DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and

Mains Exam – 23rd October 2023

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October 24, 2023

Archives

(PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)

Abu Dhabi Masters 2023

Syllabus

Prelims –SPORTS

Context: Unnati Hooda won the women’s singles title at Abu Dhabi Masters 2023.

Background:-

This is her second BWF Super 100 World Tour title.

She became the youngest Indian to clinch a BWF title last year at 14 years of
age.

About Abu Dhabi Masters 2023:-

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IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas

Date: 17 – 22 OCTOBER, 2023.

Venue: ADNEC Marina Hall, Abu Dhabi, UAE.
Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 is the first-ever International badminton spectacle in
the capital city.
It will take place under the esteemed patronage of Shaikh Nahyan bin Mubarak Al
Nahyan, the UAE Badminton Federation, in partnership with 316 Sports
Services. (Grand Slam)
This historic occasion promises to be a thrilling showcase of talent, skill, and
sportsmanship, bringing together 200 professional players from around the
world. (Sports Code)

MUST READ: Chess Olympiad

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:
(2023)

1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi’.

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 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell
Cup. ·

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021)

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.

2. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this
Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 and 2

Malaria
Syllabus

Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: As per recent research, emerging drug resistance in eastern Africa is hindering
the fight against malaria.

Key findings:-

The treatment of malaria in eastern Africa is encountering a significant challenge as

the parasites have started developing resistance to artemisinin, the core component
used for treating the disease, according to a new study.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) has been a highly effective treatment
for non-severe cases since the early 2000s.
While the clinical effectiveness of ACT remains generally robust in the continent, the
recent emergence of partial artemisinin resistance in the eastern African countries
of Rwanda, Uganda and Eritrea has raised significant concerns.
Most of the countries in Africa are not on track to achieving the goal of
eliminating malaria in the continent by 2030, according to the African Union Malaria
Progress Report 2022.

About Malaria:-

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IMAGE SOURCE: A Happy Ending To Malaria Story? – Scientific Animations

It is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease.

It is caused by Plasmodium parasites.
It is predominantly found in the tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, South
America as well and Asia.
It is preventable as well as curable.

Symptoms:-

Symptoms usually begin ten to fifteen days after being bitten by an infected
mosquito.
Symptoms include fever, tiredness, vomiting, and headaches.
In severe cases, it can cause jaundice, seizures, coma, or death.

Transmission:-

The parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
In the human body, parasites initially multiply in liver cells and then attack the Red
Blood Cells (RBCs).
There are 5 parasite species that cause Malaria in humans and 2 of these species
(Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax) pose the greatest threat.

Prevention:-

Using mosquito nets when sleeping in places where malaria is present

Using mosquito repellents (containing DEET, IR3535 or Icaridin) after dusk
Using coils and vaporizers.
Wearing protective clothing.
Using window screens.

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Treatment:-

Artemisinin-based combination therapy medicines like artemether-lumefantrine

are usually the most effective medicines.
Chloroquine is recommended for the treatment of infection with the vivax parasite
only in places where it is still sensitive to this medicine.
Primaquine should be added to the main treatment to prevent relapses of infection
with the P. vivax and P. ovale parasites.
Most medicines used are in pill form.
Some people may need to go to a health centre or hospital for injectable medicines.
(Malaria Vaccine)

India’s status:-

In India, malaria elimination efforts were initiated in 2015.

These were intensified after the launch of the National Framework for Malaria
Elimination (NFME) in 2016.
It is an initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
NFME is in line with WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy. (World Malaria Report
2021)
WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy: guides the WHO Global Malaria
Programme (GMP).
Status on elimination: India continues to show a sustained decline in overall
malaria but faces several challenges in its malaria elimination journey.

MUST READ: New hope for malaria vaccine

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following diseases (2014)

1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. None

Q.2) Widespread resistance of the malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has
prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to
develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010)

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 a. Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
b. Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection
c. Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
d. Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host

Green credit programme

Syllabus

Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES

Context: The Centre recently, notified the Green Credit programme.

Background:-

The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change on October 13,
2023, notified the ‘green credit’ programme.

About the Green credit programme:-

Launched: 2023.
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had launched “Green Credit
Programme”(GCP) in Union Budget 2023-24.
Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.3234
Objective: to create a market-based mechanism for undertaking environment-
friendly activities such as afforestation programmes, and water conservation by
providing additional incentives in the form of green credits.
It is a first-of-a-kind market-based instrument designed to incentivize individuals,
industries and local bodies for their voluntary environmental actions across diverse
sectors.
It will be launched at the national level to incentivize voluntary environmental
actions of various stakeholders.
It will encourage private sector industries by taking actions which are able to
converge with activities relevant to generating or buying Green Credits.
Green Credit: it is an incentive that individuals, farmer-producer organizations
(FPOs), industries, and rural and urban local bodies, among other
stakeholders, will be able to earn for environment-positive actions.

Governance Structure of GCP:-

GCP Administrator

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 The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) will be the
administrator of GCP.
ICFRE: it is an autonomous organization or governmental agency under the
MoEFCC.
Its aim is to generate, advance and disseminate scientific knowledge and
technologies for ecological security, improved productivity, livelihood
enhancement and sustainable use of forest resources through forestry
research and education.
It will manage, monitor and operate the entire programme.

Steering committee

It will be set up to approve procedures for institutionalizing the GCP, rules and
regulations
It will recommend it to the central government for issuance of a Green Credit
Certificate. (Green Bonds)
It will also determine the type and amount of fees and charges for the purpose of
meeting the cost and expense towards implementation of GCP.

Working of GCP:-

The GCP administrator will collect the environmental compensation and deposit
it in a separate dedicated account.
This fund shall be utilized for activities related to the implementation of GCP.
For instance, an individual who undertakes tree plantation in an area, can earn
green credits, which he can sell at the trading platform after validation by the
steering committee.

Benefits of GCP:-

It allows forests to be traded as a commodity.

It allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of
reforesting to non-government agencies.
It will encourage plantation by individuals outside the traditional forest area.
It will help in meeting international commitments such as sustainable
development goals and nationally determined contributions.

MUST READ: Green Urban Oases Programme

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection)
Act, 1986? (2022)

a. Central Water Commission

b. Central Ground Water Board

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 c. Central Ground Water Authority
d. National Water Development Agency

Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018)

1. The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the
guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority
‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Chetak helicopters
Syllabus

Prelims –DEFENSE

Context: Indian Army will begin phase-out of Cheetah, Chetak helicopters from 2027.

Background:-

The Army will start phasing out the first lot of the vintage Cheetah and Chetak
helicopters from 2027 onwards on completion of their Total Technical Life (TTL)
while it looks to induct the indigenous Light Utility Helicopters (LUH) in numbers to
replace them.
The Army is expected to receive six LUH between December 2024 and June 2025.

About Chetak helicopters:-

Year of Manufacture: 1962.

Manufactured by: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
Maximum speed: Over 210 km/hrs.
The Helicopter Division started manufacturing helicopters in 1962, by entering an
agreement with France for the production of Aloutte III helicopters (Chetak).
The first Chetak in ‘Fly Away’ condition was delivered in 1965.
The Chetak helicopter is the oldest helicopter of the Indian Air Force inducted by
Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) in 1965.
It is a two-ton class helicopter.
It is a single-engine helicopter that can carry seven people, including two
pilots.
The helicopter is versatile, multi-role, multi-purpose, and spacious.

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 The Chetak is operated by each of the three services and also the Coast Guard,
however, it has been the military’s workhorse for decades.
The helicopter is suitable for commuting, cargo/material transport, casualty
evacuation, Search and rescue (SAR), Aerial Survey and patrolling,
Emergency Medical Services, Off-shore operations, and Underslung
operations.
The Chetak helicopter is powered by a single Turbomeca Artoustte III B
turboshaft engine.

Cheetah helicopter:-

Operated by: both the Indian Air Force and the Army Aviation Corps.
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited signed a licence agreement for the Lama with
Aérospatiale in 1970 and christened the India-made aircraft “Cheetah”.
The first Cheetah manufactured from raw materials was delivered in 1976-77.
It is a licence-built version of the French Aérospatiale SA 315B Lama.
It is known for its capability to operate in hot tropical weather as well as high
altitude conditions. (MH-60R helicopters)
The SA315B Lama was first flown in 1969, over 50 years ago.
Over the years, it has developed a reputation for being unsafe, with the armed
forces attempting to find upgrades for these rotorcraft.
It has been used for transporting men and material, search and rescue, and
reconnaissance.
Cheetahs have especially been crucial for operations in Siachen, the world’s
highest battleground at over 6,000 m.

MUST READ: Asia’s largest helicopter manufacturing facility

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023)

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central
Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the
maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing
Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

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Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional
Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)

a. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the
Earth and explode it in space.
b. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
c. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target
on the Earth.
d. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a
probe on it.

Earth’s core
Syllabus

Prelims –GEOGRAPHY

Context: Recent studies show evidence of the leaking of Earth’s core.

Background:-

Record concentrations of a helium isotope found inside 62-million-year-old Arctic

rocks could be the most compelling evidence to date of a slow leak in our planet’s
core.
Building on the results of a previous analysis of ancient lava flows, a team of
geochemists from Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution and the California Institute
of Technology are now more certain than ever that helium trapped in the core as our
planet was forming is making its way to the surface.

About Earth’s core:-

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IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas

The Earth can be divided into one of two ways: mechanically or chemically.
Mechanically ( or through the study of liquid states )– it can be divided into the
lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesospheric mantle, outer core, and inner core.
Chemically (or by composition), which is the more popular of the two, it can be
divided into the crust, the mantle (subdivided into the upper and lower mantle),
and the core (subdivided into the outer core, and inner core.)

The Crust

The Crust is the cold, fragile, and rock-based outer layer.

There are two types of crust, each with unique physical and chemical
characteristics: (i) continental crust; and (ii) oceanic crust.
Basalt lava flows are produced when magma under the seafloor erupts, forming the
oceanic crust.
The oceanic crust is 5 km thinner than the continental crust (about 30 km).
Silica (Si) and Aluminum (Al) are the two main components of the crust.

Mantle

The mantle is the layer beneath the crust.

The Mohorovich Discontinuity is the separation between the crust and mantle.
The mantle has a thickness of around 2900 km.

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 Approximately 84% of the earth’s volume and 67% of its mass are made up of
the mantle.
It is primarily composed of silicon and magnesium.
The entire crust and the topmost solid portion of the mantle comprise the
An extremely vicious, weakly elastic, ductile, deforming zone of the upper mantle,
the asthenosphere (between 80 and 200 km), is located just beneath the
lithosphere.

Core

It is the layer that surrounds the earth’s core that is the

Guttenberg’s Discontinuity divides the mantle from the core.
It is also called NIFE since it contains nickel (Ni) and iron (Fe).
Nearly 15% of the earth’s volume and 32.5 per cent of its mass are made up of
the core.
The density of the earth’s core fluctuates around 5 and 14.5 g/cm3.
The inner core and the outer core are the sub-layers that make up the Core.
The inner core is solid, but the outer core is liquid (or semi-liquid).

MUST READ: Supermoon

SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the:
(2022)

a. The first half of the month of June

b. The second half of the month of June
c. The first half of the month of July
d. The second half of the month of July

Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019)

a. does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

b. does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle
c. shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
d. shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Mains:
VIENNA CONVECTION ON DIPLOMATS

Syllabus

GS-II

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The “Vienna Convention on Diplomats,” is an international treaty that was adopted by 61
countries on April 18, 1961. This convention is a fundamental document in international
law and governs the conduct of diplomatic relations between independent states. It was
drafted during the United Nations Conference on Diplomatic Intercourse and Immunities,
held in Vienna, Austria. It is considered a cornerstone of modern diplomatic law and
practice.

KEY PROVISIONS

Diplomatic Immunity (Articles 29 to 36)

Diplomats and their families are granted immunity from the jurisdiction of the host
country’s legal system for their official actions.
Extends to criminal and civil matters and ensures that diplomats cannot be
prosecuted or sued in the host country’s courts.

Inviolability of Diplomatic Premises (Articles 22 to 27)

Diplomatic premises, such as embassies and consulates, are considered inviolable.

They cannot be entered or searched by the host country’s authorities without the
permission of the sending state.

Non-Interference (Article 41)

Diplomatic agents are expected not to interfere in the internal affairs of the host
country.
This principle promotes peaceful coexistence and respectful relations between
states.

Protection of Diplomatic Missions (Articles 22 to 27)

Host country is responsible for ensuring the security and protection of diplomatic
missions and their staff.
Includes safeguarding the physical premises and preventing any intrusion or
damage.

Termination of Diplomatic Relations (Articles 45 to 50)

Outlines procedures for the termination of diplomatic relations between states.

Includes orderly withdrawal of diplomatic personnel and the closure of diplomatic
missions.

Article 11.1

It deals with the size of international missions within other countries.

In the absence of a specific agreement as to the size of the mission, the receiving
State may require that the size of a mission be kept within limits considered to be
reasonable and normal.

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NEED OF VIENNA CONVECTION

Establishing a Standardized Framework: The convention provides a universally

accepted and standardized framework for diplomatic relations between states. This
common set of rules and principles helps to avoid misunderstandings and conflicts
related to diplomatic conduct.
Promoting Diplomatic Relations: By establishing a clear legal framework for
diplomatic relations, the convention encourages states to engage in diplomatic
relationships. This, in turn, contributes to open channels of communication and
peaceful means of dispute resolution.
Protection of Diplomats: It ensures that diplomats can perform their duties without
fear of harassment, arrest, or harm. This protection is essential for diplomats to
represent their countries effectively and safely.
Promoting Diplomatic Immunity: It allows diplomats to carry out their
responsibilities without being subject to the jurisdiction of the host country’s legal
system, which could lead to politically motivated arrests or interference in their work.
Respect for the Principle of Non-Interference: The Vienna Convention reinforces
the principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of the host country. This
principle is essential for maintaining peaceful relations and respecting the
sovereignty of states.
Preventing Diplomatic Crises: Clear rules and guidelines help prevent diplomatic
incidents that could lead to crises. The convention stipulates how diplomatic
missions and agents should conduct themselves, minimizing the potential for
misunderstandings and conflicts.

Conclusion:

The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations has been widely adopted by countries
around the world and is considered a cornerstone of diplomatic law and practice. It
establishes a framework that helps maintain peaceful relations among nations and
ensures the functioning of diplomatic missions in a manner that respects the sovereignty
and dignity of both sending and receiving states. Violations of the convention can have
significant diplomatic and legal consequences.

Practice MCQs

Daily Practice MCQs

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

Institutions Headquarters

1.CBI Kolkata

2.NIA New Delhi

3.SEBI Mumbai

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How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 has a cash prize of $120,000.

Statement-II :

It is the first-ever International badminton spectacle in the capital city.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the Chetak Helicopters, consider the following statements:

1. It is a two-ton class helicopter.

2. It is a double-engine helicopter that can carry seven people.
3. The helicopter was inducted by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) in 1960.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2 only

Mains Question:

Q.1) Comment on the need and importance of international convention on diplomatic

relations.

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along
with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

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ANSWERS FOR 21st October – Daily Practice MCQs

Answers- Daily Practice MCQs

Q.1) – b

Q.2) – c

Q.3) – c

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