Xi Biology Term 1 MCQ

VIVEKANANDA EDUCATIONAL SOCIETY
BIOLOGY
CLASS XI
TERM I QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1
CONTENT
CHAPTER : 1 THE LIVING WORLD

CHAPTER : 2 BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
CHAPTER : 3 PLANT KINGDOM
CHAPTER : 4 ANIMAL KINGDOM
CHAPTER : 5 MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
CHAPTER : 7 STRUCTURAL ORGANISTION IN ANIMALS
CHAPTER : 8 CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE
CHAPTER : 9 BIOMOLECULES
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BIOLOGY
(Code No. 044)
COURSE
STRUCTURE
CLASS XI
(2021 -22)
EVALUATION SCHEME
Theory
Units Term – I Marks
I Diversity of Living Organisms: Chapter - 1, 2, 3 and 4 15
II Structural Organization in Plants and Animals: Chapter – 5 and 7 08
III Cell: Structure and Function: Chapter – 8 and 9 12
Units Term - II Marks
III Cell: Structure and Function: Chapter - 10 05
IV Plant Physiology: Chapter - 13,14 and 15 12
V Human Physiology: Chapter –17, 18, 19, 20, 21 and 22 18
Total Theory (Term – I and Term – II) 70
Practicals Term – I 15
Practicals Term – II 15
Total 100
THERORY TERM 1
Unit-I Diversity of Living Organisms
Chapter-1: The Living World
What is living? Biodiversity; Need for classification; three domains of life;

concept of species and taxonomical hierarchy; binomial nomenclature.
Chapter-2: Biological Classification
Five kingdom classification; Salient features and classification of Monera,

Protista and Fungi into major groups; Lichens, Viruses and Viroids.
Chapter-3: Plant Kingdom
Salient features and classification of plants into major groups - Algae, Bryophyta,
Pteridophyta and Gymnospermae. (salient and distinguishing features and a few
examples of each category).
Chapter-4: Animal Kingdom
Salient features and classification of animals, non-chordates up to phyla level and

chordates up to class level (salient features and distinguishing features of a few
examples of each category). (No live animals or specimen should be displayed.)
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Unit-II Structural Organization in Animals and Plants
Chapter-5: Morphology of Flowering Plants
Morphology of inflorescence and flower, Description of 01 family: Solanaceae or

Liliaceae (to be dealt along with the relevant experiments of the Practical Syllabus).
Chapter-7: Structural Organization in Animals
Animal tissues.
Unit-III Cell: Structure and Function
Chapter-8: Cell-The
Unit of Life
Cell theory and cell as the basic unit of life, structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells; Plant cell and animal cell; cell envelope; cell membrane, cell wall; cell
organelles - structure and function; endomembrane system, endoplasmic
reticulum, golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles, mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids,
microbodies; cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultrastructure and function);
nucleus.
Chapter-9:
Biomolecules
Chemical constituents of living cells: biomolecules, structure and function

of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids; Enzymes- types, properties, enzyme
action.
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CHAPTER-1 THE LIVING WORLD
1. How multicellular organism grows?

(a) By cell Aggregation
(b) By Chemical deposition
(c) By cell elongation
(d) By cell division
2. Which one is correct for pattern of plants growth?

(a) Growth by cell division which occurs only up to a certain age
(b) Growth by cell elongation which occurs continuously throughout their life
span
(C) Growth by cell division which occurs continuously throughout their life span
(d) All of the above
3. Which one is correct pattern of animal’s growth?

(a) Growth by cell division which occurs only up to a certain age, however, cell
division occurs in all tissues to replace lost cells
(b) Growth by cell elongation occurs continuously throughout their life span
(c) Growth by cell division occurs continuously throughout their life span
(d) Growth by cell division which occurs only up to a certain age however, cell
division occurs in certain tissues to replace lost cells
4. Which of the following is correct for growth in unicellular organisms?

(a) Grow by cell division
(b) Grow by cell elongation
(c) Both elongation and division
(d) None of these
5. Choose correct statement for growth

(a) Increase in body mass is considered as growth
(b) Non-living objects also grow if we take increase in body mass as a criterion
for growth
(c) Non-living objects is also grow by accumulation of material on the surface
6. Which statement is wrong for growth?

(a) Increase in body mass is considered as growth
(b) Non-living objects also grow if we increase in body mass as a criterion for
growth
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(c) Non-living objects is also grow by accumulation of material from inside
(d) Growth exhibited by living organisms from inside
7. What is true for living organisms?

(a) Growth taken as a defining property
(b) Growth cannot be taken as a defining property
(c) Accumulation of fat is Growth
8. In lower organisms like yeast and hydra observes

(a) Budding
(b) Spore
(c) Fragmentation
(d) None.
9. Which of the following organism multiplies by fragmentation?

(a) Planaria (flat worms)
(b) Filamentous algae
(c) Fungi
(d) All of these
10. Which of the following organism not multiplies by fragmentation?

(a) Flatworms
(b) Filamentous algae
(c) Protonema of mosses
(d) Yeast
11. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in a

(a) Bacteria
(b) Amoeba
(c) Unicellular algae
(d) All of these
12. The number and types of organisms present on earth is known as:
(a) Biodiversity
(b) Biomagnification
(c) Biome
(d) Biosphere
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13. Nomenclature or naming is only possible when the organisms are:
(a) Classified
(b) Identified
(c) Described correctly
(d) Both (b) & (c)
14. Scientific names or nomenclature of plants are based on rules provided by

(a) ICZN
(b) ICBN
(c) ICVN
(d) All of these
15. What full form of ICBN ?

(a) International Code for bacterial Nomenclature (ICBN)
(b) International Code for binomial Nomenclature (ICBN)
(c) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN)
16. What is full form of ICZN?

(a) International Code of Zoo animal Nomenclature
(b) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature
(c) International Code of Zoologist Nomenclature
17. In which organism species consider as the lowest category in taxonomic

hierarchy?
(a) In plant kingdoms
(b) In animal kingdoms
(c) in all organisms
(d) None of these
18. Which of the following belongs to genus Solanum ?

(a) Potato
(b) Brinjal
(c) Datura
(d) Both (a) and (b)
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19. Which of the following belongs to genus Panthera ?
(a) Lion
(b) Leopard
(c) Tiger
(d) All of these
20. Which of the following species includes in genus Panthera?

(a) leo
(b) Tigris
(c) pardus
(d) All of these
21. Which of the following species includes in genus Felis?

(a) Cat
(b) Dog
(c) Lion
(d) All of these
22. Families of plants species are characterised on the basis of which features?
(a) Vegetative
(b) Reproductive
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
23. Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories ?

(a) Species Phylum Order Kingdom
(b) Genus Species Order Kingdom
(c) Species Genus Order Phylum
(d) None of these
24. Which of the following genera placed in the family Solanaceae ?

(a) Solanum
(b) Petunia
(c) Datura
(d) All of these
25. Lion, Tiger, Leopard and Cats placed in which family?

(a) Canidae
(b) Felidae
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(c) Carnivora
(d) Mammalia
26. Which of the following families included in the order Polymoniales?

(a) Convolvulaceae.
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Malvaceae
27. Plant families grouped in an order mainly based on which characters

(a) Floral
(b) Morphological
(c) Anatomical
(d) All of these
28. Which is the following statements about classification is true?

(i) Members of the family are less similar than members of an included genus
(ii) An order has more members than the number of members in as included
genus
(iii) Families have more members than phyla
(iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor in the more distant past
than members of an included genus
(v) The number of species in a taxon depends their relative degree of similarity
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) All of these
29. How many statements are correct from given sentences?

(i) Dogs, Cats, mammals, Wheat is taxa
(ii) Processes of characterization, identification, classification and
nomenclature are basic to taxonomy
(iii) In early days classification based on evolutionary relationship between
organisms.
(iv) Linnaeus used Systems Naturae as the title of his publication
(v) Systematic include identification, nomenclature and classification on the
basis of evolutionary relationships between organisms
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Five
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30. Match the entities in column I and Column II
Column I Column II
(A) Dogs (i) Species
(B) Systematics (ii) Genus
(C) Lowest Category (iii) Family
(D) Mangifera (iv) Evolutionary relationships
(E) Solanaceae (v) Taxa
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E(v)

(b) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E(i)
(c) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii), E(iii)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv), E(v)
Assertion and Reason

Given below are assertion and reason mark the correct choice from given
options:
(a) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of
assertion
(b) Assertion and reason both are true but the reason is not correct
explanation of assertion
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false

(d) Assertion and reason both are false
31. Assertion: Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living

organisms.
Reason: Non-living objects also grow if we take increase in body mass as
a criterion for growth.
32. Assertion: Reproduction also cannot be an all-inclusive defining

characteristic of living organisms.
Reason: Many living organisms do not reproduce.
33. Assertion: Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms

without exception.
Reason: All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism but
No non-living object exhibits metabolism.
34. Assertion: The number and types of organisms present on Earth is called
biodiversity
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Reason: The number of species that are known and described range
between 1.7- 1.8 million.
35. Assertion: Name of the author appears after the specific epithet, i.e., at
the end of the biological name and is written in an abbreviated form.
Reason: Mangifera indica Linn, Linn indicates that this species was first
described by Linnaeus.
36. Assertion: All organisms, including those in the plant and animal
kingdoms have species as the lowest category.
Reason: Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms
with fundamental similarities as a species.
37. Assertion: Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and
reproductive features of plant species.
Reason: Three different genera Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed
in the family Solanaceae.
38. Assertion: Genus Panthera, comprising lion, tiger, leopard is put along
with genus, Felis in the family Felidae.
Reason: Families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the
genera Solanum mainly based on the floral characters.
39. Assertion: Consciousness cannot be an all-inclusive defining

characteristic of living organisms.
Reason: patients lying in coma in hospitals have no self-consciousness.
40. Read the following table and answer the following:

Comm Biological Genus Family Order Class Phylum/
on Name Division
Name
Man Homo Homo Hominidae Primata Mammalla Chordata
sapiens
Housefly Musca Musca Muscidae Diptera Insecta Arthropoda
domestica
Mango Mangifera Mangifera Anacardiaceae Sapindales Dicotyleonae Angiospermae
indica
Wheat Triticum Triticum Poaceae Poales Monocotyl Angiospermae
aestivum edonae
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40.1.Housefly belongs to which Genus ?
a. Domestica
b. Musca
c. Muscidae
d. Diptera
40.2.Mango included in which family ?

a. Indica
b, Mangifera
c. Anacardiaceae
d. Sapindales
40.3. Mango placed in which class ?

a. Dicotyledonae b. Mangifera
c. Anacardiaceae d. Sapindales
40.4.Wheat grouped in which order ?

a. Poaceae b. Poales
c. Anacardiaceae d. Sapindales
40.5. Identify the correct sequence of taxa in hierarchy :

a. Species, genus, family, order, class
b. Class, family, species, genus, order
c. Species, genus, phylum, family, class
d. Phylum, class, family, species, order
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CHAPTER 2 - BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
1. Five kingdom system of classification was proposed by :

a. John Ray
b. Linnaeus
c. Theophrastus
d. R.H.Whittaker
2. The main criteria for five kingdom of classification includes :

a. Cell structure and thallus organization
b. Mode of nutrition, reproduction
c. Phylogenetic relationships
d. All of these
3. Phylogenetic classification systems based on :

a. Natural affinities among the organisms
b. Phytochemistry
c. Evolutionary relationship between the various organisms
d. Reproduction
4. Taxonomy which is based on all observable characteristics and each

character is given equal important is :
a. Natural Classification system

b. Phylogenetic classification
c. Numerical taxonomy
d. Cytotaxonomy
5. Natural classification system developed, which were based on :

a. Natural affinities among the organisms
b. Internal features, like ultrastructure, anatomy, embryology and
phytochemistry
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
d. Reproduction
6. Eubacteria or true bacteria characterized by the presence of :

a. Rigid cell wall
b. If motile then flagellum
c. Capsule
d. All of these.
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7. Which one is not correct for cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) ?
a. Photosynthetic autotrophs
b. Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric carbon dioxide n
specialized cells called heterocysts.
c. They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
d. The conlonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath
8. Which of the following not included in cyanobacteria ?

a. Nostoc
b. Anabaena
c. Methanogens
d. Oscillatoria
9. ___________ bacteria oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrates,

nitrites and ammonia and use the released energy for their ATP production.
a. Chemosynthetic autotrophic
b. Photosynthetic autotrophic
c. Methanogens
d. Oscillatoria
10. ______________ play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen,

phosphorous, iron and sulphur.
a. Heterotrophic bacteria
b. Photosynthetic autotrophic
c. Chemosynthetic autotrophic
d. Blue-green algae
11. Which of the following is not true for heterotrophic bacteria?

a. They are the most abundant in nature
b. The majority are important decomposers.
c. Chemosynthetic autotrophic
d. Some are pathogens causing damage to human beings, crops, farm
animals and pets.
12. Which of the following is true for heterotrohphic bacteria ?

a. They are helpful in making curd from milk
b. They are helpful in production of antibiotics
c. They are helpful in fixing nitrogen in legume roots.
d. All of these.
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13. Which of the following diseases not caused by bacteria?
a. Cholera
b. Typhoid
c. Dengue
d. Tetanus, citrus canker
14. Bacteria reproduce by :

a. Spores
b. Fission
c. Conjugation
d. All of these.
15. Which of the following mainly living in stagnant freshwater and instead of a
cell wall, they have pellicle?
(a) Chrysophytes
(b) Euglenoids
(c) Slime moulds
(d) Protozoans
16. Which of the following is not correct for euglenoids?

(a) They have two flagella, short and a long one.
(b) Pigments of euglenoids are identical to those present in higher
(c) They are saprophytic protists
(d) Example: Euglena
17. Which of the following is not correct for slime moulds ?

(a) During favourable conditions, the Plasmodium differentiates and
forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips
(b) The spores possess true walls
(c) Spores are extremely resistant and survive for many years, even
under adverse conditions
(d) The spores are dispersed by air currents
18. Which of the following are heterotrophs, live as predators or parasites and
believed to the primitive relatives of animals?
(a) Ascomycetes
(b) Euglenoids
(c) Protozoans
(d) Paramecium
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19. Which of the following organisms live in freshwater or seawater and move
and capture their prey by pseudopodia?
(a) Entamoeba
(b) Amoeba
(c) Trypanosoma
(d) Paramecium
20. Organisms which live in freshwater, seawater or moist soil, move and
capture their prey by pseudopodia and marine forms have silica shells on their
surface included in which group
(a) Sporozoans
(b) Ciliated protozoans
(c) Amoeboid protozoans
(d) Flagellated protozoans
21. Which of the following organisms have flagella and cause diseases?
(a) Entamoeba
(b) Amoeba
(c) Trypanosoma
(d) Paramecium
22. Dikaryon condition found in

(a) Ascomycetes
(b) Basidiomycetes
(d) Phycomycetes
23. Branched and septate mycelium, conidia and ascospores characteristics of

____
(a) Puccinia
(b) Mucor
(c) Aspergillus
(d) All are correct
24. In Agaricus karyogamy and meiosis takes place in :

(a) Ascus
(b) Basidum
(c) Trama
(d) Subhymanium
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25. Deuteromycetes commonly known as imperfect fungi because :
(a) Sexual phases of these fungi are known
(b) Only the asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi are known
(d) Vegetative phases of these fungi are known
26. The common members of basidiomycetes are:

(a) Albugo, Rhizopus and Mucor
(b) Agaricus, Ustilago and Puccinia
(c) Agaricus, Rhizopus and Alternaria
(d) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma
27. The common members of Phycomycetes are

(a) Alaricus, Rhizopus and Alternaria
(b) Alternaria, Collectrichum and Trichoderma
(c) Agaricus, Ustilago and Puccinia
(d) Mucor, Rhizopus and Albugo
28. The fungi are heterotrophic and absorb soluble organic matter from dead
substance and hence are called
(a) Parasites
(b) Saprophytes
(c) Symbiont
(d) Mycorrhiza
29. Aspergillus belongs to:

(a) Phycomycetes
(b) Ascomycetes
(c) Deuteromycetes
(d) Basidiomycetes
30. Which are extensively used in biochemical and genetic work?

(a) Claviceps and Neurospora
(b) Alternaria and Trichoderma
(c) Ustilago and Puccinia
(d) Mucor and Rhizopus
31. Fusion between one large, non-motile gamete and a smaller motile male
gamete is known
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(a) Isogamous
(b) Anisogamous
(c) Oogamous
(d) All of these
32. Kingdom __________ includes all eukaryotic chlorophyll-containing

organisms but few members are partially heterotrophic such as the
insectivorous plants or parasites:
(a) Monera
(b) Protista
(c) Plantae
(d) Animalia
33.In kingdom animalia major mode of nutritions is _________

(a) Holozoic
(b)Parasitic
(c)saprophytic
(d) None
34.Who demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco could
cause infection in healthy plants and called the fluid as contagium vivum
fluidum (infectious living fluid)
(a) Ivanowski
(b) M.W. Beijerinek
(c) W.M. Stanley
(d) T.O. Diener
35. The name virus that means venom or poisonous fluid was given by :
(a) Ivanowsky
(b) M.W. Beijerinck
(c) W.M. Stanley
(d) Pasteur
36. Which statement is correct for lichens?

(a) Algal component is known as mycobiont and fungal component as
phycobiont
(b) Fungi prepare food for algae
(c) Algae provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water for its
partner.
(d) All are incorrect
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37. Fungus in association with algae as lichens, with root of higher plants called
as
(a) Mycoplasma
(b) Mycorrhiza
(c) Parasite
(d) Commensalism
38. Which of the following not included in the five kingdom classification of
Whittaker?
(a) Viruses
b) Viroids
(c) Lichens
(d) All of these
39. Given diagram represents ……… and A, B represent:
(a) CMV-A-DNA-B-Capsid
(b) TMV-A-DNA-B-Capsid
(c) TMV-A-RNA-B-Capsid
(d) TMV-A-Capsid-B-RNA
40. In Given diagram of bacteriophage A, B, C and D represents:
(a) A-Head-B-Sheath-C-Collar-D-Tail fibre

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(b) A-Head-B-Collar-C-Sheath-D-Tail fibre
(c) A-Head-B-Neck-C-Sheath-D-Tail fibre
(d) All are correct
41. Match the Column

Column-I Column-II
(a) Deuteromycetes (i) Penicillium
(b) Basidiomycetes (ii) Rhizopus
(c) Ascomycetes (iii) Puccinia
(d) Phycomycetes (iv) Trichoderma
(a) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(b) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(c) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-I
(d) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Assertion and Reason Questions

options:
assertion
42. Assertion: Plasmodium is a Sporozoan.

Reason: have an infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle.
43. Assertion: Body of fungi consist of long, slender thread-like structures

called hyphae.
Reason: The cell wall of fungi are composed of chitin and
polysaccharides.
44. Assertion: Fungi are saprophytes, parasites and symbionts.

Reason: Most fungi are absorb soluble organic matter from dead
substrates, some depend on living plants and animals and they can also
live in association with algae and with roots of higher plants.
45. Assertion: Mucor, Rhizopus and Albugo fungi are members of

phycomycetes.
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Reason: The mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic and sexual
reproduction takes place by zoospores or by aplanospores.
46. Assertion: Penicillium, yeast (Saccharomyces), Aspergillus, Claviceps and

Neurospora fungi are members of ascomycetes.
Reason: The mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic and sexual
reproduction takes place by zoospores or by aplanospores.
47. Assertion: Penicillium, yeast (Saccharomyces), Aspergillus, Claviceps and

Neurospora fungi are members of ascomycetes.
Reason: Mycelium is branched and septate. The asexual spores are
conidia which produced exogenously on the special mycelium called
conidiophores.
48. Assertion: Agaricus (mushroom), Ustilago (smut) and Puccinia (rust

fungus) fungi are members of ascomycetes.
Reason: Mycelium is branched and septate. The asexual spores are
conidia which produced exogenously on the special mycelium called
conidiophores.
49. Assertion: Deuteromycetes commonly known as imperfect fungi.

Reason: Because only the asexual or vegetative phases of these fungi
are known.
50. Assertion: In the five kingdom classification of Whittaker there is no

mention organisms like viruses and viroids.
Reason: The viruses and viroids are non-cellular organisms.
51. Assertion: Lichens are symbiotic associations.

Reason: It is an association of fungus with root of higher plant.
52. The name virus that means venom or poisonous fluid was given by Dmitri
Ivanowsky (1892) recognised certain microbes as causal organism of the
mosaic disease of tobacco (Figure 2.6a). These were found to be smaller than
bacteria because they passed through bacteria-proof filters. M.W. Beijerinek
(1898) demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco could
cause infection in healthy plants and called the fluid as Contagium vivum
fluidum (infectious living fluid). W.M. Stanley (1935) showed that viruses could
be crystallised and crystals consist largely of proteins. They are inert outside
their specific host cell. Viruses are obligate parasites. In addition to proteins,
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viruses also contain genetic material, that could be either RNA or DNA. No
virus contains both RNA and DNA.
52.1. A plasmid is a
(a) Bacteriophage
(b) DNA molecule incorporated in the bacterial ‘chromosome’
(c) DNA molecule present in mitochondria
(d) A small circular DNA molecule capable of self-replication and that can
carry genes into hose organisms
52.2. “Viroids” have

(a) Single stranded RNA not enclosed by protein coat
(b) Single stranded DNA not enclosed by protein coat
(c) Double stranded DNA enclosed by protein coat
(d) Double stranded RNA enclosed by protein coat
52.3. Sub-unit of coat (capsid) of virus is :
(a) Nucleosome
(b) Capsomere
(c) Nucleotide
(d) None of these
52.4. Which disease is caused by viruses ?

(a) Mumps
(b) Small pox
(c) Herpes and influenza
(d) All of these
52.5. In plants, the symptoms like mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling,
yellowing and vein clearing, dwarfing and stunted growth produced by :
(a) Viruses
(b) Fungus
(c) Lichens
(d) Bacteria
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CHAPTER 3-PLANT KINGDOM
1. Bentham and Hooker proposed :

(a) Natural classification system for flowering plants
(b) Phylogenetic classification for flowering plants
(c) Natural classification system for plants
(d) Phylogenetic classification for animals
2. Taxonomy which is based on all observable characteristics and each

character is given equal importance is :
(a) Natural classification system
(b) Phylogenetic classification
(c) Numerical taxonomy
(d) Cytotaxonomy
3. Classification systems which based on cytological information like

chromosome structure, behaviour etc., included under:
(a) Cytotaxonomy
(b) Phytochemistry
(c) Chemotaxonomy
(d) Reproduction
4. Chemotaxonomy based on :
(a) Chromosome number and structure
(b) Chemical constituents of the plant
(c) DNA characteristics
(d) Reproduction
5. Spirogyra shows
(a) Anisogamous
(b) Oogamous
(c) Isogamous
(d) Both anisogamous and isogamous
6. Algin is a product produce from

(a) Brown alga
(b) Red alga
(c) Green alga
(d) Both brown and red algae
7. Carrageen obtained from:

(a) Brown alga
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(b) Red alga
(c) Green alga
(d) Red and Green algae
8. They reproduce asexually by non-motile spores and sexually by non-motile

gametes. Sexual reproduction is oogamous and accompanied by complex post
fertilization developments is characters of:
(a) Red alga
(b) Brown alga
(c) Green alga
(d) Yellow alga
9. Algae used as food supplements even by a space travellers

(a) Red alga
(b) Brown alga
(c) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(d) Chlorella
10. Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria, Sargassum and Fucus are member of:
(a) Red alga
(b) Brown Alga
(c) Green alga
(d) Yellow Alga
11. Algae differ from bryophytes in having:

(a) Chl-a and b
(b) Naked sex organs
(c) Jacketed sex organs
(d) Aerobic respiration
12. Algae used as food are:

(a) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum
(b) Chlorella and Spirullullina
(c) Ectocarpus, Gelidium and Gracilaria
13. Which of the following are chlorophyll-bearing, simple, thalloid,

autotrophic and larety aquatic (both freshwater and marine) organisms?
(a) Fungi
(b) Funaria
24
(c) Algae
(d) All of these
14. Which of the following is habitat of algae?

(a) Moist stones.
(b) Soil and wood
(c) Water
(d) All of these
15. Which of the following is habitat of algae?

(a) Unicellular
(b) Colonial
(c) Filamentous
(d) None of these
16. Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdoms because?
(a) Plants can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual
reproduction
(b) They usually occur in damp, humid and shaded localities
(c) They play an important role in plant succession of bare rocks / soil
(d) All of these
17. The plant body of bryophytes is more differentiated than that of algae?
(a) It is thallus-like and prostrate or erect, and attached to the
substratum by unicellular or multicellular rhizoids
(b) They may possess root-like, leaf-like of stem-like structures
(c) They may possess root, leaf and stem
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
18. The plant body of bryophytes is similar to algae because :

(a) Both have thallus-like and prostrate or erect, and attached to the
substratum by unicellular or multicellular rhizoids
(b) Both may possess root-like, leaf-like or stem-like structures
(c) Both may possess root, leaf and stem
(d) Both lack true roots, stem or leaves
19. The main plant body of the bryophyte is

(a) Sporophyte
(b) Haploid
(c) Gametophyte
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct
25
20. The sex organs in bryophytes are
(a) Unicellular or multicellular
(b) Unicellular
(c) Multicellular
(d) Unicellular and multicellular
21. Which is true for sex organs in bryophytes?

(a) The male sex organ is called antheridium
(b) The female sex organ called archegonium
(c) Antheridium produces biflagellate antherozoids
22. The plant body of a liverwort is:

(a) Thalloid
(b) Leaf-like
(c) Both thalloid and leaf-like
(d) None of these
23. Thalloid plant body is found in:

(a) Riccia
(b) Mosses
(c) Marchantia
(d) Both (a) and (c)
24. Which of the following is wrong for gemmae (gemma)?

(a) Gemmae are green, multicellular, asexual buds
(b) It develop in small receptacles called gemma cups located on the
thalli
(c) The gemmae become detached from the parent body and germinate
to form new sporophytes
(d) The gemmae become detached from the parent body and germinate
to form new individuals
25. Which one is more specific for sexual reproduction in bryophytes ?

(a) Male and female sex organs are produced on the same thalli.
(b) Male and female sex organs are produced on the different thalli
(c) Male and female sex organs are produced either on the same or on
different thalli
(d) None of the above
26
26. First stage Protonema and second stage leafy stage are the stages of:
(a) Moses
(b) Liverworts
(c) Hornworts
(d) Cycas
27. In mosses first stage is the Protonema stage which develops:

(a) From leafy stage
(b) Directly from a spore
(c) From rhizoids
(d) All of these
28. In mosses second stage is the leafy stage which develops:

(a) From Sex organs
(b) directly from a spore
(c) Secondary protonema as a lateral bud
(d) All of these
29. Microphylls leaves found in which pteridophytes :

(a) Selaginella
(b) Ferns
(c) Equisetum
(d) All of these
30. Leaves bear sporangia called:

(a) Sporophylls
(b) Macrophylls
(c) Microphylls
(d) All of these
31. Precursor to the seed habit is:

(a) Development of the zygotes into young embryos take place within
the when it retained on the parent sporophytes.
(b) Development of the zygotes into young embryos take place on
ground.
(c) Development of the zygotes into young embryos take place within
the male gametophys
(d) All are correct.
32. Sporophyll form distinct compact structure called:

27
(a) Strobila
(b) Cone
(c) Gemmae
33. Pteridophytes show multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic

thalloid gametophyte called:
(a) Gemmae
(b) Cone
(c) Prothallus
(d) Pollen grain
34. Psilotum and Selaginella are example of

(a) Bryophytes
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Horn Worts
(d) Gymnosperms
35. Strobilli or cones from in:

(a) Selaginella
(b) Equisetum
(c) Pteris
36. Which of the following is example of class Psilopsida?

(a) Selaginella
(b) Equisetum
(c) Pteris
(d) Psilotum
37. The gymnosperms are_______

(a) Heterosporous
(b) Homosporous
(d) None of these
38. The strobili or cones bearing microsporophylls and microsporangia are

called:
(a) Microsporangiate or male strobili
(b) Microsporangiate or female strobili
28
(c) Pollen grain
(d) Macrosporangiate or female strobili
39. The microspores develop into a male gametophytic generation which is

highly reduced and is confined to only a limited number of cells is known as:
(b) Microsporangiate or female
(c) Pollen grain
40. The cones bearing megasporophylls with ovules or megasporangia are

called:
(b) Microsporangiate or female Strobili
(c) Pollen grain
41. Male Cones and megasporphylls are born on different trees in__________
(a) Cycas
(b) Pinus
(c) Cedrus
(d) All of these
42. Diplontic life cycle is found in :

(a) Gymnosperms and angiosperms
(b) Volvox, Spirogyra and some species of Chlamydomonas
(c) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
(d) Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia
43. Haplo-diplontic life cycle is found in :

(a) Fucus
(b) Ectocarpus and Polysiphonia
(c) Mango
(d) Laminaria
29
44. Identify the following diagrams
(a) (i) Riccia, (ii) Marchantia, (iii) Sphagnum and (iv) Funaria
(b) (i) Male Marchantia, (ii) Female Marchantia, (iii) Funaria and (iv) Sphagnum
(c) (i) Marchantia, (ii) Female branch of Riccia, (iii) Polytrichum and (iv) Funaria
(d) (i) Female Marchantia, (ii) Male Marchantia, (iii) Funaria (iv) Sphagnum
45. Given diagram represent:
(a) a-Ginkago b-Pinus, c-Cycas

(b) a-Pinus, b-Ginkgo, c-Cycas
(c) a-Cycas, b-Pinus, c-Cedrus
(d) a-Cycas, b-Pinus, c-Ginkgo
46. Examine the figure (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and choose correct option in which all
the items (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
30
(a) (i) Porphyra, (ii) Fucus, (iii) Dictyota, (iv) Red algae
(b) (i) Polysiphonia, (ii) Porphyra, (iii) Dictyota, (iv)Brown algae
(c) (i) Fucus (ii) Dictyota (iii) Prophyra (iv)Polysiphonia
(d) (i) Porphyra (ii) Polysiphonia (iii) Focus (iv) Dictyota
47. Choose the correct option for given blanks.

In the laminaria plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a (i) _____
stalk called (ii) _______ and a leaf-like photosynthetic organ is (iii)_______
(a) (i) Frond (ii) Holdfast (iii) Stipe
(b) (i) Holdfast (ii) Stipe (iii) frond
(c) (i) Frond (ii) Stipe (iii) Holdfast
(d) (i) Frond (ii) Stipe (iii) Holdfast
48. Match the entitles in column I with their character in column II

Column I Column II
(A) Chlorophyceae (i) Algin
(B) Phaeophyceae (ii) Chara
(C) Rhodophyceae (iii) Ectocarpus
(D) Brown algae (iv) Porphyra
(E) Red algae (v) Carrageen
(a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(v)

(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iii), E-(iv)
(d) More than one
ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS
options:
assertion
49. Assertion : Rhodophyceae are commonly called red algae.

Reason: Predominance of the red pigment, r-phycoerythrin in the body
of members of Rhodophyceae.
31
50. Assertion: Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason: They are found commonly in moist shaded areas in the hills.
51. Assertion: The plant body of bryophytes is more differentiated than that
of algae.
Reason: They may possess root-like, leaf-like or stem-like structures.
52. Assertion: Mosses are of great ecological importance.

Reason: Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to colonise
rocks and hence they decompose rocks making the substrate suitable for
the growth of higher plants.
53. Assertion: Evolutionarily mosses are the first terrestrial plants to possess
vascular tissues.
Reason: Mosses possess vascular tissues xylem and phloem.
54. Assertion: In bryophytes the dominant phase in the life cycle is the
gametophytic plant body.
Reason: In pteridophytes, the main plant body is a sporophyte which is
differentiated into true roots, stem and leaves.
55. Assertion: Spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to

narrow geographical regions.
Reason: Prothallus require cool, damp, shady places to grow and the
need for water for fertilization.
56. Assertion: Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are known as

heterosporous.
Reason: It produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and micro (small).
57. Assertion: Pteridophytes are considered precursor to the seed habit.

Reason: The development of the zygotes into young embryos take place
outside the female gametophytes.
58. Assertion: The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand

extremes of temperature, humidity and wind.
Reason: In conifers, the needle-like leaves reduce the surface area. Their
thick cuticle and sunken stomata also help to reduce water loss.
32
59. Assertion: In Pinus male or female cones or strobili may be born on the
same tree.
Reason : In Cycas male cones and megasporophylls are born on different
trees.
60. Assertion: The haploid plant body (gametophyte) produces gametes by

mitosis.
Reason: Zygote divides by mitosis and produces a diploid sporophytic
plant body.
61. Assertion: Volvox, Spirogyra and some species of Chlamydomonas have

haplontic life cycle.
Reason : The dominant, photosynthetic phase in such plants is the free-
living gametophyte and sporophytic generation is represented only by
the one-celled zygote.
62. Algae are useful to man in a variety of ways. At least a half of the total
carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through
photosynthesis. Being photosynthetic they increase the level of dissolved
oxygen in their immediate environment. They are of paramount importance as
primary producers of energy-rich compounds which forrn the basis of the food
cycles of all aquaüc animals. Many species of Porphyra, Laminaria and
Sargassum are among the 70 species of marine algae used as food. Certain
marine brown and red algae produce large amounts of hydrocolloids (water
holding substances), e.g., alÖn (brown algae) and carrageen (red algae) which
are used commercially. Agar, one of the commercial products obtainedfrom
Gelidtum and Gracilaria are used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice-
creams and jellies. Chlorella a unicellular alga rich in proteins is used as food
supplement even by space travellers.
62.1 At least a half of the total carbon dioxide fixation through photosynthesis
on earth is carried out by ?
(a)Bryophytes
(b) Fungi
(c) Algae
33
62.2 Which of the following arc hydrocolloids (water holding substances) ?

(a) Algin
(b) Carrageen
(c)Agar
62. 3 Which of the following are used to grow microbes and in preparations of
ice-creams and jellies?
(a) Algin
( b) carrageen
(c) Agar
62.4 Which of the following are source of agar ?
(a) Gelidium
(b) Gracilaria
(c) Chlorella
62.5 .Which of the following is unicellular algae ?
(a) Chlamydomonas
(b) Chlorella
(C)Spirullina
34
CHAPTER 4-ANIMAL KINGDOM
1. Choanocytes or collar cells are unique to :

a. Protozoa
b. Porifera
c. Mollusca
d. Echinodermata
2. Osculum is characteristic of :
a. Cucumaria
b. Star fish
c. Hydra
d. Leucosolenia
3. Digestion in Sycon and other sponges is:

a. only extra cellular
b. only intra cellular
c. first extra cellular, then intracellular
d. first intra cellular, then extra cellular
4. Gastro – vascular cavity found in :

a. Ctenophora
b. Porifera
c.Coelenterata
d. Platyhelminthes
5. Hypostome is Characteristics of :
a. Physalis
b. Adamsia
c. Pennatula
d. all of these
6. In which of the following polyp stage is found ?

a. Hydra
b. Corals
c. Adamsia
d. all of these
35
7. Umbrella-shaped and free swimming form in Cnidarians is known as ?
a. Polyp
b. medusa
c. scypha
d. Polyp and medusa
8. One of the following organisms can be traced in lymph nodes

a. Taenia
b.Wuchereria
c. Diplococcus
d. Plasmodium
9. Which of the following is bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and

pseudocoelomate animals ?
a. Arthropods
b. Molluscs
c. Platyhelminthes
d. Aschelminthes
10. Which of the following is wrong for habitat of round worm ?

a. They may be free living
b. They may be aquatic and terrestrial
c. They may be parasitic in plants and animals
d. none of the above
11. The excretory organs of annelida is

a. Nephridia
b. Archeocytes
c. None of these
d. Statocysts
12. In which of the following metamerically segmented body present ?

a.Nereis
b. Taenia
c. Adamsia
d. Ascaris
13. Which of the following is monoecious ?

a. Nereis
b. Cockroach
36
c. Ascaris
d. Earthworm
14. Excretion takes place through malpighian tubules in

a.Anopheles, Culex and Aedes
b. Asterias, Exhinum, Antedon
c. Pila, Pinctada, Sepia
d. All of these
15. The body of arthropods consist of

a. Head
b. Head and abdomen
c. Head, Thorax and abdomen
d. Thorax and abdomen
16. Sensory organs like antennae, eyes (compound) are found in

a. Lepisma
b. Bombyx
c. Locusta
d. all of these
17. Which of the following is commonly called ‘Pearl Oyster’ ?

a. Limulus
b. Pinctada
c. Chaetoplenura
d. Dentalium
18. What is the function of gills found in molluscans ?

a. Respiration
b. Excretion
c. Feeding
d. both a and b
19. What if the function of radula found in molluscans ?

a. Respiration
b. Excretion
c. feeding
d. Both (a) and (b)
37
20. Calcareous ossicles (Spine)of echinodermates is
a. Exoskeleton
b.Endoskeleton
c. Endoskeleton or exoskeleton
d. Both endoskeleton and exoskeleton
21. Water vascular system found in

a. Annelida
b. Arthropoda
c. Echinodermata
d. Chordata
22. The body of hemichrodates is cylindrical and is composed of which of the

following structure ?
a. Proboscis
b. Collar
c. Trunk
d. all of these
23. Open type of circulatory system found in

a. Saccoglossus
b. Balanoglossus
c. Locusta
d. all of these
24. Correct statement is :

a. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between aves and mammals.
b..Duck-billed platypus is connecting link between mammals and reptiles
c. Sea horse is connecting link between horse and fish
d. Hydra is connecting link between protozoa and metazoan
25. Which one of the following sets of animals belongs to the same class of
a phylum ?
a. Hydra, jelly fish , cray fish
b. Bat, Pigeon, Whale
c. Spider, scorpion , Centipede
d. Whale, otter, kangaroo
26. Which of the following have electric organs?
a.Torpedo
b. Scoliodon
38
c. Carcharodon
d. Trygon
27. In which of the following is poikilothermous animals ?

a. Fish b. Amphibian
c. Reptiles d. all of these
28. In which of the following is a limbless amphibian ?

a.Ichthyophis
b. Salamandra
c. Hyla
d. Rana
29. Skin is dry without glands except the oil gland at the base of the tail is a
character of ?
a. Amphibia
b. aves
c. Fish
d. Reptiles
30. Choose the wrong statement for Arthropoda

i. The body consists of head, thorax and abdomen
ii. Respiratory organs are gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system
iii. Statocysts is a excretory organs
iv. They are mostly monoecious, fertilization is usually internal
v. Apis, Bombyx and Laccifer are economically important insects
a. (iv) and (v)
b. (iii) and (iv)
c. None of these
d. (ii), (iii) and (v)
31. How many characters for mollusca are correct from given characters?
i. Body have distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump
ii. A soft and spongy layer of sking forms a mantle over the visceral hump
iii. The space between the head and the mantle is called the mantle cavity
iv. Mantle cavity have feather like gills which related with respiratory and
excretory functions
v. The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula
vi. They are usually monoecious and oviparous with indirect development
a. (i), (ii) and (iv) & (v)
39
b. (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi)
c. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
d. (ii), (iii) and (vi)
32. How many characters for echinodermata are correct from given characters.
i. They animals have an exoskeleton of calcareous ossicles
ii. All are marine with organ – system level of organization
iii. Digestive system is complete with mouth on the dorsal side and anus on the
ventral side
iv. Water canal system present which helps in locomotion ,capture and
transport of food and respiration
v. They are monoecious, fertilization is usually external
vi. Development is indirect with free – swimming larva
a. (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
b. (i), (ii),(iii), (v) and (vi)
c. (i), (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
d. (ii) & (vi)
33. Which of the following option is correct for given diagram I and II ?
a. Sycon – marine Spongilla – marine

b. Euspongia – marine Sycon – marine
c. Sycon – fresh water Euspongia – marine
d. Sycon-marine Spongilla-fresh water
34. Which of the following options is correct for I and II animals regarding their
name and their respective classes ?
a. I – Salamandra - Chordate ; II – Chelone – Chordate

b. I- Chameleon – Reptilia ; II – Chelone – Reptilia
c. I – Salamandra – Amphibia ; II – Chameleon – Amphibia
40
d. I-Salamandra-Amphibia; II- Chelone -Reptilia
35. Which of the following options is correct for name of given animals and
their respective classes and character?
a. Ornithorhynchus – Mammalia – Viviparous

b. Delphinus – Mammalia – Common dolphin
c. Ornithorhynchus – Chordates – Oviparous
d. Ornithorhynchus-Mammalia-Oviparous
36. Choose the incorrect statement for cartilaginous fish from given
statements.
i. Petromyzon and Myxin are cartilaginous fish
ii. Notochord is persistent through out life
iii. Gill slits are separate and whitout operculum
iv. The skin is tough, containing minute cycloid / ctenoid scales
v. Due to the air bladder, they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking
vi. They have internal fertilization and many of them are viviparous
a. (iv) , (v) and (vi)
b. All except (iii) and (v)
c. All except(ii),(iii) and (vi)
d.All of these
37. Match the entities in Column I with their character in column II

Column I Column II
A. Loligo i. Mosquitoes
B. Octopus ii. Cuttlefish
C. Limulus iii. Devil fish
D. Aedes iv. Squid
E. Sepia v. Living Fossil
a. A-(iv) B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(ii)
b. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(v)
c. A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(v) D-(i) E-(i)

d . A-(iii), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iv), E-(v)
38. Match the entities in Column I with their character in Column II

Column I Column II
41
A. Petromyzon i. Amphioxus
B. Placoid scales ii. Myxin
C. Cycloid/Ctenoid Scales iii. Osteichthyes
D. Branchiostoma iv. Chondrichthyes
E. Hagfish v. Lamprey
a. A-(iii),B-(iv),C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii) b. A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i), E-(ii)
c. A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iii) d. A-(iv), B-(v), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(ii)
ASSERTION AND REASON
options:
assertion
39. Assertion: Sponges have a water transport or canal system.

Reason: In canal system water enters through ostia in the spongocoel
from where it goes out through the osculum.
40. Assertion: Those cnidarians which exist polyp and medusa forms exhibit
alternation of generation (Metagenesis).
Reason: In Obelia polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae form
the polyps sexually.
41. Assertion: Platyhelminthes have dorso-ventrally flattened body, hence are

called flatworms.
Reason: Some members like Planaria possess high regeneration capacity.
42. Assertion: Arthropoda are the largest phylum of animals which includes
insects.
Reason: Over two-thirds of all named species on earth are arthropods.
43. Assertion: The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of

water vascular system
Reason: Water vascular system helps in locomotion, capture and transport
of food and respiration.
42
44. Assertion: Hemichordata was earlier considered as a sub-phylum under
phylum Chordata.
Reason: Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus are urochordates.
45. Assertion: Lamprey and Hagfish are vertebrates

Reason: Possess notochord during the embryonic period.
46. Assertion: All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not
vertebrates.
Reason: The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral
column in the vertebrates only.
47. Assertion: Sting ray is a member of Chondrichthyes.

Reason: They have three pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum
on each side.
48. Assertion: Ichthyophis is a member of fish.

Reason: They are oviparous and development is indirect.
49. Assertion: Chelone and Testudo member of reptilia.

Reason: They are mostly terrestrial animals and their body is covered by
dry and cornified skin, epidermal scales or scutes.
50. Assertion: Psittacula and Struthio are member of Aves.

Reason: The forelimbs are modified into wings and both of them can fly.
51. Assertion: Ornithorhynchus and Macropus are member of Mammalia.

Reason: They have milk producing glands.
52. Assertion: Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammals included in super class
tetrapoda.
Reason: They have two pairs of limbs, adapted for walking, running,
climbing, swimming or flying.
53. Assertion: Cyclostomata is a class of division Gnathostomata

Reason: Gnathostomata lacks jaw.
43
54.Animals can be categorised on the basis of their symmetry. Sponges are
mostly asymmetrical, i.e., any plane that passes through the centre does not
divide them into equal halves. When any plane passing through the central axis
of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial
symmetry. Coelenterates, ctenophores and echinoderms have this kind of
body plan. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc., where the body can be
divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane, exhibit bilateral
symmetry
54.1. On the basis of their symmetry ___________ are mostly asymmetrical :

(a)Porifera
(b) Platyhelminthes
(c) Chordates
(d) Ctenophora
54.2. Symmetry in which any plane that passes through the centre of body
does not divide them into equal halves is called :
(a) Bilateral symmetry
(b) Radial symmetry
(c) Asymmetry
(d) All of these
54.3. Symmetry in which by only one plane passing through the central axis of
the body divides the organism into two identical halves is called :
(a) Bilateral symmetry
(b) Radial symmetry
(c) Asymmetry
(d) All of these
54.4. Organisms in which body can be divided into identical left and right
halves in only one plane, are :
(a) Annelids
(b) Arthropods
(c) Echinoderms
(d) All of these
54.5) Given diagram shows the symmetry of animals Which of the following
option is correct regarding diagram and symmetry with examples ?
44
a) I) Bilateral- Hydra, ii) Asymmetrical- Sponge
b) i) Radial- Obelia ii)Bilateral symmetry – Hydra
c) i) Bilateral – Annelid ii) Bilateral symmetry- Ctenophora
d) i) Radial – Coelenterates, ii) Bilateral symmetry- Annelida
55.Ctenophores, commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies are

exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic organisms with tissue
level of organisation. The body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
plates, which help in locomotion. Digestion is both extracellular and
intracellular. Bioluminescence (the property of a living organism to emit light)
is well-marked in ctenophores. Sexes are not separate. Reproduction takes
place only by sexual means. Fertilisation is external with indirect development.
Examples: Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana.
55.1. Eight external rows of ciliated comb plates found in :

(a) Echinodermates
(b) Mollusccs
(c) Coelenterates
(d) Ctenophores
55.2. Comb plates which is a eight external rows of cilia helps in :

(a) Excretion
(b) Locomotion
(c) Circulation
(d) Reproduction
55.3. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular found in :

(a) Earthworm
(b) Spongilla
(c) Pleurobrachia
(d) None of these
55.4. The property of a living organism to emit light is known as:

45
(a) Biomagnification
(b) Bioindication
(c) Bioluminescence
(d) None of these
55.5. Choose incorrect option for Ctenophora.

(a) Sexes are not separate
(b) Reproduction takes place only by asexual means
(c) Fertilisation is external with indirect development
(d) Examples: Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana
55.6. Which of the following statements about Ctenophores is true?

(i) Ctenophores, commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies.
(ii) Ctenophores are exclusively marine
(iii) The body hears six external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in
locomotion
(iv) Bioluminescence is well marked in ctenophores
(v) Sexes are separate the fertilization is external
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(d) (ii), (iv) and (v)
46
CHAPTER 5: MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
1. Actinomorphic flower is represented by which of the following symbol?

a) ⊕
b)
c) %
d) A
2. The four whorls of a flower are arranged on the.

a) Thallamus
b) petiole
c) Corolla
d) Stamen.
3. Radial symmetry is found in flower of.
a) Chilli
b) Cassia
c) Gulmohur
d) Canna
4. The flower of which of the following is zygomorphic.

a) Datura
b) Bean
c) Mustard
d) canna.
5. Which of the following plant has superior ovary.
a) Guava
b) Rose
c) China rose
d) peach
6. Which of the following plant has epigynous flower?

a) Brinjal
b) Cucumber
c) Mustard
d) Peach
7. The ray florets of sunflower has

a) Inferior Ovary
b) Half inferior ovary
c) Half superior ovary
47
d) Superior ovary.
8. Mark the incorrect match.

a) Cassia – Valvate
b) Calotropis-Valvate
c) Lady’s Finger – twisted
d) Gulmohur –Imbricate.
9. Carpels are fused in the flowers of.

a) Tomato
b) Lotus
c) Rose
d) None of these.
10. Ovary containing the false septum occurs in.

a) Argemone
b) Pisum sativum
c) Dianthus
d) Primrose
11. In_______ Placentation , the placenta is ridge along the ventral suture of
the ovary.
a) Marginal
b) Free central
c) Basal
d) Axial
12. While representing the floral formula G stands for

a) Superior ovary
b) Inferior ovary
c) Gynoecium
d) Epigynous flower.
13. Select the correct option.

a. Br - i. Corolla
b. K - ii. Gynoecium
c. C - iii. Bracteate
d. G - iv. Calyx
48
a) a(iv) b(iii) c(i) d(ii)
b) a(iii) b (iv) c (i) d (ii)
c) a(iv) b(i) c(iii) d(ii)
d) a(iv) b(ii) c(iii) d(i)
14. The floral formula of the plants belonging to the family Solanaceae.
a) ⊕ K 5 C 5A5 G2
b)
c) % K(5) C (5) A 5 G (2)
d) % K(2+2+1) C (2+2+1) A 5 G (2)
15. Flowers in which one set of essential organs present is said to be.
a) polygamous
b) Bisexual
c) Unisexual
d) Dioecious
16. what type of placentation seen in sweet pea.

a) Axile
b) Free Central
c) Marginal
d) Basal
17. Flowers are zygomorphic in
a) Mustard
b) Gulmohur
c) Chilli
d) Datura
18. Medicinal plant belonging to solanaceae is_____

a) Solanum petunia
b) S.nigrum
c) S.tuberosum
d) S.ashwagandha
49
19. Cymose inflorescence is generally occurs in.
a) Cruseferae
b) Solanaceae
c) Malvaceae
d) Liliaceae
20. In racemose, flowers are arranged in:

a. Acropetal order
b) Centrifugal order
c) Centripetal order
d) Basipetal order
21. Axis of inflorescence is:

a)Pedicel
b) Peduncle
c) Petiole
d) All
22. Androecium is a whorl of:
a) Anthers
b) Stamens
c) Filaments
d) Tepals
23. Syncarpous gynoecium has two or more:

a)Free carpels
b)Fused carpels
c) Free ovaries
d) All
24. A typical flower with superior ovary and other floral part inferior is called:
a.Polygamous
b.Hypogynous
c.Perigynous
d.Epigynous
25. Arrangement of ovules within the ovary is called:

a.Aestivation
b.Placentation
50
c.Both 1 and 2
d.None
26. When gynoecium is present in the top most position of thalamus, the ovary
is known as:
a.Inferior
b.Half Inferior
c.Half Superior
d.Superior
27. Diadelphous stamens are found in:

a.Onion
b.Pea
c.Wheat
d.China Rose
28. Flower are sessile in:

a. Raceme
b. Spike
c. Corymb
d. Umbel
29. Floral organs arise from;

a. Mother axis
b. Thalamus
c. Root
d. Pedicel
30. The tissue which attaches the ovules inside the ovary is:
a.Funicle
b.Hilum
c.Placenta
d.Chalaza
31. Zygomorphic is found in the flowers of

a.Datura
b.Pisum
c.Chilli
d.Brassica
51
ASSERTION REASON
In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement
of reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(a) both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(b) both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) both Assertion and Reason are false.
32. Assertion: The arrangement of flowers on a floral axis is known as

inflorescence.
Reason: In Cymose type of inflorescence , flowers are born in acropetal
order
33. Assertion: Mustard, china rose, and brinjal have hypogynous flower.
Reason: The gynoecium occupies highest position while the other parts are
situated below it is called hypogynous flower.
34. Assertion: A sterile stamen is called staminode.

Reason: Stamens of flower may be united with petals are epipetalous.
35. Assertion: The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as

aestivation.
Reason: Ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary is marginal
placentation.
36. Assertion: Datura and chilli have actinomorphic symmetry

Reason: A flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial
plane is actinomorphic.
37. Assertion: Guava and cucumber have epigynous flower.

Reason: Parts of the flower are arranged almost on the rim of the thalamus
is Called epigynous.
38. Assertion: solanaceae family flowers have cymose inflorescence.

Reason: a typical flower is arranged on the swollen end of the stalk called
thalamus.
52
39. Assertion: China Rose has stamens is monoadelphous.
Reason: The stamens may be united into one bunch is called
monoadelphous
40. Assertion: The Lotus and rose have apocarpous multi carpellary ovary.
Reason: More than one carpel is present, they may be fused and are called
apocarpous.
41. Assertion: In Cassia and Gulmohur, the aestivation is called imbricate.

Reason: The margins of sepals or petals overlap one another is called
imbricate aestivation.
42. CASE BASED :

Flowering plants are the most diverse group of land plants with 300,000 known
species. These are also known as angiosperms and produce seed-bearing fruits.
It is believed that the flowering plant evolved from gymnosperms during the
Triassic period and the first flowering plant emerged 140 million years ago.
Flowers are the reproductive organs of the flowering plants and the most
important feature that distinguishes them from other seed plants. These have
led to the speciation of angiosperms that helps them to adapt to diverse
ecological niches.
42. Placentation in Solanaceae plant is:

a.Parietal
b.Axial
c.Basal
d.Marginal
43. Flowering plants evolved from Gymnosperm during

a. Triassic
b. Jurassic
c. Cretaceous Periods
d. None
44. The calyx may be united is called

a.Polysepalous
b.gamosepalous
c. Perigynous
d. epigynous
53
45.If the floral appendages are in multiple of 3 is called___
a. Pentamerous
b. Trimerous
c. Tetramerous
d) hexamerous.
54
CHAPTER 7 : STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
1. Blood corpuscles are formed in the

(a) Haversian canal
(b) Endoderm
(c) Red bone marrow
(d) Pancreas
2. Ciliated epithelium is present in

(a) fallopian tubes
(b) blood vessels
(c) mid brain
(d) none of the above
3.Fats are richly found in

(a) alveolar tissue
(b) lymph glands
(c) adipose tissue
(d) liver cells
4.The ciliated epithelium in our body may be found in

(a) trachea
(b) ureter
(c) bile duct
(d) intestines
5.The characteristic of simple epithelium is that

(a) the cells are loosely placed
(b) they are single – layered in thickness
(c) cells are tightly packed with no intercellular spaces
(d) cells are generally ciliated
6. Tendonsconnect the following:

(a) bone to bone
(b) muscle to muscle
(c) cartilage to muscle
(d) bone to muscle
7. The most abundant type of animal tissue in the complex animals is

(a) Muscle tissue
55
(b) Nervous tissue
(c) Connective tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue
8. The epithelium found in the lining layer of stomach and intestine is

(a) Squamous epithelium
(b) Cuboidal epithelium
(c) Columnar epithelium
(d) Ciliated columnar epithelium
9. Ligament joints
(a) bone to bone
(b) muscle to muscle
(c) cartilage to muscle
(d) bone to muscle
10. The outer layer of our skin consists of which tissue?

a. Epithelial tissue.
b. Connective tissue.
c. Muscular tissue.
d. Nervous tissue.
11. The lining of a body cavity, duct, or tube comprises:

a. Simple epithelial cells.
b. Compound epithelial cells.
c. Adipose cells.
d. None.
12. Wall linings of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs are made of which
epithelial cells?
a. Squamous epithelium.
b. Cuboidal epithelium cells.
c. Columnar epithelium cells
d. None.
13. Which type of ciliated epithelial cells makes the lining of the intestine?
a. Squamous epithelium.
b. Cuboidal epithelium cells.
c. Columnar epithelium cells.
d. None.
56
14. Goblet cells of the alimentary canal that secrete mucus is a _ _ _ _ _
Glandular epithelium.
a. Unicellular cuboidal.
b. Unicellular columnar.
c. Multicellular cuboidal
. d. Multicellular columnar.
15. Compound epithelium tissue consists of:

a. Single-layer of cells.
b. Only a double layer of cells.
c. Only triple-layer of cells.
d. More than one layer of cells.
16. Compound epithelial cells lines and give protection to:

a. Skin
b. Buccal cavity
c. Pharynx
d. All
17. Which of the following is an intercellular junction present in between two

epithelial cells?
a. Tight junctions.
b. Adhering junctions.
c. Gap junctions.
d. All three.
18. The function of “tight junction” is to:

a. Prevent leaking intercellular fluid.
b. Keep adjoining cells together by cementing them.
c. Provide communication by transferring ions and cytoplasm from
nearby cells.
d. All of the above.
19. The function of “adhering junction” is to:

nearby cells.
57
20. The function of “gap junction” is to:
nearby cells.
21. Which of the following is an example of connective tissue?
a. Cartilage
b. Bones
c. Blood
d. All
22. Connective tissue with no fibres is:

a. Areolar tissue
b. Adipose tissue
c. Blood
d. Bones
23. Specialised connective tissue which stores fat is:

a. Areolar tissue
b. Adipose tissue
c. Blood
d. Bones
24. Muscles in internal organs like blood vessels, stomach, and intestine consist
of which tissue?
a. Skeletal
b. Smooth
c. Cardiac
d. All three
25. Cardiac muscles in the heart contract and relaxes at the same time due to:
a. Tight junctions.
b. Adhering junctions.
c. Gap junctions as intercalated discs.
d. All three.
58
ASSERTION AND REASON
In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement
of reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
26. Assertion: The squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of

flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
Reason: They are found in walls of blood vessels and air sacs of wings
27. Assertion: Urinary bladder can considerably expand to accommodate

urine.
Reason: It is lined by stretchable squamous epithelium.
28. Assertion: Columnar epithelium lining the intestinal mucosa appears to

have a brush like appearance.
Reason: A large number of microvilli are present on brush bordered
columnar epithelium.
29. Assertion: Surface of skin is impervious to water.
Reason: Surface of skin is covered by stratified cuboidal epithelium.
30. Assertion: Stomach and intestine of our body has columnar epithelium.
Reason: Columnar epithelium helps in secretion and absorption.
31. Assertion: Cell junctions are present in the epithelium and other tissues.
Reason: Among cell junctions, adhering junctions help to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue.
32. Assertion: Simple epithelium covers surfaces exposed to mechanical or

chemical abrasions.
Reason: Protection of underlying tissues is the major function of simple
epithelium.
33. Assertion: Compound epithelium play important role in absorption,

secretion and excretion.
Reason: Compound epithelium is found in the stomach lining.
59
34. Assertion: Cartilage (protein matrix) and bone (calcium matrix) are rigid
connective tissue.
Reason: Blood is connective tissue in which plasma is the matrix.
35. Assertion: Tendons attach one bone to another bone.

Reason: Ligaments attach skeletal muscles to bones.
36. Assertion: Presence of connective tissue inside the brain is essential for
conduction of nerve impulse.
Reason: Connective tissue hold together the nerve cells of brain.
Read the following and answer the questions given below:

Branch of biology dealing with the study of tissue is called histology. The term
‘tissue’ was introduced by Bichat who is also known as the ‘Father of
histology’. Mayer coined the term ‘histology’ and the founder of histology
is Marcello Malpighi. Histological study of an organ called Microscopic
Anatomy. Marcello Malpighi is the father of microscopic
anatomy. Hertwig introduced the term ‘mesenchyme’ for mesodermal tissue.
The formation of tissues from germinal layer is called as histogenesis. Animals
are made up of different types of cells. Different organisms have different
structural organizations. The different cells combine to form tissues. A number
of tissues together form an organ, and different organs collectively form an
organ system. The different types of tissues include- epithelial tissue,
connective tissue, skeletal tissue, muscular tissue, and neural tissue.
37. Fluid connective tissue among these is:

a. Areolar tissue
b. Adipose tissue
c. Blood
d. Bones
38. Which type of muscular tissue is voluntary in action

a. Skeletal
b. Smooth
c. Cardiac
d. All three
39.Who is the father of histology?

a. Mayer
b. Hertwig
c. Marcello Malpighi
60
d. Bichat
40. The formation of tissues from germinal layer is called.

a. Mesenchyme
b. Histogenesis
c. Epithelial
d. Skeletal
61
CHAPTER : 8 CELL – THE UNIT OF LIFE
1. “Omnis cellula-e cellula” was stated by

(a) Schwann
(b) Schleiden
(c) Purkinje
(d) Virchow
2. Slime layer and capsule in bacteria are modifications of the

(a) Glycocalyx
(b) Cell wall
(c) Plasma membrane
(d) Pellicle
3. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell?

(a) Mesosome
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Nuclear envelope
(d) Ribosome
4. Which of the following is seen only in prokaryotic cells?

(a) Dictyosome
(b) Ribosome
(c) Mesosome
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
5. The type of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cell are

(a) 100S
(b) 80S
(c) 60S
(d) 70S
6. The __________ is a primary constriction.

(a) Telomere
(b) Sarcomere
(c) Chromomere
(d) Centromere
7. Select the mismatch.

(a) Gas vacuoles - Green bacteria
62
(b) Large central vacuoles – Animal cells
(c) Protists – Eukaryotes
(d) Methanogens – Prokaryotes
8. Mitochondria and chloroplast are

(A) semi-autonomous organelles
(B) Formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA
but lack protein synthesizing machinery.
Which one of the following option is correct?
(a) (A) is true but (B) is false
(b) Both (A) and (B) are false
(c) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(d) (B) is true but (A) is false.
9. Microtubules are the constituents of

(a) Centrioles, spindle fibres and chromatin
(b) Centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles
(c) Cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
(d) Spindle fibre, centrioles and cilia
10. Which of these is wrongly matched?

(a) 70S ribosomes – Prokaryotes
(b) 80S ribosomes – Eukaryotes
(c) Axoneme – Cilia
(d) Centromere – Centrosome
11. Which of the below mentioned structures does not form a part of the
endromembrane system?
(a) Golgi complex
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Vacuoles
12. Which of the following sequence is correct for the origin of lysosome?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum –> Golgo complex -> Lysosomes
(b) Nuclear membrane -> Golgi complex -> Lysosomes
(c) Endoplasmic complex -> Vacuoles -> Lysosomes
(d) Mitochondria -> Golgi complex -> Lysosomes
63
13. Match the column I with that of column II and choose the correct
combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
Organelle Site for
A Rough ER (i) Synthesis of glycoproteins
B. Smooth ER (ii) Aerobic respiration
C. Mitochondria (iii) Synthesis of lipid
D Golgi apparatus (iv) Protein synthesis
(a) A –(i) B – (ii) C – (iii) D –(iv)

(b) A – (ii) B – (iii) C – (iv) D – (i)
(c) A – (iii) B – (iv) C – (ii) D - (i)
(d) A – (iv) B – (iii) C – (ii) D – (i)
14. The principal function of Golgi apparatus is

(a) Producing enzymes
(b) Protein synthesis
(c) Synthesis of lipids
(d) Packaging materials
15. Perinuclear space is present in

(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Nucleus
(c) Endoplasmic Recticulum
(d) Golgi apparatus.
16. Axoneme is a structure associated with

(a) Golgi bodies
(b) Only cilia
(c) Only flagella
(d) Both cilia and flagella.
17. Choose the matched ones.

(A) Vibrio – Rod like bacteria
(B) Mesosome – Helps in cell wall formation
(C) Smooth endoplasmic recticulum – Synthesis of lipid
(D) Vacuoles – Rich in hydrolytic enzymes.
(a) (B) and (C) only
64
(b) (A) and (D) only
(c) (A) , (B) , and (C) only
(d) (B) and (D) only
18. Which of the following types of plastid does not contain stored food
material?
(a) Chromoplasts
(b) Elaiplasts
(c) Aleuroplasts
(d) Amyloplasts
19. Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described?

(a) Thylakoids – flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of
chloroplasts
(b) Centrioles – sites for active RNA synthesis
(c) Ribosomes – those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while those in the
cytoplasm are smaller(70S)
(d) Lysosomes – optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
20. What is true about ribosomes?

(a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where “S” stands for
sedimentation coefficient.
(b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
(c) These are found only in eukaryotic cells.
(d) These are self-splicing introns of some RNAs.
21. When the chromosome has a centromere nearer to one end of the
chromosome resulting into one shorter and one longer arm, the chromosome
is termed as
(a) Metacentric
(b) Sub –metacentric
(c) Acrocentric
(d) Telocentric.
22. The cytoplasm of neighbouring cells is connected with the help of

(a) Middle of lamella
(b) Primary wall
(c) Endomembrane system
(d) Plasmodesmata.
65
23. An interconnecting membranous network of the cell composed of vesicles,
flattened sacs and tubules is
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondrion
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Lysosome.
24. Most of the hydrolytic enzymes of lysosome function at

(a) Acidic pH
(b) Alkaline pH
(c) Neutral pH
(d) Both (a) and (c)
25. The fluid mosaic model was given by

(a) G.N. Ramachandran
(b) Schleiden and Schwann
(c) Rudolf Virchow
(d) Singer and Nicolson
26. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in

the cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called
(a) Thylakoid
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Plasmalemma
(d) Cytoskeleton
27. Aleuroplasts in a cell store

(a) Starch
(b) Oil
(c) Protein
(d) Nutrients.
28. Which one of the following organelles is not surrounded by any

membrane?
(a) Mitochondrion
(b) Vacuole
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(d) Ribosome
66
29. Vacuole in a plant cell
(a) Lacks membrane and contains air
(b) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(c) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
(d) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances.
30. The vacuole is lined by a membrane called

(a) Cell membrane
(b) Tonoplasm
(c) Tonoplast
(d) Jacket.
ASSERTION AND REASON:
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a
statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
31. Assertion : Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of cell theory

given by Schleiden and Schwann.
Reason : Cell theory says that all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
32. Assertion : Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles.

Reason : Prokaryotic cells lack membrane bound organelles.
33. Assertion : Cell membrane is semipermeable.

Reason : The constituent molecules can freely move in the
membrane.
34. Assertion : Peripheral proteins are totally or partially buried in the

membrane.
Reason : Integral proteins lie on the surface of membrane.
35. Assertion : The endoplasmic reticulum which lacks ribosomes is called

smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Reason : SER is mainly involved in protein synthesis.
67
36. Assertion : Lysosomes are capable of digesting carbohydrates,
proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
Reason : Lysosomes are rich in hydrolytic enzymes like lipases,
proteases and carbohydrases.
37. Assertion : Leucoplasts perform photoysnthesis.

Reason : Chloroplasts store fats, starch and proteins.
38. Assertion : The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in cilia or

flagella is called 9 + 2 array.
Reason : The axoneme usually has nine pairs or doublets of radially
arranged peripheral microtubules, and pair of centrally
located microtubules.
39. Assertion : The fimbriae are elongated tubular structures made of

special protein.
Reason : The pili are small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell.
40. Assertion : Plasmids are double-stranded extra chromosomal DNA.

Reason : Plasmids are possessed by eukaryotic cells.
Read the following and answer any four questions from 41(i) to 41(v) given
below :
Camillo Golgi (1898) first observed densely stained reticular structures
near the nucleus. The Golgi apparatus was first described by camillo Golgi.
Golgi apparatus consists of a set of membrane-bounded, fluid-filled vesicles,
vacuoles and flattened cisternae.The cisternae consist of many flat, disc-
shaped sacs of 0.5 micrometer to 1.0 micrometer diameter.
41(i). The golgi citernae are concentrically arranged near the __________.
(a) Periphery
(b) Vacuole
(c) Plastid
(d) Nucleus
(ii). Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of __________.

(a) Glycoproteins
(b) Glycolipids
68
(c) Phospolipids
(d) Both Glycoproteins and Glycolipids
(iii). In Golgi apparatus,__________ are stacked parallel to each other.

(a) Thylakoids
(b) Cisternae
(c) Grana
(d) Cristae
(iv). The plant cells contain many distributed subunits of Golgi apparatus,
called _____.
(a) Dictyosomes
(b) Stroma
(c) Thylakoid
(d) Granum
(v). Assertion: Materials to be packed in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse
with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus.
Reason : The Golgi apparatus remain in close association with the
endoplasmic reticulum.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
below :
The cells require a constant flow of energy to maintain their organized
structure and functions. Energy is obtained by photosynthesis or from chemical
bonds in food molecules.
42.(i). Select the alternative giving correct identification and function of the
organelle ‘A` in the diagram.
69
(a) Mitochondria - Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP
(b) Golgi body - Provides packaging material
(c) Lysosomes - Secrete hydrolytic enzymes
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum - Synthesis of lipids
(ii). Which one of the following organelles in the figure correctly matches with
its function?
(a) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

(b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins
(d) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(iii). The RER in the cell synthesized a protein which would be later used in
building the plasma membrane. But it is observed that the protein in the
membrane is slightly different from the protein made in the RER. The
protein was probably modified in another cell organelle. Identify the
organelle in the given diagram.
70
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) A
(iv). Match the columns and identify the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
B. Cristae (ii) Condensed structure of DNA
C. Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous sacs in stroma
D. Chromatin (iv). Infoldings in mitochondria
(a) A-(iii), B(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)

(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(v) The smallest unit of measurement of cellular components is

(a) Micron
(b) Angstrom
(c) Nanometer
(d) Millimeter
71
CHAPTER 9 - BIOMOLECULES
1. In polysaccharide, number of monosaccharides are linked by

(a) Glycosidic bond
(b) Peptide bond
(c) Hydrogen bond
(d) Phosphoester bond.
2. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerization of

(a) N-acetyl glucosamine
(b) Lipoglycans
(c) Keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(d) D-glucosamine.
3. Macromolecule chitin is
(a) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(b) Simple polysaccharide
(c) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(d) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide
4. Which of the following is a homo polysaccharide?

(a) Heparin
(b) Inulin
(c) Pectin
(d) Hyaluronic acid
5. Inulin is a polymer of
(a) Glucose
(b) Galactose
(c) Fructose
(d) Arabinose
6. In a polypeptide, amino acids are linked by

(a) An ester bond
(b) A hydrogen bond
(c) A covalent bond
(d) A peptide bond
72
7. Which of the following statements about amino acids is false?
(a) Based on the nature of the carboxyl group there are many amino
acids
(b) Amino acids are substituted methanes.
(c) Amino acids have an amino group and acidic group as substituents on
the α- carbon.
(d) Tryptophan is an aromatic amino acid.
8. Which of the following statements about the structure of proteins is true?

(a) The sequence if amino acids in a protein represents the secondary
structure.
(b) The helices of proteins are always left handed.
(c) Adult human haemoglobin consists of two subunits.
(d) Proteins are heteropolymers containing strings of amino acids.
9. Which structural level enables the proteins to function as enzymes?

(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary
10. __________ are the most abundant proteins in the living world.
(a) PEPcase of plants and keratin of animals
(b) Ribozyme of plantsand collagen of animals
(c) Alcohol dehydrogenase of plants and melanin if animals
(d) RuBisCO of plants and collagen of animals.
11. Amino acid alanine is

(a) Monoamino monocarboxylic amino acid
(b) Sulphur containing amino acid
(c) Monoamino dicarboxylic amino acid
(d) Basic amino acid.
12. The alpha helices and beta sheets are the example of which level of protein
organisation?
(a) Primary structure
(b) Secondary structure
(c) Tertiary structure
(d) Quaternary structure.
73
13. Upon denaturation a protein loses its
(a) Primary structure
(b) Peptide bonds
(c) Sequence of amino acids
(d) Three dimensional shape.
14. Which of the following statements regarding fats is true?

(a) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbons excluding the carboxyl carbon.
(b) Glycerol is trihydroxy propane.
(c) Palmitic acid has 18 carbons including the carboxyl carbon
(d) Oils have higher melting points than fats.
15. Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options
given.
COLUMN – I(Organic compound COLUMN-II(Example)
A. Fatty acid 1. Glutamic acid
B. Phospholipid 2. Tryptophan
C. Aromatic amino acid 3. Lecithin
D. Acidic amino acid 4. Palmitic acid
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
16. Most abundant lipid in a cell membrane is

(a) Phospholipid
(b) Sphingo lipid
(c) Glycolipid
(d) All of these.
17. Adenylic acid is a/an

(a) Nitrogen base
(b) Nucleoside
(c) Nucleotide
(d) Amino acid.
18. Nucleic acids are
(a) Polymers of nucleosides
(b) Polymers of nucleotides
74
(c) Monomers
(d) Polymers if amino acids
19. A nucleotide has three components

(a) A nitrogenous base, a hexose sugar and a phosphate group
(b) A nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a phosphate group
(c) A nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a bisphosphate group
(d) A nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a triphosphate group.
20. The single turn of DNA has ____ base pairs.

(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 6
(d) 100
21. Pick out the alkaloid among the following.

(a) Morphine
(b) Curcumin
(c) Cellulose
(d) Ricin
22. Which of the following secondary metabolites belong to the group drugs?
I. Morphine
II. Curcumin
III. Codeine
IV. Vinblastin
(a) I and II only

(b) I and IV only
(c) II and III ony
(d) II and IV only
23. Which of these is/are wrongly matched?

I. Alkaloid – Codeine
II. Lectin – Morphine
III. Toxin – Abrin
IV. Terpene – Curcumin
(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only
75
(c) II and IV only
(d) III and IV only
24. From the following groups, select the one which has only secondary
metabolites?
(a) Arbrin, cellulose,arginine,tyrosine
(b) Glycine, gums, serine, diterpenes
(c) Carotenoids, phenylalanine, curcumin, rubber
(d) Concanavalin-A, morphine, codeine, vinblastin
25. Which is the correct set?

(a) Trypsin – Hormone
(b) Insulin – Enzyme
(c) GLUT-4 – Enables glucose transport into cells
(d) Intracellular ground substance
26. An organic non-protein cofactor which is easily separable from the

apoenzyme is called
(a) Prosthetic group
(b) Coenzyme
(c) Alloenzyme
(d) All the above.
27. Coenzymes NAD and NADP contain

(a) Niacin
(b) Biotin
(c) Thiamine
(d) Vitamine B12
28. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic

reaction is
(a) Transient and unstable
(b) Permanent and stable
(c) Transient but stable
(d) Permanent but unstable
29. Which of the following is false with respect to prosthetic groups?

(a) Proteins
(b) Non-proteins
76
(c) Tightly bound to enzymes
(d) Metal compounds
30. Which of the following enzymes has/have haem as a prosthetic group?

(i) Catalase
(ii) Carboxypeptidase
(iii) Succinic dehydrogenase
(iv) Peroxidase
(a) (i) only

(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
ASSERTION AND REASON:

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a
statement of reason. Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
31. Assertion : The living state is a equilibrium steady state to be able to

Perform work.
Reason : Living process is a constant effort to prevent falling into
non- equilibrium.
32. Assertion : Secondary metabolites are produced in small quantities

and their extraction from the plant is difficult and
expensive.
Reason : Secondary metabolites can be commercially produced by
using tissue culture technique.
33. Assertion : Proteins are a hetero polymer.

Reason : Dietary proteins are the source of nonessential amino
acids.
34. Assertion : Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the
77
saturated fats.
Reason : Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.
35. Assertion : Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl

carbon.
Reason : Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms including carboxyl
carbon.
36. Assertion : The exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of complex

polysaccharide called chitin.
Reason : Plant cell walls are made of cellulose.
37. Assertion : The heterocyclic compounds in nucleic acid are the

nitrogenous bases.
Reason : Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines while
uracil, cytosine and thymine are substituted purines.
38. Assertion : The inhibition of activity of succinic dehydrogenase by

malonate is the example of competitive inhibition.
Reason : Competitive inhibition is the inhibition of enzyme activity
when inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its
molecular structure.
39. Assertion : The protein part of the enzyme is called apoenzyme and
non- protein part of the enzyme is called co-factor.
Reason : Zinc is a co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase.
40. Assertion : Enzyme becomes inactive below minimum temperature.

Reason : The inactivity of the enzymes is due to denaturation.
below :
The enzymes are organic compounds (mostly proteins) produced by the
living cells to speed up the spontaneous biochemical reactions in and outside
the cells in living organisms. The process of speeding up chemical reactions is
called catalysis, and the substances that speed up the reactions are termed
catalytic compounds or catalysts.
78
41(i) The curve given below shows enzymatic activity in relation to three
conditions (pH, temperature and substrate concentration).
What do the two axes (x and y) represent?
x-axis y-axis
(a) Enzymatic activity pH
(b) Temperature Enzyme activity
(c) Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity
(d) Enzymatic activity Temperature
(ii) Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in order and choose the
right option.
I. The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the enzyme
is free to bind to another substrate.
II. The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and
breaks the chemical bonds of the substrate.
III. The binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape
fitting more tightly around the substrate.
IV. The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme fitting into
the active site.
(a) IV, III, II, I
(b) III, II, I, IV
(c) IV, II, I, III
(d) II, I, IV, III
(iii) The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product
by an enzyme. In which one of the four options(a-d) the components of
reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly?
79
A B C D
a Potential energy Transition state Activation energy Activation energy
with enzyme without enzyme
b Transition state Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy

without enzyme with enzyme
c Potential energy Transition state Activation energy Activation energy

Transition state
d Activation energy Transition state Activation energy Potential energy
(iv)Select the type of enzyme involved in the following reaction :

S – G + S`  S + S` - G
(a) Dehydrogenase
(b) Transferase
(c) Hydrolase
(d) Lyase
(v). Which one of the following is not true for enzymes?

(a) The act on a specific substrate
(b) They are made up of fat and sugar.
(c) They act at a specific temperature
(d) They act at a specific pH.
80
below:
The nucleotides are the building blocks (monomers) of the nucleic acids,
the information molecules of the cell.
Nucleotides are compounds of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen an
phosphorus. A molecule of nucleotide consists of three smaller molecules of
different types : (i) phosphoric acid, (ii) a 5-carbon or pentose sugar
molecule, and (iii) a molecule of nitrogenous (nitrogen-containing) organic
base, all linked together by covalent bonds.
42(i).Which one of the following is an incorrect combination?

(a) Adenine, thymine, cytidine
(b) Adenine, cytosine, thymine
(c) Guanine, thymine, uracil
(d) Cytosine, uracil, guanine.
(ii). The moiety present at the 5` end of ribose sugar in a polynucleotide is

(a) OH
(b) CH2
(c) Phosphate
(d) Adenine
(iii). In the ribose of RNA, unlike DNA, every nucleotide residue an additional
(a) COOH group in the 2` position
(b) OH group in the 5` position
(c) OH group in the 2` position
(d) Phosphate group in the 2` position
(iv). Match the following and choose the correct combination from the
options given.
81
Column I Column II
(Chemical compounds) Examples
A. Nitrogen base I. RNA
B. Nucleoside II.Thymidylic acid
C. Nucleotide III. Cytidine
D. Nucleic acid IV. Uracil
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(v). The given organic compound is a diagrammatic representation of
(a) Lecithin
(b) Adenylic acid
(c) Uridine
(d) Cholesterol
82
ANSWER KEY
CHAPTER-1 THE LIVING WORLD
1.d 2.c 3.d 4.d 5.d 6.c
7.b 8.a 9.d 10.d 11.d 12.a
13.d 14.b 15.c 16.b 17.c 18.d
19.d 20.d 21.a 22.c 23.c 24.d
25.b 26.d 27.a 28.b 29.c 30.c
31.a 32.a 33.a 34.b 35.a 36.a
37.b 38.c 39.a
40.1) b 40.2) c 40.3) a 40.4) b 40.5) a
CHAPTER -2 BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
1.d 2.d 3.c 4.c 5.c 6.d
7.b 8.c 9.a 10.c 11.c 12.d
13.c 14.d 15.b 16.c 17.a 18.c
19.b 20.c 21.c 22.c 23.c 24.b
25.b 26.b 27.d 28.b 29.b 30.a
31.c 32.c 33.a 34.b 35.d 36.c
37.b 38.d 39.c 40.b 41.a 42.a
43.b 44.a 45.a 46.c 47.a 48.d
49.a 50.a 51.c
52.1) d 52.2) a 52.3) b 52.4) d 52.5) a
83
CHAPTER 3-PLANT KINGDOM
1.a 2.c 3.a 4.b 5.c 6.a
7.b 8.a 9.d 10.b 11.b 12.d
13.c 14.d 15.d 16.a 17.d 18.d
19.d 20.c 21.d 22.c 23.d 24.c
25.c 26.a 27.b 28.c 29.a 30.a
31.a 32.d 33.c 34.b 35.d 36.d
37.a 38.a 39.c 40.d 41.a 42.a
43.b 44.d 45.d 46.a 47.b 48.b
49.a 50.b 51.a 52.a 53.d 54.b
55.a 56.a 57.c 58.a 59.b 60.b
61.a
62.1 (c ) 62.2 (b) 62.3. (d) 62.4. (d) 62.5 (d)
CHAPTER 4-ANIMAL KINGDOM
1.b 2.d 3.b 4.c 5.d 6.d
7.b 8.b 9.d 10.d 11.a 12.a
13.d 14.a 15.c 16.d 17.b 18.d
19.c 20.b 21.c 22.d 23.d 24.b
25.d 26.a 27.d 28.a 29.b 30.b
31.a 32.d 33.d 34.d 35.d 36.c
84
37.c 38.b 39.b 40.b 41.b 42.a
43.b 44.c 45.a 46.a 47.c 48.d
49.b 50.c 51.a 52.a 53.d
54. 1)a 2)c 3)a 4)d 5)d
55. 1)d 2)b 3)c 4)c 5)b 6)b
CHAPTER 5: MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
1.a 2.a 3.a 4.b 5.c 6.b
7.a 8.a 9.a 10.d 11.a 12.a
13.b 14.b 15.c 16.c 17.b 18.d
19.b 20.a 21.b 22.b 23.b 24.b
25.b 26.d 27.b 28.b 29.b 30.c
31.b 32.c 33.a 34.b 35.d 36.a
37.c 38.b 39.a 40.c 41.a 42.b
43.a 44.b 45.b
CHAPTER 7 : STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
1. c 2.a 3.c 4.a 5.b 6.d
7.c 8.c 9.a 10.a 11.a 12.a
13.c 14.b 15.d 16.d 17.d 18.a
19.b 20.c 21.d 22.c 23.b 24.b
25.c 26.b 27.c 28.a 29.c 30.a
85
31.c 32.d 33.d 34.b 35.d 36.d
37.c 38.a 39.d 40.b
CHAPTER : 8 CELL – THE UNIT OF LIFE
01. (d) 02. (a) 03. (c) 04. (c) 05. (d) 06. (d)
07. (b) 08. (a) 09. (d) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (a)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a)
37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40.(c)
41.(i).(d) (ii).(d) (iii).(b) (iv).(a) (v).(a)
42.(i). (a) (ii). (b) (iii). (c) (iv). (d) (v). (b)
CHAPTER 9 - BIOMOLECULES
01. (a) 02. (a) 03. (c) 04. (b) 05. (c) 06. (d)
07. (d) 08. (d) 09. (c) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
86
41. (i) (b) (ii) (a) (iii) (b) (iv) (b) (v)(b)
42. (i) (a) (ii) (c) (iii) (c) (iv) (c) (v) (b)
87

Xi Biology Term 1 MCQ

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VIVEKANANDA EDUCATIONAL SOCIETY

TERM I QUESTION BANK

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

CHAPTER : 1 THE LIVING WORLD

What is living? Biodiversity; Need for classification; three domains of life;

Chapter-2: Biological Classification

Five kingdom classification; Salient features and classification of Monera,

Chapter-3: Plant Kingdom

Chapter-4: Animal Kingdom

Salient features and classification of animals, non-chordates up to phyla level and

Chapter-5: Morphology of Flowering Plants

Morphology of inflorescence and flower, Description of 01 family: Solanaceae or

Chapter-7: Structural Organization in Animals

Chemical constituents of living cells: biomolecules, structure and function

1. How multicellular organism grows?

2. Which one is correct for pattern of plants growth?

3. Which one is correct pattern of animal’s growth?

4. Which of the following is correct for growth in unicellular organisms?

5. Choose correct statement for growth

6. Which statement is wrong for growth?

7. What is true for living organisms?

8. In lower organisms like yeast and hydra observes

9. Which of the following organism multiplies by fragmentation?

10. Which of the following organism not multiplies by fragmentation?

11. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in a

14. Scientific names or nomenclature of plants are based on rules provided by

15. What full form of ICBN ?

16. What is full form of ICZN?

17. In which organism species consider as the lowest category in taxonomic

18. Which of the following belongs to genus Solanum ?

20. Which of the following species includes in genus Panthera?

21. Which of the following species includes in genus Felis?

23. Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories ?

24. Which of the following genera placed in the family Solanaceae ?

25. Lion, Tiger, Leopard and Cats placed in which family?

26. Which of the following families included in the order Polymoniales?

27. Plant families grouped in an order mainly based on which characters

28. Which is the following statements about classification is true?

29. How many statements are correct from given sentences?

(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E(v)

Assertion and Reason

(c) Assertion is true but reason is false

31. Assertion: Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living

32. Assertion: Reproduction also cannot be an all-inclusive defining

33. Assertion: Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms

39. Assertion: Consciousness cannot be an all-inclusive defining

40. Read the following table and answer the following:

40.2.Mango included in which family ?

40.3. Mango placed in which class ?

40.4.Wheat grouped in which order ?

40.5. Identify the correct sequence of taxa in hierarchy :

1. Five kingdom system of classification was proposed by :

2. The main criteria for five kingdom of classification includes :

3. Phylogenetic classification systems based on :

4. Taxonomy which is based on all observable characteristics and each

a. Natural Classification system

5. Natural classification system developed, which were based on :

6. Eubacteria or true bacteria characterized by the presence of :

8. Which of the following not included in cyanobacteria ?

9. ___________ bacteria oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrates,

10. ______________ play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen,

11. Which of the following is not true for heterotrophic bacteria?