FE Environmental Practice Exam-2301661

Basadi Gassama (23-016-61) sadigass@gmail.
com
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FEenvironmental
practice exam
Basadi Gassama (23-016-61) sadigass@gmail.com

Copyright © 2020 by NCEES. All rights reserved.
All NCEES sample questions and solutions are copyrighted under the laws of the United States. No part of this publication may
be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means without the prior written permission of
NCEES. Requests for permissions should be addressed in writing to permissions@ncees.org.
ISBN 978-1-932613-98-8
Printed in the United States of America

1st printing January 2020

CONTENTS
Introduction to NCEES Exams ................................................................ 1

About NCEES
Exam Format
Examinee Guide
Scoring and reporting
Updates on exam content and procedures
Exam Specifications .......................................................................... 3
Practice Exam .................................................................................... 7
Solutions .......................................................................................... 51
iii

About NCEES
NCEES is a nonprofit organization made up of the U.S. engineering and surveying licensing boards in
all 50 states, U.S. territories, and the District of Columbia. We develop and score the exams used for
engineering and surveying licensure in the United States. NCEES also promotes professional mobility
through its services for licensees and its member boards.
Engineering licensure in the United States is regulated by licensing boards in each state and territory.
These boards set and maintain the standards that protect the public they serve. As a result, licensing
requirements and procedures vary by jurisdiction, so stay in touch with your board (ncees.org/licensing-
boards).
Exam Format
The FE exam contains 110 questions and is administered year-round via computer at approved Pearson
VUE test centers. A 6-hour appointment time includes a tutorial, the exam, and a break. You’ll have
5 hours and 20 minutes to complete the actual exam.
In addition to traditional multiple-choice questions with one correct answer, the FE exam uses common
alternative item types such as
• Multiple correct options—allows multiple choices to be correct

• Point and click—requires examinees to click on part of a graphic to answer
• Drag and drop—requires examinees to click on and drag items to match, sort, rank, or label
• Fill in the blank—provides a space for examinees to enter a response to the question
To familiarize yourself with the format, style, and navigation of a computer-based exam, view the demo
on ncees.org/ExamPrep.
Examinee Guide
The NCEES Examinee Guide is the official guide to policies and procedures for all NCEES exams.
During exam registration and again on exam day, examinees must agree to abide by the conditions in
the Examinee Guide, which includes the CBT Examinee Rules and Agreement. You can download the
Examinee Guide at ncees.org/exams. It is your responsibility to make sure you have the current version.
Scoring and reporting

Exam results for computer-based exams are typically available 7–10 days after you take the exam. You
will receive an email notification from NCEES with instructions to view your results in your
MyNCEES account. All results are reported as pass or fail.
Updates on exam content and procedures

Visit us at ncees.org/exams for updates on everything exam-related, including specifications, exam-day
policies, scoring, and corrections to published exam preparation materials. This is also where you will
register for the exam and find additional steps you should follow in your state to be approved for the
exam.
1

EXAM SPECIFICATIONS
•
3
Fundamentals of Engineering (FE)

ENVIRONMENTAL CBT Exam Specifications
Effective Beginning with the July 2020 Examinations
• The FE exam is a computer-based test (CBT). It is closed book with an electronic reference.
• Examinees have 6 hours to complete the exam, which contains 110 questions. The 6-hour time also includes a
tutorial and an optional scheduled break.
• The FE exam uses both the International System of Units (SI) and the U.S. Customary System (USCS).
Knowledge Number of Questions
1. Mathematics 5–8
A. Analytic geometry and trigonometry
B. Algebraic equations and roots
C. Calculus (e.g., differential, integral, differential equations)
D. Numerical methods (e.g., numerical integration, approximations, precision
limits, error propagation)
2. Probability and Statistics 4–6
A. Measures of central tendencies and dispersions (e.g., mean, mode,
standard deviation)
B. Probability distributions (e.g., discrete, continuous, normal, binomial)
C. Estimation for a single mean (e.g., point, confidence intervals)
D. Regression (linear, multiple), curve fitting, and goodness of fit (e.g.,
correlation coefficient, least squares)
E. Hypothesis testing (e.g., t-test, outlier testing, analysis of the variance)
3. Ethics and Professional Practice 5–8
A. Codes of ethics (e.g., professional and technical societies, ethical and
legal considerations)
B. Public health, safety, and welfare (e.g., public protection issues, licensing
boards, professional liability)
C. Compliance with codes, standards, and regulations (e.g., CWA, CAA, RCRA,
CERCLA, SDWA, NEPA, OSHA)
D. Engineer’s role in society (e.g., sustainability, resiliency, long-term viability)
4. Engineering Economics 5–8
A. Time value of money (e.g., equivalence, present worth, equivalent annual
worth, future worth, rate of return, annuities)
B. Cost types and breakdowns (e.g., fixed, variable, direct and indirect labor,
incremental, average, sunk, O&M)
C. Economic analyses (e.g., benefit-cost, breakeven, minimum cost,
overhead, life cycle)
D. Project selection (e.g., comparison of projects with unequal lives,
lease/buy/make, depreciation, discounted cash flow)
4
5. Fundamental Principles 7–11

A. Population projections and demand calculations (e.g., water, wastewater,
solid waste, energy)
B. Reactors
C. Materials science (e.g., properties, corrosion, compatibility, stress strain)
6. Environmental Chemistry 7–11
A. Stoichiometry and chemical reactions (e.g., equilibrium, acid-base,
oxidation-reduction, precipitation, pC-pH)
B. Kinetics (e.g., chemical conversion, growth and decay)
C. Organic chemistry (e.g., nomenclature, functional group reactions)
D. Multimedia equilibrium partitioning (e.g., Henry’s law, octanol
partitioning coefficient)
7. Health Hazards and Risk Assessment 4–6
A. Dose-response toxicity (e.g., carcinogen, noncarcinogen)
B. Exposure routes and pathways
C. Occupational health (e.g., PPE, noise pollution, safety screening)
8. Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics 12–18
A. Fluid statics (e.g., pressure, force analysis)
B. Closed conduits (e.g., Darcy-Weisbach, Hazen-Williams, Moody)
C. Open channel (e.g., Manning, supercritical/subcritical, culverts,
hydraulic elements)
D. Pumps (e.g., power, operating point, parallel, series)
E. Flow measurement (e.g., weirs, orifices, flumes)
F. Blowers (e.g., power, inlet/outlet pressure, efficiency, operating point,
parallel, series)
G. Fluid dynamics (e.g., Bernoulli, laminar flow, turbulent flow,
continuity equation)
H. Steady and unsteady flow
9. Thermodynamics 3–5
A. Thermodynamic laws (e.g., first law, second law)
B. Energy, heat, and work (e.g., efficiencies, coefficient of performance,
energy cycles, energy conversion, conduction, convection, radiation)
C. Behavior of ideal gases
10. Surface Water Resources and Hydrology 9–14
A. Runoff calculations (e.g., land use, land cover, time of concentration,
duration, intensity, frequency, runoff control, runoff management)
B. Water storage sizing (e.g., reservoir, detention and retention basins)
C. Routing (e.g., channel, reservoir)
D. Water quality and modeling (e.g., erosion, channel stability, stormwater
quality management, wetlands, Streeter-Phelps, eutrophication)
E. Water budget (e.g., evapotranspiration, precipitation, infiltration, soil
moisture, storage)
5
11. Groundwater, Soils, and Sediments 8–12

A. Basic hydrogeology (e.g., aquifer properties, soil characteristics, subsurface)
B. Groundwater flow (e.g., Darcy’s law, specific capacity, velocity, gradient,
transport mechanisms)
C. Drawdown (e.g., Dupuit, Jacob, Theis, Thiem)
D. Remediation of soil, sediment, and/or groundwater (e.g., recovery,
ex-situ/in-situ treatment)
12. Water and Wastewater 12–18
A. Water and wastewater characteristics (e.g., physical, chemical,
biological, nutrients)
B. Mass balance and loading rates (e.g., removal efficiencies)
C. Physical processes (e.g., sedimentation/clarification, filtration,
adsorption, membrane, flocculation, headworks, flow equalization, air
stripping, activated carbon)
D. Chemical processes (e.g., disinfection, ion exchange, softening,
coagulation, precipitation)
E. Biological processes (e.g., activated sludge, fixed film, lagoons,
phytoremediation, aerobic, anaerobic, anoxic)
F. Sludge treatment and handling (e.g., land application, digestion,
sludge dewatering, composting)
G. Water conservation and reuse
13. Air Quality and Control 8–12
A. Ambient and indoor air quality (e.g., criteria, toxic and hazardous air
pollutants)
B. Mass and energy balances (e.g., STP basis, loading rates, heating values)
C. Emissions (e.g., factors, rates)
D. Atmospheric modeling and meteorology (e.g., stability classes, dispersion
modeling, lapse rates)
E. Gas treatment technologies (e.g., biofiltration, scrubbers, adsorbers,
incineration, catalytic reducers)
F. Particle treatment technologies (e.g., baghouses, cyclones,
electrostatic precipitators)
G. Indoor air quality modeling and controls (e.g., air exchanges, steady-
and nonsteady-state reactor model)
14. Solid and Hazardous Waste 7–11
A. Mass and energy balances
B. Solid waste management (e.g., collection, transportation, storage,
composting, recycling, waste to energy)
C. Solid waste disposal (e.g., landfills, leachate and gas collection)
D. Hazardous waste compatibility
E. Site characterization (e.g., sampling, monitoring, remedial investigation)
F. Hazardous and radioactive waste treatment and disposal (e.g., physical,
chemical, thermal, biological)
15. Energy and Environment 4–6
A. Energy sources concepts (e.g., conventional and alternative)
B. Environmental impact of energy sources and production (e.g., greenhouse
gas production, carbon footprint, thermal, water needs)
6
PRACTICE EXAM
•
•
7
FE ENVIRONMENTAL PRACTICE EXAM

1. The equation of a sphere with center at (0, 1, −2) and a radius of 9 is:
o A. x2 + (y − 1)2 + (z + 2)2 = 81
o B. x2 + (y + 1)2 + (z − 2)2 = 81
o C. (x + 1)2 + (y + 1)2 + (z + 2)2 = 81
o D. (x + 1)2 + (y + 1)2 + (z + 2)2 = 9
x 3 + 6 x 2 + 11x + 6
2. The roots of F = are most nearly:
x +1
o A. –1, –2, –3
o B. 2, –3
o C. –2, –3
o D. 2, 3
dy
3. The solution to + 2y = 0 where y(0) = 3 is most nearly:
dt
o A. y = 3e–2t
o B. y = e–2t
o C. y = −2
o D. y = 3e–3t
4. If a = 3.5 ± 0.2, b = 2.0 ± 0.1, and c = 5.2 ± 0.3, and given the equation X = ab2(c)0.5, the value of
X is most nearly:
o A. 31.9 ± 0.1
o B. 31.9 ± 0.6
o C. 31.9 ± 5.3
o D. 31.9 ± 5.9
Copyright ©2020 by NCEES 8 NEXT→


5. Given the function f(x) = 1/(x – 2), the linear approximation of f(x) around f(x) = –1 is most nearly:
o A. y = –1/9(x) – 4/9
o B. y = –4/9(x) – 1/9
o C. y = –1/3(x) + 4/9
o D. y = –1/9(x) + 1/3
6. A series of measurements gives values of 11, 11, 11, 11, 12, 13, 13, 14, for which the arithmetic
mean is 12. The population standard deviation is most nearly:
o A. 1.42
o B. 1.25
o C. 1.19
o D. 1.12
7. Two boxes each contain two blue blocks, one white block, and one green block. One block is
drawn from each box. The probability of drawing a white block from the first box and a blue block
from the second box is most nearly:
o A. 0.75
o B. 0.5
o C. 0.125
o D. 0.0625


8. Consider the following data:
x y xy
2 0.3 0.6
3 2.5 7.5
5 2.1 10.5
8 3.6 28.8
9 3.1 27.9
11 6.5 71.5
13 5.5 71.5
15 6.0 90.0
Σ 66 29.6
The least-squares fit linear equation is most nearly:
o A. y = 0.24 + 0.42x
o B. y = 8.25 + 0.24x
o C. y = 3.7 + 8.25x
o D. y = 3.7 – 0.42x
9. Chlorine dosage into a wastewater treatment disinfection process must have a mean of 10 mg/L.
If testing leads the operator to believe that the dosages are too high or too small, the equipment
will be shut down and adjusted. The null hypothesis for not shutting down the equipment is:
o A. Ho: μ = 10
o B. Ho: μ ≠ 10
o C. Ho: μ ≥ 10
o D. Ho: μ < 10


10. According to the Model Rules, Section 240.15, Rules of Professional Conduct, licensed
professional engineers are obligated to:
o A. ensure that design documents and surveys are reviewed by a panel of licensed engineers
prior to affixing a seal of approval
o B. express public opinions under the direction of an employer or client regardless of
knowledge of subject matter
o C. practice by performing services only in the areas of their competence and in accordance
with the current standards of technical competence
o D. do whatever is necessary to secure work, including offering, directly or indirectly,
services or other compensation in exchange for contracts
11. An engineer testifying as an expert witness in a product liability case should:
o A. answer as briefly as possible only those questions posed by the attorneys

o B. provide a complete and objective analysis within his or her area of competence
o C. provide an evaluation of the character of the defendant
o D. provide information on the professional background of the defendant
12. In the context of hazardous waste regulations, joint and several liability means:
o A. all responsible parties share cleanup costs equally

o B. all responsible parties pay cleanup costs in proportion to their individual waste quantities
o C. all responsible parties pay cleanup costs in proportion to the assessed value of their
individual properties
o D. any individual responsible party may be required to pay the entire cost of cleanup


13. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are primarily regulated under which of the following programs:
o A. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

o B. Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)
o C. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)
o D. Toxic Substance Control Act (TSCA)
14. The Pollution Prevention Act of 1990 was passed to encourage pollution prevention in the United
States and established an environmental prevention hierarchy. Place the pollution prevention
methods in the hierarchy, from most preferred to least preferred.
Pollution Prevention Methods
__________ Reuse/Recycle
Most Preferred
__________ Disposal
__________ Treatment
Least Preferred __________

Source reduction
15. A tractor costs $7,500. After 10 years it has a salvage value of $5,000. Maintenance costs are
$500 per year. If the interest rate is 10%, the equivalent uniform annual cost is most nearly:
o A. $500
o B. $750
o C. $1,400
o D. $2,000


16. The relationship between the purchase price (P) per unit, in $, and consumer demand (D), in units
sold, for a certain component is defined by the equation P = 220 – 0.025D.
The fixed costs for the production of this unit are $75,000 per month, and the variable cost is $82
per unit. If 1,200 units per month are produced and sold to consumers, the resulting monthly profit
is $__________.
Enter your response in the blank.
17. A company can manufacture a product using hand tools. Tools will cost $1,000, and the
manufacturing cost per unit will be $1.50. As an alternative, an automated system will cost $15,000
with a manufacturing cost per unit of $0.50. The anticipated annual volume is 5,000 units. If
interest is neglected, the breakeven point (years) is most nearly:
o A. 2.8
o B. 3.6
o C. 15.0
o D. never


18. A company requires a certain type of equipment for 6 years. Two mutually exclusive options are
available for purchase. Equipment A has a 6-year life cycle and an initial cost of $330,000, and it
will generate revenue of $71,000 per year while in use. Equipment B has a 4-year life cycle and
an initial cost of $215,000, and it will generate revenue of $64,000 per year while in use. Leased
equipment can be used in years 5 and 6, at a cost of $63,000 per year, to generate revenue of
$64,000 per year.
For an interest rate of 6%, the present worth of the less profitable alternative is most nearly:
o A. $6,770
o B. $8,220
o C. $19,130
o D. $43,000


19. You must choose between four pieces of comparable equipment based on the cash flows given
below. All four pieces have a life of 8 yr.
Equipment
Parameter
A B C D
First cost $25,000 $35,000 $20,000 $40,000
Annual costs $8,000 $6,000 $9,000 $5,000
Salvage value $2,500 $3,500 $2,000 $4,000
The discount rate is 12%. Ignore taxes. The two most preferable projects and the difference
between their present worth values are most nearly:
o A. A and C, $170
o B. B and D, $170
o C. A and C, $234
o D. B and D, $234
20. A community has experienced the following growth in population and water consumption:
Year Population Water Consumption

(MGD)
2005 45,000 6.30
2015 61,000 9.45
Assume that the annual percentage rate of population growth remains equal over time, but the per
capita water consumption rate stabilizes at 160 gallons per day. The projected water demand
(MGD) in 2025 is most nearly:
o A. 12.3
o B. 12.6
o C. 13.2
o D. 14.2


21. A village has a current population of 2,000 people. The village census 10 years ago showed a
population of 1,820 people. An anticipated project has a design life of 30 years. Assuming the
village maintains the same linear growth rate from the past 10 years, the population at the end of
the project's design is projected to most nearly be:
o A. 2,650
o B. 2,540
o C. 2,360
o D. 2,000
22. A city is planning to increase the size of its reservoir due to projected population growth. The city
has recorded populations of 150,000 in January of 1999 and 225,000 in January of 2009. Based on
exponential growth, the population the city should plan for in Year 2025 is most nearly:
o A. 345,000
o B. 375,000
o C. 430,000
o D. 450,000
23. Oxidation of iron in a groundwater supply is described by first-order kinetics with a rate constant
of 5/hr. The untreated iron concentration is 1.8 mg/L, and 90% removal is desired. The necessary
hydraulic residence time (hr) for a complete mix reactor is most nearly:
o A. 0.02
o B. 0.18
o C. 0.46
o D. 1.80


24. A disinfection process for potable water treatment is described by first-order kinetics with a rate
constant of 0.1 per minute. An ideal plug flow reactor is used with a hydraulic residence time of
1 hr. The expected efficiency of the system is most nearly:
o A. 90.0%
o B. 99.0%
o C. 99.9%
o D. 99.99%
25. The pressure gauge in an air cylinder reads 1,680 kPa. The cylinder is constructed of a 12-mm
rolled-steel plate with an internal diameter of 700 mm. The tangential stress (MPa) inside the tank
is most nearly:
o A. 25
o B. 50
o C. 77
o D. 100
26. If an aluminum crimp connector is used to connect a copper wire to a battery, what would you
expect to happen?
o A. Only the copper wire will corrode.

o B. Only the aluminum connector will corrode.
o C. Both will corrode.
o D. Nothing


27. Consider the following stoichiometric chemical equation:
4A + B ↔ 2C + 2D
Which of the following is the correct chemical equilibrium constant equation?
4
o A. K=
[ A] [ B ]
[C ]2 [ D ]2
o B. K=
[ 4 A][ B ]
[ 2C ][ 2 D ]
2 2
o C. K=
[ C ] [ D]
[ A]4 [ B ]
o D. K=
[ 2C ][ 2 D ]
[ 4 A][ B ]
28. A municipal wastewater treatment facility effluent contains 8 mg/L of BOD5. The reaction rate
constant for BOD exertion (base e) is known to be 0.10 day–1 for this effluent. The ultimate
BOD (mg/L) of the effluent is most nearly:
o A. 3
o B. 12
o C. 20
o D. 30


29. What kind of chemical bonding is represented by the molecules of cyclohexane, cyclohexene,
and methanol?
o A. Covalent
o B. Ionic
o C. Hydrogen
o D. Metallic
30. The concentration of TCE in the octanol phase of a two-phase octanol/water sample is 15 µg/L,
and the log K OWTCE = 2.3 . The concentration of TCE (µg/L) in the aqueous phase is most nearly:
o A. 0.1
o B. 0.2
o C. 6.5
o D. 13.3
31. How is a solution with a pH of 2 prepared using 6M HCl?
o A. Dilute 1.67 mL of HCl to 1 L, using water.

o B. Dilute 6 mL of HCl to 1 L, using water.
o C. Dilute 16.7 mL of HCl to 1 L, using water.
o D. Dilute 60 mL of HCl to 1 L, using water.


32. The activity of a radionuclide was measured at 1,200 Bq. Thirty-two days later, the activity was
measured at 150 Bq. The half-life (days) of the radionuclide is most nearly:
o A. 4
o B. 5
o C. 11
o D. 16
33. A typical example of an arene is:
o A. acetylene
o B. benzene
o C. methylamine
o D. dimethyl
34. A carcinogen is in drinking water at a concentration of 0.01 mg/L. The cancer risk of 30 years of
adult (75 kg) exposure, given a cancer slope factor of 0.80 [mg/(kg·day)]–1, is most nearly:
o A. 2.4 × 10–1
o B. 1.2 × 10–4
o C. 9.8 × 10–5
o D. 4.1 × 10–6
35. In general, dermal contact is a route of exposure for each of the following environmental
media except:
o A. groundwater
o B. surface water
o C. soil
o D. food


36. A manufacturing plant wants to install a new piece of machinery outdoors. The nearest resident
would be located 500 m from the equipment. The sound pressure level was measured to be
100 dBA at a distance of 5 m from the equipment. The resulting sound pressure level (dBA) at a
distance of 500 m from the machine is most nearly:
o A. 10
o B. 40
o C. 60
o D. 80
37. A worker is exposed to a toxic (noncarcinogenic) compound for a duration of 40 hr/week. The
concentration of the chemical in the workplace air is 40 μg/m3, and the worker is assumed to inhale
at a rate of 0.9 m3/hr. The individual has a body mass of 70 kg. The chronic daily intake
[mg/(kg·day)] during the period of occupational exposure is most nearly:
o A. 0.001
o B. 0.003
o C. 0.012
o D. 0.088


38. The rectangular homogeneous gate shown below is 3.00 m high × 1.00 m wide and has a
frictionless hinge at the bottom. If the fluid on the left side of the gate has a density of 1,600 kg/m3,
the magnitude of the force F (kN) required to keep the gate closed is most nearly:
FLUID 3.00 m
FRICTIONLESS
HINGE
o A. 0
o B. 22
o C. 24
o D. 220
39. Two open tanks are connected by a single pipe. The water surface elevations of the upstream and
downstream tank are 103.00 ft and 101.00 ft, respectively. The pipe is 60 ft long and 6 inches in
diameter. The Darcy friction factor f is 0.020. The pipe is connected to the tanks with a sharp
entrance and a sharp exit. There are no other fittings. The expected flow rate in the pipe (cfs) is
most nearly:
o A. 1.13
o B. 1.44
o C. 1.71
o D. 5.75


40. A 10-ft-wide rectangular concrete channel is to be built to convey storm water runoff. The channel
grade is 0.2%. The Manning's roughness coefficient n is 0.015. If the depth of flow is 2 ft, the
discharge (cfs) is most nearly:
o A. 110
o B. 150
o C. 250
o D. 500
41. Mark the point on the system curve that shows the head and flow when the two pumps, Pumps A
and Pump B, are working in parallel in the system.
200
PUMPS IN SERIES
150 PERFORMANCE B
PUMP CURVE
TOTAL HEAD (ft)
PERFORMANCE A
100 PUMP CURVE
SYSTEM CURVE
50
PUMPS IN PARALLEL
0
100 200 300 400 500
FLOW RATE (gpm)


42. The pitot tube shown below is placed at a point where the velocity is 2.0 m/s. The specific gravity
of the fluid is 2.0, and the upper portion of the manometer contains air. The reading h (m) on the
manometer is most nearly:
AIR
2.0 m/s
o A. 20.0
o B. 10.0
o C. 0.40
o D. 0.20
43. A 200-hp blower operating at 81% efficiency is supplying air at a rate of 2 lb/sec. The inlet pressure
is 14.7 psia, and the inlet temperature is 112oF. The outlet pressure (psia) produced by the blower
is most nearly:
o A. 61
o B. 50
o C. 21
o D. 16
44. The difference between the energy line and the hydraulic grade line for a steady incompressible
flow in a closed pipe under pressure is:
o A. pressure head
o B. elevation head
o C. velocity head
o D. headloss


45. A rapid mixing process must provide a minimum hydraulic residence time of 45 sec. The water
production rate is 0.30 MGD. Two identical tanks are provided in parallel. If the tanks are
cylindrical with a liquid depth equal to the radius, the minimum liquid depth (ft) is most nearly:
o A. 1.50
o B. 1.82
o C. 2.19
o D. 2.92
46. A pump is used to deliver water from a lake to an elevated storage tank. The elevations of the
following components are known:
Lake water surface = 93.00 ft

Pump centerline = 99.00 ft
Ground surface at storage tank = 109.00 ft
Water surface in storage tank = 199.00 ft
The static head (ft) for this pumping application is most nearly:
o A. 6
o B. 16
o C. 100
o D. 106


47. A flow of 15.5 cfs enters the pipe system at A as shown, and exits at B and C. Pipe data are given
in the following table.
Assume the pipes are all at the same elevation. The head loss (ft) in Pipe CB is most nearly:
o A. 0.05
o B. 0.13
o C. 0.18
o D. 0.23


48. A sanitary sewer has the following characteristics:
Manning's roughness coefficient (n) = 0.014

Slope (s) = 0.5%
Diameter = 1 m
The discharge (m3/s) when the sewer is flowing full is most nearly:
o A. 1.6
o B. 2.3
o C. 2.5
o D. 15.7
49. Water (density = 1,000 kg/m3) flows at a rate of 1.50 m3/s through a horizontal pipe having a cross-
sectional area of 0.25 m2. The flow rate is currently increasing at a rate of 0.50 m3/s per second.
For a pressure of 100,000 N/m2 at A, and neglecting pipe friction, the current pressure (N/m2)
directly downstream at B is most nearly:
o A. 94,000
o B. 95,500
o C. 99,250
o D. 118,000
50. A system is designed to allow at least 100,000 Btu/min of heat to be transferred (Q) from the air
to the system as air flows through it. The system can be operated so that air (cp = 0.26 Btu/lb-F)
flowing at 500 lb/min will exit at 100°F. The minimum temperature (°F) the air can enter the
system is .


51. Hot air at 200°C flows across a 50°C surface. If the heat transfer coefficient is 72 W/(m2·°C), the
heat-transfer rate (W) over 2 m2 of the surface is most nearly:
o A. 300
o B. 5,625
o C. 11,250
o D. 21,600
52. When the pressure of a constant mass of an ideal gas is doubled and the absolute temperature is
halved, the volume is:
o A. quadrupled
o B. no change
o C. halved
o D. quartered
53. A 35-acre watershed (curve number = 73) receives 4.1 in. of precipitation. The runoff volume (ft3)
is most nearly:
o A. 51,000
o B. 144,000
o C. 203,000
o D. 380,000


54. A community of 35,000 people requires a reservoir to supplement the available surface water
during an annual dry season. The available surface water of the driest year is shown.
Available
Month Surface Water
(MGD)
January 4.2
February 4.7
March 5.9
April 6.3
May 3.8
June 1.2
July 1.0
August 0.8
September 2.9
October 3.8
November 3.8
December 4.0
Assuming a demand of 80 gallons per capita per day (gpcd) and 30 days per month, the required
reservoir size (millions of gallons) is most nearly:
o A. 2.8
o B. 60
o C. 162
o D. 486


55. Stormwater runoff is routed through a pond having the following characteristics:
Water Depth Volume of Water in Pond Outflow

(ft) (ft3) (cfs)
0.0 0 0.0
1.0 19,100 3.0
2.0 43,200 5.0
3.0 57,600 7.0
4.0 75,600 9.0
5.0 163,400 12.0
During a certain storm event, runoff to the pond is 16 cfs during the first hour, 12 cfs during the
second hour, and 0 cfs during the third hour. Use the volume of water in the pond at the end of
hour n – 1 to determine the outflow during hour n. Assuming that the pond is empty when the
storm event begins, the water depth (ft) at the end of the third hour is most nearly:
o A 2.0
o B 3.0
o C 4.0
o D 5.0
56. A stream receives a discharge from an industrial wastewater treatment plant. After mixing in the
stream, the ultimate BOD is 15 mg/L, the dissolved oxygen is 7 mg/L, and the temperature is 20°C.
At the stream temperature, the saturated dissolved oxygen concentration is 9.2 mg/L. The
deoxygenation rate constant (base e) and reaeration rate constant (base e) are 0.2 day–1 and
0.4 day–1, respectively. The minimum dissolved oxygen concentration (mg/L) in the stream
downstream from this discharge is most nearly:
o A. 0
o B. 4.4
o C. 4.8
o D. 5.0


57. A reservoir used for a 2.5-MGD municipal water supply contains an initial volume of 205 Mgal
of water. On an annual basis, there is an average of 3 ft of precipitation runoff and 16.2 in. of
evapotranspiration over the 2,000-acre drainage basin (including the reservoir surface area). There
is also 7.8 in. of seepage loss out of the 21-acre reservoir. The volume of water (millions of gallons)
at the end of the year is most nearly:
o A. 118
o B. 349
o C. 363
o D. 1,236


58. Intensity-duration rainfall curves are shown below. A 12-acre residential development has a runoff
coefficient C of 0.40. The time of concentration for runoff from the development is 1 hr. If the
rational method is used, the peak runoff (cfs) from the site for a 10-yr storm is most nearly:
QUANTITY OF STORMWATER
6 15
4 10
RAINFALL INTENSITY RAINFALL INTENSITY

(in./hr) (cm/hr)
3
)
ars
(ye
5
2 0
15 5
Y
2 5
NC
1
50
UE
2
EQ
FR
0 0
0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200
TIME (min)
o A. 8.6
o B. 11.0
o C. 13.0
o D. 21.6


59. A reservoir is to be designed for a water supply system that serves a population of 300,000 people,
with an average demand of 100 gal/day/capita and a required fire flow of 3,000 gal/min for a
duration of 8 hours. If the maximum daily demand peak factor is 1.5, the required volume (millions
of gallons) of storage in the reservoir is most nearly:
o A. 30
o B. 45
o C. 46.4
o D. 67.5
60. A municipal wastewater discharge into a reservoir must be regulated to prevent eutrophication.
The discharge permit would likely include limits on which of the following parameters?
o A. BOD5, SS, Coliforms

o B. BOD5, SS, Coliforms, TKN, Total P
o C. BOD5, SS, Coliforms, Total N, Total P
o D. BOD5, SS, Coliforms, Total N, Total P, Total K
61. In an area with a composite runoff coefficient of 0.65, the surface runoff flows toward a street
from the land on both sides. The watershed area extends to 100 ft on each side of the street
centerline. The street has curb-and-gutter, and both sides of the street have a curb inlet (or basin).
The capacity of the curb inlet to pick up runoff from the gutter is 10 cfs (any more than this will
just run past the opening). City policy is to design the street drainage system to accommodate a
6.8 in./hr rainfall. The distance (ft) between the inlets along the street should be most nearly:
o A. 980
o B. 640
o C. 490
o D. 230


62. Which of the following statements is true of facultative bacteria?
o A. Facultative bacteria require oxygen as an electron acceptor for metabolism.

o B. Facultative bacteria cannot use oxygen as an electron acceptor for metabolism.
o C. Facultative bacteria require nitrate as an electron acceptor for metabolism.
o D. None of the above
63. A rapid sand filter has four cells with the following dimensions:
Length = 10 ft
Width = 10 ft
Depth = 12 ft
The water production rate is 2 MGD. If one cell of the filter is taken offline for backwash, the
hydraulic loading rate (gpm/ft2) for the filter is most nearly:
o A. 3.5
o B. 4.6
o C. 6.2
o D. 7.7
64. A lime soda softening plant produces a municipal supply of 5 MGD. The plant includes two
clarifiers, each with a diameter of 65 ft and sidewater depth of 12 ft. The clarifier residence
time (hr) for parallel operation is most nearly:
o A. 0.35
o B. 1.43
o C. 2.86
o D. 3.19


65. The primary origin of trihalomethanes in potable water supplies is:
o A. contamination of groundwater with industrial pollutants

o B. corrosion products in the water distribution system
o C. by-products of chlorination from disinfection
o D. contamination of surface water with agricultural runoff
66. A complete mix of an activated-sludge system without primary clarification is used for treatment
of a municipal wastewater with a flow rate of 12 MGD. The plant components include four
clarifiers with a diameter of 80 ft and a side-water depth of 14 ft. The aeration basin volume is
3 million gallons, the mixed liquor suspended solids concentration is 3,000 mg/L, and the solids
residence time is 5 days. The return activated-sludge flow rate is 10 MGD. The effluent suspended
solids concentration is negligible. Sludge is wasted from the aeration basin.
The return sludge suspended solids concentration (mg/L) is most nearly:
o A. 3,000
o B. 6,600
o C. 10,000
o D. 15,000


67. An aeration basin for an activated-sludge facility has the following characteristics:
Length = 90 ft
Width = 30 ft
Liquid depth = 12 ft
MLSS = 4,000 mg/L
The raw wastewater has the following characteristics:
Flow = 1.2 MGD

BOD5 = 220 mg/L
Suspended solids (SS) = 250 mg/L
A primary clarifier is provided that removes 25% of the BOD5 and 60% of the suspended solids.
The return activated-sludge flow rate is 0.8 MGD.
If the primary sludge solids content is 4% solids and the specific gravity is 1.0, the primary sludge
volume (ft3/day) is most nearly:
o A. 600
o B. 1,000
o C. 4,500
o D. 60,000
68. Match the treatment technology that will best achieve the treatment objective for the potable reuse
of water. Use each technology only once.
Treatment Objective Treatment Technology

A. Remove suspended solids 1. UV/H2O2
B. Reduce dissolved nutrients 2. Media filtration
C. Degrade trace organics 3. Biological mediation


69. Based on the following information, the annual CO2 emissions (metric tons) for a home are most
nearly:
Parameter Value
Annual electricity consumed in the home 12,395 kWh
Average CO2 emission from electricity generation 900 lb CO2/MWh
Average losses of generated electricity due to 8%
transmission and distribution
o A. 5.0
o B. 5.5
o C. 6.0
o D. 6.5
70. Three wastewater flows combine in a sewer, each having flows and BOD concentrations as
follows.
Source Flow (L/day) BOD (mg/L)

1 4.0 × 106 200
2 0.8 × 106 300
3 0.2 × 106 500
If infiltration (having zero BOD) is 10% of total flow, the resulting BOD (mg/L) is most nearly:
o A. 76
o B. 207
o C. 228
o D. 333


71. Place the unit operations and processes in the most likely sequence for a surface water treatment
facility.
Strategies
First _______________________ Disinfection
_______________________ Sedimentation
_______________________ Flocculation
_______________________ Rapid Mix
Last _______________________ Filtration
72. A groundwater contains the following cations:
Sodium = 40 mg/L
Calcium = 70 mg/L
Magnesium = 30 mg/L
The total hardness (mg/L as CaCO3) is ____________.


73. An aeration basin for an activated-sludge facility has the following characteristics:
Length = 90 ft
Width = 30 ft
Liquid depth = 12 ft
Mixed-liquor suspended solids (MLSS) = 4,000 mg/L
The 1.2-MGD flow of wastewater from the primary clarifier has the following characteristics:
BOD5 = 165 mg/L

Suspended solids (SS) = 100 mg/L
The aeration basin organic loading rate (F:M) (lb BOD5/lb SS-day) is most nearly:
o A. 0.038
o B. 0.055
o C. 0.20
o D. 0.27
74. A radiant kerosene heater is used to heat a living space. When selecting a home alarm, you would
want to ensure that it monitors which indoor air pollutant?
o A. Radon
o B. Carbon monoxide
o C. Carbon dioxide
o D. Formaldehyde


75. An 8-in.-diameter duct is used to collect and vent emissions from a heated process tank. At the
duct inlet, the air temperature is 130°F and the mass flow rate of air is 75 lb/min. The gas
temperature is reduced to 110°F during travel to the duct outlet. The mass flow rate of air (lb/min)
leaving the duct is most nearly:
o A. 64
o B. 72
o C. 75
o D. 78
76. Operation of a hydrocarbon combustion process with an increased air-to-fuel ratio from
stoichiometric to slightly above stoichiometric would be expected to increase emissions of:
o A. CO
o B. VOC
o C. PM10
o D. NOx
77. The ratio of vapor pressure to the saturation pressure of water at a given temperature can be used
to calculate:
o A. relative humidity
o B. specific humidity
o C. dew-point temperature
o D. wet-bulb temperature


78. For coal-fired steam electric power plants, control of SOx emissions is most commonly achieved
by:
o A. lime scrubbing
o B. catalytic conversion
o C. electrostatic precipitation
o D. carbon adsorption
79. A baghouse is considered an appropriate air pollution control device for which of the following
pollutant streams?
Select all that apply.
□ A. Carbon black
□ B. Carbon monoxide
□ C. Fly ash
□ D. Formaldehyde
□ E. Grains
□ F. Paint pigments
□ G. Radon
80. A manufacturing plant assembly room has the following dimensions: 50 m × 20 m × 10 m.

Evaporative solvent emissions were measured to equal 1.0 kg/hr. The production area is ventilated
at a rate of 80 air changes per hour. Assume no solvent is present in the outside air and that the
solvent concentration is uniform throughout the assembly room. The workplace air solvent
concentration (μg/m3) is most nearly:
o A. 1
o B. 100
o C. 1,250
o D. 100,000


81. Emissions of a solvent from an industrial source at ground level are 100 μg/s. If the wind speed is
3 m/s and the atmosphere has a neutral stability, the ground-level centerline concentration (μg/m3)
0.1 km downwind from the source is most nearly:
o A. 0.3
o B. 10
o C. 33
o D. 300
82. Analysis of the municipal solid waste for a community with a population of 50,000 revealed the
following composition (mass basis):
Paper products = 35%

Yard wastes = 20%
Food wastes = 10%
Plastics = 9%
Metals = 8%
Wood = 5%
Glass = 5%
Other = 8%
Implementation of a curbside recycling program is estimated to achieve 40% recycle of paper

products, 20% recycle of metals, and 30% recycle of glass. Separate collection and composting of
yard wastes is estimated to reduce quantities by 80%. Implementation of the curbside recycling
and yard waste segregation programs would achieve a reduction in the mass of municipal solid
waste of most nearly:
o A. 17%
o B. 33%
o C. 50%
o D. 65%


83. A 10-acre surface area pond is located within a 640-acre watershed. The pond is in a tight clay soil
so seepage is negligible, and there are no plants around the pond margins. During the 30-day month
of June, the watershed receives 2.50 in. of rainfall. Average stream flows into and out of the pond
during the month are 0.450 cfs and 0.10 cfs, respectively. The pond elevation at the beginning of
the month is 512.9 ft, mean sea level (MSL). By the end of the month, the pond has risen to
514.8 ft, MSL. The amount of evaporation that takes place in inches of water from the surface of
the pond during the month is most nearly ________________________.
84. A community generates 50,000 lb/day of solid waste that is disposed of in a sanitary landfill. The
mass ratio of refuse to cover is 3 to 1. The in-place density of the fill (refuse plus cover) is
1,000 lb/yd3. The necessary volume (yd3) of fill (refuse plus cover) for a 10-year operation period
is most nearly:
o A. 730,000
o B. 243,000
o C. 183,000
o D. 61,000
85. Which of the following would most likely result in an explosion if the materials were mixed?
o A. An isocyanine and an amide

o B. Hydrazine and an organic sulfide
o C. A caustic and an ester
o D. Halogenated organics, alkaline earth metal, and elemental metal


86. You are conducting a preliminary site investigation and must develop the soil sampling plan. Given
the following guidelines, the minimum number of samples required is:
Confidence level = 80%

Power = 90%
Standard deviation of sample = 0.1
Sample average = 0.4
Minimum detectable relative difference = 20%
o A. 4
o B. 8
o C. 12
o D. 15
87. Mark the diamond which signifies that a material will ignite if moderately heated.
2 2
88. A solid waste transfer bin vehicle has a load capacity of 16 tons. Refuse collection trucks have a
volume of 8 yd3 at a density of 0.25 ton/yd3. In order to fill each transfer bin vehicle to capacity,
the number of refuse collection trucks required is ________________.


89. A saturated sandy soil has a porosity of 40%. The specific gravity of the sand is 2.65. The specific
weight (lb/ft3) of the saturated soil is most nearly:
o A. 99
o B. 124
o C. 136
o D. 165
90. A constant head permeameter test has a soil specimen diameter of 4 cm and a hydraulic gradient
of 4. If the flow is constant at 25 cm3/day, the hydraulic conductivity (cm/day) is most nearly:
o A. 0.01
o B. 0.50
o C. 1.56
o D. 2.00
91. Which equation would you use to calculate the flow rate of water drawn from a well?
o A. Dupuit formula
o B. Bernoulli equation
o C. Rational equation
o D. Hazen-Williams equation


92. An air stripper will be used for reducing Compound X from a contaminated groundwater
containing 275 μg/L to a level of 2 μg/L.
Dimensionless Henry's constant for X = 0.5

KLa for stripper media = 50 hr–1
Qair = 100 m3/s
Qwater = 1 m3/s
kmol
Molar loading of X = 10
s m 2
The required height (m) of the stripper packing is most nearly:
o A. 74
o B. 65
o C. 18
o D. 1
93. A piezometer located in an unconfined aquifer is monitored on a monthly basis. The response time
associated with rainfall precipitation in an unconfined aquifer, in general, is considered to be:
o A. shorter than that of a confined aquifer

o B. the same as that of a confined aquifer
o C. longer than that of a confined aquifer
o D. cannot be determined without installing additional piezometers
94. Two monitoring wells are constructed in an unconfined aquifer. The wells are separated by a
distance of 250 ft. The water surface elevations in the up-gradient and down-gradient wells are
101.00 ft and 100.85 ft, respectively. The aquifer hydraulic conductivity is 5 ft/day. The fluid
velocity (ft/day) in the aquifer is most nearly:
o A. 0.0006
o B. 0.003
o C. 0.75
o D. 5


95. A fully penetrating groundwater extraction well is used to capture a contaminant plume in an
unconfined aquifer with a hydraulic conductivity of 5 × 10–5 ft/sec. During steady pumping of
1 × 10–2 ft3/sec, a cone of depression is formed as shown. The diameter (in.) of the well is most
nearly:
Q 30 ft
20 ft
10 ft
o A. 0.27
o B. 0.54
o C. 3.2
o D. 6.5


96. The transmissivity of a 45-m-thick confined aquifer is 1.6 × 10–2 m2/s. Two groundwater
monitoring wells are placed 50 m apart in the direction of flow. The measured difference in
hydraulic head between the two wells is 37 cm. The discharge rate (m3/day) through a 15-m-wide
area of interest is most nearly:
WELL 1 WELL 2
GROUNDWATER
FLOW 15 m
o A. 0.0018
o B. 150
o C. 6,900
o D. 7,700
97. The analysis of a 100-lb municipal refuse sample is provided.
Weight Component Energy Value

Component
(lb) (BTU/lb)
Food waste 20 2,500
Paper 40 6,500
Plastic 10 12,000
Wood 30 7,500
The energy value (BTU/lb) of the entire sample is _____________.


98. An environmental impact study of a proposed wind turbine operation would consider the potential
for all of the following EXCEPT increased:
o A. NOx emissions
o B. shadow flickering
o C. bat collisions
o D. noise pollution
99. A 1,000-MW steam electric power plant operates with a thermal efficiency of 33%. The plant
burns coal with an energy content of 11,500 Btu/lb. New source performance standards permit
emission of 0.60 lb NOx per million Btu of heat input. The maximum allowable rate of emission
of NOx (lb/day) is most nearly:
o A. 6,200
o B. 49,600
o C. 74,400
o D. 148,800
100. The mass (kg) of pure oxygen theoretically required to completely burn 3 kg of benzene (C6H6) is
most nearly:
o A. 720
o B. 9.2
o C. 7.4
o D. 4.6
Copyright ©2020 by NCEES 49


SOLUTIONS
•
•
51
FE ENVIRONMENTAL SOLUTIONS
Detailed solutions for each question begin on the next page.
1 A 26 B 51 D 76 D
2 C 27 C 52 D 77 A
3 A 28 C 53 C 78 A
4 D 29 A 54 C 79 A, C, E, F
5 A 30 A 55 A 80 C
6 D 31 A 56 C 81 A
7 C 32 C 57 C 82 B
8 A 33 B 58 A 83 4.2–5.2 in.
9 A 34 C 59 C 84 B
10 C 35 D 60 C 85 D
11 B 36 C 61 A 86 B
12 D 37 B 62 D 87 see solution
13 D 38 C 63 B 88 8
14 see solution 39 A 64 C 89 B
15 C 40 A 65 C 90 B
16 $54,600 41 see solution 66 B 91 A
17 A 42 D 67 A 92 B
18 B 43 B 68 see solution 93 A
19 B 44 C 69 B 94 B
20 C 45 A 70 B 95 D
21 B 46 D 71 see solution 96 B
22 C 47 B 72 297–300 97 6,400–6,600
23 D 48 A 73 C 98 A
24 C 49 A 74 B 99 D
–668 to
25 B 50 75 C 100 B
–670°F
52
1. Refer to the Quadric Surface (Sphere) section in the Mathematics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
(x − h)2 + (y − k)2 + (z − m)2 = r2 with center at (h,k,m)
(x − 0)2 + (y − 1)2 + (z − (−2))2 = r2
x2 + (y − 1) 2 + (z + 2)2 = 81
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: A
2. The roots of a function are defined as points where F = 0.
In this case, divide the polynomials:
x2 + 5x + 6
x + 1 x 3 + 6 x 2 + 11x + 6
x3 + x 2
5x 2 + 11x
5x2 + 5x
6x + 6
6x + 6
0
x2 + 5x + 6 factors to (x + 2)(x + 3). Therefore, the roots of F are x = –2 and x = –3
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: C
3. Refer to the First-Order Linear Homogeneous Differential Equations with Constant Coefficients
section in the Mathematics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
General solution to y' + ay = 0 is y = Ce–at
∴ for y′ + 2y = 0  y = Ce–2t
Using the initial condition, 3 = Ce–2(0) C=3
∴ y = 3e–2t
Copyright © 2020 by NCEES 53

4. X = ab2(c)0.5=(3.5)(2.0)2(5.2)0.5=31.9
dx/x = (0.2/3.5) + 2(0.1/2.0) + 0.5(0.3/5.2) = 0.19
dx = 0.19(x) = 0.19(31.9) = 5.9
X = 31.9 + 5.9
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: D
5. Refer to the Straight Line section in the Mathematics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
f(x) = (x – 2) –1
f’(x) = –1(x – 2) –2(1) = – ( x –2) –2
f’(–1) = –1/(–1 – 2)2 = –1/9
Slope of tangent line to f(x) at x = –1 is –1/9

(x, y) = (–1, –1/3)
y – y 1 = b(x – x 1)
y – (–1/3) = –1/9[x – (–1)]
y + 1/3 = –1/9(x) –1/9
y = –1/9(x) –4/9

6. Refer to the Dispersion, Mean, Median, and Mode Values section in the Engineering Probability
and Statistics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
1 2
σ= Σ ( x1 − μ )
Ν
2 2 2 2
4 (11 − 12 ) + 1(12 − 12 ) + 2 (13 − 12 ) + 1(14 − 12 )
σ=
8
σ = 1.118
7. Refer to the Laws of Probability section in the Engineering Probability and Statistics chapter of
the FE Reference Handbook.
For independent events A and B,
P(A,B) = P(A)P(B|A) = 1/4 · 1/2 = 1/8 = 0.125

8. Refer to the Linear Regression and Goodness of Fit section in the Engineering Probability and
Statistics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
n=8
∑xiyi = (2)(0.3) + (3)(2.5) + (5)(2.1) + (8)(3.6) + (9)(3.1) + (11)(6.5) + (13)(5.5)
+ (15)(6.0) = 308.3
∑x2 = (2)2 + (3)2 + (5)2 + (8)2 + (9)2 + (11)2 + (13)2 + (15)2 = 698
∑xi = 2 + 3 + 5 + 8 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 = 66
xaverage = 66/8 = 8.25
∑yi = 0.3 + 2.5 + 2.1 + 3.6 + 3.1 + 6.5 + 5.5 + 6 = 29.6
Yaverage = 29.6/8 = 3.7
Sxy = ∑xiyi – (1/n)(∑xi)(∑yi) = 308.3 – (1/8)(66)(29.6) = 64.1

Sxx = ∑x2 – (1/n)(∑xi)2 = 698 – (1/8)(66)2 = 153.5
b = Sxy/Sxx = 64.1/153.5 = 0.42

a = yaverage – bxaverage = 3.7 – (0.42)(8.25) = 0.24
Equation of line is y = a +bx

y = 0.24 +0.42x
9. Refer to the Engineering Probability and Statistics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
10. Refer to the Ethics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook. The Rules of Professional Conduct
states the following:
Licensees shall undertake assignments only when qualified by education or experience in

the specific technical fields of engineering or surveying involved.

11. Refer to the NCEES Rules of Professional Conduct, Section A.4, in the Ethics chapter of the
FE Reference Handbook.
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: B
12. Examinees are expected to be familiar with terms used in hazardous waste regulations. Joint and
several liability may require any party to bear the entire cost.
13. Examinees are expected to be familiar with the major U.S. environmental regulatory acts.
14. Examinees are expected to be familiar with the U.S. pollution prevention acts.
Most Preferred Source reduction
Recycling
Treatment
Least Preferred Disposal
THE CORRECT HIERARCHY IS SHOWN ABOVE.

15. Refer to the cash flow equations table in the Engineering Economics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
$5,000
i = 10%
0 1 2 3
10
Am = $500/yr
$7,500
A  A 
A = Am + P  , i, n − SV  , i, n
P  F 
A  A 
= 500 + 7,500  , 10%, 10 − 5, 000  , 10%, 10
P  F 
= 500 + 7,500 ( 0.16275) − 5, 000 ( 0.06275)
= $1, 407 per year

Handbook.
Given that demand D = 1,200 units/month
So purchase price per unit: P = 220 – 0.025 × 1,200 = 220 – 30 = $190
Thus the monthly revenue = P × D = $190 × 1,200 = $228,000 per month
Given that fixed cost = $75,000 per month
The variable cost per unit = $82, so the monthly variable costs = $82 × 1,200 = $98,400 per month
Total costs per month = fixed cost + variable costs = $75,000 + $98,400 = $173,400 per month
Profit = revenue – total costs = $228,000 – $173,400 = $54,600 per month
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: $54,600
17. Refer to the Breakeven Analysis section in the Engineering Economics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Tool manufacturing costs = $1.50 (5,000) = $7,500
Automated tool manufacturing costs = $0.50 (5,000) = $2,500
Annual manufacturing savings = $7,500 − $2,500 = $5,000
Additional investment for automation = $15,000 − $1,000 = $14,000
Payback = $14,000/$5,000 = 2.8 years

Handbook. To compare alternatives, the same number of years must be included in the analysis.
So the leased equipment must be used for 2 years after the 4-year life cycle of Equipment B, and
the resulting cash flow will be:
The present worth of Equipment A:

PWA = –$330,000 + $71,000 × (P/A, i = 6%, N = 6) = –$330,000 + $71,000 × (4.9173)
= $19,128.30
The present worth of Equipment B:

PWB = –$215,000 + $64,000 × (P/A, I = 6%, N = 4) + $1,000 × (P/A, I = 6%, N = 2) ×
(P/F, i= 6%, N = 4)
PWB = –$215,000 + $64,000 × (3.4651) + $1,000 × (1.8334) × (0.7921)
PWB = –$215,000 + $221,766.40 + $1,452.24 = $8,218.64
Of the two, the less profitable alternative is Equipment B, and the present worth of that alternative
is $8,218.64.

Handbook. The easiest way to solve this problem is to look at the present worth of each option.
The present worth values are all given by:

P = First Cost + Annual Cost × (P/A, 12%, 8) – Salvage Value × (P/F, 12%, 8)
= First Cost + Annual Cost × 4.9676 – Salvage Value × 0.4039
Then PA = $63,731
PB = $63,392
PC = $63,901
PD = $63,222
The cash flows are all costs, so the two most preferable projects, those with the lowest present
worth costs, are B and D, and the difference between them is $170.
20. Refer to the Population Modeling section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the
Annual rate of population growth
1 10
 61, 000 
=  = 1.0309 (3.09%)
 45, 000 
Projected population in 2010 = (61,000)(1.0309)10 = 82,689
Flow = (82,689)(160 gal/day)(10−6 Mgal/gal) = 13.2 MGD
2,000 people – 1,820 people 18 people

k = (linear model)
10 yr
 18 people 
In 30 yr, P30 = 2,000 people +   ( 30 yr )
 yr 
P30 = 2,540 people

Δt1 =10 years
ln Pt – ln P0 ln 225,000 – ln 150,000
K= = = 0.0405
Δt1 10
Δt2 = 16 years
ln Pt = ln P0 + kΔt2
= ln 225, 000 + (0.0405)(16)
= 12.97
Pt = e12.97 = 430,000
23. Refer to the Fate and Transport section and the Water Treatment Technologies section in the
Environmental Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
Mass balance for first-order CSTR at steady state
dM
= QCo − QCe ± r = 0, r = −VkCe
dt
QCo − QCe − VkCe = 0
Co − Ce
V /Q = θ =
kCe
Co = 1.8 mg/L
Ce = (1 − 0.90)Co = 0.18 mg/L
k = 5 hr −1
1.8 mg/L − 0.18 mg/L

θ= = 1.8 hr
(5 hr −1 )(0.18 mg/L)

24. Refer to the Plug-Flow Reactor (PFR) section in the Chemical Engineering chapter of the
For ideal plug flow reactor at steady state:
XA dX A C A dC A
τ = C A0  = C A0 
0 ( − rA ) 0 τA
For first-order kinetics: −rA = KCA
V C A dC A 1 C 
τ = = C A0  = ln  A0 
Q 0 KC
A K  C AE 
C  V
Thus ln  A0  = K
 C Ae  Q
C  V
ln  Ae  = − K
 C A0  Q
C Ae  V
= exp  − K 
C A0  Q
 C    V 
η = 1 − Ae 100% = 1 − exp  − K   100%
 C A0    Q 
K = 0.1 min−1
Hydraulic residence time = V/Q = 1 hr = 60 min
-1
[1 - e-(0.1 min )(60 min)
]
η= = 99.8%
100

25. Refer to the Cylindrical Pressure Vessel section in the Mechanics of Materials chapter of the
The cylinder can be considered thin-walled if t < do/2. In this case, t = 12 mm and ro = do/2 = 362
mm. Thus
Pi r
σt = do
t
ri + ro 350 + 362
where r = = = 356 mm
2 2
(1.680 MPa)(356 mm) t
σt = = 49.8 MPa
12 mm
26. Refer to the Corrosion section in the Materials Science/Structure of Matter chapter of the
Aluminum is anodic relative to copper and, therefore, will corrode to protect the copper.
27. Refer to the Equilibrium Constant of a Chemical Reaction section in the Chemistry chapter of the
2 2
K=
[ C ] [ D]
[ A]4 [ B ]

28. Refer to the Microbial Kinetics section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the
(
yt = L 1 − e− k1t )
yt = y5 = 8 mg/L
L = ultimate BOD
k1 = 0.10 day−1
t = 5 days
yt 8
∴ BODult = = = 20.3 mg / L
1− e − k1 t
1− e ( −0.1)( 5)
29. Refer to the Atomic Bonding section in the Materials Science/Structure of Matter chapter of the
These compounds are hydrocarbons, which are polymer molecules. Therefore, covalent bonding
is correct.
30. Refer to the Partition Coefficients section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the
Log K OWTCE = 2.3 K OWTCE = 102.3 = 200

K OWTCE = Co / C w = 200 = 15μg / L / C w
C w = 15 / 200 = 0.075 μg / L

31. Refer to the Acids, Bases, and pH (Aqueous Solutions) section in the Chemistry chapter of the
pH = 2 = – log [H+]
[H+] = 10–2 moles/L
Assuming complete dissociation of the HCl:
Moles HCl = (10–2 moles/L)(1 L) = (V)(6.0 moles/L)
V = 0.00167 L = 1.67 mL
32. Refer to the Radiation section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
N = N0 exp(−0.693 t/τ)
−0.693t
τ=
ln( N /N0 )
t = 32 days
N = 150 Bq
N0 = 1,200 Bq
−0.693(32 days)
τ= = 10.66 days
ln(150 1, 200)
33. Refer to the Important Families of Organic Compounds table in the Chemistry chapter of the
FE Reference Handbook. The table lists benzene as a typical arene.

34. Refer to the Intake Rates table in the Safety chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
For carcinogens, risk = dose × toxicity = CDI × CSF.
Given CSF = 0.80 (mg/(kg·day)–1
(CW)(IR)(EF)(ED)
Ingestion in drinking water, CDI =
(BW)(AT)
CW = concentration in water = 0.01 mg/L IR = ingestion rate = 2.3 L/day
EF = exposure frequency = 365 days/yr ED = exposure duration = 30 yr (given)
BW = body weight = 75 kg AT = average time = 75 (365)
(CW)(IR)(EF)(ED)
CDI =
(BW)(AT)
(0.01 mg/L)(2.3 L/day)(365 days/yr)(30 yr)

CDI =
(75kg) (75·365 days)
–4
= 1.23 × 10 mg/(kg·day)
–1
 mg  –4 mg
Risk = 0.80   × 1.23 × 10 = 9.8 × 10–5
 kg·day  kg·day
35. Refer to the Exposure section in the Safety chapter of the FE Reference Handbook. Exposure
through food is generally limited to ingestion pathways.

36. Refer to the Noise Pollution section in the Safety chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
For a point source
ΔSPL = 10 log10(r1/r2)2
= 10 log10(5/500)2 = −40 dBA
SPL = 100 dBA − 40 dBA = 60 dBA
37. Refer to the Risk Assessment/Toxicology section in the Safety chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Intake = (40 μg/m3)(0.9 m3/hr)(40 hr/wk)(10−3 mg/μg)
= 1.44 mg/wk
= 0.2057 mg/day
0.2057 mg/day
CDI = = 0.0029 mg/(kg·day)
70 kg
38. Refer to the Forces on Submerged Surfaces and Center of Pressure section in the Fluid Mechanics
chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
The mean pressure of the fluid acting on the gate is evaluated at the mean height, and the center of
pressure is 2/3 of the height from the top; thus, the total force of the fluid is:
H 3
Ff = ρg ( H ) = 1,600(9.807) (3) = 70,610 N
2 2
and its point of application is 1.00 m above the hinge. A moment balance about the hinge gives:
F (3) − F f (1) = 0
Ff 70, 610
F= = = 23,537 N
3 3

39. Refer to the Energy Equation section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
p1 V2 p V2
+ z1 + 1 + hm = 2 + z2 + 2 + hL
γ 2g γ 2g
p1 p2 V12 V22
= ≅0≅ hm = 0 ( no pump )
γ γ 2g 2g
L V2 V2
hL = f + Σk
D 2g 2g
2
 L V
∴ z1 − z2 =  f + Σk 
 D  2g
Entrance k = 0.5
Exit k = 1.0
f = 0.020
L = 60 ft
D = 6 in. = 6 in./12 in./ft = 0.5 ft
g = 32.2 ft/sec2
z1 = 103.00 ft
z2 = 101.00 ft
1/2 1/2
 z − z    103.00 − 101.00  
∴V =  1 2  2 g  =  (60)  2(32.2) 
L
 f + Σk    (0.02) + 1.5  
 D    0.5  
V = 5.75 ft/sec
 2
Q = VA = (5.75 ft sec)  π (0.5 ft)  = 1.128 cfs
 4 

40. Refer to the Manning's Equation section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
1.486 2/3
Q= A ( R ) S1/ 2
n
2/3
1.486  WD 
Q= (WD )   ( 0.002 )1/ 2
0.015  W + 2D 
2/3
 WD 
Q = 4.430 (WD )  
 W + 2D 
Using: W = 10 and D = 2;
Q = 112 cfs
41. Refer to the Fluid Flow Machinery section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
200
PUMPS IN SERIES
150 PERFORMANCE B
PUMP CURVE
TOTAL HEAD (ft)
PERFORMANCE A
100 PUMP CURVE
SYSTEM CURVE
ANSWER
50
PUMPS IN PARALLEL
0
100 200 300 400 500
FLOW RATE (gpm)
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS SHOWN ON THE GRAPH.

42. Refer to the Fluid Flow Measurement section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
ρv2
= gh ( ρ − ρair )
2
2
∴h =
ρv 2
≈
v2
≈
( 2 ) ≈ 0.204 m
2 g ( ρ − ρair ) 2 g ( 2 )( 9.8 )
43. Refer to the Blowers section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
WRT1  P 0.283 
Pw =  2  − 1
Cne  P1  
( 200 hp ) 
550 ft-lb 
 ( 0.283)(.81)  P 0.283 
 sec-hp  =  2  − 1
( 2 seclb )( 53.3 ft-lb
lb air-°R )( P
112°F + 459.69 ) °R  1  
 P 0.283 
0.4137 =  2  − 1
 P1  
0.283
P 
1.4137 =  2 
 P1 
1
0.283 P2
1.4137 =
14.7
P2 = (14.7 )( 3.399 )
P2 = 50 psia

44. Refer to the Hydraulic Gradient (Grade Line) and Energy Line (Bernoulli Equation) sections in
the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
Velocity head is not part of the hydraulic grade line but is part of the total energy line.
45. Refer to the Water Treatment Technologies section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of
θ = V/Q
(45 sec)(0.30 MGD)(106 gal/mgal)
V = ( θ)( Q ) = 3
= 20.89 ft 3
(86, 400 sec /day)(7.48 gal/ft )
V each unit = V/2 = 10.44 ft3
V = (πr2)Depth = π(Depth)3
1/3 1/3
V   10.44 ft 3 
Depth =   =  = 1.49 ft
π  π
 
46. Refer to the Energy Equation section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Static head = z2 − z1 = 199.00 − 93.00 = 106.00 ft

47. Refer to the Head Loss Due to Flow section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
 L  v 
2
hL = f    
 D   2 g 
 200   2 
2
hL,AB = 0.03     = 0.03(100)(0.062) = 0.186 ft
 2   2 × 32.2 
 200   1.3 
2
hL,AC = 0.03    = 0.03(67)(0.026) = 0.052 ft
 3   2 × 32.2 
hL,CB = hL,AB − hL,AC = 0.186 − 0.052 = 0.134 ft
Since the head loss from A to B is larger than the head loss from A to C, the head at C is greater
than the head at B. This means there is flow from C to B.
48. Refer to the Manning's Equation section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
k
Q = AR2/3 s1/2
n
k = 1 (metric units)
n = 0.014
A = πD2/4 = π(1 m)2/4 = 0.785 m2
R = D/4 = (1 m)/4 = 0.25 m
S = 0.5% = 0.005
1
∴Q = 0.014 (0.785)(0.25)2/3(0.005)1/2 = 1.57 m3/s

49. Refer to the Euler's Equation section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Flow is unsteady, and the change in pressure can be determined by Euler’s equation:
( P2 + γ • Z 2 ) − ( P1 + γ • Z1 ) = −Δx • ρ • ax
Given ΔQ/t = 0.50 m3/s per second, and

ΔQ
Q ΔV
Q = V • A so V = and = t =a
A t A
So the acceleration in the x-direction, ax = 0.50 m3/s per second / 0.25 m2 = 2.0 m/s2.
The pipe is horizontal, so Z1 = Z2. Density ρ = 1,000 kg/m3. B is greater in the x-direction than A,
and so A is location 1, and B is location 2.
PB = PA – Δx  ρ  ax
PB = 100,000 N/m2 – (3 m)  (1,000 kg/m3)  (2.0 m/s2)
N N
PB = 100, 000 2
− 6, 000 2
= 94, 000 N/m 2
m m

50. Refer to the Compressors section in the Fluid Mechanics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
Q = m cp (T2 – T1)
Solve for T1
–T1 = [Q/m cp] – T2
T1 = T 2 – [Q/m cp]
Substitute and solve
T 1 = 100°F – [100,000 Btu/min/(500 lb/min)(0.26 Btu/lb-°F)]
T 1 = 100°F – (769°F)
T 1 = –669°F
Since the negative is showing a loss of heat, the initial temperature = 669°F.
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: –668°F to –670°F
51. Refer to the Newton's Law of Cooling section in the Heat Transfer chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Q = hAΔT
Q = 72(2)(150)
Q = 21, 600 W

52. Use the Ideal Gas Law from the Thermodynamics chapter of the FE Reference Handbook:
1 1 T1 = P2 v2 T2
Pv
Given P2 P1 = 2 and T2 T1 = 1/ 2
Solving for v2
T2 Pv 1
v2 = 1 1
= v1
T1 P2 4
53. Refer to the Hydrology/Water Resources section in the Civil Engineering chapter of the
For CN = 73 and P = 4.1 in.
1,000 1,000
S= − 10 = − 10 = 3.70 in.
CN 73
( P – 0.25) 2 [ 4.1 – (0.2)(3.70)]2

Q= = = 1.60 in.
P + 0.85 4.1+ (0.8)(3.70)
Runoff volume = Area × Q
 ft 2   1.6 in. 
=  35 ac × 43.560   
 ac
   12 in. ft 
= 203,165 ft 3

gal Mgal 30 days 84 Mgal

Water demand is 35,000 people × 80 = 2.8 × = .
capita / day day month month
Available water is less than demand in June, July, and August.
Month Available Demand To Be Supplied by Reservoir

June 1.2 2.8 1.6 MGD × 30 days = 48 MG
July 1.0 2.8 1.8 MGD × 30 days = 54 MG
August 0.8 2.8 2.0 MGD × 30 days = 60 MG
48 MG + 54 MG + 60 MG = 162 MG
55. The pond is empty at time = 0.
During hour 1, the inflow rate is 16 cfs. For 3,600 sec/hr, the inflow volume is 57,600 ft3. Since
the pond was empty during the previous hour, the outflow rate is 0 cfs during hour 1, and thus the
outflow volume during hour 1 is 0. Therefore, the total volume of water in the pond at the end of
hour 1 is 57,600 ft3.
During hour 2, the inflow rate is 12 cfs (given in question statement). For the hour, the inflow
volume is 43,200 ft3. Since the pond had 57,600 ft3 at the end of the previous hour, then the outflow
rate during hour 2 is 7 cfs (from the given table). This is an outflow volume of 25,200 ft3.
Therefore, the total volume of water in the pond at the end of hour 2 is 57,600 ft3 + 43,200 ft3 –
25,200 ft3 = 75,600 ft3.
During hour 3, the inflow rate is 0 cfs. The inflow volume is 0 ft3. Since the pond had 75,600 ft3
at the end of the previous hour, then the outflow rate during hour 3 is 9 cfs (from the given table).
This is an outflow volume of 32,400 ft3 during the hour. Therefore, the total volume of water in
the pond at the end of hour 3 is 75,600 ft3 – 32,400 ft3 = 43,200 ft3.
From the given table, if the volume of water in the pond is 43,200 ft3 , then the water depth = 2 ft.

56. Refer to the Streeter Phelps equation in the Stream Modeling section in the Environmental
Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
tc =
1 k  ( k − k ) 
ln  2 1 − Do 2 1  
k2 − k1  k1  k1Lo  
k1Lo
D=  exp ( − k1t ) − exp ( − k2t )  + Do exp ( − k2t )
k2 − k1 
DO = Dsat − D
From the question statement:
k2 = 0.4 day−1
k1 = 0.2 day−1
Do = Dsat − DOinitial = 9.2 − 7.0 = 2.2 mg/L
Lo = 15 mg/L
tc = 2.67 days
Dtc = 4.39 mg/L
DO = 9.2 − 4.39 = 4.8 mg/L
57. Refer to the Mass Balance section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Precipitation inflow = 2,000 acres × 3 ft = 6,000 acre-ft

Evapotranspiration losses = 2,000 acres × 16.2 in / 12 in/ft = 2,700 acre-ft
Seepage losses = 21 acres × 7.8 in / 12 in/ft = 13.65 acre-ft
Change in volume 1 = 6,000 – 2,700 – 13.65 = 3,286 acre-ft
3,286 acre-ft × 43,560 ft2/acre = 143 M ft3 × 7.48 gal/ft3= 1,071 Mgal
Total volume change = 1,071 – 2.5 MGD (365 days/yr) = 1,071 – 913 = 158 Mgal
Volume at end of year = 205 +158 = 363 Mgal

58. Refer to the Rational Formula section in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Q = CiA
C = 0.40
A = 12 acres
Must use intensity, duration, frequency curve to determine i.
Duration = 1 hr = 60 min
Frequency = 10 yr
∴ i = 1.8 in./hr
Q = (0.40)(1.8)(12) = 8.64 cfs
 gal  6
Qmax = (1.5) 100  (300, 000 capita) = 45 ×10 gal/day
 day − cap 
Vmax = Qmax × t = (45 × 106 gal/day)(1 day) = 45 × 106 gal
Vfire = (3, 000 gal / min)(8 hr)(60 min/hr) = 1.44 × 106 gal
Vdaily = Vmax + Vfire
= 45 × 106 gal + 1.44 × 106 gal
= 46.4 × 106 gal

60. Examinees are expected to be familiar with term eutrophication. Eutrophication is stimulated by
plant nutrients N and P. Limits on total N and total P are usually specified to address eutrophication
concerns.
61. Refer to the Rational Formula section in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Q = CIA
Q 10
A = = = 2.26 acres
CI 0.65 × 6.8
Catchment Area = 2.26 acres × 43,560 ft 2 / acre = 98,400 ft 2

A = 100 × L
98, 400
L = = 984 ft
100
62. Examinees are expected to be familiar with the properties of facultative bacteria. Facultative
bacteria can use oxygen as an electron acceptor if available. If oxygen is not available, facultative
bacteria can use other electron acceptors such as nitrate or organic compounds.
63. Refer to the overflow rate in the Clarifier section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the
Overflow rate = Q/A A = L × W (surface area)
A = (3 cells)(10 ft)(10 ft) = 300 ft2

( 2 MGD) (106 gal/Mgal )
Overflow rate = = 4.63 gpm/ft 2
(300 ft ) (1, 440 min/day)
2

64. Refer to the equation for hydraulic residence time in the Clarifier section in the Environmental
Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
volume
Residence time =
flow rate
 ( 65 ft )2 
Clarifier volume = 2 ×  π (12 ft ) = 79,639 ft 3
 4 
 
 5 MGD   106 gal / Mgal 

Flow =  = 27,852 ft 3 / hr
 7.48 gal / ft 3  24 hr / day 
  
79,639 ft 3
Residence time = = 2.86 hr
27,852 ft 3 / hr
65. Examinees are expected to be familiar with trihalomethanes as a by-product of disinfection.

Trihalomethanes are by-products of disinfection. Chlorine reacts with organic precursors to form
trihalomethanes.
66. Refer to the Water Treatment Technologies section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of
the FE Reference Handbook. A steady-state mass balance for suspended solids around an activated
sludge final clarifier yields the following equation:
(Qo + QR )X A = Qe X e + QR X w
where Xw is the return sludge suspended solids concentration. Thus:
(Qo + QR )X A − Qe X e
Xw =
QR
 mg   mg 
(12 MGD + 10 MGD)  3,000  − (12 MGD)  0 
 L   L 
Xw =
10 MGD
Xw = 6,600 mg/L

67. Refer to the Wastewater Treatment and Technologies section in the Environmental Engineering
Primary sludge dry weight
Weight = QSoη = (1.2 MGD)(250 mg/L)(8.34 (lb/mgal)/mg/L)(0.60) = 1,501 lb/day
1,501 lb dry/dry
Wet weight = = 37,530 lb/day
0.04 lb dry/lb wet
37,530 lb/day
Volume = 3
= 601 ft 3 /day
62.4 lb/ft
68. Examinees are expected to be familiar with various treatment technologies.
Treatment Objective Treatment Technology

A. Remove suspended solids 2. Media filtration
B. Reduce dissolved chemicals 3. Biologically active filtration
C. Degrade trace organics 1. UV/H2O2
THE CORRECT ANSWERS ARE SHOWN.
69. 1. Calculate the metric tons of CO2 emitted.
CO2 = (12,395 kW-h/year) × (900 lb CO2/MW-h) × (1 MW-h/1,000 kW-h) × (1 metric ton/2,204.6

lb) = 5.06 metric tons CO2/year
2. Account for the losses due to transmission and distribution.
CO2 = (5.06 metric tons CO2/year) × [1/(1 – 0.08)] = 5.5 metric tons CO2/year
Answer = 5.5 metric tons CO2/year

70. Refer to the Fate and Transport section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the
ΣQiCi = QT Cave
Inflow = Q4 = 0.1(4.0 + 0.8 + 0.2) = 0.5 million liters per day
C4 = 0
 Qi Ci 4(200) + 0.8(300) + 0.2(500)

Cave = = = 207 mg/L
QT (4.0 + 0.8 + 0.2 + 0.5)
71. Examinees are expected to be familiar with surface water treatment facility technologies. The
correct order is shown below.
1. Rapid mix
2. Flocculation
3. Sedimentation
4. Filtration
5. Disinfection
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS SHOWN.
72. Refer to the Lime Soda Softening Equations section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of
Hardness is associated with Ca2+ and Mg2+, not Na+. Convert concentrations to mg/L as CaCO3:
 70 mg L   2meq   mg CaCO3 
Ca2+:     50  = 175 mg L
 40 mg mmole   mmole   meq 
 30 mg L   mg CaCO3 
Mg2+:   ( 2 meq mmole )  50  = 123.456 mg L
 24.3 mg mmole   meq 
Total Hardness = 175 + 123 = 298mg L as CaCO3
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: 297–300 mg/L as CaCO3

73. Refer to the Wastewater Treatment Technologies section in the Environmental Engineering
lb BOD 5 /day to aeration Qo S o

Organic loading rate (F:M) = =
lb SS in aeration Vol X A
Qo = 1.2 MGD
So = 165 mg/L
Vol = (90 ft)(30 ft)(12 ft)(7.48 gal/ft3)(10−6 Mgal/gal) = 0.242 Mgal
XA = 4,000 mg/L
Organic loading =
(1.2 )(165) = 0.204 lb BOD5 /day
( 0.242 )( 4,000 ) lb SS
74. Refer to the Incomplete Combustion section in the Thermodynamics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Carbon monoxide poses a risk of an elevated emission rate for combustion sources with
operational anomalies resulting in concentrations above safe levels in living spaces.
Radon is an indoor air pollutant that is a naturally emitted decay product from geological
formations.
Carbon dioxide is a by-product of combustion under normal operating conditions and is less of a
concern to human health for indoor air quality.
Elevated formaldehyde emissions are not a risk from operation; formaldehyde emissions are
typical of composite wood and laminate and not from kerosene heaters.

75. Refer to the First Law of Thermodynamics section in the Thermodynamics chapter of the FE
Reference Handbook.
See the equation that refers to conservation of mass, i.e. the sum of the mass entering and exiting
a system being equal. Note that conservation of mass only applies in an open system if there are
no losses in the system. If there are no losses, then  min =  mexit .
This equation extends to the mass rate of flow (i.e. mass/time).
Mass is conserved.
Input mass = output mass = 75 lb/min
76. Refer to the Incomplete Combustion section in the Thermodynamics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
A slight increase in air-to-fuel ratio provides more complete combustion, thus:
CO → CO2
VOC → CO2
N → NOx
77. Refer to the Psychrometrics section in the Thermodynamics chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
The definition of relative humidity:
pv vapor pressure
φ= =
pg saturation pressure

78. Examinees are expected to be familiar with emission control technologies. SOx is removed by
liquid scrubbing at a high pH. Lime may be added to raise the pH.
79. Baghouses are appropriate technology for the removal of air pollutants that are particulates. The
correct answers are particulate pollutants listed in the Baghouse section in the Environmental
Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook. The incorrect options (carbon monoxide,
formaldehyde, and radon) are pollutants that are in the gas phase and would not be removed by a
baghouse.
THE CORRECT ANSWERS ARE: A, C, E, AND F
80. Refer to the Mass Balance section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Mass balance at steady state:
Input − Output + Generation = Accumulation
QCo − QC + E = 0
QCo + E
C=
Q
 Air Changes  3
Q =  80  (50 m × 20 m × 10 m) = 800, 000 m /hr
 hr 
Co = 0
E = (1 kg/hr ) (109 μg/kg) = 109 μg/hr
109 μg/hr
C= 3
= 1, 250 μg/m3
800, 000 m /hr

81. Refer to the Air Pollution section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Q  1 y2    1 ( z − H )2   1 ( z + H )2  
C (μg/m3 ) = exp  −  exp − + exp −
2πU σ y σ z  2 σ 2y   2 σ2   2 σ2  
   z   z 
Q = 100 μg/s
U = 3 m/s
y=0m
H=0m
z=0m
For neutral stability (class D) and x = 0.1 km,

σy = 8 m σz = 4.5 m
100
C= exp (0) {exp (0) + exp(0)} = 0.295 μg/m3
(2π)(3)(8)(4.5)
82. The following table shows how much of each component is recovered by recycling and how much
remains as solid waste. The basis is 100 lb of original MSW.
Mass Recovered Remaining

Component
(lb) (lb) (lb)
Paper 35 14 21
Yard 20 16 4
Food 10 0 10
Plastic 9 0 9
Metal 8 1.6 6.4
Wood 5 0 5
Glass 5 1.5 3.5
Other 8 0 8
100 33.1 66.9
100 − 66.9
= ×100% = 33.1%
Reduction 100

83. P + Qin – Qout + QGrnd – ES – TS – I = ΔS
Transpiration = 0 due to lack of plants on pond margins

Infiltration = 0 due to soils
QGrnd = 0 due to soils
Flowin = (0.450 ft3/sec)*(3,600 sec/hr)*(24 hr/day)*(30 day/mo) = 1.1664 × 106 ft3/mo

(1.1664 × 106 ft3/mo)*(1 acre/43,560 ft2 *(1/10 acre)*(1 mo) = 2.678 ft
Rain = 2.50 in./(12 in./ft) = 0.2083 ft
Flowout = (0.10 ft3/sec)*(3,600 sec/hr)*(24 hr/day)*(30 day/mo) = 259,200 ft3/mo

(259,200 ft3/mo)*(1 acre/43,560 ft2*(1/10 acre)*(1 mo) = 0.595 ft
2.678 ft + 0.2083 ft – 0.5950 ft – ES = ΔS = 514.8 – 512.9 = 1.9 ft

ES = 2.678 ft + 0.2083 ft – 0.595 ft – 1.9 = 0.3909 ft
E = 0.391 ft ≈ 4.7 in.
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: 4.2–5.2 in.
84. Determine mass of cover.

 1 lb cover 
Cover = (50, 000 lb refuse)   = 16,667 lb
 3 lb refuse 
Total mass fill (10-yr life)
Fill = (50,000 lb/day refuse + 16,667 lb/day cover)(365 days/yr)(10 yr) = 2.433 × 108 lb
2.433 × 108 lb
Volume = 3
= 243, 000 yd 3
1, 000 lb/yd
85. Refer to the Hazardous Waste Compatibility Chart in the Safety chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.

86. Refer to the Sampling and Monitoring section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the FE
Reference Handbook.
Confidence level (CL) = 80%

Power = 90%
Standard deviation of sample (s) = 0.1
Sample average ( ̅ ) = 0.4
Minimum detectable relative difference (MDRD) = 20%
1. Calculate the coefficient of variation (CV)
CV = (100 * s) / ̅
CV = (100 * 0.1)/0.4
CV = 25%
2. Use the data quality objectives (DQO) for sampling soils (FE Reference Handbook) tables to
determine the number of samples required.
The intersection of CV = 25%, Power = 90%, Confidence Level = 80%, MDRD = 20% results in
eight samples.
87. Refer to the Hazard Assessment section in the Safety chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
According to the fire/hazard diamond, the diamond in the northern, eastern, southern, and western
positions represent the flammability, reactivity, special hazards, and health hazards, respectively.
The northern position represents the key position for this case, and a value of 2 in this position
represents a material that will ignite if moderately heated.
2 2
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS SHADED ABOVE.

0.25 ton
88. Collection truck volume = vehicle 8 yd 3 × = 2 tons/collection truck
yd 3
16 tons
= 8 collection trucks
2 tons/collection truck
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: 8
89. Refer to the Geotechnical section in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
Porosity = Vvoid /Vtotal = 0.40
Assume Vtotal = 1 ft3
Vvoid = (0.40)(1 ft3) = 0.40 ft3
Vsolid = 1 − Vvoid = 0.60 ft3
Wt = (0.40 ft 3 ) γ water + (0.60 ft 3 )(SG sand )( γ water )

= ( 0.40 ) + ( 0.60 )( 2.65 )  62.4 lb/ft 3 = 124 lb/ft 3

90. Refer to the Geotechnical section in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
Q = 25 cm3/day
i= dh =4
dL
π 2 π
A= D = (4) 2
4 4
te = 1
Q 25 cm3 /day
K= =
i A tE π 
4 42 1
4 
K = 0.497
91. Refer to Dupuit's formula in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.

92. Refer to the Air Stripping section in the Environmental Engineering chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Z = HTU × NTU
Calculate NTU:
 100 m 3·s air 

RS = ( 0.5 )  3  = 50
 1 m ·s water 
RS  ( C /C )( RS – 1) +1  50  ( 275/2 )( 49 ) +1 
NTU = ln  in out  = ln  
RS – 1  RS  49  50 
NTU = 5.00
Calculate HTU:
L
HTU =
M W KLa
10 kmol / s·m 2
HTU = = 12.93 m
 kmol   50   1 hr 
 55.6 3   h   3,600 s 
 m   
Z = HTU × NTU
5 × 12.93 m = 64.7 m
93. Refer to the Well Drawdown section in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference
Handbook.
Recharge associated with an unconfined aquifer would generally have a shorter response time.

94. Refer to Darcy's law in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
Darcy's Equation
Q = – (KA)(dh/dx)
V = Q/A = –K Δh/Δx
K = 5 ft/day
Δh = 100.85 ft – 101.00 ft = –0.15 ft
Δx = 250 ft
−(0.15 ft)
V = −(5 ft/day) = 0.003 ft/day
(250 ft)
95. Refer to Dupuit's formula in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
Q=
(
πk h22 − h12 )
r 
ln  2 
 r1 
r2
r1 =
 πk (h22 − h12 ) 
exp  
 Q 
30ft
=
 π(5 ×10 ft/sec)(202 −102 )ft 2 
–5
exp  
 1×10−2 ft 3/sec 
r1 = 0.27 ft
d1 = 0.54 ft = 6.5 in.

96. Refer to Darcy's law in the Civil Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
T
For T = K · b K = , given T = 1.6 × 10–2 m2/s and b = 45 m
b
1.6 × 10−2 m2 /s
K= = 3.56 × 10−4 m / s
45 m
Darcy’s Law
dh
Q = –KA for dh = – 0.37 m and dx = 50 m
dx
 −0.37 m 
Q = – (3.56 × 10–4 m/s)(675 m2)  3 3
 = 0.001778 m /s × 86,400 sec/day = 153.6 m /day
 50 m 
= 150 m3/day
97. Refer to the Municipal Solid Wastes section and the Fate and Transport section in the
Environmental Engineering chapter of the FE Reference Handbook.
The overall energy value is the sum of the energy values from each component weighted on a mass
basis.
Weight Component Energy Value Total Energy Value

Component
(lb) (Btu/lb) (Btu)
Food waste 20 2,500 50,000
Paper 40 6,500 260,000
Plastic 10 12,000 120,000
Wood 30 7,500 225,000
Total 100 655,000
The energy value of the entire sample (Btu/lb) is 655,000 Btu/100 lb = 6,550 Btu/lb.
THE CORRECT ANSWER IS: 6,400–6,600 Btu/lb

98. There are no gas phase emissions associated with the operation of a wind turbine. All other items
would typically be evaluated during the study for the localized impacts of the wind turbine
operation.
99. Determine energy input rate
 Btu/hr  6
(1,000 MW)  3.413  (10 W/MW)
Power  W 
Input = = = 1.034 ×1010 Btu/hr
η 0.33
( )( )
NO x = 0.6 lb/106 Btu 1.034 ×1010 Btu/hr ( 24 hr/day ) = 1.49 ×105 lb/day
100. Write a balanced chemical reaction for the combustion (oxidation) of benzene
C6H6 + 7.5 O2 = 6 CO2 + 3 H2O
1. Determine the mass ratio of the reactants (note the balanced reaction provided the moles of
each reactant).
Molecular Weight Mass

Reactant Mole ratio Ratio
(g/mole)
Benzene (C6H6) 1 78 78
Oxygen (O2) 7.5 32 240
2. Calculate the kg of oxygen required.
Mass of oxygen required = 3 kg C6H6 * 240 kg O2/78 kg C6H6 = 9.2 kg O2

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Introduction to NCEES Exams ................................................................ 1

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Practice Exam .................................................................................... 7

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Fundamentals of Engineering (FE)

Knowledge Number of Questions

5. Fundamental Principles 7–11

11. Groundwater, Soils, and Sediments 8–12