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Neet Minior 4 Answer Key
Neet Minior 4 Answer Key
Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 13th August 2023 Maximum Marks:720
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint pen
only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice
questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany &
Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given
below:
(A) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions Nos- 1 to 35,
51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(B) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos- 36 to 50, 86
to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten)
questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidate are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions,
the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on these page/marking responses on the
Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
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13. The candidate will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.
(English)
Atomic No:
H = 1, D = 1, Li = 3, Na = 11, K = 19, Rb = 37, Cs = 55, F = 9, Ca = 20, He = 2, O = 8, Au = 79.
Atomic Masses:
He = 4, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, P = 31, Br = 80, Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56, Mn = 55, Pb = 207,
Au = 197, Ag = 108, F = 19, H = 2, Cl = 35.5, Sn = 118.6
2. Three identical spheres, each of mass M, are placed at the comers of a right-angle triangle with mutually
perpendicular sides equal to 2 m (see figure). Taking the point of intersection of the two mutually perpendicular
sides as the origin, find the position vector of centre of mass.
(A)
3
4
i j
(B) 2 i j
(D)
3
2
i j
Ans. (D)
Sol.
m1x1 m 2 x 2 m 3 x 3 0 2m 0 2
x com
m1 m 2 m 3 3m 3
in this process is
(A) 25 J
(B) 60 J
(C) 15 J
(D) 20 J
Ans. (A)
Sol. W FS
3i 4j 5k 5k
25 J
4. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with
negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of:
(A) 50 cm
(B) 67 cm
(C) 80 cm
(D) 33 cm
Ans. (B)
Sol.
(5 0) (10 1)
X com = 0.67 m
15
= 67 cm
x
5. The force exerted on an object is F f 0 1 . Find the work done in moving the object from x 0 to x 3a .
a
3
(A) f0a
2
1
(B) f0a
2
(C) f 0 a
(D) 0
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 4
Ans. (A)
Sol. W 3a
0 Fdx
x
3a
0 f0 1 dx
a
3a
f x2
0 f0 x
2a 0
f0 9 a 2
f 0 3a
2a
9f 0 a 3f a
3f 0 a 0
2 2
7. The distance X moved by a body of mass 0.5 kg under the action of a force varies with time t as
x m 3t 2 4t 5 (here t is expresed in second). What is the work done by the force in first 2 seconds?
(A) 20 J
(B) 40 J
(C) 50 J
(D) 60 J
Ans. (D)
Sol. x 3t 2 4t 5
v 6t 4
v at t=0 v1 =4 m/s
v at t-2s v 2 =12+4=16 m/s
1
W=k.E= ×0.5 256-16
2
1 120
= ×0.5× 240
2
60 J
(A) 3
(B) 1 m
1
(C) m
3
(D) 0.5 m
Ans. (C)
m1 y1 m 2 y 2 m 3 y3 0 0 2 3 3 1
Sol. ycom m
m1 m 2 m 3 6 3 3
9. The graph of force versus displacement is shown in figure. A body of mass 2 kg has a velocity of 20 m / s at
(A) 436 J
(B) 460 J
(C) 484 J
(D) 282 J
Sol.
1
W K E m v 2 u 2
2
W area under F x cure.
W
1
2
6
4 12 6 10
24 60
36 J
1 1
36 mv 2 mu 2
2 2
1
36 (K E)f 2 400
2
(KE) f 36 400
436 J
10. In the figure given below, a child of mass 4 kg is standing on a wooden plank of mass 40 kg which is kept at
rest on a horizontal smooth ground. If child walks on the plank with a velocity of 10 m / s with respect to plank,
then the velocity of the plank w.r.t. ground will be
11
(A) m/s
10
10
(B) m/s
11
(C) 10 m/s
(D) 1 m/s
Ans. (B)
11. A particle of mass 5 m at rest suddenly breaks on its own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m each
move along mutually perpendicular direction with speed v each. The energy released during the process is,
4 2
(A) mv
3
3 2
(B) mv
5
5 2
(C) mv
3
3 2
(D) mv
2
Ans. (A)
Sol. Applying conservation of linear momentum
O = mvi + mvj + 3mv1
1 mv
v
mv
3m
i- j = v
3m
2
(K.E)initial 0
1 1 1
(K E)final mv2 mv 2 3m v'2
2 2 2
1 1 1 v2
mv 2 mv 2 3m 2
2 2 2 93
mv 2
mv 2
3
4mv 2
3
head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is:
1
(A)
9
8
(B)
9
4
(C)
9
5
(D)
9
Ans. (B)
v 2 v1
Sol. e
u1 u 2
u1 u
u 2 0 v 2 v1 u 1
4 mu 0 4 m v1 2 m v2
4u = 4v1 2v 2
2u 2v1 v 2 2
1 2 u 2 2mu 2
final " " " " " 4 m
2 9 9
2mu 2 16
KE 2mu 2 mu 2
9 9
16 2
mu
KE 8
9 2 (Negative sign indicate loss in energy)
KE 2 mu 9
0.1 500
25 J
10 2
= - 25 J (retarding force)
1
(KE)initial 10 10 10 500 J
2
W (KE) final 500
14. Two identical balls each moving with speed v at right angle to each other collide perfectly inelastically. Their
speed after collision is
(A) v
(B) 2v
v
(C)
2
v
(D)
2
Ans. (D)
Sol. For perfectly inelastic collision e 0
v 2 v1
0 v 2 V1
u1 u 2
Both will move together.
Applying conservation of linear momentum
15. In a conservative field, the potential energy U as a function of position x is given by U x 2 . Then the
corresponding conservative force is given by
(A) x
(B) 2x
(C) -x
(D) -2x
Ans. (D)
-du
Sol. F=
dx
F = 2x
16. A ball is dropped from height ℎ on a horizontal floor. If it loses 60% of its energy on hitting the floor then height
upto which it will rise after first rebounce is
h
(A)
5
2h
(B)
5
3h
(C)
5
4h
(D)
5
Ans. (B)
Sol.
2
Energy with which ball rebounces = 40% of initial energy = mgh
5
2
S0, it rises to height h
5
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 11
17. An object of mass m moves on a circular track of radius R with constant speed u . The work done by centripetal
force after it completes one circle is
(A) 2 mu 2
(B) mu 2
(C) 2 mu 2
(D) 0
Ans. (D)
Sol. Fore is acting perpendicular to the Displacement.
18. Two ivory balls are placed together at rest. A third identical ball moving with velocity 𝑢 in line of first two balls;
as shown in figure collide head on elastically then
(A) Third ball comes to rest with second ball while first ball moves with speed 𝑢
(B) Third ball comes to rest and other two move together with speed
(D) All three ball move in such a manner each makes angle 120° to each other
Ans. (A)
Sol. Conceptual.
19. A ball of 4 kg mass moving with velocity 40 m / s in east direction collides with another ball of 6 kg mass
moving with velocity 20 m / s in east direction. After collision two balls stick together, then loss of kinetic energy
is
(A) 360 J
(B) 240 J
(C) 480 J
(D) 600 J
Ans. (C)
Sol. After collision both will move with a common velocity
4 40 6 20 10 V
160 120 10 V
280 10 V
V=28 m/s
1
(K.E)final 10 28 28 3920 J
2
Loss in K.E = 480 J
21. The force acting on a particle moving along 𝑥-axis varies with position.on 𝑥-axis as shown in figure
(B) x x2
(C) x 0
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. (A)
dF
Sol. 0 Stable Equilibrium
dx
dF
0 unstable Equilibrium
dx
hence, particle is in stable Equilibrium at x x1
L L
(A) ,
3 6
2L L
(B) ,
3 6
L 2L
(C) ,
6 3
L
(D) L,
2
Ans. (B)
Sol.
M 0 2ML
X com
3M
2L
3
L
M 2m 0
L L
Ycom
3M 6
X com , Ycom
2L L
,
3 6
23. A bullet of mass 100 g hits a block of thickness 5 cm with a speed of 200 m / s . It emerges with 10% of its
initial kinetic energy. Then, its emergent speed will be
(A) 20 10 m/s
(B) 20 3 m/s
(C) 20 m/s
(D) 10 10 m/s
v= 200×20=20 10 m/s
24. A moving block having mass 𝑚, collides with another stationary block having mass 4 m. The lighter block comes
to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(e) will be
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.8
Ans. (B)
Sol. m1u1 m 2 u 2 m1 v1 m 2 v 2
mv + 0 = 4mv'
v
v' =
4
v
v 2 v1 4 0 1
e 0.25
u1 u 2 v 4
25. The ball of mass m is thrown with speed v 0 . The ball strikes the block of mass 2 m and sticks to it. Find the
maximum compression of spring.
m
(A) v 0
3k
m
(B) v0
2k
3m
(D) v 0
k
Ans. (A)
Sol. Applying conservation of Linear momentum
mv 0 0 3mv '
v0
v'
3
K E of (Block mass) system
1 v2
3m 0
2 9
Applying conservation of Energy
1 v2 1
3m 0 kx 2
2 9 2
mv 02 m
x2 x v0
3k 3k
26. A ball of mass m moving at a speed v makes a head on collision with an identical ball at rest. The kinetic energy
of the ball after the collision is 4% of the original. Find the coefficient of restitution.
3
(A)
5
2
(B)
5
1
(C)
5
1
(D)
3
Ans. (A)
4
Sol. (K.E of Ball 1) final (K E of ball 1) initial
100
1 4 1 2
mv 2 mv
2 100 2
8
v' v
5
4 v
v
velocity of separation v v
e 5 5
veloulty of apperoach u1 u 2 v
3
5
27. A car of mass m is moving along a circular track of radius r with a speed which increases linearly with time t
as v kt where k is a constant. The instantaneous power delivered by agent applying the force is
(A) mkt
mt
(B)
k
(C) mk 2 t
(D) mt 2 k
Ans. (C)
Sol. P F v ma v
mdv v
dt
mk kt mk 2 t
28. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v 0 . It collides with the
ground; loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v 0 is
(Take g 10 m s 2 )
(A) 10 m s 1
(B) 14 m s 1
(C) 20 m s 1
(D) 28 m s 1
Ans. (B)
1 1
mg20 mg 20 mv 02
2 2
1
2mg 20 = mg20 mv02
2
1
mg 20 mv02
2
v 02 40g 400
v 0 =20 m/s
29. A bomb initially at rest explodes by it self into three equal mass fragments. The velocities of two fragments are
3i+2j
ˆ ˆ m/s and -i-4j
ˆ ˆ . The velocity of the third fragment is (is m/s) :-
ˆ ˆ
(A) 2i+2j
ˆ ˆ
(B) 2i-2j
ˆ ˆ
(C) -2i+2j
ˆ ˆ
(D) -2i-2j
Ans. (C)
30. Given below is the square plate of uniform mass 𝑀 and side length the COM of the system, when the shaded
portion is removed is given by (consider point 0 as origin)
a a
(A) ,
2 2
(B) 0,0
2a 2a
(C) ,
9 9
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 18
a a
(D) ,
2 2
Ans. (C)
Sol. COM of the square plate was 0,0 after the Removal of shaded portion
m1 x1 m 2 x 2
x com
m1 m 2
M a
M0
X COm 4 2 Ma 4 2a
M 6 3M 9
M
4
M a
M 0 ,
Ycom 4 2 2a
M 9
M
4
31. Water from a stream is falling on the blades of a turbine at the rate of 100 kg / s . If the height of the stream is
100 m , then power delivered to turbine is.
(A) 100 kW
(B) 0.1 kW
(C) 10 kW
(D) 1 kW
Ans. (A)
w mgh m
Sol. P gh
t t t
100 10 100
100 kW
32. A frame is formed by the uniform rods having constant linear mass density. ACB part of frame is semicircular
of radius ' R ' and AB is straight rod. Centre of mass of the system from centre O of AB is at a distance.
(B)
1 R
(C)
2 R
2R
(D)
2
Ans. (D)
Sol.
33. Statement 1 - In the absence of an external force, the velocity of the centre of mass of a body remains constant.
Statement 2 - The location of COM is Independent of the shape and nature of Distribution of mass of the body
(A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true
(B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false
(C) Only statement 1 is true
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 20
(D) Only statement 2 is true
Ans. (C)
Sol. Conceptual.
34. A uniform square plate abcd has a mass of 1 kg . If two point masses each of 20 g are placed at the corners b
and c as shown, then the centre of mass shifts on the line.
(A) OW
(B) OX
(C) OY
(D) OZ
Ans. (C)
Sol. Conceptual.
35. A body at rest explodes into two pieces of unequal mass. The parts will move.
(A) Arbitrarily
(B) in the same direction
(C) In opposite directions with equal speeds
(D) In opposite directions with unequal speeds.
Ans. (D)
Sol. Conceptual.
SECTION – B
36. Locate the centre of mass of arrangement shown in figure. The three rods are identical in mass and length
(consider O as origin)
L L
(A) ,
2 2
L
(B) ,0
3
L L
(C) ,
3 2
Sol.
L mL
m m0
X com m 2 2 L
3m 3
L 3
m0 m mL mL
2 2 L
Ycom
3m 3m 2
X com, Ycom L3 , L2
37. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg . The velocity of 18 kg mass
is 6 m s 1 . The kinetic energy of the other mass is.
(A) 256 J
(B) 486 J
(C) 524 J
(D) 324 J
Ans. (B)
Sol.
12v 18 6
v=-9 m/s
38. A point object of mass m is kept at a,0 along x -axis. What mass should be kept at 3a, 0 , so that centre of
(A) m
(B) 2 m
m
(C)
3
(D) 3 m
Ans. (C)
Sol. x com 0
m1 x1 m 2 x 2
0
m1 m 2
ma m 3a 0
ma 3m 'a
m
m
3
39. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown here. The force is in N and x in m . The work
done by the force in moving the object from x 0 to x 6 m is.
(A) 4.5 J
(B) 13.5 J
(C) 9.0 J
(D) 18.0 J
Ans. (B)
40. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 2 kg are connected by a spring of negligible mass and placed on a frictionless
horizontal surface. An impulse provides a velocity of 7 m / s to the heavier block in the direction of the lighter
block. The velocity of the centre of mass is
(A) 4 m / s
(B) 5 m / s
(C) 2 m / s
(D) 3 m / s
Ans. (B)
m1v1 m 2 v 2
Sol. v com
m1 m 2
5×7+0
= =5 m/s
7
41. A ball moving with velocity 2 m / s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the
coefficient of restitution is 0.5 then their velocities (in m / s ) after collision will be
(A) 0,2
(B) 0,1
(C) 1,1
(D) 1,0.5
Ans. (B)
v 2 v1
Sol. e v 2 v1 0.5 2 1
u1 u 2
v 2 v1 1 1
m 2 2m 0 m v1 2 mv 2
v1 2v 2 2 2
v2 1 , v1 0
42. Consider a system of two identical particles. One of the particles is at rest and the other has an acceleration f .
The centre of mass has an acceleration
(A) 0
(B) f
f
(C)
2
(D) 2f
Ans. (C)
m1a1 m 2 a 2
Sol. a com
m1 m 2
mxf m 0 f
2m 2
43. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant
magnitude P0 . The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to
(A) t 2 P0
(B) t1/ 2
(C) t 1/ 2
t
(D)
m
Ans. (B)
Sol. P F v
P0 mav
dv
P0 m v
dt
P0 dt mv
mv2
P0 t
2
tP
v2 0
m
v t
44. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1: 2 : 3 . They are connected in series and the new force
constant is K . Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is K . Then K : K is.
45. In a certain field, the potential energy is U ax 2 bx 3 , where a and b constants. The particle is in stable
equilibrium at x equal to.
(A) Zero
a
(B)
3b
2a
(C)
3b
2a
(D)
b
Ans. (A)
Sol. U ax 2 bx 3 .
dU
0 2ax 3bx 2 0
dx
2ax 3bx 2
2a
x , x 0.
3b
d2 U
for stable Equilibrium 0 2a 6bx .
dx 2
2a
2a 6b
3b
2a 4a 2a 0 unstable Equilibrium
d2U
< 0 hence, particle is at stable Equilibrium at x = 0
dx 2
47. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m 2 is moving with a velocity
v 2 . Both of them have the same momentum but their different kinetic energies are E 1 and E 2 respectively. If
m1 m 2 , then
(A) E1 E 2
E1 m1
(B)
E2 m2
(C) E1 E 2
(D) E1 E 2
Ans. (A)
p2
Sol. KE
2m
P 2mE
2m1E1 2m 2 E 2
m 1 E1 m 2 E 2
m 1 m 2 E1 E 2
49. A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V ,
the power delivered to the particle is
MV 2
(A)
T
1 MV 2
(B)
2 T2
MV 2
(C)
T2
1 MV 2
(D)
2 T
Ans. (D)
Sol. P F v mav
dv
Pm v
dt
Pdt mvdv
mv 2
PT
2
mv 2
P
2T
50. A particle of mass 𝑚 is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower and another particle of mass 2 m is thrown
vertically upward
The acceleration of COM is
(A) g
9g
(B)
3
29
(C)
3
9
(D)
2
Ans. (A)
m1a1 m 2 a 2
Sol. a com
m1 m 2
PART – B : CHEMISTRY
(SECTION-A)
51. The ratio of UMP : UAvg : Urms is
(A) (1.128) : (1) : (1.224)
(B) 1 : (1.128) : (1.224)
(C) (1.128) : (1.224) : 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
2RT 8RT 3RT
Sol. U mp : U arg : U rms : : 1: 1.128 : 1.224
Pm M m
52. The molecules of a gas A travel four times faster than the molecules of gas B at same temperature. The ratio of
molecular weights M A / M B is
1
(A)
16
(B) 4
1
(C)
4
(D) 16
Ans. (A)
2
r2 m2 r m 4 m m 1
Sol. 2 2 2 1
r1 m1 r
1 m 1 1
m 1 m 2 16
v 1 v 1 r1 m 2 v1 t 2
Sol. =r= = = = ×
t m 30sec 32 r2 m1 t1 v2
32 30 30
V2 = 14.14 L
64 60 v 2
55. Two gases A and B having same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively.
The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular Mass of B is:-
(A) 25 u
(B) 50 u
(C) 12.25 u
(D) 6.50 u
Ans. (C)
r1 m 2 H1 t 2 10 m2 49
Sol. m2 12.25
r2 m1 t1 V2 26 49 4
Pc Vc
56. Value of would be
RTc
3
(A)
8
8
(B)
3
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans. (A)
a 8a
Sol. Vc 3b, Pc T
2 c
27b 27Rb
(B) P Vm b RT
a
(C) P 2 Vm RT
Vm
RT a
(D) P
Vm Vm2
Ans. (C)
Sol. At low pressure the volume of atoms is negligible in comparison with the volume of gas.
59. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when
(A) surroundings and system change into each other
(B) there is no boundary between system and surroundings
(C) the surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system
(D) the system changes into the surroundings spontaneously
Ans. (C)
Sol. When the surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system, the process in known as reversible process.
(A)
(B)
(D)
Ans. (D)
Sol. P-V curve is not straight line.
64. Which of the following pair will diffuse at the same rate?
(A) CO 2 and N 2 O
(B) CO 2 and NO
(C) CO 2 and CO
(D) N 2 O and NO
Ans. (A)
r1 m2 N 2O 44
Sol. (1) CO2 and N 2 O has equal molecular mass.
r2 m1 CO 2 44
65. A container containing O 2 and CH 4 in 3 : 2 mass ratio. The relative rate of effusion of O2 and CH4 is.
3 2
(A)
4
3
(B)
4 2
3
(C)
2 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
rO2 m CH 4 PO2 3 16 3
Sol.
rCH 4 m O2 PCH4 4 32 4 2
66. At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 3 3 times that of a hydrocarbon
having molecular formula C n H 2n 2 . What is the value of n ?
r1 m2 3 3 m2
r2 m1 r2 2
3 3x m2
m 2 27 2 54
x 2
67. The molecular weight of a gas which diffuses through a porous plug at 1/6th of the speed of hydrogen under
identical conditions is:
(A) 27
(B) 72
(C) 36
(D) 48
Ans. (B)
rH 2 m1 r6 m1
Sol. m1 72
r1 m H2 r 2
a
71. At low pressures, van der Waals' equation is written as P 2 V RT . The compressibility factor is equal to:
V
a
(A) 1
RTV
RTV
(B) 1
a
a
(C) 1
RTV
RTV
(D) 1
a
Ans. (A)
Sol. z 1 then
q q
P V 2 V RT PV V RT or
pV q
1
RT RTV
PV q
Z 1
RT RTV
75. When no heat energy is allowed to enter or leave the system, it is called
(A) Isothermal process
(B) Reversible process
(C) Adiabatic process
(D) Irreversible process
Ans. (C)
Sol. In Adiabatic system No Heat energy is allowed to leave or enter.
76. If P,V , and T represent pressure, volume and temperature of the gas, the correct representation of Boyle's law
is
1
(A) V ( at constant P)
T
(B) PV RT
(C) V 1 / P (at constant T )
(D) PV nRT
Ans. (C)
Sol. From the definition of Boyle’s law.
78. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X . The molecular weight of X is:
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 4
(D) 8
Ans. (A)
rCH 4 m ges 2r mg
Sol. m 16 4 64
rgas m cH r 16
79. The rates of diffusion of gases A and B of molecular weight 100 and 81 respectively are in the ration of
(A) 9 : 10
(B) 10 : 9
(C) 100 : 18
(D) 81 : 100
Ans. (A)
rA mB 81 9
Sol.
rB mA 100 10
80. Rate of diffusion of a gas is _____
(A) directly proportional to its density
(B) directly proportional to its molecular mass
(C) directly proportional to the square of its molecular mass
(D) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass
Ans. (D)
Sol. Rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass.
81. A real gas most closely approaches the behaviour of an ideal gas at:
(A) 15 atm and 200 K
(B) 1 atm and 273 K
(C) 0.5 atm and 500 K
(D) 15 atm and 500 K
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 37
Ans. (C)
Sol. At Low Pressure and High temperature Real gas moves towards ideal gas behaviour.
87. I, II, and III are three isotherms respectively at T1 , T2 and T3 as shown in the graph. Temperature will be in order.
(A) T1 T2 T3
(B) T1 T2 T3
(C) T1 T2 T3
(D) T1 T2 T3
Ans. (C)
Sol. V T
89. A bottle of dry NH 3 and bottle of dry HCl connected through a long tube are opened simultaneously at both
ends, the white NH 4 Cl ring first formed will be :
(A) At the centre of the tube
(B) Near the HCl bottle
(C) Near the ammonia bottle
(D) Throughout the length of the tube
Ans. (B)
Sol. HCl diffuse slower than NH3 because mass of HCl is greater.
91. Hydrogen gas diffuses four times as rapidly as a mixture of C 2 H 4 and CO 2 . The molar ratio of C 2 H 4 to CO 2
in the mixture is
(A) 1:1
(B) 2 :1
(C) 3 :1
(D) 3 : 2
Ans. (C)
rH2 M eff M eff
Sol. ,4 M eff
rmix M H2 2
32
M eff XC2 H4 MC2H4 XCO MCO
2 2
1 X C 2 M C 2 H 4 X C 2 M C2
32 M C2 H4 M C 2 M C2 H 4 X C2
28 44 28 X C2
1
X C2
4
3
X C2H 4
4
X C2 H 4 3
X C2 1
92. Assertion: A real gas will approach ideal behavior at high temperature and low pressure
Reason: At low pressure and high temperature z = 1 for all gases.
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion is false and Reason is true
Ans. (B)
(D) None
Ans. (B)
Sol. Greater the value of a, the attraction force will increases and gas liquify easily.
104. In leaf, there is usually a middle prominent vein, which is known as the
(A) Rachis
(B) Pulvinus
(C) Midrib
106. If a flower cannot be divided from the centre into, two similar halves by any vertical plane passing through the
centre it is called.
(A) Actinomorphic
(B) Zygomorphic
(C) Asymmetric
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans. (C)
Sol. If a flower cannot be divided into two equal halves from any vertical plane it is called as asymmetric. The example
of such flower is canna.
107. The fruit is a mature or ripened ovary, developed after fertilisation. If a fruit is formed without fertilisation of the
ovary, it is called a
(A) Parthenocarpic fruit
(B) Parthenogenic fruit
(C) Apomictic fruit
(D) False fruit
Ans. (A)
Sol. If a fruit is formed by other floral parts than ovary, it is called as parthenocarpic fruit.
108. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(A) Orchid is a non-endospermic monocotyledonous seed
(B) Castor is endospermic dicotyledonous seed
109. The floral formula is represented by some symbols. Find out the correct match.
a. C 1. Calyx
b. K 2. Corolla
c. % 3. Actinomorphic
d. 4. Zygomorphic
e. () 5. Fusion
f. - 6. Cohesion
7. Adhesion
(A) a-1,b-2,c-3,d-4,e-5,f-6
(B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-7, f-5
(C) a-1,b-2,c-4,d-3,e-6,f-7
(D) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3, e-5, f-7
Ans. (D)
Sol. Factual question as per NCERT.
110. Petunia, Datura and Nicotiana belong to family
(A) Fabaceae
(B) Solanaceae
(C) Poaceae
(D) Liliaceae
Ans. (B)
Sol. Pitunia, Datura and Nicotiana belongs to the family Solanaceae. Nicotiana is tobacco plant.
i. Root cap
ii. Region of meristematic activity
iii. Region of elongation
iv. Region of maturation
(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-I
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Ans. (C)
Sol. Diagram based question. NCERT Page 59.
113. In some plants a slender lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis and after growing aerially for some
time arch downwards to touch the ground. Here we are talking about
(A) Pistia and Eichhornia
(B) Mint and Jasmine
(C) Banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum
(D) Opuntia and Euphorbia
Ans. (B)
Sol. In some plants a slender, lateral branch arise from the base of the main axis which arch downward and touch the
ground is called as stolon and it is observed in mint and Jasmine.
116. A modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem is known as
(A) Inflorescence
(B) Thalamus
(C) Peduncle
(D) Flower
Ans. (C)
Sol. If a shoot modified into floral Meristem it is known as peduncle. It is main axis on which flowers are arranged.
117. Drupe fruit is found in
(A) Mustard and Argemone
(B) Sunflower and Marigold
(C) Mango and Coconut
(D) Pea and bean
Ans. (C)
Sol. Mango and coconut are the best example of Drupe fruit as they have stony endocarp.
118. In monocotyledonous seeds, the embryo is small and situated in a groove at one end of the endosperm. It consists
of one large and
(A) Bean shaped cotyledon known as Tigellum
(B) Kidney shaped cotyledon known as Scutellum
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 47
(C) Shield shaped cotyledon known as Scutellum
(D) Shield shaped cotyledon known as Tigellum
Ans. (C)
Sol. In monocotyledonous seed there is a Shield shaped cotyledon known as scutellum develop while other cotyledon
is underdeveloped named as epiblast.
122. Which of the following region of root is responsible for the growth of the root in length?
(A) Region of meristematic activity
(B) Region of elongation
(C) Region of maturation
123. A lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in
aquatic plants like
(A) Pistia and Eichhornia
(B) Mint and Jasmine
(C) Banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum
(D) Opuntia and Euphorbia
Ans. (A)
Sol. A lateral branch with short internote while each node bearing a Rosette of leaves and a tuft of root is found in
Pistia and Eichhornia.
126. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral bud with respect to the other members of same whorl is
known as
(A) Aestivation
(B) Placentation
(C) Cohesion
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 49
(D) Adhesion
Ans. (A)
Sol. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral bud with respect to each other is called as aestivation.
Different type of aestivation are velvate, twisted, imbricate and vaxillary.
127. In mango the paricarp is well differentiated into an outer ....a.... epicarp, a middle ....b... mesocarp and an
inner....c.... endocarp.
(A) a - thin, b-stony hard, c-fleshy
(B) a - fleshy, b-thin, c-stony hard
(C) a - thin, b-fleshy, c-stony hard
(D) a - stony hard, b-fleshy, c-thin
Ans. (C)
Sol. In mango the fruit wall is well differentiated into outer thin epicarp, a middle flashy mesocarp and inner stony
hard endocarp.
128. The outermost covering of a seed in a dicotyledonous seed is called seed coat. The seed has two layers. The outer
layer is called ...1.... and inner layer is called .... 2 ….
(A) 1-Scutellum, 2-Coleoptile
(B) 1-Coleorhiza, 2-Coleoptile
(C) 1-Testa, 2-Tegmen
(D) 1-Tegmen, 2-Testa
Ans. (C)
Sol. The seed quote have two layers outer layer is called as testa while inner layer is called as tegman.
129. In floral formula, (K) denotes
(A) Polysepalous
(B) Gamosepalous
(C) Polypetalous
(D) Gamopetalous
Ans. (B)
Sol. NCERT fact.
Column I Column II
135. Identify the types of inflorescence shown in figures and select the correct option for (a) and (b):
SECTION – B
136. Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
T Pea
140. Match the columns I,II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
A P Solanaceae K Mustard
B Q Liliaceae L Indigofera
C R Brassicaceae M Petunia
D S Fabaceae N Tulip
Ans. (C)
144. Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
A In this leaf, lamina is entire P Simple leaf
B In this, if lamina is incised Q Compound leaf
the incisions do not touch the
midrib
C If the incision of the lamina R Pinnately compound leaf
reach up to the mid rib
breaking it into a number of
leaflets
S Palmately compound leaf
(A) A-P, B-R, C-S
(B) A-Q, B-S, C-R
(C) A-Q, B-R, C-P
(D) A-P, B-P, C-Q
Ans. (D)
Sol. In a leaf where lamina is entire called simple leaf and if lamina is incised but the incision do not touch the midrib
it is also simple leaf. In compound leaf the incision of the lamina reach the midrib and breaking lamina into
number of leaflets.
148. Statement-I: In some plants, like grass, monstera and banyan roots arise from radicle.
Statement-II: Epidermal cells of region of elongation in root form very fine and delicate, thread like structures
called root hairs:
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(B) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Ans. (B)
Sol. In some plants, like grass, monstera and banyan roots are not arise from radicle.
Epidermal cells of region of maturation in root form very fine and delicate, thread like structures called root hairs.
,PART-D: ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
153. Molecular weight of biomacromolecules found in acid insoluble fraction, ranges from.
(A) less than 800 Da
(B) 18 Da
(C) 800 to 8000 Da
(D) 10,000 Da and above
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 57
Ans. (D)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 146. Fact based.
156. The biologist describes the protein structure at four levels. If a protein thread is folded in the form of a helix, it is
called
(A) Primary structure
(B) Quaternary structure
(C) Secondary structure
(D) Tertiary structure
Ans. (C)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 150
157. A fatty acid has a carboxyl group attached to an R-group, where R-group belongs to
(A) 1 to 19 carbons
(B) 1 to 30 carbons
(C) 1 to 50 Carbons
(D) 20 to 30 carbons
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 144
161. Metabolic pathways which lead to a more complex structure from a simpler structure, called
(A) Anabolic pathways
(B) Catabolic pathways
(C) Enzymes
(D) turn over
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 153
162. All living organisms exist in a steady state, which is characterised by concentrations of each of the biomolecules
in
(A) Equilibrium state
(B) static state
(C) constant state
(D) non -equilibrium state
Ans. (D)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 153
166. The Structure and functional unit of liver is _____, which are covered with Glisson’s capsule, a thin _____ tissue
(A) Hepatic Lobules, connective
(B) Hepatic Lobules, vascular
(C) Kupffer cells, connective
(D) Kupffer cells, vascular
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 260
167. Statement I: The exocrine portion of pancreas secrete acidic pancreatic juices containing enzymes.
Statement II: Pancreatic juices contain inactivated enzymes trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen and procarboxy
peptidase activated by HCl in intestine.
(A) Both I, II correct
(B) Only I correct
(C) Only II correct
(D) Both I, II incorrect
Ans. (C)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 261, 262
173. Bile from liver passes through ________ , combines with _________ from gall bladder, to become _____.
(A) Hepatic duct, pancreatic duct, cystic duct
(B) Hepatic duct, cystic duct, common bile duct
175. Cellulose does not contain ______& hence cannot hold I2.
(A) Simple helices
(B) Linear chain
(C) Unbranched helices
(D) Complex helices
Ans. (D)
176. Identify the category shown and the one blank component "x" in it.
Category Component
(A) Nucleotide Adenine
(B) Nucleoside Uracil
(C) Cholesterol Guanin
(D) Amino acid NH2
Ans. (B)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Pg No. 145
Sol.
179. Group of enzymes that helps in catalysing a transfer of a group (other than hydrogen between a pair of substrates
is
(A) Oxidoreductases
(B) Transferase
(C) Lyases
(D) Isomerases
Ans. (B)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Page No. 158
a b c d
A Transition state Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme with enzyme
B Kinetic energy Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme with enzyme
C Potential energy Transition state Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme with enzyme
182. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action:
(A) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
(B) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
(C) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate.
(D) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Ans. (B)
Sol. Addition of succinate can reverse the inhibition.
183. Allosteric modulation is due to the inhibitory action faced by an enzyme due to.
(A) Competitive reversible inhibition
(B) Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
(C) Accumulation of Products
(D) Accumulation of substrate
Ans. (C)
Sol. When product gets accumulated it gives negative feedback to enzyme
184. Which of the following is the prosthetic group in enzyme in peroxidase and catalase?
(A) Zinc
(B) Haem
(C) NAD
(D) NADP
Ans. (B)
Sol. Refer NCERT Page No – 159
187. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in human is
(A) Trypsin
(B) Enterokinase
(C) Trypsinogen
(D) Chymotrypsin
Ans. (C)
Sol. Trypsinogen is a constituent of pancreatic juice.
188. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by
(A) Lipase
(B) Rennin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Pepsin
Ans. (B)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT (262 Pg No)
(A) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
(B) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
(C) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
(D) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
Ans. (A)
Sol. See NCERT Pg No 261
193. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called.
(A) coenzyme
(B) Holoenzyme
(C) Apoenzyme
(D) Isoenzyme
Ans. (A)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Pg NO. 159.
196. Transition state structure of substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is:
(A) Permanent but unstable
(B) Transient and unstable
(C) Permanent and stable
(D) Transient but stable
Ans. (B)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Page No. 156
197. Which of the following factor affecting enzyme activity is depicted in the given graph?
(A) pH
(B) Temperature
(C) Product concentration
(D) Substrate concentration
Ans. (D)
Sol. Refer NCERT Page No. 157.