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NEET UG (Pre-Medical)

Batch - Conquer | Minor Test 4

Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 13th August 2023 Maximum Marks:720

Name of Candidate (In Capitals):_____________________________________________________


Roll Number (In figures):___________________In words:_________________________________
Test Centre (In Capitals):___________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature:________________________Invigilator’s Signature:___________________

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions:

1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint pen
only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice
questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany &
Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given
below:
(A) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions Nos- 1 to 35,
51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(B) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos- 36 to 50, 86
to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten)
questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidate are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions,
the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on these page/marking responses on the
Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
5. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
6. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.
9. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
invigilator on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not
signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet
and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and
Regulation of this examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidate will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the
Attendance Sheet.

(English)

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 1


TEST SYLLABUS

Batch 1 – NEET CONQUER | Minor Test-4 | 13 th August 2023

Physics: Work, Power & Energy, Centre of Mass & Collision

Chemistry: States of Matter, Thermodynamics-I

Botany: Morphology of Flowering Plants

Zoology: Biomolecules, Digestion and Absorption-I

Useful Data Chemistry:


Gas Constant R  8.314 J K 1 mol 1
 0.0821 Lit atm K 1 mol 1
 1.987  2 Cal K 1 mol1
Avogadro's Number Na  6.023  10 23
Planck's Constant h  6.626  10 34 Js
 6.25 1027 erg.s
1 Faraday  96500 Coulomb
1 calorie  4.2 Joule
1 amu  1.66  1027 kg
1 eV  1.6  10 19 J

Atomic No:
H = 1, D = 1, Li = 3, Na = 11, K = 19, Rb = 37, Cs = 55, F = 9, Ca = 20, He = 2, O = 8, Au = 79.

Atomic Masses:
He = 4, Mg = 24, C = 12, O = 16, N = 14, P = 31, Br = 80, Cu = 63.5, Fe = 56, Mn = 55, Pb = 207,
Au = 197, Ag = 108, F = 19, H = 2, Cl = 35.5, Sn = 118.6

Useful Data Physics:


Acceleration due to gravity g  10 m / s 2

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 2


PART-A: PHYSICS
SECTION-A
1. If the magnitude of two vectors are 8 unit and 5 unit and their scalar product is zero, the angle between the two
vectors is
(A) 0
(B) 30°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Ans. (D)
Sol. If the scalar product is zero.
 Both the vector are perpendicular to each other.

2. Three identical spheres, each of mass M, are placed at the comers of a right-angle triangle with mutually
perpendicular sides equal to 2 m (see figure). Taking the point of intersection of the two mutually perpendicular
sides as the origin, find the position vector of centre of mass.

(A)
3
 
4  
i j

 
(B) 2 i  j

(C) i  j

(D)
3
 
2  
i j

Ans. (D)

Sol.

m1x1  m 2 x 2  m 3 x 3 0  2m  0 2
x com   
m1  m 2  m 3 3m 3

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 3


m1 y1  m 2 y 2  m 3 y3 0  0  2m 2
Ycom   
m1  m 2  m 3 3m 3
2 2 2
Position vector of COM  i  j  ˆi  j
3 3 3
 
 
3.  
A force F  3i  4j  5k N acts on an object and displaces it through d  5k m . The total work done by the force

in this process is
(A) 25 J
(B) 60 J
(C) 15 J
(D) 20 J
Ans. (A)
 
Sol. W  FS

  
 3i  4j  5k  5k

 25 J

4. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with
negligible mass. The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of:
(A) 50 cm
(B) 67 cm
(C) 80 cm
(D) 33 cm
Ans. (B)

Sol.

(5  0)  (10  1)
X com =  0.67 m
15
= 67 cm

x 
5. The force exerted on an object is F  f 0   1 . Find the work done in moving the object from x  0 to x  3a .
a 
3
(A) f0a
2
1
(B) f0a
2
(C) f 0 a
(D) 0
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 4
Ans. (A)
Sol. W  3a
0 Fdx

x 
  3a
0 f0   1  dx
a 
3a
 f x2 
  0  f0 x 
 2a 0

f0 9 a 2
  f 0  3a 
2a
9f 0 a 3f a
 3f 0 a  0
2 2

6. The centre of mass of a body


(A) always lies at the geometrical centre
(B) always lie inside the body
(C) may lie outside the body
(D) always lies outside the body
Ans. (C)
Sol. Centre of mass may lie outside the body.

7. The distance X moved by a body of mass 0.5 kg under the action of a force varies with time t as

x  m   3t 2  4t  5 (here t is expresed in second). What is the work done by the force in first 2 seconds?

(A) 20 J
(B) 40 J
(C) 50 J
(D) 60 J
Ans. (D)
Sol. x  3t 2  4t  5
v  6t  4
v at t=0  v1 =4 m/s
v at t-2s  v 2 =12+4=16 m/s
1
W=k.E= ×0.5  256-16 
2
1 120
= ×0.5× 240
2
60 J

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 5


8. Three particles each of mass 2 kg are placed at corners of an equilateral triangle of side 2 m as shown in figure.
y-co-ordinate of the centre of mass of the system of three particles is

(A) 3
(B) 1 m
1
(C) m
3
(D) 0.5 m
Ans. (C)
m1 y1  m 2 y 2  m 3 y3 0  0  2 3 3 1
Sol. ycom     m
m1  m 2  m 3 6 3 3

9. The graph of force versus displacement is shown in figure. A body of mass 2 kg has a velocity of 20 m / s at

x  0 . Find the kinetic energy of body at x = 10 m.

(A) 436 J
(B) 460 J
(C) 484 J
(D) 282 J

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 6


Ans. (A)

Sol.

1

W  K  E  m v 2  u 2
2

W  area under F  x cure.

W
1
2
 6

 4   12  6  10

  24  60
 36 J
1 1
36  mv 2  mu 2
2 2
1
36  (K  E)f   2  400
2
(KE) f  36  400
 436 J

10. In the figure given below, a child of mass 4 kg is standing on a wooden plank of mass 40 kg which is kept at

rest on a horizontal smooth ground. If child walks on the plank with a velocity of 10 m / s with respect to plank,
then the velocity of the plank w.r.t. ground will be

11
(A) m/s
10
10
(B) m/s
11
(C) 10 m/s
(D) 1 m/s
Ans. (B)

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 7


Sol.

Applying Linear momentum conservation


m1 v1  m 2 v 2  m1u1  m 2 v 2
m1 v1  m 2 v 2  0
4 10  x   40x  0
40  4x  40x  0
44x  40
-10
x= m/s
11
Negative sign indicates that Plank will move opposite to child.

11. A particle of mass 5 m at rest suddenly breaks on its own into three fragments. Two fragments of mass m each
move along mutually perpendicular direction with speed v each. The energy released during the process is,
4 2
(A) mv
3
3 2
(B) mv
5
5 2
(C) mv
3
3 2
(D) mv
2
Ans. (A)
Sol. Applying conservation of linear momentum
O = mvi + mvj + 3mv1
1  mv
v 
mv  
3m
 
i- j = v 
3m
2

(K.E)initial  0
1 1 1
(K  E)final  mv2  mv 2   3m  v'2
2 2 2
1 1 1 v2
 mv 2  mv 2  3m  2 
2 2 2 93
mv 2
 mv 2 
3
4mv 2

3

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 8


12. Body A of mass 4 m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2 m , at rest. The collision is

head on and elastic in nature. After the collision the fraction of energy lost by the colliding body A is:
1
(A)
9
8
(B)
9
4
(C)
9
5
(D)
9
Ans. (B)
v 2  v1
Sol. e
u1  u 2

for elastic collision e  1

u1  u
u 2  0  v 2  v1  u  1

Applying conservation of Linear momentum


m1 u1  m 2 u 2  m1 v1  m 2 v 2

4 mu  0  4 m v1  2 m v2
4u =  4v1  2v 2

2u  2v1  v 2   2

on solving (1) & (2)


u 4
v1  , v 2  u
3 3
1
initial KE. of body A   4m  u 2  2mu 2
2

1 2 u 2 2mu 2
final " " " " "   4 m 
2 9 9

2mu 2 16
KE   2mu 2  mu 2
9 9
16 2
 mu
KE 8
 9 2   (Negative sign indicate loss in energy)
KE 2 mu 9

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 9


13. A block of mass 10 kg moving in x direction with a constant speed of 10 m s 1 , is subjected to a retarding force
F  0.1x J / m during its travel from x  20 m to 30 m . Its final KE will be
(A) 250 J
(B) 475 J
(C) 450 J
(D) 275 J
Ans. (B)
Sol. W  K.E
F  0.1x
30
30 x2   900 400 
W   fdx  0.1   0.1   
20
 2  20  2 2 

0.1 500
   25 J
10 2
= - 25 J (retarding force)
1
(KE)initial   10  10  10  500 J
2
W  (KE) final  500

25  500  (KE) final


Final kinetic Energy = 475 J

14. Two identical balls each moving with speed v at right angle to each other collide perfectly inelastically. Their
speed after collision is
(A) v
(B) 2v
v
(C)
2
v
(D)
2
Ans. (D)
Sol. For perfectly inelastic collision e  0
v 2  v1
 0  v 2  V1
u1  u 2
Both will move together.
Applying conservation of linear momentum

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 10


mviˆ  mvj  2mv '
 v
 
v '  I  j
2
 v v
v'  2
2 2

15. In a conservative field, the potential energy U as a function of position x is given by U  x 2 . Then the
corresponding conservative force is given by
(A) x
(B) 2x
(C) -x
(D) -2x
Ans. (D)
-du
Sol. F=
dx
F =  2x

16. A ball is dropped from height ℎ on a horizontal floor. If it loses 60% of its energy on hitting the floor then height
upto which it will rise after first rebounce is
h
(A)
5
2h
(B)
5
3h
(C)
5
4h
(D)
5
Ans. (B)

Sol.

2
Energy with which ball rebounces = 40% of initial energy = mgh
5
2
S0, it rises to height h
5
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 11
17. An object of mass m moves on a circular track of radius R with constant speed u . The work done by centripetal
force after it completes one circle is
(A) 2 mu 2
(B) mu 2
(C)  2 mu 2
(D) 0
Ans. (D)
Sol. Fore is acting perpendicular to the Displacement.

18. Two ivory balls are placed together at rest. A third identical ball moving with velocity 𝑢 in line of first two balls;
as shown in figure collide head on elastically then

(A) Third ball comes to rest with second ball while first ball moves with speed 𝑢
(B) Third ball comes to rest and other two move together with speed

(C) All three ball move together with speed

(D) All three ball move in such a manner each makes angle 120° to each other
Ans. (A)
Sol. Conceptual.

19. A ball of 4 kg mass moving with velocity 40 m / s in east direction collides with another ball of 6 kg mass
moving with velocity 20 m / s in east direction. After collision two balls stick together, then loss of kinetic energy
is
(A) 360 J
(B) 240 J
(C) 480 J
(D) 600 J
Ans. (C)
Sol. After collision both will move with a common velocity
4  40  6  20  10 V
160  120  10 V
280  10 V
V=28 m/s

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 12


1 1
(K.E)initial   4  1600   6  400
2 2
3200  1200  4400 J

1
(K.E)final   10  28  28  3920 J
2
Loss in K.E = 480 J

20. In head on elastic collision of two bodies of equal masses


(A) The velocities are interchanged
(B) The speeds are interchanged
(C) The momenta are interchanged
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)
Sol. Conceptual.

21. The force acting on a particle moving along 𝑥-axis varies with position.on 𝑥-axis as shown in figure

The particle is in stable equilibrium at


(A) x   x1

(B) x  x2

(C) x  0
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. (A)
dF
Sol.  0  Stable Equilibrium
dx
dF
 0  unstable Equilibrium
dx
hence, particle is in stable Equilibrium at x   x1

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 13


22. The object shown in the figure is constructed of uniform rods of same material. The position of COM w.r.t corner
0 is

L L
(A)  , 
3 6
 2L L 
(B)  , 
 3 6
 L 2L 
(C)  , 
6 3 
 L
(D)  L, 
 2
Ans. (B)

Sol.

M  0  2ML
X com 
3M
2L

3
L
M  2m  0
L L
Ycom  
3M 6

 X com , Ycom   
2L L 
, 
 3 6

23. A bullet of mass 100 g hits a block of thickness 5 cm with a speed of 200 m / s . It emerges with 10% of its
initial kinetic energy. Then, its emergent speed will be
(A) 20 10 m/s
(B) 20 3 m/s
(C) 20 m/s
(D) 10 10 m/s

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 14


Ans. (A)
1 100 4000
Sol. initial K.E    200  200   2000 J
2 1000 2
10
10% of initial K  E   2000  200 J
100
1 100
200    V2
2 1000
200  20 = v2

v= 200×20=20 10 m/s

24. A moving block having mass 𝑚, collides with another stationary block having mass 4 m. The lighter block comes
to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(e) will be
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.8
Ans. (B)
Sol. m1u1  m 2 u 2  m1 v1  m 2 v 2
mv + 0 = 4mv'
v
v' =
4
v
v 2  v1 4  0 1
e    0.25
u1  u 2 v 4

25. The ball of mass m is thrown with speed v 0 . The ball strikes the block of mass 2 m and sticks to it. Find the
maximum compression of spring.

m
(A) v 0
3k

m
(B) v0
2k

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 15


2m
(C) v0
k

3m
(D) v 0
k
Ans. (A)
Sol. Applying conservation of Linear momentum
mv 0  0   3mv '

v0
v' 
3
K  E of (Block  mass) system

1 v2
 3m  0
2 9
Applying conservation of Energy
1 v2 1
 3m  0  kx 2
2 9 2
mv 02 m
x2   x  v0
3k 3k

26. A ball of mass m moving at a speed v makes a head on collision with an identical ball at rest. The kinetic energy
of the ball after the collision is 4% of the original. Find the coefficient of restitution.
3
(A)
5
2
(B)
5
1
(C)
5
1
(D)
3
Ans. (A)
4
Sol. (K.E of Ball 1) final  (K  E of ball 1) initial
100
1 4 1 2
mv 2   mv
2 100 2
8
v'  v
5

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 16


Applying conservation of linear momentum
v
mv  0  m   mv
5
mv 4mv
mv" = mv - =
5 5
4
v'' = v
5

4 v
v
velocity of separation v  v
e  5 5
veloulty of apperoach u1  u 2 v

3

5

27. A car of mass m is moving along a circular track of radius r with a speed which increases linearly with time t
as v  kt where k is a constant. The instantaneous power delivered by agent applying the force is
(A) mkt
mt
(B)
k
(C) mk 2 t
(D) mt 2 k
Ans. (C)
Sol. P  F  v  ma  v
mdv  v

dt
 mk  kt  mk 2 t

28. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity v 0 . It collides with the
ground; loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v 0 is

(Take g  10 m s 2 )

(A) 10 m s 1
(B) 14 m s 1
(C) 20 m s 1
(D) 28 m s 1
Ans. (B)

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 17


Sol. Energy with which ball bounces back = 50% of the initial Energy

Applying conservation of Energy

1 1 
mg20   mg  20  mv 02 
2 2 

1
2mg  20 =  mg20  mv02
2

1
mg  20  mv02
2

v 02  40g  400

v 0 =20 m/s

29. A bomb initially at rest explodes by it self into three equal mass fragments. The velocities of two fragments are

3i+2j
ˆ ˆ  m/s and  -i-4j
ˆ ˆ  . The velocity of the third fragment is (is m/s) :-

ˆ ˆ
(A) 2i+2j
ˆ ˆ
(B) 2i-2j
ˆ ˆ
(C) -2i+2j
ˆ ˆ
(D) -2i-2j
Ans. (C)

30. Given below is the square plate of uniform mass 𝑀 and side length the COM of the system, when the shaded
portion is removed is given by (consider point 0 as origin)

 a a
(A)   ,  
 2 2
(B)  0,0 

 2a 2a 
(C)  , 
 9 9 
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 18
 a a 
(D)  , 
2 2 
Ans. (C)
Sol. COM of the square plate was  0,0  after the Removal of shaded portion

m1 x1  m 2 x 2
x com 
m1  m 2

m1 - mass of the plate, x1 -initial coordinate of com

m 2 - mass of the removed, x 2 -coordinate of com of portion removed part

M a
M0  
X COm  4 2  Ma  4   2a
M 6 3M 9
M
4
M a
M 0  ,
Ycom  4 2   2a
M 9
M
4
31. Water from a stream is falling on the blades of a turbine at the rate of 100 kg / s . If the height of the stream is
100 m , then power delivered to turbine is.
(A) 100 kW
(B) 0.1 kW
(C) 10 kW
(D) 1 kW
Ans. (A)
w mgh m
Sol. P   gh
t t t
 100  10  100
 100 kW

32. A frame is formed by the uniform rods having constant linear mass density. ACB part of frame is semicircular
of radius ' R ' and AB is straight rod. Centre of mass of the system from centre O of AB is at a distance.

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 19


R
(A)
   1

(B)
   1 R

(C)
   2 R

2R
(D)
   2
Ans. (D)

Sol.

COM of part AOB  0,0 


 2R 
COM of part ACB  0, 
  
Mass of part AOB    2R
mass of part ACB    R
Xcom = 0
 2R 
  2R   0   R  
m y  m2 y2   
Ycom  1 1 
m1  m 2 R  2   
2R 2 2R
 
R  2     2   

33. Statement 1 - In the absence of an external force, the velocity of the centre of mass of a body remains constant.
Statement 2 - The location of COM is Independent of the shape and nature of Distribution of mass of the body
(A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true
(B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false
(C) Only statement 1 is true
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 20
(D) Only statement 2 is true
Ans. (C)
Sol. Conceptual.

34. A uniform square plate abcd has a mass of 1 kg . If two point masses each of 20 g are placed at the corners b
and c as shown, then the centre of mass shifts on the line.

(A) OW
(B) OX
(C) OY
(D) OZ
Ans. (C)
Sol. Conceptual.

35. A body at rest explodes into two pieces of unequal mass. The parts will move.
(A) Arbitrarily
(B) in the same direction
(C) In opposite directions with equal speeds
(D) In opposite directions with unequal speeds.
Ans. (D)
Sol. Conceptual.
SECTION – B
36. Locate the centre of mass of arrangement shown in figure. The three rods are identical in mass and length
(consider O as origin)

L L
(A)  , 
2 2
L 
(B)  ,0 
3 
L L
(C)  , 
3 2

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 21


 L
(D)  0, 
 3
Ans. (C)

Sol.

L mL
m  m0
X com m  2 2 L
3m 3
L 3
m0 m  mL mL
2 2 L
Ycom   
3m 3m 2

 X com, Ycom    L3 , L2 
 

37. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg . The velocity of 18 kg mass
is 6 m s 1 . The kinetic energy of the other mass is.
(A) 256 J
(B) 486 J
(C) 524 J
(D) 324 J
Ans. (B)

Sol.

Applying conservation of Linear momentum


30  0  18  6  12  v

12v   18  6 

v=-9 m/s

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 22


1
K.E   12  81
2
 486 J

38. A point object of mass m is kept at  a,0  along x -axis. What mass should be kept at  3a, 0  , so that centre of

mass lies at origin?

(A) m

(B) 2 m

m
(C)
3

(D) 3 m

Ans. (C)

Sol. x com  0

m1 x1  m 2 x 2
0
m1  m 2

ma  m   3a   0

ma  3m 'a

m
m 
3
39. A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown here. The force is in N and x in m . The work
done by the force in moving the object from x  0 to x  6 m is.

(A) 4.5 J
(B) 13.5 J
(C) 9.0 J
(D) 18.0 J
Ans. (B)

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 23


Sol.

Area under F  x graph gives work done.


W  area of trapezuim OA BD
1 27
 93   13.5 J
2 2

40. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 2 kg are connected by a spring of negligible mass and placed on a frictionless
horizontal surface. An impulse provides a velocity of 7 m / s to the heavier block in the direction of the lighter
block. The velocity of the centre of mass is
(A) 4 m / s
(B) 5 m / s
(C) 2 m / s
(D) 3 m / s
Ans. (B)
m1v1  m 2 v 2
Sol. v com 
m1  m 2

5×7+0
= =5 m/s
7
41. A ball moving with velocity 2 m / s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the
coefficient of restitution is 0.5 then their velocities (in m / s ) after collision will be
(A) 0,2
(B) 0,1
(C) 1,1
(D) 1,0.5
Ans. (B)
v 2  v1
Sol. e  v 2  v1  0.5  2  1
u1  u 2

v 2  v1  1    1

m  2  2m  0  m  v1  2 mv 2

v1  2v 2  2    2

from Equation (1) & (2)

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 24


3v 2  3

v2  1 , v1  0


42. Consider a system of two identical particles. One of the particles is at rest and the other has an acceleration f .
The centre of mass has an acceleration
(A) 0

(B) f

f
(C)
2

(D) 2f
Ans. (C)
m1a1  m 2 a 2
Sol. a com 
m1  m 2
mxf  m  0 f
 
2m 2

43. A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instantaneous power delivered to the car has a constant
magnitude P0 . The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to

(A) t 2 P0
(B) t1/ 2
(C) t 1/ 2
t
(D)
m
Ans. (B)
Sol. P  F  v
P0  mav
dv
P0  m v
dt
P0 dt  mv

mv2
P0 t 
2
tP
v2 0
m
v t

44. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1: 2 : 3 . They are connected in series and the new force
constant is K  . Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is K . Then K : K is.

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 25


(A) 1: 6
(B) 1: 9
(C) 1:11
(D) 1:14
Ans. (c)
1
Sol. K
length
length is in the ratio 1: 2 : 3
hence, spring constant wile be in the ratio 6 : 3 : 2
6k,3k,2k
1 1 1 1 1 2  3 1
Series      
k  6k 3k 2k 6k k
k  k
Parallel  k   6k  3k  2k  11k
k k 1
Ratio  
k  11k 11

45. In a certain field, the potential energy is U  ax 2  bx 3 , where a and b constants. The particle is in stable
equilibrium at x equal to.
(A) Zero
a
(B)
3b
2a
(C)
3b
2a
(D)
b
Ans. (A)
Sol. U  ax 2  bx 3 .
dU
 0  2ax  3bx 2  0
dx
2ax  3bx 2
2a
x , x  0.
3b
d2 U
for stable Equilibrium  0  2a  6bx .
dx 2
2a
2a  6b 
3b
2a  4a  2a  0  unstable Equilibrium

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 26


at x  0

d2U
< 0 hence, particle is at stable Equilibrium at x = 0
dx 2

46. Which quantity remains conserved in all types of collisions?


(A) Linear momentum
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Potential energy
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Ans. (A)
Sol. Conceptual.

47. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m 2 is moving with a velocity

v 2 . Both of them have the same momentum but their different kinetic energies are E 1 and E 2 respectively. If

m1  m 2 , then

(A) E1  E 2

E1 m1
(B) 
E2 m2

(C) E1  E 2

(D) E1  E 2

Ans. (A)

p2
Sol. KE 
2m
P  2mE

2m1E1  2m 2 E 2

m 1 E1  m 2 E 2

m 1  m 2  E1  E 2

48. Select correct statement regarding stable equilibrium.


(A) Potential energy of body is minimum in stable equilibrium
(B) Slope of potential energy versus position graph is zero at stable equilibrium
(C) A restoring force acts on the body when it is slightly displaced from its stable equilibrium position
(D) All of these

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 27


Ans. (D)
Sol. Conceptual.

49. A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V ,
the power delivered to the particle is
MV 2
(A)
T
1 MV 2
(B)
2 T2

MV 2
(C)
T2

1 MV 2
(D)
2 T
Ans. (D)
Sol. P  F  v  mav
dv
Pm v
dt
 Pdt   mvdv

mv 2
PT 
2
mv 2
P
2T
50. A particle of mass 𝑚 is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower and another particle of mass 2 m is thrown
vertically upward
The acceleration of COM is
(A) g
9g
(B)
3
29
(C)
3
9
(D)
2
Ans. (A)
m1a1  m 2 a 2
Sol. a com 
m1  m 2

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 28


 mgi  2mg j 3mgj
a com  
3m 3m
 g j

PART – B : CHEMISTRY
(SECTION-A)
51. The ratio of UMP : UAvg : Urms is
(A) (1.128) : (1) : (1.224)
(B) 1 : (1.128) : (1.224)
(C) (1.128) : (1.224) : 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
2RT 8RT 3RT
Sol. U mp : U arg : U rms  : :  1: 1.128  : 1.224 
Pm M m

52. The molecules of a gas A travel four times faster than the molecules of gas B at same temperature. The ratio of
molecular weights  M A / M B  is

1
(A)
16
(B) 4
1
(C)
4
(D) 16
Ans. (A)
2
r2 m2 r  m 4 m m 1
Sol.   2   2   2  1 
r1 m1 r
 1 m 1 1
  m 1 m 2 16

53. Air at sea level is dense. This is a practical application of


(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charle's law
(C) Avogadro's law
(D) Dalton's law
Ans. (A)
Sol. At sea level, because of compression by air above the proximal layer of air, pressure increases hence volume
decreases i.e. density increases. It is Boyle's law.

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 29


54. 20 L of SO 2 diffuses through a porous partition in 60 seconds. Volume of O 2 that diffuse under similar
conditions in 30 seconds will be:
(A) 12.14 L
(B) 14.14 L
(C) 18.14 L
(D) 28.14 L
Ans. (B)

v 1 v 1 r1 m 2 v1 t 2
Sol. =r=  =  = = ×
t m 30sec 32 r2 m1 t1 v2

32 30 30
    V2 = 14.14 L
64 60 v 2

55. Two gases A and B having same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively.
The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular Mass of B is:-
(A) 25 u
(B) 50 u
(C) 12.25 u
(D) 6.50 u
Ans. (C)
r1 m 2 H1 t 2 10 m2 49
Sol.       m2   12.25
r2 m1 t1 V2 26 49 4

Pc Vc
56. Value of would be
RTc

3
(A)
8
8
(B)
3
(C) 1
(D) 0
Ans. (A)
a 8a
Sol. Vc  3b, Pc  T 
2 c
27b 27Rb

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 30


9
 3b
Pc Vc 9  3  27b
z  27b 
RTc R  89 27b  89
27Rb
3

8

57. A gas can be liquefied by pressure alone when its temperature


(A) higher than its critical temperature
(B) lower than its critical temperature
(C) either of these
(D) none
Ans. (B)
Sol. When temperature is lower than its critical temperature gas can be liquify only by increasing pressure.

58. At low pressure, the van der Waals equation become:


(A) PVm  RT

(B) P  Vm  b   RT

 a 
(C)  P  2  Vm  RT
 Vm 

RT a
(D) P  
Vm Vm2

Ans. (C)
Sol. At low pressure the volume of atoms is negligible in comparison with the volume of gas.
59. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when
(A) surroundings and system change into each other
(B) there is no boundary between system and surroundings
(C) the surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system
(D) the system changes into the surroundings spontaneously
Ans. (C)
Sol. When the surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system, the process in known as reversible process.

60. A well stoppered thermos-flask containing some ice cubes is an example of


(A) Closed system
(B) Isolated system
(C) Open system

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 31


(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
Sol. An Isolated System does not allow to exchange the matter and the energy with surrounding.

61. Consider the following properties


(I) pH
(III) Volume
(V) EMF of a cell
(II) Surface tension
(IV) Entropy
(VI) Boiling point
Select intensive and extensive properties.
Intensive Extensive
(a) I, II, IV III, V, VI
(b) I, II, III, IV V, VI
(c) I, III, IV II, V, VI
(d) I, II, V, VI IV, III
Ans. (D)
Sol. Conceptual fact.

62. In an isochoric process the increase in internal energy is


(A) Equal to the heat absorbed
(B) Equal to the heat evolved
(C) Equal to the work done
(D) Equal to the sum of the heat absorbed and work done
Ans. (A)
Sol. V  0, E  q  w  E  q  pV  q  0
E  q
63. Which of the following curve does not represent Boyle’s law?

(A)

(B)

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 32


(C)

(D)

Ans. (D)
Sol. P-V curve is not straight line.

64. Which of the following pair will diffuse at the same rate?
(A) CO 2 and N 2 O
(B) CO 2 and NO
(C) CO 2 and CO
(D) N 2 O and NO
Ans. (A)
r1 m2 N 2O 44
Sol.     (1) CO2 and N 2 O has equal molecular mass.
r2 m1 CO 2 44

65. A container containing O 2 and CH 4 in 3 : 2 mass ratio. The relative rate of effusion of O2 and CH4 is.

3 2
(A)
4
3
(B)
4 2
3
(C)
2 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
rO2 m CH 4 PO2 3 16 3
Sol.     
rCH 4 m O2 PCH4 4 32 4 2

66. At identical temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 3 3 times that of a hydrocarbon
having molecular formula C n H 2n  2 . What is the value of n ?

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 33


(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 8
Ans. (B)
PO2  m O2   M CH 4  m O2 M CH 4 3 16 3
Sol.       
PCH 4  m CH   MO  mO m 32 2 4
 4   2  2 CH4

r1 m2 3 3 m2
  
r2 m1 r2 2
3 3x m2
  m 2  27  2  54
x 2

67. The molecular weight of a gas which diffuses through a porous plug at 1/6th of the speed of hydrogen under
identical conditions is:
(A) 27
(B) 72
(C) 36
(D) 48
Ans. (B)
rH 2 m1 r6 m1
Sol.     m1  72
r1 m H2 r 2

68. Which of the following mixture do not Obey Dalton’s law?


(A) Ne + CO2
(B) O2 + He + CO2
(C) SO2 + Cl2
(D) Na + O2
Ans. (C)
Sol. SO2 + Cl2  SO2Cl2 & Sulphur chloride

69. The value of compressibility factor for an Ideal gas is


(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) > 1
(D) < 1
Ans. (A)
Sol. Z = 1 for Ideal gas.

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 34


70. Which of the following gas show maximum deviation?
(A) H2
(B) CO2
(C) HCl
(D) NH3
Ans. (D)
Sol. NH3 is most polar among these.

 a 
71. At low pressures, van der Waals' equation is written as  P  2  V  RT . The compressibility factor is equal to:
 V 
 a 
(A) 1  
 RTV 
 RTV 
(B) 1  
 a 
 a 
(C)  1  
 RTV 
 RTV 
(D) 1  
 a 
Ans. (A)
Sol. z  1 then
 q  q
 P  V 2  V  RT  PV  V  RT or
 
pV q
 1
RT RTV
PV q
Z 1
RT RTV

72. Internal energy is an example of


(A) Path function
(B) State function
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

73. An open system

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 35


(A) Is a specified region where transfer of power and/or weight takes place.
(B) Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries.
(C) Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings.
(D) Has a mass transfer across it's boundaries and the mass within the system is not constant.
Ans. (D)
Sol. Conceptual Fact.

74. Which of the following is an intensive property?


(A) boiling point
(B) molarity
(C) freezing point
(D) all of these
Ans. (D)
Sol. BP, FP and molarity all are Intensive properties.

75. When no heat energy is allowed to enter or leave the system, it is called
(A) Isothermal process
(B) Reversible process
(C) Adiabatic process
(D) Irreversible process
Ans. (C)
Sol. In Adiabatic system No Heat energy is allowed to leave or enter.
76. If P,V , and T represent pressure, volume and temperature of the gas, the correct representation of Boyle's law
is
1
(A) V  ( at constant P)
T
(B) PV  RT
(C) V  1 / P (at constant T )
(D) PV  nRT
Ans. (C)
Sol. From the definition of Boyle’s law.

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 36


77. The time taken for a certain volume of a certain gas to diffuse through a small hole was 2 min. Under similar
conditions an equal volume of oxygen took 8 min to pass. The molecular mass of gas (in amu) is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
Ans. (A)

78. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X . The molecular weight of X is:
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 4
(D) 8
Ans. (A)
rCH 4 m ges 2r mg
Sol.     m  16  4   64 
rgas m cH r 16

79. The rates of diffusion of gases A and B of molecular weight 100 and 81 respectively are in the ration of
(A) 9 : 10
(B) 10 : 9
(C) 100 : 18
(D) 81 : 100
Ans. (A)
rA mB 81 9
Sol.   
rB mA 100 10
80. Rate of diffusion of a gas is _____
(A) directly proportional to its density
(B) directly proportional to its molecular mass
(C) directly proportional to the square of its molecular mass
(D) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass
Ans. (D)
Sol. Rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass.

81. A real gas most closely approaches the behaviour of an ideal gas at:
(A) 15 atm and 200 K
(B) 1 atm and 273 K
(C) 0.5 atm and 500 K
(D) 15 atm and 500 K
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 37
Ans. (C)
Sol. At Low Pressure and High temperature Real gas moves towards ideal gas behaviour.

82. for a real gas, Z show


(A) z < 1 when the pressure is high
(B) z > 1 when the pressure is high
(C) z = 
(D) Pv  nrt, for real gas
Ans. (B)
Sol. When the pressure is high the value of compressibility factor Z > 1

83. In thermodynamics, heat and work are:


(A) Point functions
(B) Extensive thermodynamic state variables
(C) Path functions
(D) Intensive thermodynamic state variables
Ans. (C)
Sol. Conceptual Fact.

84. In an isothermal process, the change in internal energy of the system


(A) decrease
(B) increases
(C) equal to zero
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
Sol. At isothermal presses, the internal energy remains constant.
85. Which of the following is an Intensive property?
(A) mass
(B) volume
(C) electrical conductivity
(D) Enthalpy
Ans. (C)
Sol. Electrical conductivity is an intensive property.

86. In which process net work done is zero?


(A) Cyclic
(B) Isochoric
(C) Free expansion
(D) Adiabatic

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 38


Ans. (B)
Sol. W = PV and for Isochoric V = 0 then w =0

87. I, II, and III are three isotherms respectively at T1 , T2 and T3 as shown in the graph. Temperature will be in order.

(A) T1  T2  T3
(B) T1  T2  T3
(C) T1  T2  T3
(D) T1  T2  T3
Ans. (C)
Sol. V  T

88. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen is about:


(A) Half that of He
(B) 1.4 times that of He
(C) Twice that of He
(D) Four times of He
Ans. (B)
rH 2 m Hee 4
Sol.    1.414  rH 2  1.4rHe
rHe m H2 2

89. A bottle of dry NH 3 and bottle of dry HCl connected through a long tube are opened simultaneously at both
ends, the white NH 4 Cl ring first formed will be :
(A) At the centre of the tube
(B) Near the HCl bottle
(C) Near the ammonia bottle
(D) Throughout the length of the tube
Ans. (B)
Sol. HCl diffuse slower than NH3 because mass of HCl is greater.

90. Assertion: Rate of diffusion of H2 is 1.44 times of He


Reason: Under similar condition of temperature and Pressure all gases diffuse with same velocity.
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 39


(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion is false and Reason is true
Ans. (C)
Sol. Conceptual Fact.

91. Hydrogen gas diffuses four times as rapidly as a mixture of C 2 H 4 and CO 2 . The molar ratio of C 2 H 4 to CO 2
in the mixture is
(A) 1:1
(B) 2 :1
(C) 3 :1
(D) 3 : 2
Ans. (C)
rH2 M eff M eff
Sol.  ,4   M eff
rmix M H2 2

 32
M eff  XC2 H4 MC2H4  XCO MCO
2 2

 
 1  X C 2 M C 2 H 4  X C 2 M C2


32  M C2 H4  M C 2  M C2 H 4 X C2 
28   44  28  X C2

1
X C2 
4
3
 X C2H 4 
4
X C2 H 4 3
 
X C2 1

92. Assertion: A real gas will approach ideal behavior at high temperature and low pressure
Reason: At low pressure and high temperature z = 1 for all gases.
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion is false and Reason is true
Ans. (B)

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 40


Sol. For Z > 1, it shows the gas shows positive deviation from ideal gas behavior.

93. NH 3 is liquefied more easily than N 2 . Hence

(A) a and b of NH 3  that of N 2

(B) a  NH3   a  N 2  but b  NH3   b  N2 

(C) a  NH3   a  N 2  but b  NH 3   b  N 2 

(D) None
Ans. (B)
Sol. Greater the value of a, the attraction force will increases and gas liquify easily.

94. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high pressure is


RT
(A) 1 +
Pb
Pb
(B) 1 +
RT
(C) 1
Pb
(D) 1 
RT
Ans. (B)
PV
Sol. Z=
RT

95. Match the following.


Column-I Column-II
A Adiabatic Process P no volume change takes place
B Isochoric Process Q no pressure change takes place.
C Isobaric Process R no temperature change takes place.
D Isothermal Process S no heat transfer takes place.
(A) A-S; B-R, C-Q, D-P
(B) A-P; B-S, C-Q, D-R
(C) A-S; B-P, C-Q, D-R
(D) A-P; B-Q, C-R, D-S
Ans. (C)
Sol. Conceptual Fact.
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 41
96. Heat at constant volume is example of :
(A) Path function
(B) Sate function
(C) Isothermal process
(D) None of these.
Ans. (B)

97. Which of the following is extensive property?


(A) density
(B) mole fraction
(C) molar mass
(D) Entropy
Ans. (D)
Sol. Entropy is an extensive property.

98. When a gas is subjected to adiabatic expansion, it gets cooled due to


(A) Loss in heat
(B) Increase in internal energy
(C) Due to repulsion between molecules
(D) Energy spent in doing work
Ans. (D)
Sol. Used internal energy in doing work.
99. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27°C to 927° C. The root mean square speed to the gas
(A) Remains same
927
(B) Gets times
27
(C) Gets halved
(D) Get doubled
Ans. (D)
Sol. Vrms  T

100. Which of the following differentiate between diffusion and effusion?


(A) Diffusion is the intermixing of the gas molecules at any direction and effusion is the reverse of diffusion
(B) Diffusion is the property of the gas molecules and effusion is the property of the gas container only
(C) Diffusion occurs at any direction, whereas effusion occurs under the potential difference
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 42
(D) Diffusion is the intermixing of the gas molecules whereas effusion is the passage of gas molecules through
the pores in one direction.
Ans. (D)
Sol. Conceptual Fact.
PART-C: BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Morphology is the study of
(A) Structure and function of plants
(B) External Forms and Features of plants
(C) Forms and physiology of Aerial part
(D) Structure of perennial structures.
Ans. (B)
Sol. Morphology is the study of forms and features of plants. It involved in explaining external morphology of plants.

102. The function(s) of the root system is/are


(A) Absorption of water and minerals
(B) Providing a proper anchorage to the plant parts
(C) Storing reserve food material and synthesis of plant growth regulators (PGRs)
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
Sol. Root performs various functions as water and mineral absorption, anchorage in soil and food storage. They are
also involved in synthesis of plant growth regulators.
103. The stem may function as
(A) Conducting water, minerals and photosynthates
(B) Storage of food, support, protection and vegetative propagation
(C) Spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers and fruits
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
Sol. Functions of stem includes conduction of water, mineral and stored food material. It also support, protect and
involve in vegetative propagation. It also support branches, leaves, flower and fruits.

104. In leaf, there is usually a middle prominent vein, which is known as the
(A) Rachis
(B) Pulvinus
(C) Midrib

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 43


(D) Stipule
Ans. (C)
Sol. In leaves the prominent mid vein is called as midrib it is the most important vein in lamina of leaves.

105. When a main axis transforms into a flower, it is always


(A) Solitary
(B) Axillary
(C) Racemose
(D) Cymose
Ans. (D)
Sol. When a shoot tip transform into flower it always produces solitary flower, because flower is a modified shoot
with modified leaves present on successive nodes.

106. If a flower cannot be divided from the centre into, two similar halves by any vertical plane passing through the
centre it is called.
(A) Actinomorphic
(B) Zygomorphic
(C) Asymmetric
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans. (C)
Sol. If a flower cannot be divided into two equal halves from any vertical plane it is called as asymmetric. The example
of such flower is canna.
107. The fruit is a mature or ripened ovary, developed after fertilisation. If a fruit is formed without fertilisation of the
ovary, it is called a
(A) Parthenocarpic fruit
(B) Parthenogenic fruit
(C) Apomictic fruit
(D) False fruit
Ans. (A)
Sol. If a fruit is formed by other floral parts than ovary, it is called as parthenocarpic fruit.

108. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(A) Orchid is a non-endospermic monocotyledonous seed
(B) Castor is endospermic dicotyledonous seed

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 44


(C) In monocotyledonous seed the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinaceous layer
called aleurone layer
(D) None of the above
Ans. (D)
Sol. All statements of the questions are correct as Orchid is a non endospermic monocot seed while caster is an
endospermic dicotyledonous seed and aleurone layer is present in monocot seed.

109. The floral formula is represented by some symbols. Find out the correct match.
a. C 1. Calyx
b. K 2. Corolla
c. % 3. Actinomorphic
d.  4. Zygomorphic
e. () 5. Fusion
f. - 6. Cohesion
7. Adhesion

(A) a-1,b-2,c-3,d-4,e-5,f-6
(B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-7, f-5
(C) a-1,b-2,c-4,d-3,e-6,f-7
(D) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3, e-5, f-7
Ans. (D)
Sol. Factual question as per NCERT.
110. Petunia, Datura and Nicotiana belong to family
(A) Fabaceae
(B) Solanaceae
(C) Poaceae
(D) Liliaceae
Ans. (B)
Sol. Pitunia, Datura and Nicotiana belongs to the family Solanaceae. Nicotiana is tobacco plant.

111. Consider following table:-


Column I Column II

A Veg part P Root

B Reproductive part Q Stem

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 45


C Shoot system R Flower
S Leaf
(A) A-Q,R, B-P, C-S
(B) A-P,S, B-Q,R, C-S
(C) A-P,Q,R, B-R, C-Q,R,S
(D) A-P,Q, B-S, C-R
Ans. (C)
Sol. Factual question, as per NCERT.

112. Recognise the different region in the root section.

i. Root cap
ii. Region of meristematic activity
iii. Region of elongation
iv. Region of maturation
(A) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-I
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Ans. (C)
Sol. Diagram based question. NCERT Page 59.
113. In some plants a slender lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis and after growing aerially for some
time arch downwards to touch the ground. Here we are talking about
(A) Pistia and Eichhornia
(B) Mint and Jasmine
(C) Banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum
(D) Opuntia and Euphorbia
Ans. (B)
Sol. In some plants a slender, lateral branch arise from the base of the main axis which arch downward and touch the
ground is called as stolon and it is observed in mint and Jasmine.

114. Arrangement of leaves on a stem or branch is


(A) Venation
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 46
(B) Vernation
(C) Ptyxis
(D) Phyllotaxy
Ans. (D)
Sol. NCERT fact.

115. Fill in the blanks.


a. In racemose type of inflorescence the flowers are borne laterally in a ...1... succession.
b. In cymose type of inflorescence the flowers are borne in a ...2 … order.
(A) 1-acropetal, 2-basipetal
(B) 1-basipetal, 1-acropetal
(C) 1-acropetal, 2-acropetal
(D) 1-basipetal, 2-basipetal
Ans. (A)
Sol. In racemose type of inflorescence the flower are borne laterally in acropetal succession while in cymose type of
inflorescence flower arranged in basipetal manner.

116. A modified shoot wherein the shoot apical meristem changes to floral meristem is known as
(A) Inflorescence
(B) Thalamus
(C) Peduncle
(D) Flower
Ans. (C)
Sol. If a shoot modified into floral Meristem it is known as peduncle. It is main axis on which flowers are arranged.
117. Drupe fruit is found in
(A) Mustard and Argemone
(B) Sunflower and Marigold
(C) Mango and Coconut
(D) Pea and bean
Ans. (C)
Sol. Mango and coconut are the best example of Drupe fruit as they have stony endocarp.

118. In monocotyledonous seeds, the embryo is small and situated in a groove at one end of the endosperm. It consists
of one large and
(A) Bean shaped cotyledon known as Tigellum
(B) Kidney shaped cotyledon known as Scutellum
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 47
(C) Shield shaped cotyledon known as Scutellum
(D) Shield shaped cotyledon known as Tigellum
Ans. (C)
Sol. In monocotyledonous seed there is a Shield shaped cotyledon known as scutellum develop while other cotyledon
is underdeveloped named as epiblast.

119. While representing a floral formula G stands


(A) Epigynous flower
(B) Superior ovary
(C) Inferior ovary
(D) Androecium
Ans. (B)
Sol. The represented condition is called as superior ovary in which all floral organs are present below the ovary it is
also called hypogynous condition.

120. The floral characters of liliaceae are


(A) Six tepals, zygomorphic, six stamens, bilocular ovary, axile placentation
(B) Tetramerous, actinomorphic, polyphyllous, unilocular ovary, axile placentation
(C) Bisexual, actionmorphic, polyandrous, superior ovary, axile placentation
(D) Bisexual, zygomorphic, gamophyllous, inferior ovary, marginal placentation
Ans. (C)
Sol. Floral character of family Liliaceae family is bisexual, actinomorphic, polyandrous, superior ovary with axile
placentation.
121. Ovary is half-inferior in the flower of:
(A) Cucumber
(B) Guava
(C) Plum
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (C)
Sol. In this options radish, turnip and carrot are biennial monocarpic plant while mustard is annual monocarpic plant.

122. Which of the following region of root is responsible for the growth of the root in length?
(A) Region of meristematic activity
(B) Region of elongation
(C) Region of maturation

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 48


(D) Root cap
Ans. (B)
Sol. Growth of root in terms of length is increased by region of elongation in which cells are alongated due to
vacuolation and cell wall deposition.

123. A lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in
aquatic plants like
(A) Pistia and Eichhornia
(B) Mint and Jasmine
(C) Banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum
(D) Opuntia and Euphorbia
Ans. (A)
Sol. A lateral branch with short internote while each node bearing a Rosette of leaves and a tuft of root is found in
Pistia and Eichhornia.

124. Which one is a modified leaf?


(A) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(B) Tendril of Pisum sativum
(C) Spine of Cactus
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
Sol. All of the above our modified leaves present in different plants. Tendrils in pea is for support, spine in cactus for
protection and pither of nepenthes is for insect trapping.
125. Select the correct statement w.r.t. cymose inflorescence:
(A) Flower are borne laterally in acropetal order
(B) Main axis continues to grow
(C) Main axis shows limited growth of peduncle
(D) Main axis shows unlimited growth
Ans. (C)
Sol. In cymose inflorescence the main Axis shows Limited growth of peduncle as flower borne on tip of floral axis.

126. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral bud with respect to the other members of same whorl is
known as
(A) Aestivation
(B) Placentation
(C) Cohesion
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 49
(D) Adhesion
Ans. (A)
Sol. The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral bud with respect to each other is called as aestivation.
Different type of aestivation are velvate, twisted, imbricate and vaxillary.

127. In mango the paricarp is well differentiated into an outer ....a.... epicarp, a middle ....b... mesocarp and an
inner....c.... endocarp.
(A) a - thin, b-stony hard, c-fleshy
(B) a - fleshy, b-thin, c-stony hard
(C) a - thin, b-fleshy, c-stony hard
(D) a - stony hard, b-fleshy, c-thin
Ans. (C)
Sol. In mango the fruit wall is well differentiated into outer thin epicarp, a middle flashy mesocarp and inner stony
hard endocarp.

128. The outermost covering of a seed in a dicotyledonous seed is called seed coat. The seed has two layers. The outer
layer is called ...1.... and inner layer is called .... 2 ….
(A) 1-Scutellum, 2-Coleoptile
(B) 1-Coleorhiza, 2-Coleoptile
(C) 1-Testa, 2-Tegmen
(D) 1-Tegmen, 2-Testa
Ans. (C)
Sol. The seed quote have two layers outer layer is called as testa while inner layer is called as tegman.
129. In floral formula, (K) denotes
(A) Polysepalous
(B) Gamosepalous
(C) Polypetalous
(D) Gamopetalous
Ans. (B)
Sol. NCERT fact.

130. Flower of Fabaceae is


(A) Complete, zygomorphic, pentamerous
(B) Complete, actinomorphic, trimerous
(C) Incomplete, zygomorphic, trimerous
(D) Incomplete, actinomorphic, pentamerous

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 50


Ans. (A)
Sol. Flower of Fabaceae is complete, Zygomorphic, pentamarous, bisexual and hypogynous in condition. The flower
also contain bract.

131. Vegetative propagation is pistia occurs by:


(A) Stolon
(B) Offset
(C) Runner
(D) Sucker
Ans. (B)

132. Roots originating from parts other than radicle are


(A) Stilt roots
(B) Adventitious roots
(C) Tap roots
(D) Fibrous roots
Ans. (B)
Sol. Any root which is originating from other parts than radicle is called as adventitious roots. They are present in
both dicot and monocot.
133. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination according to the modification of stem.

Column I Column II

A Pumpkin P Organ of perennation

B Citrus Q Help in climbing

C Turmeric R Storage of food

D Zaminkand S Protection from browsers

(A) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R


(B) A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P
(C) A-P, B-R, C-Q, D-S
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. (D)
Sol. NCERT fact in the topic, stem modifications.

134. Free-central placentation is found in:

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 51


(A)Dianthus
(B) Argemone
(C) Brassica
(D) Citrus
Ans. (A)

135. Identify the types of inflorescence shown in figures and select the correct option for (a) and (b):

(A) (a) Cymose - Acropetal order


(b) Racemose - Basipetal order
(B) (a) Racemose - Basipetal order
(b) Cymose - Acropetal order
(C) (a) Cymose - Unlimited growth
(b) Racemose - Limited growth
(D) (a) Racemose - Acropetal order
(b) Cymose - Basipetal order
Ans. (D)
Sol. Diagram based question from NCERT page no 61,62.

SECTION – B
136. Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II

A Valvate aestivation P Lady's finger

B Imbricate aestivation Q Cassia

C Twisted aestivation R Calotropis

D Papilionaceous aestivation S China rose

T Pea

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 52


(A) A-Q, B-P, S, C-R, D-T
(B) A- R, B-Q, C-P, S, D-T
(C) A-T, B-R, C-Q, D-P, S
(D) A-Q, B-R, C-P, S, D-T
Ans. (B)
Sol. Diagram based question from NCERT Page No. 63, 64.
Papilionaceous or Vexillary aestivation is present in Fabaceae family.

137. In coconut fruit, the hard shell is


(A) Endocarp
(B) Fused structure of mesocarp and endocarp
(C) Fused structure of epicarp and mesocarp
(D) Epicarp
Ans. (A)
Sol. Ine coconut fruit the hard shell is called as endocarp which is present below fibrous mesocarp. This type of fruits
are called Drupe.
138. The aleurone layer in maize grain is especially rich in
(A) Strach
(B) lipids
(C) Proteins
(D) fat
Ans. (C)
Sol. Aleurone layer in maize grain is specially rich in protein. It form the outermost covering of endosperm and
separate it from embryo.

139. Select the correct option.


Column I Column II
A Br P Corolla
B K Q Perianth
C C R Calyx
D P S Bracteate
(A) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P
(B) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(C) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(D) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 53


Ans. (C)
Sol. Symbol based question in NCERT Page no. 67, 68.

140. Match the columns I,II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II Column-III

A P Solanaceae K Mustard

B Q Liliaceae L Indigofera

C R Brassicaceae M Petunia

D S Fabaceae N Tulip

(A) A-Q-M; B-P-L; C-R-K; D-S-N


(B) A-Q-N; B-S-L; C-P-M; D-R-K
(C) A-Q-M; B-S-N; C-P-L; D-R-K
(D) A-Q-N; B-S-M; C-R-K; D-P-L
Ans. (B)
Sol. Floral formula based question in plant families part.

141. Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy ?


(A) Mustard
(B) China rose
(C) Alstonia
(D) Calotropis

Ans. (C)

142. Roots hairs develop from


(A) Region of maturation
(B) Zone of elongation
(C) Meristematic region
(D) Region of root cap
Ans. (A)
Sol. Root hairs are developed from region of maturation. These are unicellular, delicate hair like outgrowth arised
from some cells of epidermis which are exogenous in origin.

143. Potato is stem because it


(A) possess axillary buds (eyes)
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 54
(B) lacks chlorophyll
(C) does not bear roots
(D) contains reserve food
Ans. (A)
Sol. Potato is underground stem because it possess axillary buds in form of eyes, present on surface. These buds also
spaced by internodes.

144. Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
A In this leaf, lamina is entire P Simple leaf
B In this, if lamina is incised Q Compound leaf
the incisions do not touch the
midrib
C If the incision of the lamina R Pinnately compound leaf
reach up to the mid rib
breaking it into a number of
leaflets
S Palmately compound leaf
(A) A-P, B-R, C-S
(B) A-Q, B-S, C-R
(C) A-Q, B-R, C-P
(D) A-P, B-P, C-Q
Ans. (D)
Sol. In a leaf where lamina is entire called simple leaf and if lamina is incised but the incision do not touch the midrib
it is also simple leaf. In compound leaf the incision of the lamina reach the midrib and breaking lamina into
number of leaflets.

145. Select the incorrect statement


(A) A flower is the conversion of shoot apical meristem to floral meristem
(B) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is always solitary
(C) Flowers are arranged in basipetal succession in racemose inflorescence
(D) In cymose, the growth of main axis is limited.
Ans. (C)
Sol. In Racemose inflorescence flowers are arranged in acropetal succession but in cymose inflorescence flower
arranged in basipetal manner.

NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 55


146. Match the column I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
A Basal P Primrose
B Marginal Q Marigold
C Free-central R Lemon
D Axile S Argemone
E Parietal T Pea

(A) A-Q, B-T, C-P, D-R, E-S


(B) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-T, E-P
(C) A-Q, B-T, C-S, D-R, E-P
(D) A-R, B-S, C-T, D-P, E-Q
Ans. (A)
Sol. Basic NCERT data based on figure.
147. Ray florets have:
(A) Half inferior ovary
(B) Inferior ovary
(C) Superior ovary
(D) Hypogynous ovary
Ans. (B)

148. Statement-I: In some plants, like grass, monstera and banyan roots arise from radicle.
Statement-II: Epidermal cells of region of elongation in root form very fine and delicate, thread like structures
called root hairs:
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(B) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Ans. (B)
Sol. In some plants, like grass, monstera and banyan roots are not arise from radicle.
Epidermal cells of region of maturation in root form very fine and delicate, thread like structures called root hairs.

149. The stony hard part of the mango represents:


(A) Mesocarp.
(B) Epicarp.
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 56
(C) Endosperm.
(D) Endocarp
Ans. (D)

150. An example of placentation is-


(A)Dianthus
(B) Lemon
(C) Marigold
(D) Argemone
Ans. (B)

,PART-D: ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A

151. For chemical analysis of living tissue, it is grounded with


(A) Cl 2 CHOOH
(B) Cl3 CCOOH
(C) Cl3CH 2 COOH
(D) CH 3 COOH
Ans. (B)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 142

152. choose the secondary metabolite which is also alkaloid in nature


(A) Carotenoids
(B) Morphine
(C) Vinblastine
(D) Ricin
Ans. (B)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 146

153. Molecular weight of biomacromolecules found in acid insoluble fraction, ranges from.
(A) less than 800 Da
(B) 18 Da
(C) 800 to 8000 Da
(D) 10,000 Da and above
NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 57
Ans. (D)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 146. Fact based.

154. Inulin is a polymer of


(A) Glucose
(B) Galactose
(C) Fructose
(D) Mannose
Ans. (C)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 148
155. Identify the basic amino acid from the following
(A) Glutamic acid
(B) Lysine
(C) Valine
(D) Tyrosine
Ans. (B)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 144

156. The biologist describes the protein structure at four levels. If a protein thread is folded in the form of a helix, it is
called
(A) Primary structure
(B) Quaternary structure
(C) Secondary structure
(D) Tertiary structure
Ans. (C)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 150

157. A fatty acid has a carboxyl group attached to an R-group, where R-group belongs to
(A) 1 to 19 carbons
(B) 1 to 30 carbons
(C) 1 to 50 Carbons
(D) 20 to 30 carbons
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 144

158. All the given molecules are present in retentate except


(A) Lipids
(B) Amino acids
(C) Polysaccharides
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(D) Nucleic acids
Ans. (B)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 146

159. A nucleotide has 3 components, which are


(A) Nitrogenous Base, Monosaccharide, phosphate
(B) Nitrogenous Base, Monosaccharide, Fatty acid
(C) Nitrogenous Base, Fatty acid, phosphate
(D) Nitrogenous Base, Disaccharide, phosphate
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 149
160. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) Lipids are strictly macromolecule
(B) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including carboxyl carbon
(C) Oils have low melting point and hence remain as oil in winters
(D) Arachidonic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 160

161. Metabolic pathways which lead to a more complex structure from a simpler structure, called
(A) Anabolic pathways
(B) Catabolic pathways
(C) Enzymes
(D) turn over
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 153

162. All living organisms exist in a steady state, which is characterised by concentrations of each of the biomolecules
in
(A) Equilibrium state
(B) static state
(C) constant state
(D) non -equilibrium state
Ans. (D)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 153

163. Which of the following secondary metabolites belongs to toxin category?


(A) Codeine
(B) Concanavalin - A
(C) Anthocyanin

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(D) Ricin
Ans. (D)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 146

164. Location of Sublingual glands in alimentary canal


(A) Cheeks
(B) Lower jaw
(C) Below tongue
(D) Pharynx
Ans. (C)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 260
165. In the basic histology of human gut, the inner most layer mucosa shows modifications like rugae and villi
respectively in
(A) Oesophagus, stomach
(B) Stomach, intestines
(C) Stomach, liver
(D) Intestines, stomach
Ans. (B)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 259

166. The Structure and functional unit of liver is _____, which are covered with Glisson’s capsule, a thin _____ tissue
(A) Hepatic Lobules, connective
(B) Hepatic Lobules, vascular
(C) Kupffer cells, connective
(D) Kupffer cells, vascular
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 260

167. Statement I: The exocrine portion of pancreas secrete acidic pancreatic juices containing enzymes.
Statement II: Pancreatic juices contain inactivated enzymes trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen and procarboxy
peptidase activated by HCl in intestine.
(A) Both I, II correct
(B) Only I correct
(C) Only II correct
(D) Both I, II incorrect
Ans. (C)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 261, 262

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168. Factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12 is--
(A) Hcl
(B) Lipase
(C) Enterokinase
(D) Intrinsic factor
Ans. (D)
169. About ___% of the starch is hydrolysed in human oral cavity -
(A) 70
(B) 30
(C) 100
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

170. The human stomach stores the food for


(A) 10-40 weeks
(B) 04-05 hours
(C) 10-40 years
(D) None of
Ans. (B)

171. Total numbers of salivary glands present in human being


(A) 3 pairs
(B) 6 pairs
(C) 2 pairs
(D) 1 pairs
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 260

172. Brunner’s glands are present in___ of duodenum.


(A) Sub-Mucosa,
(B) Mucosa
(C) Serosa
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)

173. Bile from liver passes through ________ , combines with _________ from gall bladder, to become _____.
(A) Hepatic duct, pancreatic duct, cystic duct
(B) Hepatic duct, cystic duct, common bile duct

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(C) Cystic duct, Hepatic duct, common bile duct
(D) Common bile duct, cystic duct, Hepatic duct
Ans. (B)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 260, 261
174. Molecular weight of Lipids is
(A) Less than 800 Da
(B) 10, 000 Da
(C)  10,000 Da
(D)  18 Da
Ans. (A)
Sol. Hint: NCERT Page 146

175. Cellulose does not contain ______& hence cannot hold I2.
(A) Simple helices
(B) Linear chain
(C) Unbranched helices
(D) Complex helices
Ans. (D)

176. Identify the category shown and the one blank component "x" in it.

Category Component
(A) Nucleotide Adenine
(B) Nucleoside Uracil
(C) Cholesterol Guanin
(D) Amino acid NH2
Ans. (B)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Pg No. 145

177. Select the incorrect statement


(A) Almost all enzymes are proteins
(B) There are some nucleic acids which behave like enzymes and are called ribozymes.
(C) Enzymes obtained from thermophilic organisms retain their catalytic power even at high temperatures up to
80  90  C
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(D) ATP is a nucleoside
Ans. (D)
Sol. ATP is a nucleotide
178. Which one of the following statement is correct, with reference to enzymes?
(A) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + coenzyme
(B) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + coenzyme
(C) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(D) Holoenzyme - coenzyme + cofactor
Ans. (B)

Sol.

179. Group of enzymes that helps in catalysing a transfer of a group (other than hydrogen between a pair of substrates
is
(A) Oxidoreductases
(B) Transferase
(C) Lyases
(D) Isomerases
Ans. (B)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Page No. 158

180. Select the correct option for stages labelled A to D.

a b c d
A Transition state Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme with enzyme
B Kinetic energy Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme with enzyme
C Potential energy Transition state Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme with enzyme

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D Potential energy Transition state Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme without enzyme
Ans. (C)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Page No. 156
181. Factor (S) which can influence enzyme activity is/are
(A) High temperature
(B) pH
(C) Substrate concentration
(D) All of there
Ans. (D)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Pg NO 157

182. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action:
(A) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
(B) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
(C) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate.
(D) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Ans. (B)
Sol. Addition of succinate can reverse the inhibition.

183. Allosteric modulation is due to the inhibitory action faced by an enzyme due to.
(A) Competitive reversible inhibition
(B) Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
(C) Accumulation of Products
(D) Accumulation of substrate
Ans. (C)
Sol. When product gets accumulated it gives negative feedback to enzyme

184. Which of the following is the prosthetic group in enzyme in peroxidase and catalase?
(A) Zinc
(B) Haem
(C) NAD
(D) NADP
Ans. (B)
Sol. Refer NCERT Page No – 159

185. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerisation of:


(A) Lipoglycans
(B) Keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
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(C) D-glucosamine
(D) N-acetyl glucosamine
Ans. (D)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Page No. 149
186. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
(A) sphincter of oddi
(B) Semilunar valve
(C) Ileocecal value
(D) Pyloric sphincter
Ans. (A)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Pg No 261

187. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in human is
(A) Trypsin
(B) Enterokinase
(C) Trypsinogen
(D) Chymotrypsin
Ans. (C)
Sol. Trypsinogen is a constituent of pancreatic juice.

188. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by
(A) Lipase
(B) Rennin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Pepsin
Ans. (B)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT (262 Pg No)

189. Gastrectomy in human leads to___


(A)Iron-deficiency anaemia
(B) Pernicious anaemia
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

190. Jaundice is a disorder of


(A) Excretory system
(B) skin and eyes
(C) Digestive system

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(D) circulatory system
Ans. (C)
Sol. In Jaundice Liver is affected, which is part of digestive system.
191. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
(A) Lysozyme
(B) Ribozyme
(C) Ligase
(D) Deoxyribonuclease
Ans. (B)
Sol. All enzymes are proteinaceous except-Ribozyme and Ribonuclease P.

192. Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(A) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
(B) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.
(C) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
(D) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme.
Ans. (A)
Sol. See NCERT Pg No 261

193. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called.
(A) coenzyme
(B) Holoenzyme
(C) Apoenzyme
(D) Isoenzyme
Ans. (A)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Pg NO. 159.

194. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?


(A) Cotton fibres - Nitrogenase
(B) Fruit juice - Pectinase
(C) Textile - Amylase

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(D) Detergents - Lipase
Ans. (A)
Sol. Cotton fibers are digested by cellulase.
195. Name the class of the enzymes that catalyse covalent bonding of two substrates to form a large molecule.
(A) Hydrolases
(B) Lyases
(C) Ligases
(D) Isomerases
Ans. (C)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Page No. 159

196. Transition state structure of substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is:
(A) Permanent but unstable
(B) Transient and unstable
(C) Permanent and stable
(D) Transient but stable
Ans. (B)
Sol. Factual, Refer NCERT Page No. 156

197. Which of the following factor affecting enzyme activity is depicted in the given graph?

(A) pH
(B) Temperature
(C) Product concentration
(D) Substrate concentration
Ans. (D)
Sol. Refer NCERT Page No. 157.

198. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is


(A) Sulpha drug
(B) malonate
(C) Oxaloacetate
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(D) Both (B) and (C)
Ans. (D)
Sol. Competitive inhibitor are Malonate and Oxaloacetale.
199. Enzyme which catalyses hydrolysis of peptide bond belongs to which class?
(A) Oxidoreductases
(B) Hydrolases
(C) Lyases
(D) Ligases
Ans. (B)
Sol. Refer to the NCERT Page 158

200. Set of coenzymes that are nucleotides of vitamin niacin is


(A) NAD, NADP
(B) FMN, FAD
(C) ATP, ADP
(D) ATP, FAD
Ans. (A)
Sol. Refer NCERT Pg No. 159

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NEET | CONQUER Batch | Minor Test-4 69

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