QUESTION 1

An administrator is deploying four identical servers to perform load balanced

DNS.

What is the correct configuration to accomplish this?

A. round robin load balancing with simple persistence

B. ratio load balancing with cookie persistence
C. ratio load balancing with simple persistence
D. round robin load balancing without persistence

QUESTION 2
When load balancers are used to manage application traffic, why are health
monitors important?

A. to signal servers to be ready for client traffic

B. to determine if traffic should be sent to a server
C. to keep connections from timing out
D. to avoid congestion on the network

QUESTION 3
What is the initial sequence number during the TCP 3-way handshake?

A. the Julian date minus 1

B. the source port of the client system
C. the destination port of the server system
D. a random number
QUESTION 4
An administrator is deploying an HTTP site that will be accessed by users who
reside behind a large internet proxy.

Which type of persistence should the administrator use?

A. destination address affinity

B. source address affinity
C. SSL session persistence
D. cookie persistence

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of using persistence when load balancing?

A. to ensure that clients’ requests are not redirected to servers that are marked as
down
B. to ensure that client requests are directed to the same server during the life of
a session
C. to ensure that client requests are evenly distributed among the servers
D. to ensure that the servers run faster

QUESTION 6

A client initiates a TCP connection to the load balancer. The load balancer
opens a new TCP connection to the server.

What is this called?

A. passthrough connection
B. half proxy connection
C. asynchronous connection
D. full proxy connection
QUESTION 7
In which scenario is a packet forwarding architecture sufficient?

A. when the client connection and server connection should decoupled

(dipisahkan)
B. when layer 4 load balancing is demanded
C. when SSL offloading is used
D. when content based load balancing is demanded

QUESTION 8
If a pool member has been marked DOWN by a monitor, what will be the
result?

A. That pool member will receive the same level of traffic regardless of the state
B. That pool member will still receive traffic but will redirect it to other servers.
C. That pool member will only receive traffic for existing connections.
D. That pool member will not receive any more traffic until it comes up.

QUESTION 9
In which scenario is a packet forwarding architecture sufficient?

A. when HTTP headers must be modified

B. when load balancing based on IP address is required
C. when cookie persistence is demanded
D. when SSL offloading is performed to reduce the Server load

QUESTION 10
At a minimum, which two objects are required in order to achieve load
balancing? (Choose two.)

A. an HTIP profile
B. a health check
C. a persistence profile
D. an IP address
E. destination servers
QUESTION 11
What is the correct result of the BIG-IP ConfigSync process?

A. If a file in a synchronized directory is deleted, the corresponding file on the

peer unit is deleted by the ConfigSync process as well.
B. If changes have been made to the shared configuration on both units, all the
changes on each unit will be synchronized.
C. Any changes made to networking part of configuration will be synchronized
to the peer unit.
D. If changes have been made to the shared configuration on both units, any
changes that were made on the target unit will be lost.

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to restrict the HTTP methods that a client can use to
interact with an application.

Which F5 feature provides this functionality?

A. Streaming profiles
B. HTTP profiles
C. iControl
D. iRules

QUESTION 13
A pair of load balancers is configured so that each device is processing traffic
and is ready to take over for the other if failover occurs.

Which type of configuration is this an example of?

A. standby-active
B. active-standby
C. active-active
D. standby-standby

QUESTION 14
An administrator updates an HTTP application. The resource layout changes,
and the users’ bookmarks no longer work.
Which F5 feature can solve this problem quickly?

A. iApp
B. iControl
C. iRules
D. iSession

QUESTION 15
What is an advantage of deploying applications using iApps?

A. It reduces the complexity of iRules.

B. It ensures more secure applications.
C. It provides a single configuration language to deploy an application.
D. It provides a significant reduction of time to deploy an application.

QUESTION 16
An administrator has been asked to create a template to deploy an application
traffic management solution on many BIG-IP devices.

Which F5 technology should the administrator use?

A. iRules
B. iControl
C. iApps
D. iSessions

QUESTION 17
What does the existence of an open network socket in listening state on the host
indicate?

A. It is the client.
B. It is the server.
C. It is a peer unit
D. It is an API socket.

QUESTION 18
Which F5 feature provides custom Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?
A. TCP profile
B. SSL profile
C. iRules
D. iControl

QUESTION 19
Which F5 technology allows an administrator to create application-centric
views of BIG-IP configuration objects?

A. iRules
B. iApps
C. iControl
D. iSessions

QUESTION 20
In which scenario is a full proxy TCP connection required?

A. when access lists are enabled

B. when SYN cookie DOS protection is enabled
C. when caching is enabled
D. when connection mirroring is enabled

QUESTION 21
An administrator has a specific file that is requested frequently on the web
application. How can the administrator reduce traffic to the servers?

A. serve the file from RAM cache

B. enable file compression
C. use a longer packet TTL
D. use TCP optimization

QUESTION 22
In which scenario is a full proxy TCP connection required?
A. when enabling TCP routing on the external facing interface of the load
balancer
B. when configuring different maximum segment sizes on the client and server
sides of the load balancer
C. when changing the source IP address when crossing from the client to the
server side of the load balancer
D. when passing the client IP address to originating servers

QUESTION 23
In which security model is all traffic denied by default?

A. rule-based security model

B. positive security model
C. negative security model
D. role-based security model

QUESTION 24
Which security model can be deployed most rapidly to protect a web
application?

A. ACL security model

B. negative security model
C. open security model
D. positive security model

QUESTION 25
Which security policy protects from known attacks and defines resources that
should be accessible?

A. a security policy using both positive and negative security

B. a security policy using ACL security
C. a security policy using negative security only
D. a security policy using positive security only

QUESTION 26
What are two advantages of running a virtualized load balancer over running a
hardware load balancer? (Choose two.)
A. A virtual load balancer runs newer code than a hardware load balancer.
B. A virtual load balancer can be deployed remotely via software.
C. A virtual load balancer is faster.
D. A virtual load balancer is easier to configure.
E. A virtual load balancer is cheaper.

QUESTION 27
Which three factors should influence the decision to choose hardware or a
virtual appliance? (Choose three.)

A. multiprotocol support
B. power and cooling
C. management API
D. available rack space
E. performance

QUESTION 28
Hash functions are used in conjunction with encryption for which two reasons?
(Choose two.)
A.Validation
B.Decryption
C.Encryption
D.Authentication
E. Normalization

QUESTION 19
Administrator has been discovered new security vulnerability in the
environment. Which F5 feature can fix this problem rapidly?
A. icontrol
B. isession
C. iRule
D. iApp
QUESTION 20
Server to server communication using SOAP is dependent upon which two
technologies? (Choose two.)
A. an authentication protocol such as RADIUS
B. the message format XML
C. a database such as SQL
D. a transport protocol such as HTTP
E.file sharing using SMB

QUESTION 21
Which F5 product provides de-duplication, compression, and application
optimizations?

A. GTM
B. APM
C. ASM
D. AAM

QUESTION 22
What is the most efficient certificate revocation method?

A. Server certificate attribute validation

B. Client certificate attribute validation
C. Online Certificate Status Protocol
D. Online Certificate Revocation List

QUESTION 23

An administrator needs to provide additional application layer security for

SMTP and FTP traffic.

Which F5 product provides this functionality?

A. LTM
B. GTM
C. AFM
D. ASM

What are two main benefits of the BIG-IP system redundancy? (Choose two.)
A. Devices can transfer some of its extra load to one or more devices with less
load in the same device group.
B. Devices can determine which device should become active based on STP
changes in the network.
C. Devices can mirror connections to a peer device to prevent interruption in
service during failover.
D. Devices can synchronize its configuration data for up to 64 BIG-IP devices
on a network.
E. Devices can fail over to one of many available devices.

QUESTION 24

Which method does TCP use to ensure that the contents of a packet are
unchanged when it reaches the destination host?

A. The sender sends an ACK packet with the total received bytes of the
previous packet, and the receiver validates that the ACK contains the
appropriate number of bytes.
B. The sender includes a calculated content-length TCP header, and the
receiver ensures it receives the correct amount of data.
C. The sender includes a calculated checksum in the TCP header, and the
receiver recalculates the checksum and validates the received value.
D. The sender sends an ACK packet in order to ensure that the packet was
received correctly.

QUESTION 25
HTTP/1.0 requests are made to a server that supports only HTTP version 1.1.

Which header is required to avoid a “400 Bad Request” response code in this
situation?

A. Accept-Encoding
B. Connection
C. Host
D. Location
QUESTION 26

What would cause a packet’s TCP checksum to be incorrect at the destination?

A. The packet has arrived at the correct destination, but out of sequence.
B. The packet was corrupted in transmission.
C. The packet has arrived at the correct destination, but was fragmented in
transit.
D. The packet was temporarily lost in transmission.

QUESTION 27

Which type of failover is required for a group with more than two BIG-IP
devices?

A. application failover
B. network failover
C. serial failover
D. VLAN failover
QUESTION 28

Which LDAP syntax is correct when asked to reference a specific User Object
with an LDIF formatted distinguished name?

A. CN=jdoe.OU=users.DC=company.DC=com
B. ldap://jdoe/users/company/com
C. ldap://Cn=jdoe/ou=users/dc=company/dc=com
D. CN=jdoe,OU=users,DC=company,DC=com

QUESTION 29
According to the OSI model, how do the layers logically track data?

A. by encapsulating data with their own information

B. by applying tags as the information moves between layers
C. by using reference pointers to track data entering and leaving each layer
D. by using packet information to track the data with a table of layer-specific
information
QUESTION 30
when an administrator is increasing the private key from 1023 to 2048 bits ,
what should he consider in this case?

A. certificates will not support 2048

B. Hardware wil not support 2048
C. processing speed will be fast
D. processing speed will be slow

QUESTION 31
Which application type would benefit from BIG-IP Aplication Acceleration
Manager?

a. streaming video
b. HTTP
c. peer-to-peer
d. VoIP