
24.
, it is given that pH = 10
Therefore, = 10 – 10M
Now, using Nernst equation:
25. When the battery is in use, the following cell reactions take place:
At anode:
At cathode:
= – 2 × 96487 × 1.10
= – 21227 J mol – 1
= – 21.227kJ mol – 1
SECTION D
31. (i) mΛ°An+ + nΛ°Bm-
(ii) Limiting molar conductivity is the molar conductivity at infinite dilution or at zero
concentration
(iii) Λ°mAgCl = (Λ°mAgNO3 + Λ°mKCl) - Λ°m KNO3
(133.4+149.9)-144.9
= 138.45 Scm2 mol-1
OR
Λ°mHAc = (Λ°mNaAc + Λ°mHCl) - Λ°m NaCl
(91.0+425.9)-
126.4 = 390.5
Scm2 mol-1
SECTION E
33. The cell potential remains constant during its life as the overall reaction does not
involve any ion in solution whose concentration can change during its life time.(1)
OR
a. “A” is copper, metals are conductors thus have high value of conductivity. (1) b.
Mg2+ + 2e- ---- Mg
1 mole of magnesium ions gains two moles of electrons or 2F to form 1 mole of Mg
24 g Mg requires 2 F electricity
4.8 g Mg requires 2 x4.8/24 = 0.4 F = 0.4 x96500 = 38600C (1)
Ca2+ + 2e-----Ca
2 F electricity is required to produce 1 mole =40 g Ca
0.4 F electricity will produce 8 g Ca (1) c.
F = 96500C, n=2,
Sn (aq) + 2e– → Sn(s)
2+ –0.14V
Cu2+(aq) + e- Cu+ (aq) 0.34 V
Therefore, Time
= 863.6 s
= 864 s
= 14.40 min Again,
C of charge deposit = 63.5 g of Cu
35. C = 0.025mol/L
= 349.6 + 54.6 =
Now, degree of dissociation:
= 0.114 (approximately)
Thus, dissociation constant:
OR
a. The galvanic cell in which the given reaction takes place is depicted as:
b. Given,
Current = 5A
Time = = 1200 s
Therefore,
= 6000 C
According to the reaction,
(i) A first order reaction has a rate constant k=3.01 x 10 -3 /s. How long it will take to decompose
half of the reactant?
(ii) The rate constant for a first order reaction is 7.0 x 10 -4 s-1. If initial concentration of reactant is
0.080 M, what is the half-life of reaction?
(iii) The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1 s-1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol L-1 s-1 at 20
minutes after initiation. The half life of the reaction?
(iv)The plot of t1/2 vs initial concentration [A]0 for a first order reaction .
32. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
A first-order reaction can be defined as a chemical reaction for which the reaction rate is entirely
dependent on the concentration of only one reactant. In such reactions, if the concentration of the
firstorder reactant is doubled, then the reaction rate is also doubled.
The following reaction, A(g)⟶ΔP(g)+Q(g)+R(g)A(g)⟶ΔP(g)+Q(g)+R(g) follows first order kinetics. The
half-life period of this reaction is 69.3 s at 500°C. The gas A is enclosed in a container at 500°C and at a
pressure of 0.4 atm.
Answer the following question: - (i)
The rate constant for the reaction.
(ii) The total pressure of the system after 230 s will be.
(iii) Give an example of first order reaction.
(iv) The plot of ln[A] vs t graph is.
Section-E
33. (a) The rate of the chemical reaction doubles for an increase of 10 K in absolute
temperature from 298 K. Calculate .
(b) Explain collision frequency.
Or
During nuclear explosion, one of the products is with half-life of 28.1 years. If of was
absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead of calcium, how much of it will remain after 10 years
and 60 years if it is not lost metabolically.
34. The activation energy for the reaction is at
581K. Calculate the fraction of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or greater than activation
energy?
Or
In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction was measured for different initial
concentrations of A and B as given below:
Experiment
Initial rate of formation of
I 0.1 0.1
II 0.3 0.2
III 0.3 0.4
IV 0.4 0.1
Determine the rate law and the rate constant for the reaction.
Marking Scheme
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. D
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. D
17. A
18. D
19.
For zero order reaction [R]=[R]0−kt
For completion of the reaction [R] = 0
t = [R]0k
21.
Rate of reaction Rate constant of reaction
It is the speed average the reaction It is constant of proportionality in the
are converted into the product at any rate law expression.
moment of time.
If t = 0 and [A] = [A]0, where [A]0 is the initial concentration of the reactant.
Then equation (ii) becomes
-ln[A]0 = I ……………. (iii)
Substitute the value of I in equation (ii)
-ln[A] = Kt – ln[A] ln[A]0
– ln[A] = Kt
This is called integrated rate equation for the first order reaction.
Or
30.
(a) In order that the reactants may change into products, they have to cross an energy
barrier as shown in the diagram
This diagram is obained by plotting potential energy vs. reaction coordinate. It is believed
that when the reactant molecules absorb energy, their bonds are loosened and new bonds
are formed between them. The intermediate complex thus formed is called activated
complex. It is unstable and immediately dissociates to form the stable products.
• (ii) 990 s
(iv)
We get:
.
(b) The collision frequency is defined as the average rate at which two reactants
collide in the given system. The number of collisions per second per unit volume
of the reaction mixture is known as collision
frequency. Or
Here,
It is known that,
Therefore, of
will remain after 10 years.
Again,
T = 581 K
Now, the fraction of molecules of reactants having energy equal to or greater than
activation energy is given as:
In
=18.8323 Now,
x = Anti log (18.8323)
= Anti log
Or
Let the order of the reaction with respect to A be x and
with respect to B be y.
Therefore, ]
……….(i)
……….(ii)
…………(iii) Dividing
equation (i) by (ii), we obtain
y=0
Dividing equation (iii) by (ii), we obtain
= 1.496
= 1.5 (approximately)
Hence, the order of the reaction with respect to A is 1.5 and with respect to B is zero.
Therefore,
However, it is given that the reaction is of zero order.
Therefore,
Therefore, the rate of production of
. is
Or
Let the order of the reaction with respect to A be x and with respect to B be y.
Therefore, rate of the reaction is given by,
……….(iii)
……….(iv)
Dividing equation (iv) by (i), we obtain
x=1
Dividing equation (iii) by (ii), we obtain
y=2
Therefore, the rate law is
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question
carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
Q1 Which one of the following is diamagnetic ion?
(a) Co2+
(b) Ni2+
(c) Cu2+
(d) Zn2+
Q2. The number of unpaired electrons in gaseous species of Mn3+, Cl3+ and V3+ respectively are
and the most stable species is
(a) 4, 3 and 2; V3+
(b) 3, 3 and 2; Cr3+
(c) 4, 3 and 2; Cr3+
(d) 3, 3 and 3; Mn3+
Q3. Fe3+ ion is more stable than Fe2+ ion because
(a) more the charge on the atom, more is its stability
(b) configuration of Fe2+ is 3d6 while Fe3+ is 3d5
(c) Fe2+ has a larger size than Fe3+
(d) Fe3+ ions are coloured hence more stable
Q4. Colour of transition metal ions are due to absorption of some wavelength. This results in (a)
p-p transition
(b) f-f transition
(c) s-p transition
(d) d-d transition
Q5. What happens when potassium iodide reacts with acidic solution of potassium dichromate?
(a) It liberates iodine
(b) Potassium sulphate is formed
(c) Chromium sulphate is formed
(d) All the above products are formed
Q6. The melting point of copper is higher than that of zinc because
(a) copper has a bcc structure
(b) the atomic volume of copper is higher
(c) the electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding
(d) the ‘s’ as well as ‘d’ electrons of copper are involved in metallic bonding Q7 .Which of the
following pairs of ions have the same electronic configuration?
(a) Cu2+, Cr2+
(b) Fe3+, Mn2+
(c) Co3+, Ni3+
(d) Sc3+, Cr3+
Q .8Which of the following element is used in treatment of cancer?
(a) Th (b) U (c) Pu (d) Np
Q 9 Among the following pairs of ions, the lower oxidation state in aqueous solution is more
stable than other, in
(a) Tl+,Tl3+
(b) Cu+,Cu2+
(c) Cr2+,Cr3+
(d) V2+, VO2+
Q10 Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(b) La is actually an element of transition series rather than Lanthanoids
(c) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf is same
(d) In Lanthanoid series, the ionic radius of Lu3+ is smallest
Q11 Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the
correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
(a) [Xe] 4f 75d16s2
(b) [Xe] 4f 65d26s2
(c) [Xe] 4f 86d2
(d) [Xe] 4f 95s1
Q12. Among the following actinoide pairs, the maximum oxidation states is shown by
(a) U and Np
b) Np and Pu
c)Pu and Th (d)U
and Pa
Q13 Cerium (Z=58) is an important member of lanthanoids. Which of the following statements
about cerium is incorrect
(a) The common oxidation state of cerium are +3 and +4.
(b)The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than +4 oxidation state.
(c)The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions.
(d) Cerium(IV) acts as an oxidizing agent.
Q14. Although Zirconium belongs to 4 d transition series and Hafnium to 5 d transition series
even then they show similar physical and chemical properties because .
(a) both belong to d-block.
(b) both have same number of electrons ( c) both have similar atomic
radius.
(d) both belong to the same group of the periodic table.
Q15Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of
metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds?
(a)They have high melting points in comparison to pure metals.
(b)They are very hard
(c)They retain metallic conductivity.
(d)They are chemically very reactive
Q16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion ( A) : Reactivity of transition elements decreases almost regularly from Sc to Cu.
Reason (B) : There is regular increase in I. E. across the series.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Q17. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Assertion(A)
: KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in acidic, basic or neutral medium.
Reason(R) : It oxidises ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below: a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Q18 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 4.
Assertion(A) : Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution.
Reason(R) : Large value of I.E. of Cu is compensated by much more negative hydration energy of
Cu2+ ( aq).
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below: a. Both A and R are true
and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
SECTION B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19. Explain the following:
(a) The enthalpies of atomization of transition metals are quite high. (b) The
transition metals and many of their compounds act as good catalysts 20.
How would you account for the following?
(i) The highest oxidation state of a transition metal is usually exhibited in its oxide.
(ii) The oxidising power of the following three oxoions in the series follows the order:
VO+2<Cr2O7−2< MnO−4
OR
Describe the general trends in the following properties of the first series (3d) of the transition
elements:
(i) Number of oxidation states exhibited
(ii) Formation of oxometal ions
21.Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its
reaction with (i) iodine (ii) H2S.
OR
What is Mischmetal and write its composition. Also write its uses.
22. Explain the following observations:
(a) Silver atom has completely filled d-orbitals (4d10) in its ground state, yet it is regarded as a
transition element.
(b) E0value for Mn3+ /Mn2+ couple is much more positive than Cr3+/Cr2+.
23. a) Which metal in the first transition series (3d series) exhibits +1 oxidation state most
frequency and why?
(b) Which of the following cations are coloured in aqueous solutions and why? SC 3+, V3+, Ti4+,
Mn2+.
(At. nos. Sc = 21, V = 23, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)
24. Write one similarity and one difference between the chemistry of lanthanoids and that of
actinoids.
Q31. The transition elements have incompletely filled d-subshells in their ground state or in any
of their oxidation states. The transition elements occupy positions in-between s- and pblocks in
groups 3-12 of the Periodic table. Starting from the fourth period, transition elements consist of
four complete series: Sc to Zn, Y to Cd and La, Hf to Hg and Ac, Rf to Cn. In general, the electronic
configuration of outer orbitals of these elements is (n – 1)d1–10 ns0– 2. The electronic
configurations of outer orbitals of Zn, Cd, Hg, and Cn are represented by the general formula (n –
1)d10 ns2. All the transition elements have typical metallic properties such as high tensile
strength, ductility, malleability. Except for mercury, which is liquid at room temperature, other
transition elements have typical metallic structures. The transition metals and their compounds
also exhibit catalytic property and paramagnetic behavior. Transition metal also forms alloys. An
alloy is a blend of metals prepared by mixing the components. Alloys may be homogeneous solid
solutions in which the atoms of one metal are distributed randomly among the atoms of the
other.
i)Which of the following characteristics of transition metals is associated with higher catalytic
activity?
(a) High enthalpy of atomization
(b) Variable oxidation states
(c) Paramagnetic behavior
(d) Colour of hydrated ions
ii) Transition elements form alloys easily because they have (a)
same atomic number
(b) same electronic configuration
(c) nearly same atomic size (d) same oxidation
iii)The electronic configuration of tantalum (Ta) is
(a) [Xe]4f 05d16s2
(b) [Xe]4f 14 5d2 6s2
(c) [Xe]4f14 5d36s2
(d) [Xe]4f14 5d4 6s2 iv)Which one of the following outer orbital configurations may exhibit the
largest number of oxidation states?
(a) 3d54s1
(b) 3d54s2
(c) 3d24s2
(d) 3d34s2
OR
iv) The correct statement(s) among the following is/are
(i) all d- and f-block elements are metals (ii) all d-
and f-block elements form coloured ions (iii) all d-
and f-block elements are paramagnetic.
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q32 Transition metal oxides are compounds formed by the reaction of metals with oxygen at
high temperatures. The highest oxidation number in the oxides coincides with the group
number. In vanadium, there is a gradual change from the basic V2O3 to less basic V2O4 and to
amphoteric V2O5 V2O4 dissolves in acids to give VO2+ salts. Transition metal oxides are
commonly utilized for their catalytic activity and semiconductive properties. Transition metal
oxides are also frequently used as pigments in paints and plastic. Most notably titanium dioxide.
One of the earliest applications of transition metal oxides to the chemical industry involved the
use of vanadium oxide for catalytic oxidation of sulfur dioxide to sulphuric acid. Since then, many
other applications have emerged, which include benzene oxidation to maleic anhydride on
vandium oxides; cyclohexane oxidation to adipic acid on cobalt oxides. An important property of
the catalyst material used in these processes is the ability of transition metals to change their
oxidation state under a given chemical potential of reductants and oxidants.
i) Which oxide of vanadium is most likely to be basic and ionic?
(a) VO
(b) V2O3
(c) VO2
(d) V
SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions have an
internal choice.
33. The elements of 3d transition series are given as:
Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu, Zn Answer the
following:
(i) Write the element which shows maximum number of oxidation states. Give reason. (ii) Which
element has the highest m.p.?
(iii) Which element shows only +3 oxidation state?
(iv) Which element is a strong oxidizing agent in +3 oxidation state and why?
OR
i) Name the element of 3d transition series which shows maximum number of oxidation states.
Why does it show so?
(ii) Which transition metal of 3d series has positive E0(M2+/M) value and why?
(iii) Out of Cr3+ and Mn3+, which is a stronger oxidizing agent and why?
(iv) Name a member of the lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +2 oxidation state.
(v) Complete the following equation: MnO4–+ 8H++ 5e–
34. (a) Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from chromite ore. What is the effect
of change of pH on dichromate ion?
(b) How is the variability in oxidation states of transition elements different from that of
nontransition elements? Illustrate with examples.
OR
(a Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate
(b)Complete the following reactions
(i) MnO4 (aq) + S2O32-(aq) + H2O (l) →
MARKING SCHEME
SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY CLASS-XII
S. MARKS
NO.
1. (d) Zn2+ 1
7. (b)Fe3+,Mn2+ 1
8. (a) Th 1
9. (b) Cu+,Cu2 1
16. a 1
17. b 1
18. a 1
19. 1+1=2
Ans: (a) In transition elements, there are large number of unpaired electrons in their
atoms, thus they have a stronger inter atomic interaction and thereby stronger bonding
between the atoms. Due to this they have high enthalpies of atomization.
(b) Because of the availability of d-orbitals, they can easily form intermediate products
which are activated. The sizes of transition metal atoms and ions are also favourable for
transition complex formation with the reactants
20.
Ans: (i) The highest oxidation state of a metal is exhibited in its oxide or fluoride due to its
high electronegativity, low ionisation energy and small size.
(ii) As oxidation number of metal atom in metal oxide increases, oxidising power increases
OR
Ans: (i) The number of oxidation states increases upto middle of series i.e. unto +7 and
then decreases.
(ii) Oxometal ions are polyatomic ions with oxygen. Example : VO 2+, VO+2, TiO2+
OR
Mischmetal is an alloy of lanthanum. Composition: Lanthanoid metal (95%), Iron (5%) and
traces of C,S, Ca and Al.
22. 1+1
a) Because silver has incomplete d-orbital (4d9) in its +2 oxidation state, hence it is a
transition element.
(b) The large positive E° value for Mn3+/Mn2+ shows that Mn2+ is much more stable than
Mn+3 due to stable half-filled configuration (3d5). Therefore the 3rd ionisation energy of Mn
will be very high and Mn3+ is unstable and can be easily reduced to Mn2+. E° value for Cr3+ |
Cr2+ is positive but small i.e. Cr3+ can also be reduced to Cr2+ but less easily. Thus Cr3+ is more
stable than Mn3+.
OR
(a) In transition elements, there are large number of unpaired electrons in their
atoms, thus they have a stronger inter atomic interaction and thereby stronger bonding
between the atoms. Due to this they have high enthalpies of atomization.
(b) Because of the availability of d-orbitals, they can easily form intermediate products
which are activated. The sizes of transition metal atoms and ions are also favourable for
transition complex formation with the reactants.
23. 1+1
(a) Copper exhibits + 1 oxidation state more frequently i.e., Cu+1 because of its electronic
configuration 3d104s1. It can easily lose 4s1electron to give stable 3d10 configuration.
(b) SC3+ = 4S03d3+ = no unpaired electron
V3+ = 3d24s0= 2 unpaired electron
Ti4+ = 3d04s0= no unpaired electron Mn2+
= 3d54s0= 5 unpaired electron
Thus V3+ and Mn2+ are coloured in their aqueous solution due to presence of unpaired
electron.
24. 2
Ans: Similarity : Both lanthanoids and actinoids show contraction in size and irregularity
in their electronic configuration.
Difference: Actinoids show wide range of oxidation states but lanthanoids do not
26
(i) Due to lanthanoid contraction in second series after lanthanum, the atomic
radii of elements of second and third series become almost same and hence show 1+1+1
similarities in properties.
(ii) The electronic configuration of Mn2+ ion is more symmetrical as compared to
that of Cr2+ ion. So 3rd ionisation potential of Mn2+ is much higher. As a result E° value
of Mn3+/ Mn2+ couple is much more positive than for Cr3+/Cr2+ couple.
(iii) The highest oxidation state of a metal is exhibited in its oxide or fluoride due
to its high electronegativity
27. (i) Cr2+ has the configuration 3d4 which easily changes to d3due to stable half filled t2g
orbitals. Therefore Cr2+ is reducing agent. While Mn2+ has stable half filled d5configuration.
Hence Mn3+ easily changes to Mn2+ and acts as oxidising agent. 1+1+1
(iii) Due to the presence of unpaired electrons in d-orbital, transition metal exhibits
colours in aqueous solution or due to d-d transition
28. . Lanthanoid contraction: Steady decrease in thesize of the lanthanoids with increase in the
atomic number
across the period. The electrons of 4f orbitals offer imperfect / poor shielding effect in the
same subshell. 1+2
Consequence:
i) Due to this 5d series elements have nearly same radii as that of 4d series.
ii) Decrease in the basic strength from La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3. iii) Due to similar
atomic size there is difficulty in separation of lanthanides.
29. : (i) The variability of oxidation state of transition elements is due to incompletely filled d 1+1+1
orbitals as ns, and (n – 1) d electrons have very less energy difference.
(ii) Co2+ ion is easily oxidised to Co3+ ion in presence of a strong ligand because of its
higher crystal field energy which causes pairing of electrons to give inner orbital complexes
(d2sp3).
(iii) Actinoids because of very small energy gap between 5f, 6d and 7s subshells all their
electrons can take part in bonding and shows variable oxidation states.
30
(i) Mn
(ii) Sc 1+1+1
(iii) Zn
OR
(i) The catalytic properties of the transition elements are due to the presence of
unpaired electrons in their incomplete d- orbitals and variable oxidation states. The colour
of transition metal ions is due to d-d transition. When electrons jump from one orbital to
another in their partially filled d-orbitals, another light is emitted due to which the
compounds of transition elements seem to be coloured
(ii) MnO is basic while Mn2O7 is acidic because the basic nature decreases as the
oxidation state or number of oxygen atoms increases i.e. MnO (+4) and Mn 2O7 (+7) (b)
Divalent ion with atomic number 26 is Fe2+
31,2 c
31.3
31.4 b or a
1+1+1+1
32 32.1 a
32.2.a
32.3 .b
32.4 .c or a
33
: (i) Mn shows, maximum number of oxidation states upto +7. It has the maximum
number of unpaired electrons.
(ii) Cr has the highest melting point. (iii)
5
Sc shows only +3 oxidation state
iv) Mn is a strong oxidizing agent in +3 oxidation state because after reduction it attains +2
oxidation state in which it has the most stable half-filled (d5) configuration
OR
: (i) Mn has the maximum number of unpaired electrons present in the d-subshell (5
electrons). Hence, Mn exhibits the largest number of oxidation states, ranging from +2 to
+7. (ii) Copper has positive E0(Cu2+/Cu) value because of its high enthalpy of atomization
and low enthalpy of hydration. The high energy required to oxidise Cu to Cu2+ is not
balanced by its hydration energy.
(iii) Cr2+ has the configuration 3d4 which easily changes to d3due to stable half filled t2g
orbitals. Therefore Cr2+ is reducing agent, it gets oxidized to Cr3+. While Mn2+ has stable
half filled d5configuration. Hence Mn3+ easily changes to Mn2+ and acts as oxidising
agent. (iv) Eutropium is well known to exhibit +2 oxidation state.
(v) MnO4–+ 8H++ 5e– → Mn2+ + 4H2O
34. a) Potassium dichromate is prepared from chromate by reacting chromite ore with Na2CO3 5
OR
Ans: Potassium Permangante (KMnO4) is prepared from pyrolusite ore (MnO2). The ore
(MnO2) is fused with an alkali metal hydroxide like KOH in the presence of air or an
oxidising agent like KNO3 to give dark green potassium manganate (K2MnO4).
K2- From pyrolusite ore
I. Conversion of pyrolusite ore into potassium manganate
II. Conversion of potassium manganate to potassium permanganate Following
reactions take place:-
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2 K2MnO4 + 2H2O
b) (i) Because of increase in effective nuclear charge and weak shielding effect
of d electrons, the atomic radii decreases.
(ii) The E°M2+/M for any metal is related to the sum of the enthalpy changes taking
place in the following steps :
M(g) + ΔaH → M(g) (ΔaH = enthalpy of atomization)
M(g) + ΔiH → M2+(g) (ΔiH = ionization enthalpy) 1X5
M2+(g) + aq → M2+(aq) + ΔhydH (ΔhydH = hydration enthalpy)
Copper has high enthalpy of atomization (i.e. energy absorbed and low enthalpy of
hydration (i.e. energy released). Hence E°M2+/M for copper is positive. The high energy
required to transform Cu(s) to Cu2+(aq) is not balanced by its hydration enthalpy.
(iii) The large positive E° value for Mn3+ | Mn2+ shows that Mn2+ is much more stable
than Mn3+ due to stable half-filled configuration (3d5). Therefore the 3rd ionization energy
of Mn will be very high and Mn3+ is unstable and can be easily reduced to Mn2+. E° value
for Fe3+ | Fe2+ is positive but small i.e. Fe3+ can also be reduced to Fe2+ but less easily.
Thus Fe3+ is more stable than Mn3+
OR
(a) This is because transition elements have strong metallic bonds as they have large
number of unpaired electrons, therefore they have greater interatomic overlap
ii) In some cases, the transitions metal provides a suitable large surface area with free
valencies on which reactants are adsorbed
(c) E°(M2+/M) values are not regular in the first transition series metals because of
irregular variation of ionization enthalpies (IE1 + IE2) and the sublimation energies.
(d) ) Among transition elements, the bonds formed in +2 and +3 oxidation states are
mostly ionic. The compounds formed in higher oxidation states are generally formed by
sharing of d-electrons. Therefore, Mn can form MnO4- which has multiple bonds also,
while fluorine cannot form multiple bonds.
(e) The absence of unpaired d-electron in Sc3+ whereas in Ti3+ there is one unpaired
electron or Ti3+ shows the d-d transition.
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA (Ahmedabad Region)
CLASS: XII
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
SAMPLE PAPER FOR COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
(a)[Cr(H2O)6] 3+
(b) [Fe(H2O)6] 2+
(c) [Cu(H2O)6] 2+
(d) [Zn(H2O)6] 2+
8. The complex ion which has no d-electrons in the central metal atom is 1
(a) [MnO4]–
(b) [Co(NH3)6]3-
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3- (d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation 1
for Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct
explanation for Assertion
17 Assertion: Chelates are less stable than ordinary coordination compounds. Reason: 1
Chelates can be formed by bidentate ligands.
SECTION : B
19 On the basis of crystal field theory,write the electronic configuration for d4 ion if Δo 2
>P.Explain
20 When a coordination compound CrCl3.6H2O is mixed with AgNO3 ,2 moles of AgCl are 2
precipitated per mole of the compound. Write structural formula & IUPAC name of
the complex.
OR
Or
22. The formula Co(NH3) 5CO3Cl could represent a carbonate or chloride. Write structures 2
and names of possible isomers.
24. What is crystal field splitting energy? What are the various factors affecting CFSE. 2
25. What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand 2
and a strong field ligand.
SECTION :C
26 a.Which complex ion is formed when undecomposed AgBr is washed with hypo 1+2
solution in photography?Give reaction.
27 A complex is prepared by mixing CoCl2 and NH3 In the molar ratio of 1:4, 0.1M 3
solution of this complex was found to freeze at -0.372°c. what is the formula of the
complex ? Given that molal depression constant of water (kf)=1.86c/m
28. a.Calculate the over all complex dissociation equilibrium constant for the[ 2+1
cu(NH3)4]2+ ion , given that β for this complex is 2.1 x(10)13?
b. Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN) 4] 2- ion.
Or 1.5+1.5
SECTION :D
31 Read the given passage and answer the questions that follows. Negative ion or 1+1+2
Neutral molecule which bound to the metal ion by secondary valency is called as
ligand. In complex , metal ion acts as Lewis acid and ligand act as Lewis base. Ligands
are classified according to number of electron pair in them. The ligand which can
donates one e pair to the metal atom is called Unidentate ligand . The ligand which
can donate two electron pair to the Metal ion is called didentate ligand. The ligand in
which two or more coordination sites are there is called polydentate ligand. 75
Polydentate ligand forms cyclic structure with metal ion and form Chelate.
(iii) As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex [Co(H 2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is
SECTION :E
33 (a) Account for the different magnetic behavior of hexacyanoferrate (III) and 2+3
hexafluoroferrate (III).
(b) (i) What type of isomerism is shown by the complex [Cr (H2O)6]Cl3 ?
(ii) On the basis of CFT , write the electronic configuration for d4 ion if Δ0 > P .
Or 2+3
a.(i) Write down the IUPAC name of the following complex :
[Cr(NH3)2CI3(en)]Cl (en = ethylenediamine)
(ii) Write the formula for the following complex : Pentaamminenitrito-o-Cobalt (III)
b.Define the following terms;
( b) Hetroleptic complex (
c) Coordination sphere
OR
a. Compare the following complexes with respect to their shape, magnetic behaviour 1.5+2+
and the hybrid orbitals involved : 1.5
(i) [CoF4]2-
(ii) [Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2]–
(iii) [Ni(CO)4] (Atomic number : Co = 27, Cr = 24, Ni = 28)
35 For the complex [Fe(en)2Cl2], Cl, (en = ethylene diamine), identify ½+1+
(i) the oxidation number of iron,
(ii) the hybrid orbitals and the shape of the complex, 1/2+1+
(iii) the magnetic behaviour of the complex, 1+1
(iv) the number of geometrical isomers,
(v) whether there is an optical isomer also, show and
(vi) name of the complex. (At. no. of Fe = 26)
OR
3+2
a. With proper diagram explain crystal field splitting for octahedral complexes.
b. What are t2g and eg orbitals ? Explain.
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA (Ahmedabad Region)
CLASS: XII
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
MARKING SCHEME SAMPLE PAPER FOR COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
1. (d) [NiCl4]2- 1
3. (b) 2 1
5. (c) tetradentate 1
7. (b) 1
8. (a) [MnO4]– 1
15 (B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for 1
Assertion
16 (A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for 1
Assertion.
SECTION : B
19 On the basis of crystal field theory,write the electronic configuration for d4 ion if Δo >P 2
T2g4 eg0
OR
vacant antiformed.
21 Let us consider a general reaction: 2
M+4L ⇔ ML4
1
Stability depends upon: charge on central metal and strength of ligands Or
(ii) Ambidentate ligand: The monodentate ligands with more than one coordinating
atoms is known as ambidentate ligand. Monodentate ligands have only one atom capable
of binding to a central metal atom or ion. For example, the nitrate ion NO2– can bind to
the central metal atom/ion at either the nitrogen atom or one of the oxygen atoms.
Example : — SCN thiocyanate, — NCS isothiocyanate
22. The formula[ Co(NH3) 5CO3]Cl Pentaamminecarbanatocobalt(III)chloride 1
23. In [Co(NH3)6]3+ Co is in +3 state and has configuration 3d6. In the presence of NH3, 3d 2
electrons pair up leaving two d-orbitals empty. Hence, the hybridization is d2sp3 forming
and inner orbital complex. In [Ni(NH3)6]2+, Ni is in +2 state and has configuration 3d8. In
presence of NH3, the 3d electrons do not pair up. The hybridization is sp3d2 forming an
outer orbital complex.
24. In a free transition metal ions, all the five d-orbitals are degenerate but when it is involved 1
in a complex formation , the degeneracy is split, This is called CFSE.
There are the following factors that affect the crystal field splitting. These are the nature
1
of ligands, coordination number, arrangement of ligand, size of a metal atom, charge on
the metal atom.
25. 1
Spectrochemical series gives the arrangement of ligands in the increasing order of
crystal field splitting.
Weak field ligands cause less crystal field splitting. They form high spin complexes. 1
Examples include chloride ions, fluoride ions etc.
Strong field ligands cause greater crystal field splitting. They form low spin complexes.
Examples includes cyanide ion and CO.
SECTION :C
26 1+2
a. AgBr+2Na2SO3→ Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] + NaBr
b. Transition metals/ions have empty d orbitals into which the electron-pairs can be
donated by ligands containing pi electrons ,ie ;electrons in their pi molecular orbitals ,
eg, CH2=CH2, C5H5 ,C6H6,etc .
27 Theoretical change in temperature =kf x m =1.86 x 0.1= 0.186 3
As observed value is double of the theoretical value This show that each molecule of
the complex dissociates to form two ions . This can be so only if the formula of the
complex is [Co(NH3)4Cl2]C
28. a. Overall stability constant (β) =2.1x (10)13 Overall dissociation constant is the 2
reciprocal of the overall stability constant .Hence overall dissociation constant= 1\ β =
1\2.1X(10)13=4.7X(10)-14 .
29. a. In CuSO4.5H2O; 4H2O molecules are present as ligand, Crystal field splitting 2
occurs and hence d-d trasition occurs which gives blue colour, In CuSO4 ,there are no
H2o molecules present as ligand .No CFS occurs and hence it has no colour .
(a) In analytical chemistry (b) In metallurgy (c) In purification of metal (d) In Industry (e)
In medical field
Or
ii) In [Ni(CN)4]2-, there is Ni2+ ion for which the electronic configuration in the
valence shell is 3d8 4s0. 2
* In presence of strong field CN- ions, all the electrons are paired up. The empty 3d,
3s and two 4p orbitals undergo dsp2 hybridization to make bonds with CN- ligands in
square planar geometry. Thus [Ni(CN)4]2- is diamagnetic. It is said to be a low spin inner
orbital complex.
SECTION :D
31 i) Ammine NH3 1
ii) Lewis acids are electron pair acceptor whereas Lewis bases are electron pair
1
donor. iii) Didentate ligand- those which bind to the metal ion through two donor
atoms. Eg Ethane 1-2 diamine [H2NCH2CH2NH2]. Ambidentate ligands – those 2
which bind to the metal ion through two different atom but at a time bind with any
one atom. Eg- NO2 -
SECTION :E
33 a). In [Fe(CN)6]-3, CNis a strong ligand and therefore electrons pair up in d subshell 2
leaving one unpaired electron. The complex is inner orbital complex. On the other
hand, in [FeF6] -3, F is a weak field ligand and therefore , electrons in 3d subshell do
not get pair up. It is outer orbital complex and has 5 unpaired electrons. Thus [FeF6] 3-
has greater magnetic moment than[Fe(CN)6] 3- .
1
b. (I) Hydrate isomerism.
1
(ii) Δ0 > P so t2g 4 eg 0
1
(iii) sp3 d 2 hybridization and Octahedral shape
Or 1
a.
(i) Diammine dichlorido ethylenediamine chromium (III) chloride. 1
(ii) [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]2+
b. i) Homoleptic complex-; complexes in which the metal atom or ion is linked to 1
only one type of ligands are called homoleptic complexes, eg
1
,[co(NH3)6]3+ ii) Hetroleptic complexes;- complexes in which the metal
atom or ion is linked to more than one kind of ligands are called 1
hetroleptic complexes .
eg ;[Co(NH3)4Cl2] + iii) Coordination sphere ;--The central atom and the
ligands which are directly attached to it are enclosed in square brackets
and are collectively termed as the coordination sphere.
b. Low spin tetrahedral complexes are not formed because for tetrahedral 2
complexes, the crystal field stabilization energy is lower than pairing energy.
c. When they are dissolved in water ,they will give different ions in the solution 2
which can be tested by adding AgNo3 solution and BaSO4 solution . when cl ions are
counter ions a white ppt will be obtained AgNo3 solution , If SO4 2- ions are counter ions
a white ppt will be obtained with BaCl2 solution .
OR
(i) [COF4]2- : Tetrafluorido cobalt (III) ion 1.5
Coordination number = 4 Shape = Tetrahedral Hybridisation = sp3
1.5
35 a. ½+1+
(i) [Fe(en)2Cl2] Cl or x + 0 + 2 (-1) + (-1) = 0 x + (- 3) = 0 or x = + 3
Oxidation number of iron, x = + 3 1/2+1+
(ii) The complex has two bidentate ligands and two monodentate ligands. 1+1
Therefore, the coordination number is 6 and hybridization will be d2sp3 and shape will
be octahedral.
(iii) In the complex 26Fe3+ = 3d5 4s0 4p0
OR
(i) Crystal field splitting: It is the splitting of the degenerate energy levels due to the
presence of ligands. When ligand approaches a transition metal ion, the degenerate 3
dorbitals split into two sets, one with lower energy and the other with higher energy.
This is known as crystal field splitting and the difference between the lower energy set
and higher energy
set is known as
crystal field
splitting energy
(CFSE)
General Instructions:
(a) There are 35 questions in this question paper.
(b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
(c) SECTION B consists of 07 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(d) SECTION C consists of 05 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(e) SECTION D consists of 02 Case based question carrying 4 marks each.
(f) SECTION E consists of 03 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(g) All questions are compulsory.
(h) Use of log tables and calculators not allowed.
Section A
Q.1 In which of the following molecules carbon atom marked with asterisk (*) is 1
asymmetric?
AlCl3. Which of the following species attacks the benzene ring in this reaction ?
(A) Cl– (B) Cl+
(C) AlCl3
(D) [AlCl4]–
Q.3 Identify following 1
reaction:
A) Wurtz Reaction
B) Etard Reaction
C) Reimer Tiemann
Reaction
D) Kolbe Reaction
Q.4 The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of iron and in the absence of 1
A) Benzyl chloride
1
B) o-Chlorobenzene
C) p-Choloro benzene
D) Mixture of B and C
Q.5 What is Q in the following reaction?
Q.9 Match the reactions given in Column I with the names given in Column II. 1
2
A) i-a, ii-b ,iii-c, iv-d
B) i-b, ii-a , iii-d, iv-c
C) i-d, ii-b ,iii-c, iv-a
D) i-c, ii-a ,iii-b, iv-d
Q.10 Alkyl fluorides are synthesised by heating an alkyl chloride/bromide in presence of_ 1
(A) Ca F2
(B) PF3
(C) Hg2F2
(D) NaF
1
Q.11 Haloalkanes contain halogen atom (s) attached to the sp3 hybridised carbon atom
(A) 2-Bromopentane
(B) Vinyl chloride (chloroethene)
(C) 2-chloroacetophenone
(D) chlorobenzene
Q.13 Match the structures given in Column I with the names in Column II. 1
Q.14 Which is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds? 1
1-Iodobutane, 1-Bromobutane, 1-Chlorobutane, Butane
3
(A) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Iodobutane
(B) 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane < Butane (C) Butane
< 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Chlorobutane
(D) Butane < 1-Chlorobutane < 1-Iodobutane < 1-Bromobutane
Given below question no 15-18 consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type 1
questions. Use the following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
A.If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B.If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C.If (A) is true but (R) is false.
D.If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion : Presence of a nitro group at ortho or para position increases the
Q.15
reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason : Nitro group, being an electron withdrawing group decreases the electron
density over the benzene ring.
Q.17 Assertion: Chlorobenzene is less reactive than benzene towards the electrophilic
substitution reaction.
Reason: Resonance destabilises the carbo cation.
Q.18 Assertion:The C–Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than that in CH3–Cl.
Reason: In haloarenes Cl is attached to sp2 hyridised carbon which is more
electronegative than sp3 hybridised carbon.
Section B
Q.19 Hydrolysis of optically active 2-bromobutane forms optically inactive 2 butan-2-ol. Why?
Q.25 What are the IUPAC names of the insecticide DDT and benzenehexachloride? Why is 2
their use banned in India and other countries?
4
Section C
Compound ‘A’ with molecular formula C 4H9Br is treated with aq. KOH solution. The
Q.26 rate of this reaction depends upon the concentration of the compound ‘A’ only. 3 When
another isomer ‘B’ of this compound was treated with aq. KOH solution, the rate of
reaction was found to be dependent on concentration of compound and KOH both. (i)
Write down the structural formula of both compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’. (ii) Out of these two
compounds, which one will be optically active?
Q.27 What is the difference between enantiomers and diastereomers. Illustrate with 3
one example.
Q.28 Some alkylhalides undergo substitution whereas some undergo elimination reaction 3 on
treatment with bases. Discuss the structural features of alkyl halides with the help of
examples which are responsible for this difference?
Section D
Chloroflouro carbon (CFC) compounds of methane and ethane are collectively
Q.31 known as freons. They are non-inflammable , extremely stable, non-toxic, non-4
corrosive and low boiling liquids. CFC and gas emitted from the exhaust system of
supersonics aeroplanes might be slowly depleting the concentration of the ozone layer
in the upper atmosphere. Answer the following questions on the basis oy your
knowledge .in this topic
1. Write the formula of freon.
2. Give two uses of chloroflourocarbons.
3. How does freon-12 deplete ozone layer?
4. Do you think the use of CFCs should be banned? Give reason.
Q.32 Methyl chloride, methyl bromide, ethyl chloride and some chlorofluoromethanes are 4
gases at room temperature. Higher members are liquids or solids. As we have already
learnt, molecules of organic halogen compounds are generally polar. Due to greater
polarity as well as higher molecular mass as compared to the parent hydrocarbon, the
intermolecular forces of attraction (dipole-dipole and van der Waals) are stronger in
the halogen derivatives. That is why the boiling points of chlorides, bromides and
iodides are considerably higher than those of the hydrocarbons of comparable
molecular mass. The attractions get stronger as the molecules get bigger in size and
have more electrons.
i)Draw all the possible isomers structure of bromobutane and arrange them in
increasing order of boiling points. (2 marks) ii)Even though haloalkanes are
polar compounds these compounds are least soluble in water. Why?(1 mark)
iii) How will you distinguish between chloroethane and bromoethane?(1 mark)
5
Q.33 i)Identify A, B , C, D and E in the following:- 5
KCN
Section E
ii) Which compound will react faster in SN2 reaction with OH---?
(a) CH3Br and CH3I (SN2)
(b) (CH3)3C-Cl or CH3Cl (SN2)
6
CLASS XII CHEMISTRY CHAPTER WISE QUESTION PAPER UNIT :
HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES - ANSWER KEY
Q.20 a) CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH3 2
b) 2,4,6, trinitrochlorobenzene > 2,4 dinitrochlorobemzene > 4- nitrochlorobenzene
Q.21 Vinyl chloride is less reactive than allyl chloride, it is due to resonance in vinyl 2 chloride
the C- Cl bond gets double bond character and becomes stable.
Q.22 a) 2
b)
Q.23 Due to more electro negative nature of halide atomC-X bond is polar in haloalkanes 2
and carbon atom becomes slightly positive and is easily attacked by nucleophillic
reagents. While in haloarenes due to resonance, carbon atom becomes slightly
negative and attacked by electrophillic reagents.
7
Q.24 (a) When thionyl chloride acts upon 1- propanol chloropropane is formed . 2
(b) When ethanol reacts with PBr3, bromoethane is formed
Q.25 Correct name. 2
Q.26 A. 1-Bromo butane. B) 2-Bromo butane. B is optically active. 3
Q.27 Enantiomers are those optical isomers of optically active compound which are 3
non-superimposable images of each other.
Diasteriomers are those optical isomers optically active compound which are
nonsuperimposable but not mirror images of each other. Any one example.
Q.28 Primary alkyl halides undergo substitution reaction where as tertiary alkyl halides 3
undergo elimination reactions.
Q.31 1 CCl2F2 4
2 It is used in air conditioning and in domestic refrigeration for cooling purposes.
3 Freons can diffuse into the stratosphere and in stratosphere, freon is able to
initiate radical chain reactions by using UV rays that can upset the natural ozone
balance.
4 CFCs should be banned and its alternative should be used which would be safer
and has no environmental impact.
Hydrochloroflourocarbons and Hydroflourocarbons are some halogen containing
compounds are useful in daily life. Some compounds of this class are responsible
for exposure of flora and fauna to more and more of UV light which causes
destruction to a great extent. Name the class of these halocompounds.
Q.32 i) All the isomers and correct order 4
ii) When haloalkanes dissolved in water they neither form hydrogen bond nor they
can release sufficient energy to break the hydrogen bond in water.
iii)They can be distinguished by silver nitrate test ( treating with aq.NaOH followed
by AgNO3 ). Chloroethane gives white ppt of AgCl (soluble in ammonium hydroxide)
but bromo ethane gives pale yellow ppt of AgBr (partially soluble in ammonium
hydroxide)
Q.33
A) CH3CH2CH2Cl , B) CH3CH=CH2 , C)CH3CH2CH2 OH ,
D) CH3CH2CH2NC E) CH3CH2CH2 CN 5
Q.34 i) (a) chloromethane < Brommethane < Dibromo-methane < Bromoform (b)
Isopropyle chloride <1-chloropropane <1-Chlorobutane
(As Branching increases , boiling point decreases) 5
(c)1-Chloropropane< 1-Bromopropane< 1-iodopropane
ii) (a) CH3I will react faster than CH3Br
(b) CH3Cl will react faster than 30 halide
Q.35 (i)
8
5
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
9
(v)
10
CLASS XII CHEMISTRY CHAPTER WISE QUESTION PAPER ALCOHOLS
,PHENOLS AND ETHERS
General Instructions:
(a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
(b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
(c) SECTION B consists of 07 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
(d) SECTION C consists of 05 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
(e) SECTION D consists of 02 Case based question carrying 4 marks each.
(f) SECTION E consists of 03 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(g) All questions are compulsory.
(h) Use of log tables and calculators not allowed.
Q.1 A
c
i
d
-
c
a
t
a
l
y
s
e
d
h
y
d
r
a
t
i
o
n
o
f
a
l
k
e
n
e
s
1
e
x
c
e
p
t
e
t
h
e
n
e
l
e
a
d
s
t
o
t
h
e
f
o
r
m
a
t
i
o
n
o
f
:
1
(a)primary alcohol
(b)secondary or tertiary alcohol
(c)mixture of primary and secondary alcohol
(d)mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohol
From amongst the following alcohols, the one that would react faster with conc HCl
and anhydrous ZnCl2 ,is
(a) 2-methypropanol
(b) 1-butanol
(c) 2-butanol
(d) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
2
Q.2 1
Q.3 I
d
e
n
t
i
f
y
f
o
ll
o
w
i
n
g
1
reaction:
(a) Wurtz Reaction
(b) Etard Reaction
(c) Reimer Tiemann
Reaction
(d) Kolbe Reaction
Q.6 Compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C4H10O on treatment with Lucas reagent at room
1
temperature gives a compound ‘B’.When compound‘B’ is heated with alcoholic KOH,
it gives isobutene. Compound ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively
(a) 2-methyl-2propanol and 2-chloro-2-mehtyl-propane
(b) 2-methyl-1-propanol and 1-chloro-2methyl-propane
3
(c) 2-methyl-1-propanol and 2-chloro-2methyl-propane
(d) butan-2-ol and 2-chlorobutane
Q.7 Which of the following reagent may be used to distinguish between phenol and 1
benzoic acid?
(a) Neutral FeCl3
(b) Aqueous NaOH
(c) Tollen’s reagent
(d) Molisch reagent
Q8 s Reaction of phenol with carbon tetra chloride in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide 1
finally introduces which one of the following functional group?
(a) – COOH (b) – CHCl2 (c) – CHO (d) – CH2Cl
Q.9 Heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces 1
(a)iodobenzene (b) phenol (c) benzene (d) ethyl chloride
Q.12 Iodoform test is not given by 1 (a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal (c) Pentan-2-one
(d) Pentan-3-one
Q.15 Given below consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use the 1
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
a. If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. If (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion: An ether is more volatile than an alcohol of comparable molecular mass.
d Reason : Ethers are polar in nature.
Q.16 Given below consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use the 1
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
a. If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. If (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion: Phenols are more acidic than aliphatic alcohols.
Reason: The phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilised than alkoxide ion.
4
Q.17 Given below consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use the 1
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
a. If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. If (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution
reaction.
Reason: In case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more stabilized by resonance.
Q.18 Given below consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use the 1
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
a. If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. If (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q.19 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling point. 2
a.Propan-1-ol, Butan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol and Pentan-1-ol.
b.Pentanal, n-Butane, Ethoxyethane and Pentan-1-ol.
Q.22 Write structures of the compounds whose IUPAC names are as follows: 2
a. 2-Methylbutan-2-ol b. 2,3 – Diethylphenol
Q.23 Arrange the following sets of compounds in order of their increasing boiling points: 2
(a) Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, methanol.
(b) Pentan-1-ol, n-butane, pentanal, ethoxyethane.
Q.26 Give mechanism for the acidic dehydration of alcohols to give ethers. 3
5
𝑐𝑛𝑜𝑐 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4 ,413 𝐾
ANS: C2H5-OH + HO- C2H5 → C2H5 -O- C2H5 + H2O
Q.28 Give test to differentiate between following pairs: 3 a.Methanol and Ethanol
b.Propanol and Propan-2-ol
c.2-Methyl Propan-2-ol and Propanol
Q.29 Give the major products that are formed by heating each of the following ethers with 3
HI.
Q.31 Alcohols and phenols behave as weak acids due to the presence of polar -OH group in 4
them. Phenols are, however, stronger acids than alcohols because the phenoxide ion is stabilized
by resonance. Presence of electron withdrawing groups on the ring further increases the
acidic strength of phenol.
(a) Out of Phenol & Benzyl alcohol, which has lower value of pKa and why?
(b) Out of o-Cresol and o-Nitrophenol, which has higher value of pKa?
(c) Which compound has shorter bond length- Phenol or Cyclohexanol? Give reason.
(d) Which species out of ethoxide ion and phenoxide ion, is stronger base
Q.32 A compound (X) containing C, H and O is unreactive towards sodium. It also does not
4 react with Schiff’s reagent. On refluxing with an excess of hydroiodic acid, (X) yields
only one organic product (Y). On hydrolysis, (Y) yields a new compound (Z) which can be
converted into (Y) by reaction with red phosphorous and iodine. The compound (Z) on
6
oxidation with potassium permanganate gives a carboxylic acid. The equivalent weight of
this acid is 60.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer:
A. The compound (X) is an
(a) acid (b) aldehyde (c) alcohol (d) ether
C. Compound (Y) is
(a) ethyl iodide (b) methyl iodide (c) propyl iodide (d) mixture of (a) and (b)
D.Compound (Z) is
(a) methanol (b) ethanol (c) propanol (d) butanol
a.Kolbe Reaction
b.Williamson’s synthesis
c. Esterification
d. Hydroboration–oxidation
e. Reimer-Tiemann reaction:
Q.34 Give Reasons: 5
a. Phenol is more acidic than alcohols(Ethanol).
b. Phenol has small dipole moment than methanol.
c. Ortho – nitrophenol is more acidic than Ortho – methoxyphenol.
d. The presence of electron withdrawing groups such as nitro group enhances the
acidic strength of phenol.
e. The presence of electron releasing groups such as alkyl group decreases the acidic
strength of phenol.
Q.35 Give Reasons: 5
a.The boiling point of alcohols and phenols are higher in comparison to hydrocarbons,
ethers, and halo alkanes of comparable molecular mass.?
b.Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than the corresponding
Hydrocarbons
c. Lower alcohols are soluble in water, higher alcohols are not.
d. The boiling point of alcohols and phenols increase with increase in number of carbon
atoms.
e. In alcohols the boiling point decreases with increase in branching.
7
****
ANSWER KEY
From amongst the following alcohols, the one that would react faster with conc HCl
and anhydrous ZnCl2 ,is
(a) 2-methypropanol
(b) 1-butanol
(c) 2-butanol
(d) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
ANS: (d)2-methylpropan-2-ol
8
reaction:
(e) Wurtz Reaction
(f) Etard Reaction
(g) Reimer
Tiemann
Reaction
(h) Kolbe Reaction
ANS: (a)CH3CH2OH
Q.6 Compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C4H10O on treatment with Lucas reagent at room
1 temperature gives a compound ‘B’.When compound‘B’ is heated with alcoholic KOH,
it gives isobutene. Compound ‘A’ and ‘B’ are respectively
(e) 2-methyl-2propanol and 2-chloro-2-mehtyl-propane
(f) 2-methyl-1-propanol and 1-chloro-2methyl-propane
(g) 2-methyl-1-propanol and 2-chloro-2methyl-propane
(h) butan-2-ol and 2-chlorobutane
Q.7 Which of the following reagent may be used to distinguish between phenol and 1
benzoic acid?
(e) Neutral FeCl3
(f) Aqueous NaOH
(g) Tollen’s reagent
(h) Molisch reagent
9
I
ANS: (a) – COOH
Q.9 Heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces 1
(a)iodobenzene I
(b)phenol
(c) benzene
(d) ethyl chloride
ANS: (b)phenol
Q.10 Lucas reagent is: 1
(a) anhydrousCaCl2 and conc. HCI
(b) anhydrous ZnCl2 and conc. HCI
(c) anhydrous AlCl3 and conc. HCI
(d) anhydrous PdCl2 and conc. HCl
ANS: (b) anhydrous ZnCl2 and conc. HCI
Vapours of an alcohol X when passed over hot reduced copper, produce an alkene,
Q.11 1
the alcohol is (a) primary alcohol (b) secondary alcohol (c) tertiary alcohol (d)
dihydric alcohol
ANS: (c) tertiary alcohol
Q.12 I
o
d
o
f
o
r
m
t
e
s
t
i
s
n
o
t
g
i
v
e
n
b
y
1
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal (c) Pentan-2-one (d) Pentan-3-one
10
ANS: (d) Pentan-3-one
Q.15 Given below consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use the 1
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
a. If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. If (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion(A): An ether is more volatile than an alcohol of comparable molecular mass.
d Reason (R): Ethers are polar in nature. Ans: b
Q.16 Given below consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use the 1
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
a. If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. If (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion: Phenols are more acidic than aliphatic alcohols.
Reason: The phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilised than alkoxide ion.
Ans: a
Q.17 Given below consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use the 1
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
a. If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. If (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. If (A) is false but (R) is true.
Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution
reaction.
Reason: In case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more stabilized by resonance.
Ans: a
Q.18 Given below consist of an "Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use the 1
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
a. If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. If (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. If (A) is false but (R) is true.
11
Assertion: Tertiary alcohols gets converted into an alkene instead of a carbonyl
compounds in the presence of heated metallic copper.
Reason: Tertiary alcohols prefer to undergo dehydrogenation instead of dehydration in
the presence of heated copper.
Ans: c
Q.19 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling point. 2
a.Propan-1-ol, Butan-1-ol, Butan-2-ol and Pentan-1-ol.
b.Pentanal, n-Butane, Ethoxyethane and Pentan-1-ol.
ANS: a.
b.
12
a. 2-Methylbutan-2-ol b. 2,3 – Diethylphenol ANS:
a.
b.
Q.23 Arrange the following sets of compounds in order of their increasing boiling points: 2
(a) Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, methanol.
(b) Pentan-1-ol, n-butane, pentanal, ethoxyethane.
ANS:a. Phenol reacts with Neutral FeCl3 to form a complex of Violet colour.
3 PhOH (Phenol) + FeCl3 (Neutral) Violet colouration (PhO)3 Fe + 3 HCl
Ferric Phenate
b. Phenol reacts with Neutral FeCl3 to form a complex of Violet colour.
3 PhOH (Phenol) + FeCl3 (Neutral) Violet colouration (PhO)3 Fe + 3 HCl
Ferric Phenate
13
Q.26 Give mechanism for the acidic dehydration of alcohols to give ethers. 3
𝑐𝑛𝑜𝑐 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4 ,413 𝐾
ANS: C2H5-OH + HO- C2H5 → C2H5 -O- C2H5 + H2O
ANS: a.
b.
14
c.
OR
b.
ANS: a.Ethanol when heated with I2 in presence of NaOH ,yellow ppt of iodoform is
formed.
15
Yellow Ppt
b. Propan-2-ol when heated with I2 in presence of NaOH ,yellow ppt of iodoform is
formed.
CH3CH(OH) CH3 + I2 + NaOH CH3COONa + CHI3 + NaI + H2O
Yellow Ppt
c. 2-Methyl Propan-2-ol being tertiary alcohol, when treated with Lucas reagent
form turbidity immediately.
Propanol being primary alcohol, when treated with Lucas reagent does not form turbidity
at room pemperature.
Q.29 Give the major products that are formed by heating each of the following ethers with
3
HI.
ANS:
c.Anisole can not be prepared by reaction of bromobenzene or iodo benzene with sodium
salt of corresponding alcohols i.e sodium ethoxide?
16
ANS: During Williamson synthesis bromobenzene or iodo benzene has to go nucleophilic
substitution and aryl halides are much less reactive than alkyl halides towards
nucleophilic substitution reactions.
Q.31 Alcohols and phenols behave as weak acids due to the presence of polar -OH group in 4
them. Phenols are, however, stronger acids than alcohols because the phenoxide ion
is stabilized by resonance. Presence of electron withdrawing groups on the ring
further increases the acidic strength of phenol.
(a) Out of Phenol & Benzyl alcohol, which has lower value of pKa and why?
(b) Out of o-Cresol and o-Nitrophenol, which has higher value of pKa?
(c) Which compound has shorter bond length- Phenol or Cyclohexanol? Give reason.
(d) Which species out of ethoxide ion and phenoxide ion, is stronger base
Ans: (a) Phenol, because the phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance. (b)
o-Cresol
(c) Phenol has shorter bond length due to partial double bond character attributed to
resonance. (d) Ethoxide ion.
Q.32 A compound (X) containing C, H and O is unreactive towards sodium. It also does not
4 react with Schiff’s reagent. On refluxing with an excess of hydroiodic acid, (X) yields
only one organic product (Y). On hydrolysis, (Y) yields a new compound (Z) which can
be converted into (Y) by reaction with red phosphorous and iodine. The compound (Z) on
oxidation with potassium permanganate gives a carboxylic acid. The equivalent weight of
this acid is 60.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer:
A. The compound (X) is an
(a) acid (b) aldehyde (c) alcohol (d) ether
C. Compound (Y) is
(a) ethyl iodide (b) methyl iodide (c) propyl iodide (d) mixture of (a) and (b)
D.Compound (Z) is
(a) methanol (b) ethanol (c) propanol (d) butanol
Since the compound 'X' does not react with sodium, so it is neither an acid, nor an
alcohol (-OH group absent). compound 'X' does not react with Schiff's reagent, so
it is not an aldehyde.
17
Compound 'X' yields only one product with excess of HI, so it may be an ether and last
product of the given sequence of reactions is an acid with molecular weight 60, so the
acid is acetic acid (CH3COOH) and the ether is diethyl ether.
(because acid is a 2C compound so ether contains 4 carbons.)
a.Kolbe Reaction
b.Williamson’s synthesis :In this method, an alkyl halide reacts with sodium alkoxide to
form an ether.
c. Esterification
Alcohols and phenols react with carboxylic acids, acid chlorides and acid anhydrides to
form esters.
d. Hydroboration–oxidation
18
e. Reimer-Tiemann reaction: On
treating phenol with chloroform/CCl4 in the presence of sodium hydroxide, a –CHO/
COOH group is introduced at ortho position of benzene ring. This reaction is known as
Reimer - Tiemann reaction.
d. The presence of electron withdrawing groups such as nitro group enhances the
acidic strength of phenol.
19
ANS: The presence of electron withdrawing groups such as nitro group enhances the
acidic strength of phenol.This effect is more pronounced when such a group is present
at ortho and para positions. It is due to the effective delocalisation of negative charge
in phenoxide ion.
e. The presence of electron releasing groups such as alkyl group decreases the
acidic strength of phenol.
A. The presence of electron releasing groups such as alkyl group decreases the acidic
strength of phenol. Because electron releasing groups, such as alkyl groups, in general,
do not favour the formation of phenoxide ion resulting in decrease in acid strength.
Cresols, for example, are less acidic than phenol.
d. The boiling point of alcohols and phenols increase with increase in number of carbon
atoms.
ANS. The boiling point of alcohols and phenols increase with increase in number of
carbon atoms because of increase in vander Waals forces.
20
SAMPLE PAPER (2022-23) CHEMISTRY THEORY (043)
CHAPTER-Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
MM:70 Time: 3 hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
SECTION A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question
carries 1 mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. An aqueous NaOH solution is added to a mixture of benzaldehyde and
formaldehyde to produce:
a. NaHCO3
b. FeCl3
c. Victor Mayer test
d. Tollen's reagent
3. Which of the following compounds do not react with NaHSO3 ?
a. HCHO
b. C6H5COCH3
c. CH3COCH3
d. CH3CHO
a. Sodium acetate
b. Resinous mass
c. Aldol
d. Ethyl acetate
5. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen?
a. hexane-2,4-dione
b. hexane-2,3-dione
c. hexane-2,5-dione
d. hexane-3-one
a. electrophilic addition
b. nucleophilic addition
c. nucleophilic substitution
d. electrophilic substitution
a. 3 and 4 only
b. 2 and 5 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3 and 5 only
15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than
hydrocarbons and ethers of comparable molecular masses.
Reason(R) : There is a relatively stronger molecular association in aldehydes and
ketones.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : Compounds containing –CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding
carboxylic acids.
Reason(R) : Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH 4
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
17. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
Reason(R) : Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
18. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion(A) : The α-hydrogen atom in carbonyl compounds is more acidic then phenol.
Reason (R): The anion formed after the loss of α-hydrogen atom is resonance
stabilised.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
SECTION B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
questions are very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
20. Aldehydes are more reactive than Ketones towards nucleophilic additions.
OR
Carboxylic acids has higher boiling points than alcohols of same no. of carbon atoms.
SECTION C
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following
27. Perform the following conversions in not more than two steps :
(i) Benzoic acid to benzaldehyde
(ii) Ethyl benzene to Benzoic acid
(iii) Prapanone to Propene
28. (a) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved in Cannizzaro reaction.
(b) Draw the structure of the semicarbazone of ethanal.
(c) Why pKa of 𝑭 − 𝑪𝑯𝟐 − 𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑯 is lower than that of 𝑪𝒍−𝑪𝑯𝟐 −𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑯?
29. Give any three answer from given a, b, c, d and e.
a. Write the chemical reaction involved in Wolf-Kishner reduction.
b. Arrange the following in the increasing order of their reactivity towards nucleophilic
addition reaction: 𝐂𝟔𝐇𝟓𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑, 𝐂𝐇𝟑 − 𝐂𝐇𝐎, 𝐂𝐇𝟑𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑
c. Why carboxylic acid does not give reactions of carbonyl group. (d) Write the
product in the following reaction
(e) A and B are two functional isomers of compound C 6H6O. On heating with NaOH and
I2, isomer B forms yellow precipitate of iodoform whereas isomer A does not form any
precipitate. Write the formulae of A and B.
30. Write the products of the following reactions:
OR
Give simple tests to distinguish between the following pairs of organic compounds
(i) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
(ii) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone
(iii) Phenol and Benzoic acid
SECTION D
The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice
and carries 4 (1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
31. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
When an aldehyde with no a-hydrogen reacts with concentrated aqueous NaOH,
half the aldehyde is converted to carboxylic acid salt and other half is converted to an
alcohol. In other words, half of the reactant is oxidized and other half is reduced. This
reaction is known as Cannizzaro reaction
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate
answer :
(i) A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH
solution gives
(a) benzyl alcohol and sodium formate (b) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
(c) sodium benzoate and sodium formate (d) benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol.
(ii) Which compounds will undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
(iii) Trichloroacetaldehyde is subjected to Cannizzaro's reaction by using NaOH. The
mixture of the products contains sodium trichloroacetate ion and another
compound. What will be the other compound?
OR
will Cannizzaro reaction result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds? explain
32. The addition reaction of enol or enolate to the carbonyl functional group of aldehyde or
ketone is known as aldol addition. The β-hydroxyaldehyde or β-hydroxyketone so obtained
undergo dehydration in the second step to produce a conjugated enone. The first part of
the reaction is an addition reaction and the second part is an elimination reaction. The
Carbonyl compound having α-hydrogen undergoes an aldol condensation reaction.
(i)The condensation reaction is the reverse of which of the following reaction?
(a) Lock and key hypothesis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrolysis
(d) Glycogen formation
(ii) Which compounds would be the main product of an aldol condensation of
acetaldehyde and acetone?
(iii) Which combination of carbonyl compounds gives phenyl vinyl ketone by an aldol
condensation?
OR
Write the condition for chemical reaction will undergo aldol condensation?
SECTION E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions
have an internal choice.
33. (a) An organic compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C 5H10O gives negative Tollens’
test, forms n-pentane on Clemmensen reduction but doesn’t give iodoform test.
Identify ‘A’ and give all the reactions involved.
(b) Carry out the following conversions :
(i) Propanoic acid to 2-Bromopropanoic acid
(ii) Benzoyl chloride to benzaldehyde
(c) How will you distinguish between benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde ?
OR
(a) Convert benzaldehyde to Cinnamaldehyde?
(b ) What is IUPAC name of-
(c) Write the structural formula of Isoamyl acetate.
34. What happens when 2 moles of acetone are condensed in presence of Ba(OH)2? Write
chemical equation
(b)What happens when acetic acid is heated with P2O5?
(c) Why is alpha ( ) hydrogen of carbonyl compounds acidic in nature ?
(d) What happens when salicylic acid is heated with zinc dust?
(e) Why is p-hydroxy benzoic acid more acidic than p-methoxy benzoic acid?
OR
(a) Complete the following reactions:
(b) An organic compound contains 69.77% carbon, 11.63% hydrogen and rest oxygen.
The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not reduce Tollen’s reagent but
forms an addition compound with sodium hydrogen sulphite and gives positive
iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation it gives ethanoic and propanoic acids. Derive the
structure of the compound.
SAMPLE PAPER (2022-23) CHEMISTRY THEORY (043) MARKING SCHEME CHAPTER -
ALDEHYDE KETONE AND CARBOXYLIC ACID SECTION A
Explanation: Formic acid has an aldehyde group. It reduces Tollen's reagent to a silver mirror-like
other aldehydes. Tollen's test is not given by Carboxylic acids.
3. (b) C6H5COCH3
Explanation: Compared with aliphatic ketones, aromatic ketones are less reactive than aldehydes.
The reaction between acetophenone and NaHSO3 is therefore not initiated.
4. (c) Aldol
Explanation: Aldol is obtained by heating acetaldehyde molecules with dilute NaOH solutions.
5. (a) hexane-2,4-dione
6. (b) nucleophilic addition
7. (b)
Explanation: Ketones are formed when secondary alcohols are oxidised and dehydrogenated.
Aldehydes are produced by the same processes with primary alcohols.
21. (a) When Propanone is treated with methylmagnesium iodide and then hydrolysed, tertiary
butyl alcohol is formed 1
OR
(a) Butanone is treated with methylmagnesium bromide and then hydrolysed, and 1
1
1
24.
(i) In benzoic acid, the -COOH group is attached to sp2- carbon (more electronegative)while in acetic
acid -COOH group is attached to sp3- carbon(less electronegative) 1
SECTION C
26. (i) When propanal reacts with excess of methanol in the presence of HCl, it -dimethoxy
forms 1,1 propane.
1
27. 1+1+1
28. 1+1+1
29. a) Wolff
kishner
reductio
n is a
chemica
l name
reaction
in which
aldehyd
es and
ketones
are
convert
ed into
an
alkane
in
presenc
e of
hydrazin
e, base
and
thermal
conditio
ns.
When
aldehyd
es or
ketones
are
heated
with
hydrazin
e and
potassiu
m
hydroxid
e in
ethylen
e glycol,
it results
in the
formati
on of
alkanes.
Let us see the chemical reaction:
(b) As we know that, aldehydes are more reactive than alcohol because aldehydes are less hindered than
ketones. Aliphatic ketones are more reactive than aromatic ketones because aromatic ketoses have
delocalisation of electrons. Therefore the reactivity order can be written as:
𝐂𝟔𝐇𝟓𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑, < 𝐂𝐇𝟑𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑, <𝐂𝐇𝟑 – 𝐂𝐇𝐎 1
(c)Carboxylic acids do not give reactions to carbonyl groups because the lone pair of electrons on oxygen
atoms of the −OH−OH group of carboxylic acid is less electrophilic than the carbonyl group of ketones
and aldehydes. 1
(e) B is a methyl ketone as it forms yellow precipitate of iodoform, that means it undergoes a haloform
reaction. hence, B is acetone CH3COCH3 . The isomer A does not form any precipitate, therefore it
will
not have any methyl ketone. Hence isomer A is propanal CH3CH2CHO 1
30. 1+1+1
OR
i. Pentan-2-one and Pentan -3 -one Pentan – 2-one contains CH3CO group and as such it will give
iodoform test with NaOI [NaOH + I2] while no such group is there in pentan -3- one and so it will not
give
iodoform test. 1
iii. Ethanal and Propanal: As ethanal contains CH3CO group it will give iodoform test with NaOH and I2.
On the other hand propanal will not give this test. 1
SECTION D
31.
Ans (i) (a): It is an example of cross Cannizzaro reaction where aromatic aldehyde gets reduced to
alcohol and aliphatic aldehyde gets oxidised to its sodium salt (both aldehydes must not
contain any α-hydrogen). 1
32.
(i)Answer:(c) Hydrolysis 1
(ii) Answer:(b) 1
OR
Answer- The Carbonyl compound having α-hydrogen undergoes an aldol condensation reaction.
SECTION E
33. 2+2+1
(a) Since, the compound (A) gives a positive iodoform test but negative Tollen's test, so it must be a
methyl ketone. From the given molecular formula C5H10O(A) can be 2-pentanone
(b)
(i)
(ii)
(c) Distinction between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde : - Acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde can be
distinguish by Fehling solution. Acetaldehyde gives red coloured precipitate with Fehling solution
while benzaldehyde does not.
OR
(a)
(b)
4–hydroxy–3–methoxy-benzaldehyde
(c)
34. 2+2+1
(a)
(b)
(c) In a carbonyl group, the oxygen is extremely electronegative and it attracts the electron cloud
towards itself developing a partial positive charge on the α-carbon. To reduce the positive charge,
αcarbon looses its hydrogen readily and makes it acidic in nature. OR
(d)
(e)
It is because —OH has more —I effect than —OCH3 group.
OR
3+2
(b)
(i) Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction as the carboxyl (−COOH) group is
deactivating and Lewis acid catalyst AlCl3 gets bonded to the carboxyl group. The carboxyl (−COOH)
group withdraws electron density from benzene ring through inductive and resonance effects. (ii) pKa
value of 4-nitrobenzoic acid (3.41) is lower than that of benzoic acid (4.19). Lower is the pKa value,
greater is the acid strength. The electron withdrawing nitro (−NO2) group increases the acidity of
benzoic acid.
35. 2+3
(i)
(ii)
(b)
(A)
C - negative testing
= positive Iodoform
=
OR
(a) 2+3
(i)
Benzoic acid is treated with thionyl chloride to form benzoyl chloride,which on further treatment with
ammonia gives benzamide.
Benzamide is subjected to Hoffmann bromamde degradation by reacting with Br₂ and NaOH to form
aniline.
(ii)
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN RO AHMEDABAD
SUBJECT – CHEMISTRY THEORY (043) 2022-23
CHAPTER- AMINES
MM: 70 TIME : 3 HOURS
General instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b) Section A consist of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) Section B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) Section C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) Section D consists of 2 case based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) Section E consist of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.
Section- A
The following questions are multiple choice questions with one correct answer each question carries
one mark there is no internal choice in this section.
1. When a haloalkane is heated with KCN in aqueous ethanoic solution, the product formed is- a) Alkyl
nitrite
b) nitro alkane
c) alkane nitrile
d) carbylamine
2. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is-
a) Aniline
b) benzyl amine
c) tertiary-butylamine
d) isobutylamine
3. Which of the following amine has highest boiling point?
a) Pentaamine
b) 2-methylbutanamine
c) 2,2-dimethylpropamine
d) 3-methylbutamine
4. The amine that reacts with NaNO2 and HCl to give yellow oily liquid is-
a) Ethylamine.
b) Diethylamine
c) Isopropyl amine
d) Secondary butylamine
5. Sandmeyer reaction of diazonium salt is a replacement of N2 by-
a) Halogen Cl or Br
b) Hydroxyl group
c) Coupling
d) Hydrogen
6. One of the following amines will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction-
a) CH3CONHCH3
b) CH3CH2CONH2
c) CH3CONH2
d) C6H5CONH2
7. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is a)
CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
b) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
c) (CH3)3N >CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
d) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
8. The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamine is
a) arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group
b) arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen atom in aryalamines
is sp- hybridised
c) arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone- pair electrons
are delocalised by intraction with the aromatic ring π- electron system
d) arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen loan-pair electrons
are not delocalised by interaction with the aromatic ring π-electron system.
9. What reagent is used in Hinsberg test of amines?
a) (CH3CO)2O and pyridine
b) C6H5SO2Cl followed by aq. NaOH
c) NaNO2 in aq. H2SO4
d) CH3I(excess) followed by AgOH
10. Aniline reacts with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid at 273 -278 K to give: a) Benzene
b) Benzene diazonium chloride
c) Chlorobenzene
d) o-chloroaniline
11. Propane amide on reaction with bromine in aqueous NaOH gives:
a) Propanamine
b) ethanamine
c) N-Methyl ethanamine
d) Propanenitrile
12. The gas evolved when methylamine reacts with nitrous acid is:
a) NH3
b) N2
c) H2
d) C2H6
13. Which of the following is not correct regarding aniline?
a) It is less basic than ethyl amine
b) It can be steam distillated
c) It reacts with sodium to give hydrogen
d) It is soluble in water
Section - B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are
very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19. How will you distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
i) Aniline and ethanamine.
ii) Aniline and N-methylaniline 20.
Give reasons:
i) Aniline does not undergo friedal Craft reaction.
ii) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution.
OR
i) Although -NH2 group is o/p directing in electrophilic substitution reactions, yet aniline, on
nitration gives good yield of m-nitroaniline. ii) pKb of methylamine is less than that of
aniline.
21. Write chemical equations for the following conversion:
i) nitrobenzene to benzenoic acid
ii) aniline to benzyl alcohol
OR
i) Write the reaction involved in the following: Diazotisation
ii) Give reason:
Aromatic diazonium salts are more stable than aliphatic diazonium salts. 22.
Illustrate the following with an example of reaction in each case-
i) Sandmeyer reaction
ii) coupling reaction
23. Complete the following reactions:
i) CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3+alc.KOH-------> ii) CH3NH2+ C6H5COCl---------->
24. Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a good method to prepare pure primary amines. Explain.
25. State and illustrate the following:
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Section- C
Section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions the following questions are sort
answer type and carry 3 marks each.
26. a) Write the chemical reaction of methylamine with benzyl chloride and write the IUPAC
name of the product obtained.
b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their pkb values:
C6H5NH2 , NH3 , C2H5NH2 ,(C2H5)2 NH
27. Write the structures of main products when aniline reacts with the following reagents: i) Br 2
water. ii) HCl
iii) (CH3CO)2O/Pyridine
31. Benzene ring in aniline is highly activated. This is due to the sharing of lone pair of nitrogen
with the ring which results in increase in the electron density on the ring and hence
facilitates the electrophilic attack. The substitution mainly takes place at Ortho and para
positions because electron density is more at Ortho and para positions. On reaction with
aqueous bromine all the ortho and para position get substituted resulting in the formation
of 2,4,6- tribromoaniline. To get a monobromo compound, the amino group is acetylated
before bromination. After bromination, the bromoacetanilide is acid hydrolysed to give the
desired halogenated amine.
a) Why does -NH2 group facilitates electrophilic attack in aniline?
b) Explain why: in aniline, the substitution mainly takes place at Ortho and Para positions.
c) Show the conversion of benzene into aniline.
32. In amines the N atoms of the amino group are SP3 hybridised. Amines readily lose its electron
pair and act as a base. In aliphatic amines ,the alkyl group tends to increase the electron
density on the nitrogen atom due to the +I effect. In aromatic amines, the basic strengths are
influenced by the presence of an electron withdrawing group at the O-, m- and p- position in
the ring.
a) Lower member of aliphatic amines are soluble in water . Why?
b) Out of (CH3)3N and and (CH3)2NH which one is more basic in aqueous solution?
c) Which isomer of C3H9N which does not react with Hinsberg’s reagent.
Section- E
The following questions are long answer type and carry five marks each two questions have internal
choice.
33. An organic compound A with molecular formula C 7 H7NO reacts with Br2/aq. KOH to give
compound 'B', which upon reaction with NaNO2 and HCl at 00 Celsius gives 'C'. Compound 'C'
on heating with CH3CH2OH gives hydrocarbon 'D'. compound 'B' on further reaction with Br 2
water gives white precipitate of compound 'E'. Identify the compound A,B,C,D and 'E'.
Also justify your answer by giving relevant chemical equations. OR
An aromatic compound 'A' on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound 'B'
which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound 'C' of molecular formula C 6H7N. write the
structure and IUPAC names of the compound A, B and C . Justify your answer by giving relevant
chemical equations.
34. i) Write the structure of main products when benzenediazonium chloride (C 6H5N2+Cl-) reacts
with the following reagents:
a) KI b) C2H5OH
ii) write the structures of A B and C in the following reactions:
LiAlH4 HNO2 /Low temp
CH3Cl+ KCN (alc)----------------->A-- --------------------->B------------------------>C
OR
i) Write the reactions involved in the following:
a) Hoffmann’s Bromamide degradation reaction
b) Carbylamine reaction
35. i) Convert the following:
a) Phenol to N-phenylethanamide
b) Chloroethane to methanamine
c) Propanenitrile to ethanal.
ii) What happens when-
a) N-ethylethaneamine reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride.
b) Aniline reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic potassium hydroxide.
********************************
1. c) alkyl nitrile
2. a) Aniline
3. a) Pentaamine
4. b) Diethylamine
5. a) Halogen Cl or Br
6. a) CH3CONHCH3
7. b) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
8. c) arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone- pair electrons are
delocalised by intraction with the aromatic ring π- electron system
9. b) C6H5SO2Cl followed by NaOH
10. b) Benzene diazonium chloride
11. b) ethanamine
12. b) N2
13. d) It is soluble in water
14. b) Aq. NaOH and heat
15. b ) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
16. c) A is true but R is false.
17. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18. c) A is true but R is false.
Section - B
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are
very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
19. i) aniline being an aromatic primary amine on treatment with nitrous acid at 273 Kelvin
followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of beta naphthol gives an orange coloured azo
dye. Ethylamine does not give these test. (1) ii) aniline gives
carbylamine test , on treatment with alcoholic KOH and chloroform followed by
heating it gives offensive order of phenylisocyanide but N- methylaniline being secondary
amine, does not show this test. (1)
20. i) in Friedel crafts reaction, AlCl3 is added as a catalyst which is a Lewis acid. it forms a salt
with aniline due to which the nitrogen of an aniline acquires positive charge this positively
charged nitrogen acts as a strong deactivating group, hence aniline does not undergo Friedel
Crafts reaction. (1)
ii) In aqueous solution, two degree amine is more basic than three degree amine due to the
combination of inductive effect, solvation effect and steric hinderance. (1)
OR
i) In the presence of acids the -NH2 group of aniline gets protonated and is converted into
NH3 + group. This positively charged group acts as a strong electron withdrawing and meta
directing group. (1)
ii) in aniline the lone pair of electrons of N- atom are the localized over the benzene ring as
a result electron density on the nitrogen decreases. In contrast in CH3NH2 , + I effect of -CH3
group increase the electron density on the N- atom there for aniline is a weakrbase than methyl
amine and hence, its Pkb value is higher than that of methylamine. (1)
21. i)
(
ii)
(1+1)
OR
i) Benzenediazonium chloride is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273-
278K. Nitrous acid is produced in the reaction mixture by the reaction of sodium nitrite with
hydrochloric acid. The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known
as diazotisation. (1)
ii) Aromatic diazonium salts carry a nitrogen atom with a positive charge which is dispersed
through resonance. (1)
22. i) The Cl– , Br– and CN– nucleophiles can easily be introduced in the benzene ring in the presence
of Cu(I) ion. This reaction is called Sandmeyer reaction. (1)
ii) Benzene diazonium chloride reacts with phenol in which the phenol molecule at its para
position is coupled with the diazonium salt to form p-hydroxyazobenzene. This type of reaction is
known as coupling reaction. Similarly the reaction of diazonium salt with aniline yields
paminoazobenzene. This is an example of electrophilic substitution reaction. (1)
23. i)
(1)
ii)
(1)
24. Ammonolysis of alkyl halides with ammonia is a nucleophilic substitution reaction in which
ammonia acts as a nucleophile by donating the electron pair on nitrogen atom to form primary
amine as the initial product. Now, the primary amine can act as a nucleophile and combine with
alkyl halide to give secondary amine and the reaction continuous in the same way to form tertiary
amine and finally quarterly ammonium salt. Thus a mixture of products is formed and it is not
possible to separate individual amines from the mixture. (2)
25. In this reaction pthalamide is converted into its potassium salt by treating it with alcoholic
potassium hydroxide. Then potassium thalamide is heated with an alkyl halide to yeild an
Nalkylpthalimide which is hydrolysed to phthalic acid and primary amine by alkaline hydrolysis.
(1+1)
Section- C
26. i) CH3NH2+ C6H5COCl ----- CH3NHCOC6H5
( N- methylbenzamide) (1+1) ii)
stronger the base lower will be its pkb value.
(C2H5)2 NH < C2H5NH2 < NH3 < C6H5NH2 (1)
27. i) (1+1+1)
28. i)
(1/2+1/2+1/2+1/2+1/2+1/2)
ii)
29. a) Aniline is acetylated, before nitration reaction in order to avoid formation of tarry
oxidation products and protecting the amino group, so that p -nitro derivative can be obtained
as major product.
b) pKb of aniline is lower than the m-nitro aniline.The basic strength of aniline is more that m-
nitroaniline . pkb value is inversely proportional to basic strength. Presence of Electron
withdrawing group decrease basic strength.
C ) Due to the presence of acidic hydrogen in the N-alkylbenzenesulphonamide formed by the treatment
of primary amines.
d) Aniline does not react with methyl chloride in the presence of AlCl3 catalyst , because
aniline is a base and AlCl3 is Lewis acid which lead to formation of salt. (1+1+1) 30. a) C 6H5CN
b) C6H6
c) C6H5I (1+1+1) Section- D
31.
a) this is due to the sharing of lone pair of nitrogen with the ring. (1)
b)electron density is more at Ortho and para position then meta position. (1)
c)on nitration Benzene gives nitro benzene and further H2/Pd in ethanol gives Aniline. (2)
Section- E
33. (1+1+1+1+1)
OR
Ans- formula of the compound 'C' indicates it is an amine. since it is obtained by the reaction of
Br2 and KOH with the compound 'B' so compound 'B' can be an amide. As B is obtained from
compound A by reaction with ammonia followed by heating so, compound A could be an aromatic
acid. formula of compound C show that it to be aniline, then B' is benzamide and compound A is
benzoic acid. the sequence of reactions can be written as follows:
34. i) a)
(1)
a) (1)
ii)
A= CH3CN , B= CH3CH2NH2 C = CH3CH2OH (1+1+1)
OR
a) when an amide is treated with bromine in aqueous or ethanolic solution of sodium hydroxide, a
primary amine with one carbon atom less than the origin amide is produced.
RCONH2+Br2+4NaOH------>RNH2+Na2CO3+2NaBr+2H2O (2)
b) it is used for detection of primary amines. (2)
RNH2+CHCl3+3KOH----->RNC+3KCl+3H2O
ii)the acetyl group being electron withdrawing attracts the loan pair of electrons of the N-atom
towards carbonyl group as a result the activation effect of NH2 group is reduced. (1) 35.
Ans:- i) a) (1+1+1)
b)
c)
ii) a)
when N-ethylethanamine reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride,
N,Ndiethylbenzenesulphonamide is formed. (1)
b) when aniline reacts with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic potassium hydroxide
phenylisocyanide or phenyl isonitrile is formed. (1)
********************************
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN AHMEDABAD REGION
MODEL QUESTION PAPER -2022-23
Time: 3 hrs. Class: 12 Marks: 70
Subject: CHEMISTRY (BIOMOLECULE)
_________________________________________________________________________
General Instructions:
SECTION-A
1 Which of the following carbohydrates does not satisfy the formula Cx(H 2O)y? a) 1
Fructose
b) Glucose
c) Deoxyribose
d) Lactose
2 Which of the following is not a polysaccharide? a) 1
Cellulose
b) Stachyose
c) Starch
d) Glycogen
3 Sucrose consists of which of the following monosaccharide units? a) 1
Fructose, galactose
b) Fructose, glucose
c) Galactose, glucose
d) Glucose, glucose
4 Nucleotides are joined together by 1
a) peptide linkage b) disulphide linkage c) glycosidic linkage d) phosphodiester linkage
5 Which of the following statement is not true for glucose? 1
a) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine to give oxime
b) Glucose gives Schiff's test for aldehyde
c) Glucose exists in two crystalline α and β forms
d) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime
6 Two monosaccharides are joined through a ______ bond to form a disaccharide. a) 1
ionic
b) peptide
c) glycosidic
d) phosphodiester
Page 1 of 5
7 Which of the following is incorrect regarding maltose? a) 1
It consists of two glucopyranose units
b) It is a non-reducing sugar
c) Glycosidic bond between C1 of one unit and C4 of the other unit d) It is a
disaccharide
Read the following instructions carefully.
a. There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.
b. SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c. SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d. SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e. SECTION D consists of 2 case-based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f. SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
Page 2 of 5
8 Proteins are polymers of ______ a) 1
α-amino acids
b) β-amino acids
c) γ-amino acids
d) δ-amino acids
9 Which of the following amino acids is optically inactive? a) 1
Glycine
b) Alanine
c) Lysine
d) Valine
10 Enzymes are regarded as ______ a) 1
biocatalysts
b) messengers
c) inhibitors
d) antibodies
11 Which of the following vitamin is soluble in water? a) 1
A
b) C
c) D
d) E
12 The following compound is a component of which 1
of the following?
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Adenine
d) Guanine
13 In nucleic acids, the sequence is: 1
a) Base - sugar - phosphate
b) Base - phosphate - sugar
c) Phosphate - sugar - base
d) Sugar - base – phosphate
Page 3 of 5
14 Identify the saccharide from the Haworth projection shown below. 1
a)
Lactose
b) Maltose
c) Sucrose
d) Trehalose
15 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion :- Uracil is present in DNA
Reason :- DNA undergoes replication
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below: a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. c.
A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
16 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Assertion 1
:- Insulin is globular protein.
Reason :- Globular Proteins are water soluble.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below: a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. c.
A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
17 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Assertion 1
:- D (+) – Glucose is dextrorotatory in nature.
Reason :- D’ represents its dextrorotatory nature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below: a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. c.
A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
18 Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 1
Assertion :- In presence of enzyme, substrate molecule can be attacked by the reagent
effectively
Reason :- Active sites of enzymes hold the substrate molecule in a suitable position.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below: a.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. c.
A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Page 4 of 5
SECTION-B
19 What happens when D-glucose is treated with. the following reagents? 2
(i)HI (ii) Bromine water
20 What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give one examples of each type? 2
21 How are vitamins classified? Give example of each type? 2
OR
Name the disease caused due to deficiency of Vitamin E and Ascorbic acid?
22 What are the hydrolysis products of (i) Maltose and (ii)lactose 2
OR
What is Zwitter ion? How is it formed?
23 What is glycogen? How is it different from starch? 2
24 Write the important two structural differences between DNA and RNA? 2
25 Differentiate between α- helical and β- pleated sheet structure of secondary protein? 2
SECTION-C
26 Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structure? 3
27 (a)What is the biological effect of denaturation of proteins? (b) 3
What are enzymes?
29 What information do we get when D-glucose reacts with following reagent, write the reaction 3
also
(a)Hydroxylamine (iii)acetic anhydride (iii) nitric acid
(a) Phospholipids form a thin layer on the surface of an aqueous medium. Give reason.
(b) Which structure of proteins remains intact during the denaturation process?
(c ) What type of structure is α -helix and β-pleated structures of proteins?
OR
Why do amino acids have high molar masses comparable to ionic solids?
Page 5 of 5
32 Read the text carefully and answer the questions: 4
The activity of an enzyme can be affected by a change in the conditions which can alter the
tertiary structure of the protein. These include temperature, pH, and change in substrate
concentration or binding of specific chemicals that regulate its activity.Enzymes generally
function in a narrow range of temperature and pH. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a
particular temperature and pH called the optimum temperature and optimum pH. Activity
declines both below and above the optimum value. Low temperature preserves the enzyme in
a temporarily inactive state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because
proteins are denatured by heat. Concentration of Substrate With the increase in substrate
concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction rises at first. The reaction ultimately
reaches a maximum velocity (Vmax) which is not exceeded by any further rise in concentration
of the substrate. This is because the enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate molecules
and after saturation of these molecules, there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the
additional substrate molecules.
(a) Name a chemical compound or molecule which is responsible for decrease or stop the
enzyme activity by binding to an enzyme?
(b) Give reason – why most of the enzymes get destroyed above optimum temperature?
(c) Explain the relation between substrate concentration and enzymatic activity?
OR
What are co-enzyme and co-factor ?
SECTION E
33 (a)Write the name and molecular formula of nitrogenous bases present in DNA and RNA? (b) 5
What are different types of RNA found in the cell?
(c ) write two important functions of nucleic acid?
34 (a) Write functional difference between DNA and RNA? 5
(b) What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose?
OR
(a) Which form of glucose is obtained by crystallization from hot and saturated aqueous
solution at 371K?
(b) What is chemical formula of glyceraldehyde?
( c) What are oligosaccharides?
(d) The molecular formula of a compound is C2(H2O)2? Is it a carbohydrate, explain your
answer?
35 (a) Name the various sugars present in RNA & DNA? (b)Explain 5
Cyclic structure of Fructose?
OR
(a)Explain the cyclic structure of Glucose?
(b)How Nucleotides are joined together in DNA molecule?
Page 6 of 5
MARKING SCHEME FOR CHAPTER -BIOMOLECULE
( MODEL QUESTION PAPER).
SECTION-A MARKS
1 c) Deoxyribose 1
2 b) Stachyose 1
3 b) Fructose, glucose 1
4 d) phosphodiester linkage 1
6 c) glycosidic 1
7 b) It is a non-reducing sugar 1
8 a) α-amino acids 1
9 a) Glycine 1
10 a) biocatalysts 1
11 b) C 1
12 b) DNA 1
14 a) Lactose 1
weakness
Page 2 of 6
26 1. Aldehydes give 2, 4-DNP test, Schiff's test, and react with NaHSO4 to form the 1
hydrogen sulphite addition product. However, glucose does not undergo these
reactions.
2. The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine. This indicates 1
that a free -CHO group is absent from glucose.
3. Glucose exists in two crystalline forms - and β. The α-form (m.p. = 419 K)
1
crystallises from a concentrated solution of glucose at 303 K and the β form (m.p = 423
K) crystallises from a hot and saturated aqueous solution at 371 K. This behavior cannot
be explained by the open chain structure of glucose.
27 (a)On denaturation, protein globules unfold and unhelix gets uncoiled and protein looses its 1.5+1.5
biological activity
(b) Enzymes are biocatalyst which are very specific for a particular reaction and a
particular substrate. Almost all enzymes are globular proteins.
28 Fibrous protein Globular protein 2+1
It is a fibre-like structure formed by the polypeptide chain in this protein is folded
polypeptide chain around itself, giving rise to a spherical
structure
insoluble in water. usually soluble in water
Fibrous proteins are usually used for All enzymes are globular proteins
structural purposes.
Nuceotide Nucleoside
A nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous
base, a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) and base covalently attached to a sugar
one to three phosphate groups (ribose or deoxyribose) but without the
phosphate group
29 1+1+1
Page 3 of 6
(c) On oxidation with nitric acid, glucose as well as gluconic acid both yield a
dicarboxylic
acid, saccharic acid.
30 (a)All those carbohydrates which contain a free aldehyde or Ketonic group and reduce 2
Fehling's solution and Tollen's reagent are referred as a reducing Sugar. Examples of
reducing sugar is galactose, glucose, glyceraldehyde, fructose, ribose.
Disaccharides -lactose and maltose are reducing sugar.
Non-reducing sugars: They do not reduce Fehling's solution and Tollens'
reagent.exSucrose.
1
(b) Anomers are diastereoisomers of cyclic forms of sugars or similar molecules differing
in the configuration at the anomeric carbon (C-1 atom of an aldose or the C-2 atom of a
2-ketose). The cyclic forms of carbohydrates can exist in two forms, α- and β- based on
the position of the substituent at the anomeric center.
OR
(a) peptide linkage is an amide formed between –COOH group and –NH2 ,group. The
reaction between two molecules of similar or different amino acids, proceeds through
the combination of the amino group of one molecule with the carboxyl group of the
other. This results in the elimination of a water molecule and formation of a peptide 2
bond –CO–NH–.
Page 4 of 6
31 (a) Phospholipids form a thin layer on the surface of an aqueous medium due to the 2
simultaneous presence of both polar and non-polar groups in the molecule. As a result,
the phospholipid molecules may arrange themselves in a double-layered membrane in
aqueous media.
(b). Primary structure remains intact during the denaturation process. (c)
secondary structure 1
OR 1
As they exists as Zwitter ion and have ionic species at lattice points which have
electrostatic attraction between them.
32 (a) Inhibitor 1
(b) Enzymes are composed of one or several polypeptide chains. Almost all enzymes
are protein. High temperature condition destroys enzymatic activity because 1
proteins are denatured by heat.
(c) Concentration of Substrate With the increase in substrate concentration, the
velocity of the enzymatic reaction rises at first. The reaction ultimately reaches a 2
maximum velocity (Vmax) which is not exceeded by any further rise in
concentration of the substrate. This is because the enzyme molecules are fewer
than the substrate molecules and after saturation of these molecules, there are
no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecules.
OR
Cofactors are non-protein chemical compounds which are termed helper
molecules .Cofactors are of 2 types, one with inorganic and other organic, where
the organic ones are called as coenzymes and they are of 2 types, based on bond, 2
if bond is permanent, it is prosthetic group, if the bond is temporary, it is
substrate.
Coenzymes are small organic molecules that bind to the enzymes, assisting the
function of the enzyme.
33 (a) DNA contains four bases viz. adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C) and thymine 2
(T). RNA also contains four bases, the first three bases are same as in DNA but
the fourth one is uracil (U).
Page 5 of 6
(b) (i) Messenger RNA (m-RNA)
(ii) Ribosomal RNA (r-RNA) 1
(iii) Transfer RNA (t-RNA
Page 6 of 6
(a) The various sugars present in nucleic acids are Ribose in RNA and deoxyribose in DNA. 1
35 (b)
(i) Fructose also has the molecular formula C6H12O6
(ii) it contains a ketonic functional group at carbon number- 2 ½ *6=3
(iii) Fructose exists in two cyclic forms which are obtained by the addition of —OH at
C5 to the carbonyl group
(iv)The ring, thus formed is a five membered ring and is named as furanose with analogy
to the compound furan.
(v)Furan is a five membered cyclic compound with one oxygen and four carbon atoms.
(vi) The cyclic structures of two anomers of fructose are represented by Haworth
structures as given.
OR
(a)(i) In cyclic structure of glucose one of the —OH groups may add to the —CHO group
and form a cyclic hemiacetal structure.
(ii) glucose forms a six-membered ring in which —OH at C-5 is involved in ring
formation. This explains the absence of —CHO group.
3
(iii) The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose differ only in the configuration of the
hydroxyl group at C1, called anomeric carbon
(iv) The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called pyranose structure (α– or
β), in analogy with pyran
(v)
(b) Nucleotides are joined together by phosphodiester linkage between 5′ and 3′ carbon
atoms of the pentose sugar
2
Page 7 of 6
*********************************************************
Page 8 of 6