You will listen to a number of different recordings and you will have to answer

questions based on what you hear. There will be time for you to read the questions
and check your work. All the recordings will be played ONCE only. While you are
listening, you may take notes and choose the correct answer.
PART 1
In this part, you will hear EIGHT short recordings. The recordings will be played
ONCE only. There is one question following each recording. For each question,
choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
Now, let’s listen to the example. On the recording, you might hear:
"Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the
holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your
stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in
the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you
order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye."
On the screen, you will read: Which meal is NOT included in the price of the
holiday?
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
The correct answer is A. Breakfast
QUESTION 1: What time will the plane land?
A. 4.40
B. 4.50
C. 10.30
D. 10.00
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 2: What is the code of the term?
A. 50SACAS
B. 15FACAS
C. 50FACAF
D. 15SHCAF
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 3: What should you do to book a table?
A. press 3
B. press 0
C. press 2
D. press 1
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 4: What does the man think about swimming?
A. It is more tiring than riding.
B. It requires short-term training.
C. It is exciting for him.
D. It is a boring exercise.
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 5: What is the purpose of the message?
A. how to fry rice
B. how to cook rice
C. how to wash rice
D. how to heat rice
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 6: Who is probably the audience of this message?
A. wall climbers
B. camera owners
C. computer users
D. lift riders
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 7: What is mainly discussed in the recording?
A. How to get around using the local bus service
B. How to make a detour in using the bus service
C. How to alert the driver on the digital marquee
D. How to seek for destination on the bus map
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 8: Who may this message be prepared for?
A. underground riders
B. palace visitors
C. bus riders
D. park visitors
The correct answer is B.
In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will be
played ONCE only. There are four questions for each conversation. For each
question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
QUESTION 9: What is Lily’s opinion of ChinesePod?
A. It costs less than textbooks.
B. Its value is worth the price.
C. It is free, so make use of it.
D. It is not worth what it costs.
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 10: What does Lily mean by “dead time?”
A. Time spent sleeping
B. Time that is wasted
C. When you are tired
D. When you are bored
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 11: How did Lily learn Chinese?
A. thirty hours a week
B. thirty new words a week
C. thirty new words a day
D. thirty minutes a day
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 12: What is the conversation mainly about?
A. Lily’s plan for learning Chinese
B. Lily’s advice for studying Chinese
C. Difficulties when learning Chinese
D. Time management in learning Chinese
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 13: What does Julia think about natural disasters?
A. They are even worse than poverty.
B. They occur much more frequently now.
C. They are difficult topics to tell children.
D. People should be aware of their seriousness.
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 14: How should adults involve kids into ethical issues...
A. making them ask and answer ethical questions
B. making use of moral lessons in textbooks
C. telling them about fairness or loyalty
D. showing a case when their problems are solved
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 15: Who are probably the speakers?
A. two university students
B. a psychologist and a client
C. a married couple
D. a TV presenter and a guest
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 16: What is the conversation mainly about?
A. managing kids in extra classes
B. teaching kids social issues
C. working with kids in modern society
D. repairing kids’ moral problems
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 17: What type of person do strong handshakes signal?
A. strong but vulnerable
B. emotional and easy-going
C. energetic but shy
D. out-going and confident
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 18: What does the woman imply about latecomers?
A. They lead a relaxing life.
B. They are usually considerate.
C. They think they can run fast.
D. They ignore getting late.
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 19: What does the man imply about his female friend?
A. She never wants to date anyone in a restaurant.
B. She considers restaurant staff noble people.
C. She used to be a waitress in the Netherlands.
D. She doesn’t like men who discriminate people’s jobs.
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 20: What is the conversation mainly about?
A. handshake and personality interpretation
B. ways of evaluating people’s personalities
C. categories of people in restaurants
D. punctuality and restaurant manner
The correct answer is B.
Part 1 Part 2 Part 3
Listening -n this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or
lectures will be played ONCE only. There are five questions for each talk or
lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
QUESTION 21: What do users have to pay for?
A. extra features supporting the game
B. special jewelry to give other players
C. the right to play the fully-formed game
D. more turns to play the game
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 22: What was true about the first Angry Birds?
A. It was among the most successful games.
B. It was released 10 years before the 2nd version.
C. It was totally free to download.
D. It was exceptionally well-received.
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 23: Who is most probably Jon Norris?
A. a game player
B. a game developer
C. a game reviewer
D. a game tester
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 24: What is meant by “Gems” in the game?
A. a virtual bonus achieved by players
B. a real present to give player fellows
C. the final stage of the game
D. a name of a character in the game
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 25: Which aspect of the game is the show mainly about?
A. its improvement
B. its attraction
C. its developers
D. its criticisms
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 26: Who are mainly the victims of malaria?
A. people in sub-tropical countries
B. part of African kids under 5
C. people without Mosquirix injection
D. poor people in South Africa
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 27: Who are eligible for Mosquirix vaccine?
A. tourists to sub-Saharan Africa
B. only those in 7 African countries
C. African children
D. scientists and African children
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 28: What is implied about the injection?
A. Its full effect is enabled by a booster shot.
B. It is effective for anyone over 17 months.
C. It is costly due to late application.
D. In the future, it will be effective for babies.
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 29: Why are Bill and Melinda Gates mentioned?
A. They are sponsors of poor African children.
B. They are the sponsors of the injection project.
C. They are the sponsors of one of 11 research centres.
D. They are visitors without vaccine to the disease area.
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 30: What is mainly discussed in the lecture?
A. scientists’ opinions of the injection
B. the development process of the vaccine
C. the effectiveness of the vaccine
D. the mechanism of the vaccine
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 31: What can be found in the scientific journal “Nature”?
A. cheese-making origin in northern Europe
B. Polish ancient cheese-making technology
C. archaeological evidence of pottery vessels
D. human trace in northern Europe years ago
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 32: What is the clearest trace of cheese-making?
A. some five-thousand-year-old records
B. the residual of milk and cattle
C. remains of an ancient people group
D. the remains of broken pottery
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 33: What is meant by “lactose intolerant” among Neolithic
people?
A. It prevented them from consuming dairy food.
B. Milk with lactose upset their digestion.
C. They didn’t like milk with lactose in it.
D. It was the reason for their cheese invention.
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 34: What can be inferred about cheese?
A. There is a time to make the best cheese.
B. France is home to the best cheese.
C. Traditional and Neolithic cheese are made differently.
D. Cheese is stored to use for a very long time.
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 35: What can be the title of this show?
A. History of cheese
B. Variety of cheese
C. Best cheese in the world
D. Discovery of cheese origin
The correct answer is D.
Directions: In this section, you will read several passages. Each one is followed
by several questions about it.
For questions 1-40, you are to choose the one best answer A, B, C or D to each
question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in that passage.
QUESTION 1: The word "it" refers to
A. 99 percent
B. environment
C. extinction
D. species
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 2: The word "ultimately" is closest in meaning to
A. dramatically
B. infortunately
C. exceptionally
D. eventually
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 3: What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most
species in Earth's history?
A. They have caused rapid change in the environment.
B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
C. They are no longer in existence.
D. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 4: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as
resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Temperature changes
B. Availability of food resources
C. Competition among species
D. Introduction of new species
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 5: The word "demise" is closest in meaning to
A. recovery
B. death
C. change
D. help
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 6: Why is "plankton" mentioned?
A. To emphasize the importance of food resources inpreventing mass
extinction.
B. To illustrate a comparison between organisms thatlive on the land and
those that live in the ocean.
C. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species.
D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 7: According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
A. extinctions on Earth have generally been massive.
B. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth's history.
C. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth's
history.
D.
dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.

The correct answer is C.

QUESTION 8: The word "finding" is closest in meaning to
A. scientific discovery
B. published information
C. ongoing experiment
D. research method
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 9: Inparagraph 3, the author makes which of the following
statements about aspecies' survival?
A. It is associated with astronomical conditions.
B. It may depend on chance events.
C. It reflects the interrelationship of many species.
D. It does not vary greatly from species to species.
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 10: According to the passage, it is believed that the largest
extinction of a species occurred
A. 250 million years ago
B. 225 million years ago
C. 26 million years ago
D. 65 million years ago
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 11: The word "coined" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced
by?
A. discovered
B. mentioned
C. understood
D. created
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 12: The word "intervention" in paragraph 1 can best be replaced
by?
A. source
B. need
C. influence
D. device
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 13: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to?
A. molecule
B. energy
C. light bulb
D. atom
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 14: Which of the following statements best describes a laser?
A. A technique for destroying atoms or molecules
B. An instrument for measuring light waves
C. An atom in a high-energy state
D. A device for stimulating atoms and molecules to emit light
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 15: Why was Towne's early work with stimulated emission done
with microwaves?
A. The laser had already been developed.
B. His partner Schawlow had already begun work on the laser.
C. It was easier to work with longer wavelengths.
D. He was not concerned with light amplification.
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 16: In his research at Columbia University, Charles Townes
worked with all of the following EXCEPT?
A. a maser
B. light amplification
C. microwaves
D. stimulated emission
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 17: In approximately what year was the first maser built?
A. 1951
B. 1953
C. 1957
D. 1917
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 18: The word "emerged" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning
to?
A. appeared
B. succeeded
C. concluded
D. increased
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 19: The word "outlining" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning
to?
A. checking
B. assigning
C. summarizing
D. studying
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 20: Why do people still argue about who deserves the credit for
the concept of the laser?
A. The researchers' notebooks were lost.
B. No one claimed credit for the development until recently.
C. Several people were developing the idea at the same time.
D. The work is still incomplete.
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 21: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the
nineteenth century
B. States' rights versus federal rights
C. Regulatory activity by state governments
D. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike
construction
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 22: The word "effect" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to?
A. value
B. restraint
C. influence
D. argument
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 23: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas
that involved state governments in the nineteenth century EXCEPT?
A. higher education
B. manufacturing
C. banking
D. mining
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 24: The word "distinct" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to?
A. innovative
B. provocative
C. separate
D. alarming
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 25: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the
nineteenth century canals and railroads were _____.
A. built with money that came from the federal government
B. sometimes built in part by state companies
C. much more expensive to build than they had been previously
D. built predominantly in the western part of the country
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 26: The regulatory activities of state governments included all of
the following EXCEPT?
A. imposing limits on price fixing
B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance
C. control of lumber
D. licensing of retail merchants
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 27: The word "setting" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to?
A. discussing
B. analyzing
C. establishing
D. avoiding
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 28: The word "ends" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to?
A. goals
B. services
C. benefits
D. decisions
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 29: According to the passage, which of the following is true of the
Homestead Act of 1862?
A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
B. It increased the money supply in the West.
C. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.
The correct answer is A.
QUESTION 30: Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the
federal government in the nineteenth century?
A. Inspection of new homes built on western lands
B. Control of the manufacture of gunpowder
C. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked
D. Regulation of the supply of money
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 31: According to the geoscientists, when were the continents
assumed to first rise above the oceans?
A. 1 billion years ago
B. 3 billion years ago
C. 2 billion years ago
D. 4 billion years ago
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 32: What is true about the continents?
A. They rise about four miles above the seafloor.
B. Their crust is five times thicker than the ocean floor crust.
C. Their crust is dense and has average thickness.
D. They are made of thick and underlying crust.
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 33: What can be claimed about the time continents were formed?
A. It is put forward in a contest.
B. It was dated from the earliest days.
C. It is beyond human’s knowledge.
D. It is subject to argument.
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 34: What does the phrase “To shed light on” in line 15 mean?
A. To release
B. To clarify
C. To illustrate
D. To ignite
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 35: According to the passage, how was the crust of the seafloor
formed?
A. In continental mixture
B. In volcanic operation
C. In silica formation
D. In volcanic formation
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 36: What happens when magma cools and crystallizes?
A. Rubidium volume gradually plunges.
B. Strontium’s volume boosts.
C. The volume of silica in rock extends.
D. The molten rock diminishes in silica.
The correct answer is C.
QUESTION 37: What can be inferred from the sentence “The thick, buoyant
nature of these chunks of crust would have made them rise high above what
became the seafloor” in lines 29-30?
A. The thick and buoyant chunks of crust are the cause of seafloor rising.
B. The seafloor is composed of comparatively thin crust.
C. The thick and floating crust rose lower than what made the seafloor.
D. Floating crust supported the continents to rise from the oceans.
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 38: What is “accompanying” in line 33 closest in meaning to?
A. Following
B. Supplementary
C. Concurrent
D. Cooperating
The correct answer is B.
QUESTION 39: What can be concluded from the passage about the
appearance of continental crust about 3 billion years ago?
A. The moment plate tectonics began properly marked the appearance of
continental crust.
B. No theory can be proposed for the reason why continental crust occurred
three billion years ago.
C. The movement of the rock plates finally made up the minority of
continental crust.
D. That the plate tectonics moved over the Earth’s outer layer probably helps
form lots of the continental crust.
The correct answer is D.
QUESTION 40: Which of the following best describes the organization of this
passage?
A. A list of possible explanations to a question followed by a detailed
discussion
B. A general presentation followed by a detailed discussion of both sides of an
issue
C. A discussion of different aspects raised from some theories about the
question
D. A general statement of an issue followed by detailed possible explanations
The correct answer is D.
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You have received this email from an English speaking friend, Alex. Read
part of his email below.

Write an email responding to him.

You should write at least 120 words. Do not include your name. Your
response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization,
Vocabulary and Grammar.
Dear Alex,
It's been a long time since we last meet. When you going backpacking next
month in Vietnam? It's a beautiful country, isn't it? I guess you are quite
interested in Estern cultures. And it will be a pity if you cannot visit my
country - Vietnam and enjoys it beautiful.
Vietnam is an S-shaped country located in the center of South Asia. It is a
small but beautiful country with a winning history, deep patriotism and
breathtaking landscapes. In particular, 3/4 of Vietnam's are is mountainous.
Vietnam is also a multi-ethnic country with 54 ethnic groups living in
harmony, each with its own unique customs, practices and festivals. With
charming landscapes, being home to 8 words natural heritages recognized by
UNESCO and a thriving market economy, Vietnam has become an attractive
and promising destination for tourists and investors, domestic and
international.
If you intend to go abroad during this summer vacation, I recommend my
country - Vietnam is an idea place.
I look forward to hearing from you soon.
Love,
Bri
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Read the following text from an article about ex-prisoner:

Now, write an essay to an educated reader to discuss your opinions about this
point of view. Include reasons and any relevant examples to support your
answer.
Give reasons and relevant examples from your knowledge or experience. You
should write at least 250 words. Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task
Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.
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QUESTION 1
Social Interaction (3'): Now, the test begins.
Let's talk about holiday.
- What did you do on your last holiday?
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- Who do you prefer spending your holiday with?
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- Do you prefer going on holiday abroad?
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Now, let's talk about TV programs.
- How many hours a day do you watch television?
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- Which programs do you like?
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- Do you prefer watching television alone or with other people? Why?
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QUESTION 2
Solution Discussion (4')
Situation: If you won a lottery of 1 billon VND, what would you do with the
money? Three options are suggested: buy a new house, start a business, and
deposit the money in the bank. Which option do you think is the best choice?
Why?
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QUESTION 3
Topic Development (5'): In the third part of the test, you will have one minute to
prepare for a talk about the topic. You can develop the topic using the suggested
ideas in the mind map and/or your own ideas. After one minute you are
supposed to talk about the topic for up to two minutes and answer the follow-up
questions for up to two minutes.
Topic: Working in pairs helps students learn better at school.

Follow-up questions:
1. When should pair work be used at school and why?
2. What are the disadvantages of working in pairs?
3. What can teachers do to improve the quality of pair work activities?
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