SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

Male Reproductive System

01. Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is true?
(1) Intine is made up of sporopollenin
(2) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant inorganic materials
(3) Exine has apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is thick
(4) None of these
02. Pollen kit of pollen grain consists of
(1) Exine and intine (2) Sporopollenin (3) Lipids and carotenoids (4) Both (1) and (2)
03. Which is not possessed by a staminate flower?
(1) Stalk (2) Bract (3) Bracteole (4) Pistil
04. Filiform pollen grains are found in
(1) Aristolochia (2) Zostera (3) Drimys (4) Juncus
05. Callase enzyme which dissolves callose of pollen tetrads to separate four pollens is provided by
(1) Pollens (2) Tapetum (3) Middle layers (4) Endothecium
06. Which function of tapetum is correct?
(1) Helps in pollen wall formation
(2) Transportation of nutrients to inner side of anther
(3) Synthesis of callase enzyme for separation of microspore tetrads
(4) All of these
07. Pollen kit is chiefly made of
(1) Chlorophylls (2) Lipids (3) Carotenoids (4) Both (2) and (3)
08. How many nuclei are usually present in mature pollen?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
09. Developing pollen derives its nutrition from
(1) Tapetum (2) Endothecium (3) Middle layer (4) Epidermis
10. Pollen grain is a
(1) Microspore mother cell (2) Male gamete
(3) Male gametophyte (4) Partially developed embryo
11 In the anther wall
(1) Endothecium lies inner to middle layers (2) Middle layer lies between endothecium and tapetum
(3) Tapetum lies just inner to endothecium (4) Tapetum lies between endothecium and middle layers
12. Pollinium is found in family
(1) Rubiaceae (2) Myrtaceae (3) Solanaceae (4) Asclepiadaceae
13. Fibrous thickenings of hygroscopic nature are found in which part of the anther wall?
(1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium (3) Middle layers (4) Tapetum
14. Which one of the following is surrounded be a callose wall?
(1) Male gamete (2) Egg (3) Pollen grain (4) Microspore mother cell
15. Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false?
(1) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(2) Sporopollenin is the most resistant organic material
(3) Exine has apertures called germpores where sporopollenin is present
(4) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature and strong acids
16. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Pollen grains remain viable for several months because their outer covering is made of sporopollenin
(2) No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin
(3) Pollen grains are well represented in fossil, strata due to sporopollenin
(4) Pollen wall has cavities containing proteins
17. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme
is
(1) Cuticle (2) Sporopollenin (3) Lignin (4) Cellulose
18 What is the function of germ pore in pollen?
(1) Emergence of radical (2) Absorption of water for seed germination
(3) Initiation of pollen tube (4) Release of male gametes
19. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Sporogenous tissue is haploid (2) Endothecium produces the microspores
(3) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen (4) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intlne
20. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
(1) Ex situ conservation (2) In vitro fertilisation
(3) Breeding programmes (4) supplementing food
21. Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers Which of the following three wall layers
perform the function of protection and help in the dehiscence of anther to release the pollen?
(1) Epidermis, Tapetum, Endothecium (2) Epidermis, Aril, Endothecium
(3) Epidermis, Endodermis, Mesocarp (3) Epidermis, Middle layer, Endothecium
22. Which of the following points is incorrect about sporopollenin?
(1) It is one of the most resistant organic materials known
(2) It can withstand high temperature and strong acids and alkali
(3) TWo enzymes that degrade sporopollenin are known so far
(4) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin
23. Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen at
(1) 70°C (2) 100°C (3) -196°C (4) 0°C
24. Which of the following has the least pollen viability?
(1) Cereals like wheat and rice (2) Members of Rosaceae
(3) Members of Leguminosae (4) Members of Solanaceae

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25. Microsporogenesis is synonym for
(1) Spermatogenesis (2) Development of pollen
(3) Development of male gametophyte (4) Development of female gametophyte
26. The diagram given below is an enlarged view of one microsporangium of a mature anther Identify (a), (b)
and (c)

(1) (a) - Middle layer; (b) - Endothecium; (c) – Tapetum

(2) (a) - Endothecium; (b) - Tapetum; (c) - Middle layer
(3) (a) - Endothecium; (b) - Middle layer; (c) - Tapetum
(4) (a) - Tapetum; (b) - Middle layer; (c) – Endothecium
27. In the ________ of pollen grain prominent apertures called germpore is _________ , whereas
sporopollenin ________________ is
(1) In tine; present; absent (2) Exine; present; absent
(3) Exine; absent; present (4) Intine; absent; present
28. It has become a fashion in recent years to use ____________ tablets as food supplements In the Western
countries, a large number of ____________ products in the form of tablets and syrups are available in the
market. ______________ consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and race
horses
(1) Aril; latex; resin (2) Pollen; pollen; pollen
(3) Pollen; megaspore; pills (4) Integument; endothelial; exudation
29. The number and length of stamens in flowers are
(1) Variable in different species
(2) Same in plants present in similar climatic conditions
(3) Variable and depend on the amount of hormonal secretion
(4) Variable in different species and depend on the seasonal variation
30 How many microsporangia are there in each lobe of anther?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
31. Pollen sacs develop from
(1) Microspore (2) Microspore mother cell (3) Microsporangium (4) Megaspore
32. Which among the given perform the function of protection in typical microsporangium?
(a) Epidermis (b) Endothecium (c) Tapetum (d) Middle layer
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (a) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
33. Outer three layers of microsporangium, provide
(1) Protection to develop pollen (2) Nourishment to developing pollen
(3) Help in dehiscence of anther to release pollen (4) Both (1) and (3)
34. Each cell of microspore tetrad is
(1) 2n (2) n (3) Some n and some 2n (4) 3n
35. Formation of pollen from pollen mother cell is referred to as
(1) Pollenogenesis (2) Megasporogenesis (3) Microsporangesis (4) Ovulation
36. Exine of pollen is
(a) Hard outer layer of pollen grain
(b) Most resistant organic matter known
(c) Layer made up of sporopollenin
(d) Layer which can withstand high temperature, strong acids and alkali
(e) Layer which cannot be degraded by any known enzyme
(1) (a) and (b) (2) All except (e) (3) All of these (4) (a), (c) and (e)
37. Pollen grains can be preserved as fossil because
(1) They vary from species to species (2) They have variety of architecture
(3) They are made up of sporopollenin (4) They exhibit a fascinating array of pattern and design
38 Pollen grains are shed in 2-celled stage in
(1) > 90% angiosperm plants (2) > 50% angiosperm plants
(3) > 60% angiosperm plants (4) > 40% angiosperm plants
39. Spindle shaped cell with dense cytoplasm and nucleus in pollen grain is called
(1) Vegetative cell (2) Generative cell (3) Sperm cell (4) Egg cell
40. Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct X option
Column - I Column - II
(1) Vegetative cell (i) Sporopollenin r
(2) Generative cell (ii) Spindle-shaped cell
(3) Exine (iii) Large sized and has abundant food reserve
(4) Intine (iv) Cellulose and pectin
(1) (1) - (ii); (2) - (ii); (3) - (iii); (4) - (iv) (2) (1) - (iv); (2) - (iii); (3) - (ii); (4) - (i)
(3) (1) - (iii); (2)- (ii); (3) - (i); (4) - (iv) (4) (1) - (ii); (2) - (i); (3) - (iv); (4) - (iii)
41. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by
(1) Mitotic division in vegetative cell (2) Meiotic division in pollen mother cell
(3) Meiotic division in vegetative cell (4) Mitotic division in generative cell

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42. Which of the following statements is correct?
(I) Pollen grains are shed in 2-celled stage in > 40% plants
(II) Pollen grains are shed in 3-celled stage in < 60% plants
(III) Generative cell divides meiotically to form male gametes
(IV) Intine of pollen is made up of sporopollenin
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) All of these (3) None of these (4) Only (III)
43. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Parthenium or carrot grass cause pollen allergy
(b) Vegetative cell of pollen has abundant food reserve
(c) All pollens cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions
(d) Sporopollenin is the most resistant organic matter known
(1) All of these (2) Only (a) (3) Only (b) (4) Only (c)
44. Pollen grains
(a) Represent gametophytic phase of plant
(b) Can cause severe allergies like asthma and bronchitis
(c) Are rich in nutrients
(d) Are used as food supplements
(e) Are available in form of tablets and syrups in the market of the Western countries
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) All are correct
(3) All are wrong (4) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct
45. In a flowering plant the largest number of haploid cells occur in
(1) Ovule (2) Microsporangia (3) Root tip (4) Cambium
46. Occurrence of more than four spores from a spore mother cell is called
(1) Polyspermy (2) Polyspbry (3) Polyembryony (4) Polysiphony
47. The first division in a pollen grain results in the formation of
(1) A larger vegetative cell and smaller generative cell
(2) A larger generative cell and smaller vegetative cell
(3) Two equal cells
(4) Four male gametes
48. Ubisch bodies found in tapetal cell help in formation of
(1) Pollen kit and sporopollenin (2) Exine (3) Sporopollenin (4) Intine and pollen kit
49. In flowering plants archesporium gives rise to
(1) Wall of sporangium (2) Both wall and sporogenous cells
(3) Wall and tapetum (4) Tapetum and sporogenous cells
50. Number of prothallial cells present in male gametophyte of flowering plant is
(1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Zero
51. Tapetum is
(1) Parietal in origin usually the inner most layer of anther wall
(2) Modified endothecium of anther wall
(3) Outermost layer of sporogenous tissue modification
(4) Parietal in origin and is the inner most layer of ovule wall
52 Ubisch bodies are associated with the development of
(1) Embryo (2) Pollen grains (3) Endosperm (4) Embryo sac
53. Which of the following is a wrong statement?
(1) Monothecous anthers are found in Malvaceae family
(2) Middle layer is ephemeral
(3) Amoeboid tapetum releases ubisch bodies
(4) Banana is a monocarpic plant

Female Reproductive System

54. The point at which funiculus touches the ovule is
(1) Chalaza (2) Hilum (3) Raphe (4) Endothelium
55. The number of chromosomes is 12 in megaspore mother cell What shall be their number in endosperm?
(1) 18 (2) 36 (3) 21 (4) 24
56. A fertilised archegonium with zygote represents a
(1) Gametophyte bearing sporophytic cell (2) Sporophyte bearing a newly developed sporophytic cell
(3) Sporophyte bearing a gametophytic cell (4) None of these
57. In ovary of which of the following plants, many ovules are present?
(1) Striga (2) Orchid (3) Mango (4) Both (1) and (2)

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58. Figure (a) and (b) show female reproductive organs of Papaver and Michelia, respectively

(a) (b)

Which of the following options correctly identify them?

(1) Both (a) and (b) are monoadelphous stamens
(2) (a) - Thalmus and (b) - Spadix
(3) Both (a) and (b) are multicarpellary and syncarpous pistils
(4) (a) - Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil and (b) - Multicarpellary apocarpous pistil
59. In which ovule, both body and embryo sac show curvature?
(1) Campylotropus (2) Circinotropous (3) Amphitropous (4) Hemianatropous
60. Which type of megasporogenesis leads to Polygonum / type of embryo sac?
(1) Monosporic embryo sac (2) Bisporic erfibryo sac
(3) Tetrasporic embryo sac (4) Pollen grain formation
61. Single functional megaspore which develops into embryo sac is
(1) First at micropylar end (2) Second from micropylar end
(3) First at chalazal end (4) Second from chalazal end
62. Crassinucellate ovule shows
(1) Absence of nucellus (2) Well-developed nucellus
(3) Partially developed nucellus (4) Poorly developed nucellus
63 Number of antipodals in Polygonum is
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1
64. An orthotropous ovule is one in which micropyle and chalaza are
(1) At right angles to funicle (2) Parallel to the funicle
(3) In straight line of funicle (4) Parallel along with ovule
65. Polygonum type of embryo sac is
(1) 8-nucleate (2) 16-nucleate (3) 24-nucleate (4) 32-nucleate
66. Raphe is the
(1) Part of flower (2) Funicle attached to ovule (3) Ridge formed by funiculus (4) Part of nucellus
67 In which of the following kinds of ovules, the embryo sac is horse-shoe shaped?
(1) Hemitropous ovules (2) Orthotropous ovules
(3) Amphitropous ovules (4) Circinotropous ovules
68. From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium
(1) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta (2) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(3) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum (4) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
69. Starting from the innermost part, the correct sequence of parts in an ovule is
(1) Egg, Nucellus, Embryo Sac, Integument (2) Egg, Embryo Sac, Nucellus, Integument
(3) Embryo Sac, Nucellus, Integument, Egg (4) Eee, Integument, Embryo Sac, Nucellus
70. Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct
Column - I Column - II
(1) Funicle (i) Mass of cells within ovule with morefood
(2) Hilum (ii) Basal part of ovule
(3) Integument (iii) One or two protective layers of
(4) Chalaza (iv) Region where body of ovule fuses with funicle
(e) Nucellus (v) Stalk of ovule
(1) (1) - (i); (2) - (ii); (3) - (iii); (4) - (iv); (e) - (v)
(2) (1) - (v); (2) - (iv); (3) - (iii); (4) - (ii); (e) - (i)
(3) (1) - (iv); (2) - (ii); (3) - (i); (4) - (iii); (e) - (v)
(4) (1) - (i); (2) - (iii); (3) - (v); (4) - (ii); (e) - (iv)
71. Micropyle is found in
(1) Seed (2) Ovule (3)Both ovule and seed (4) Fruit

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72. Identify (a), (b); (c), (d) and (e) structures shown in the figure of a female gametophyte

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

(1) Antipodal cell Central cell Polar nuclei Synergids Acrosome
(2) Antipodal cell Central cell Polar nuclei Synergids Filiform apparatus
(3) Synergids Central cell Polar nuclei Antipodal cell Filiform apparatus
(4) Synergids Megaspore mother cell Polar nuclei Synergids Filiform apparatus
73. The largest cell in an embryo sac is
(1) Egg (2) Central cell (3) Synergid (4) Antipodal cell
74. Which of the following statements is false about filiform apparatus?
(1) The synergids have special cellular thickening at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus
(2) It plays an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Pollen tube stimulates the formation of filiform, apparatus
75. Syncarpous condition is referred to as
(1) Gynoecium containing single pistil (2) More than one pistil fused together
(2) More than one pistil free from one another (4) Gynoecium containing many pistils
76. Monosporic development is referred to as
(1) Single megaspore developing in embryo sac (2) Single megaspore mother cell undergoing meiosis
(3) Presence of single ovule in ovary (4) None of these
77. What is the ploidy level of nucleus, MMC, functional megaspore and female gametophyte?
(1) 2n, n, 2n, 2n (2) 2n, n, 2n, n (3) 2n, 2n, n, n (4) n, 2n, n, n
78. How many mitotic divisions take place for complete development of embryo sac?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One
79. The three mitotic divisions which occur in the megaspore
(1) Are followed by cytoplasmic division immediately
(2) Are strictly free nuclear not immediately followed by cell wall formation
(3) Includes wall formation after completion of the second mitosis
(4) Never includes wall formation
80. After three meitoic divisions in the functional megaspore, the gametophyte (embryo sac) has how many
cells?
(1) 7 cells (2) 4 cells (3) 5 cells (4) 8 cells
81. In angiosperms, the functional megaspore of a linear tetrad is the
(1) First nearest to the micropyle (2) Second from micropyle
(3) Third from micropyle (4) Fourth from micropyle
82. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct f option
Column - I Column - II
(1) Megasporogenesis (i) Monosporic development
(2) Megagametogenesis (ii) Fatty substances
(3) Sporopollenin (iii) Embryo sac formation
(4) Typical embryo sac (iv) Megaspore formation
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
83. In typical embryo sac, the nuclei are arranged as
(1) 3 + 2 + 3 (2) 3 + 3 + 2 (3) 2 + 3 + 3 (4) 2 + 4 + 2
84. The female gametophyte/embryo sac of typical dicot (Polygonum) or monosporic embryo sac is
(1) 7-celled and 7-nucleate (2) 8-celled and 8-nucleate
(3) 7-celled and 8-nucleate (4) 8-celled and 7-nucleate
85. Which Of the following statements is correct for pollinated ovary?
(1) Accessory cells are diploid (2) Antipodal cells are haploid
(3) Egg cell is diploid (4) Ovule cell is haploid
86. Which one of the following is a female gametophyte?
(1) Embryo (2) Embryo sac (3) Endosperm (4) Pistil
87. Generally archesporium in an ovule is
(1) Single celled and hypodermal in origin (2) Single ceiled and lies in the centre of the ovule
(3) Single called and terminal in origin (4) Many celled and lie in the centre

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Pollination
88. Which of the following matches is correct?
(1) Anemophily – Maize (2) Orchid-ophrys - Ornithophily
(3) Vallisneria - Free floating (4) Water lily - Hydrophily
89. Ready the following statements
(a) Flowers are usually large, dull coloured
(b) Pollen grains are produced in large numbers
(c) Pollen grains are light, dry and sticky
(d) Fruity smell present
(e) Stigma rough and sticky
(f) Stigma is feathery
Which of the above characteristics favour chiropterophily?
(1) (b), (d) and (e) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (a) and (d)
90. Which of the following show hypohydrophily?
(1) Vallisneria (2) Lotus (3) Amorphophallus (4) Zostera
91. What is correct for anemophily?
(a) Shown by coconut
(b) Wasteful method and non-directional
(c) Edible pollens
(d) Yellow oily sticky substance called pollen kit is present around the pollen grains
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
92. Pollination by bats is called
(1) Ornithophily (2) Anemophily (3) Malacophily (4) Cheiropterophily
93 Devices for self-pollination are
(1) Dicliny (2) Dichogamy (3) Heterostyly (4) None of these
94. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to
(1) Reception of pollen by stigma (2) Formation of pollen
(3) Development of anther (4) Oopening of flower buds
95. One advantage of cleistogamy is
(1) It leads to greater genetic diversity
(2) Seed dispersal is more efficient and wide spread
(3) Seed set is not dependent on pollinating agent
(4) Each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains
96. When pollens are transferred from anther of a flower to stigma of another flower of the same plant,
pollination is referred to as
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Allogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Siphonogamy
97. Wind pollinated flowers are
(1) Small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollens (2) Small, producing large number of pollen grains
(3) Large, producing abundant nectar and pollens (4) Small, producing nectar and dry pollens
98. In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynoecium mature at different times, the phenomenon is known
as
(1) Dichogamy (2) Herkogamy (3) Heterogamy (4) Monogamy
99. Even in the absence of pollinating agents, seed setting is assured in
(1) Commellina (2) Zostera (3) Salvia (4) Fig
100. Geitonogamy involves
(1) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population
(2) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant
(3) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from the same flower
(4) Fertilisation of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population
101. Identify the correct match
Pollinating agent Term for pollination
(1) Insects - Ornithophily
(2) Snails - Anemophily
(3) Birds - Entemophily
(4) Snakes - Ophiophily
102. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinator. Why?
(1) Because they have fragrance (2) Because they remain open
(3) Because they are autogamous (4) Because they are colourful
103. Which of the following plants produce(s) chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers?
(1) Viola (common pansy) (2) Oxalis (3) Commelina (4) All of these
104. The process whereby a perfect flower is pollinated by its pollen is called
(1) Allogamy (2) Autogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Hydrogamy
105. The term used when anthers and stigma of an intersexual or perfect flower ripen before the opening of
buds as in wheat and pea is
(1) Bud pollination (2) Immature pollination (3) Cleistogamy (4) Self-pollination
106. Which of the, following is false about xenogamy?
(1) It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another plant of the same species
(2) It produces genetic variations
(3) It is genetically and ecologically (= functionally) cross-^ollinatibn
(4) It occurs in cleistogamous flowers
107. Go through the following points:
(I) Dicliny (II) Dichogamy (III) Selfsterility/Self-incompatibility
(IV) Heterostyiy (V) Herkogamy
The above contrivances prevent
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) Allogamy (4) Autogamy

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108. Go through the following statements:
(a) Flowers are small. They are often packed in inflorescence
(b) Flowers are colourless, nectarless and odourless
(c) Well exposed stamens
(d) Pollen grains - produced in large number, light, non-sticky
(e) Flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary
(f) Stigma- large, often feathery
The above contrivances favour
(1) Self-pollination (2) Anemophily (3) Ornithophily (4) Entemophily
109. Which of the following is false?
(1) Wind pollination is quite common in grasses
(2) Hydrophily is limited to about 30 genra mostly monocots
(3) Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar
(4) None of these
110. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Vallisneria and Hydrilla are fresh water plants, while sea-grasses (e g , Zostera) are marine plant
(b) Vallisneria is epihydrophilous, while Zostera is hypohydrophilous
(c) Pollination in water lily/lotus (Nymphea) and Eichhornia (water hyacinth) takes place by insects
(d) In majority of aquatic plants, flowers emerge above the level of water and are pollinated by insects
or wind
(e) In most of the water pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting due to absence of
mucilaginous overing
(f) In hydrophilous plants, pollen grains are spherical
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d) (3) (e) and (f) (4) (c) and (d)
111. Which of the following are usual floral rewards to pollinating animals?
(1) Shelter and pollen grains (2) Shelter and fragrance
(3) Nectar and pollen grains (4) Nectar and fragrance
112. Pollination occurs when a pollen grain
(1) Matures and has three nuclei (2) Lands'on a stigma
(3) Releases its sperm nuclei (4) Releases its pollen tube nucleus
113. Which of the following is the tallest flower?
(1) Vallisneria (2) Lotus (3) Amorphophallus (4) Zostera
114. Unisexuality of flower prevents
(1) Geitonogamy, but not xenogamy (2) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy (4) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
115. In which one of the following, pollination is autogamous?
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Chasmogamy
116. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words and select the correct option
(a) _______________ flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.
(b) Majority of plants use ________________ agents for pollination
(c) Pollination by _______________ is more common amongst abiotic pollinations
(d) The flower of Amorphophallus is _____________ in height
(1) (a) - Chasmogamous; (c) – wind (2) (c) - water; (d) - 6 meter
(3) (a) - Cleistogamous; (b) – biotic (4) (c) - animals; (d) - 6 feet
117. Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of plants pollinated by wind?
(1) Pollen grains are light and sticky (2) They possess well-exposed stamens
(3) Presence of often-feathery stigma (4) Pollen grains are long ribbon-like
118 Continued self-pollination results in
(1) Heterosis (2) Inbreeding depression (3) Sterility (4) Hybridisation
119. Read the following characters carefully
(a) Numerous small flowers clustered into inflorescence
(b) Rich in nectar
(c) Large and colourful
(d) Large and often feathery stigma
(e) Light and non-sticky pollen grains
(f) Secretion of foul odours
(g) How many of the above characteristics may be present in insect pollinated flowers?
(1) TWo (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
120 Cross-pollination is preferred over self-pollination because it
(1) Produces better offspring (2) Forms new varieties
(3) Induces parthenogenesis (4) Is economical
121. Identify the wrong statements from the following
(1) Continued self-pollination result in inbreeding depression
(2) Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross- pollination
(3) One of the devices to prevent cross-pollination is self-incompatibility
(4) If both male and female flowers are present on the same plant such as castor and maize, it prevents autogamy
but not geitonogamy
122. Fill in the blanks (a) - (d) and select the option with correct answers
(a) Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of the right type of _______________.
(b) The ______________ has the ability to recognise the pollen, whether it is of the right type or of the
wrong type
(c) The pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the _________.
(d) The filiform apparatus present at the _________ part of the synergids guides the entry of pollen tube
(1) (a) - pollen tube; (b) – ovary (2) (b) - pistil; (c) - germ pores
(3) (a) - pollen grain; (d) – chalazal (4) (c) - vacuole; (d) - micropylar
123. In several species such as papaya, male and female flowers are present on different plants, that is each
plant is either male or female This condition prevents
(1) Autogamy (2) Geitonogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Both (1) and (2}
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124. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding Amorphophallus?
(1) It provides safe places to lay eggs (2) It is the tallest flower
(3) It is pollinated by Pronuba moth (4) The flower itself is about 6 feet in height
125. Both cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers are present in
(1) Amorphophallus, Helianthus and Arachis (2) Vallisneria, Hydrilla and Zostera
(3) Yucca, Parthenium and Gloriosa (4) Viola, Oxalis and Commelina
126. Pollination in plants is referred to as
(1) Fusion of male and female gametes (2) Transfer of pollen grain to stigma of pistil
(3) Germination of pollen on stigma (4) Production of pollen grew inside the microsporangium
127. Moth pollinated flowers have
(1) Inconspicuous petals with abundant pollen (2) Conspicuous coloured petals
(3) Coloured petals and nectaries (4) White scented petals and nectaries
128 Most common abiotic pollinating agent for plant is
(1) Anemophily (2) Hydrophily (3) Bees (4) Ants
129. Which of the following are true for wind pollinated plants?
(a) Well exposed statements (b) Large and often feathery stigma
(c) Single ovule in each ovary (d) Large number of flowers packed into an inflorescence
(1) Only (a) (2) (b) and (c) (3) Only (c) (4) All of these
130. Which of the following is Incorrect for aquatic plants? "
(a) Vallisneria and Hydrilla are fresh water plants pollinated by wind
(b) Zostera a marine grass uses water as its pollinating agent
(c) Water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by insects or wind
(d) In most of the aquatic plants, flowers emerge out of the water and are pollinated by wind or insects
(1) Only (b) 2) Only (a) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) All of these
131. Which one of the following is correct for Vallisneria?
(a) It grows in fresh water
(b) Female flowers or pollen grains reach the surface by long stalk
(c) Male flowers are released on to the surface of water
(d) Pollen grains are carried passively by water currents
(1) Only (a) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) All of these
132. In water pollinated species,
(a) Pollen grains are long and ribbon like (b) All pollen grains are protected from getting wet
(c) Flowers are not very colourful (d) They do not produce nectar
(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) Only (a) and (b) are wrong
(3) All are correct (4) All are wrong
133. Amorphophallus provide floral rewards by
(1) Providing safe place to lay eggs (2) Forming tallest flower
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
134. The devices developed by plants to discourage self- pollination include
(a) In some species pollen release and receptive stigma are not synchronised
(b) In some species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions, so they do not come in
contact
(c) Self-incompatibility
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) All of these (2) (a) and (b) (3) Only (a) (4) Only(b)
135 Dioecy is the mechanism for some plants to
(1) Promote autogamy (2) Promote self-fertilisation
(3) Promote cross-pollination (4) None of these
136 The acceptance and rejection by continuous dialogue between pollen grain and pistil mediated by chemical
components of pollen and pistil result in
(1) Autogamy (2) Pollen pistil interaction (3) Geitonogamy (4) Pollination
137. In which characters air pollinated flowers differ from insect pollinated ones?
(1) Due to small perianth and sticky pollen (2) Small coloured perianth and heavy pollen grains
(3) Coloured perianth and large pollen grains (4) Without perianth and light pollen grains
138. Which of the following devices is not used by plants to prevent autogamy?
(1) Self-incompatibility (2) Production of unisexual flowers
(3) Heterostyly (4) Production of cleistogamous flowers
139. Protandryis
(1) Maturation of stigma earlier than anthers of the same flower
(2) Maturation of anthers and stigma at the same time
(3) Maturation of anthers earlier than stigma of the same flower
(4) Pollination of the stigma by the anther of the same flower
140. Dichogamy which helps in cross-pollination is a floral mechanism in which
(1) Pollen sac and stigma are at different heights
(2) Anther and stigma mature at different times
(3) Structure of pollen sac and stigma functions as hurdles
(4) Pollen grain is unable to germinate on the stigma of the same flower
141. Go through the following statements:
(a) Flowers are bisexual and homogamous maturing anther and stigma of a flower at the same time
(b) Mechanical devices bringing anthers and stigma close together in a bisexual chasmogamous flower
(c) In cleistogamy, bisexual flowers remain closed
(d) Anther and stigma of an intersexual flower mature in bud condition
The above contrivances favour
(1) Allogamy (2) Autogamy (3) Xenogamy (4) Cross-pollination
142. Intra-species incompatibility can be overcome by
(1) Wetting of the stigma (2) Bud-pollination
(3) Mixed-pollination (4) Intra-ovarian pollination

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143. Bisexual cleistogamous flowers
(1) Never open in life (2) Open only in daytime
(3) Open only during nights (4) Always remain open
144. Long silky hair coming out of the cob of maize are
(1) Meant for fruit dispersal (2) Meant for attracting insects
(3) Meant for protecting seeds (4) Long styles and stigma
145. An interesting modification of flower shape for insect pollination occurs in some orchids in which a male
insect mistakes the pattern on the orchid flower for the female of his species and tries to copulate with it,
thereby pollinating the flower. This phenomenon is called
(1) Pseudoparthenocarpy (2) Mimicry (3) Pseudopollination (4) Pseudocopulation
146. When the pollen grains are not transferred from anthers to the stigma in flower due to the barrier or fence,
it is referred as (Or, when some natural barrier exists between ancfroecium and gynoecium to check self-
pollination, it is known as)
(1) Heterostyly (2) Herkogamy (3) Dichogamy (4) Cleistogamy
147. Progeny produced as a result of cross pollination
(1) Shows high degree of variability and is evolutionary important
(2) Is sterile
(3) Has recessive characters
(4) Is homozygous with phenotypic uniformity
148. All of the following include out breeding devices except
(1) Unisexuality of flowers, self-incompatibility
(2) Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised
(3) Anthers and stigma are placed at different positions
(4) Bisexuality, homogamy and cleistogamy
149. Self-incompatibility
(a) Is a device to prevent inbreeding
(b) Provides a biochemical block to self fertilisation
(c) Ensures cross fertilisation
(d) Is governed by pollen-pistil interaction
(e) Is governed by series of multiple alleles
(f) Prevents self-pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from fertilising the
ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil
(1) All are correct (2) All are wrong
(3) Only (1), (2), (3) are correct (4) Only (4) and (e) are wrong
150. Self-incompatibility
(1) Works the same way in all plants
(2) Does not have potential agricultural applications
(3) Maintains variation
(4) Works on the same mechanism of transplant rejection seen in animal
151. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Pollination gives the guarantee of the promotion of post pollination events that lead to fertilisation
(2) The events from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule are together referred to as pollen
pistil interaction
(3) Pollen pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by only promotion (not
rejection) of the pollen
(4) Pistil has no ability to recognise the pollen whether right or wrong type
152 Lever mechanism or Turn pipe mechanism for pollination is a characteristic feature of
(1) Antirrhinum (2) Ocimum (3) Salvia (Sage plant) (4) Ficus
153 Translator apparatus is found in
(1) Mustard (2) Pea (3) Calotropis (4) Mango
154. Insect pollinated flowers usually possess
(1) Brightly coloured pollens in large quantity (2) Dry pollens with smooth surface
(3) Sticky pollen and rough surface stigma (4) Light coloured scented pollen covered with nectar
155. Example of epihydrophily is
(1) Zostera (2) Vallisneria (3) Ceratophyllum (4) Nymphea
156. Protandry is the situation when
(1) Anther matures later than the stigma of flower
(2) Anther matures earlier than the stigma of flower
(3) Anther and stigma mature at the same time
(4) All of these

Fertilisation
157. Which structure provides guidance to pollen tube for its growth towards micropyle?
(1) SynergidS (2) Embryo sac (3) Style (4) Obturator
158. Pollen tube enters in embryo sac through
(1) Micropyle and chalaza (2) Micropyle, chaiaza and integument
(3) Micropyle (4) Synergid
159. Even after killing the generative cell with a laser beam, the pollen grain of a flowering plant germinates
and produces normal pollen tube because
(1) Laser beam stimulates pollen germination and pollen tube growth
(2) Laser beam does not damage the region from which pollen tube emerges
(3) The contents of the killed generative cell permit germination and pollen growth
(4) the vegetative cell has not been damaged
160. Function of filiform apparatus is to
(1) Guide the entry of pollen tube (2) Recognise the suitable pollen at stigma
(3) Stimulate division of generative cell (4) Produce nectar

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161. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Double fertilisation is a characteristic of angiosperms
(2) Double fertilisation or triple fusion was discovered byNawaschin
(3) Pollen tube shows tip growth and chemotropic movement
(4) All of these
162. In double fertilisation, the total number of male nuclei and total number of female nuclei involved are
respectively
(1) 3 and 2 (2) 2and3 (3) 2 and 2 (4) 3 and 3
163. Following components are haploid, diploid or triploid:
(a) Oosphere (b) Micorspore (c) Synergids (d) Antipodal cell
(e) Oospore (f) Nucellus (g) Placenta (h) Chalaza
(i) Endosperm (j) Tapetum
Which of following groups show the correct sequence of the ascending order of ploidy in ovule/seed?
(1) (c), (b) and (d) (2) (a), (e) and (i) (3) (e), (f) and (g) (4) (j), (e) and (g)
164 The number of chromosomes in radicle is 16 What will be the number of chromosomes in tube nucleus,
antipodal cells, definitive nucleus and endosperm respectively?
(1) 8,8,16 and 24 (2) 8,8,16 and 16 (3) 16,16,32 and 48 (4) 8, 8, 16 and 48
165 Female plant is diploid and male plant is tetraploid Find out the correct match
Embryo Endosperm Integument Egg Pollen Aleurone Layer
(1) 3n 4n 2n n 2n 4n
(2) 2n 6n 2n 4n 4n 2n
(3) 2n 3n 2n 4n n 3n
(4) 6n 4n 3n n 2n n
166 The male gamete is x and egg is 3x The ploidy level in embryo and endosperm will be
(1) 4x in embryo and 4x in endosperm (2) 4x in embryo and 7x in endosperm
(3) 4x in embryo and 6x in endosperm (4) 6x in embryo and 12x in endosperm
167. Identify the components labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the diagram below from the list (i) - (viii) given
along with components.

(i) Micropyle (ii) Chalaza (iii) Central cell (iv) PEN

(v) PEC (vi) Megaspore (viii) Degenerating synergid
(ix) Degenerating antipodal cell
The correct components are
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (viii) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (viii) (iii) (i)
(3) (vi) (iv) (vii) (iii)
(4) (vii) (iv) (viii) (v)
168. The central cell after triple fusion becomes the ____________ and develops into the _________ while
the zygote develops into an
(1) Primary endosperm cell; embryo; endosperm
(2) Primary endosperm cell; endosperm; embryo
(3) Endosperm; primary endosperm cell; embryo
(4) embryo; primary endosperm cell; endosperm
169. Persistent nucleus perisperm is found in
(1) Wheat and maize (2) Pea and ground nut (3) Barley and castor (4) Black pepper and beet
170. What is the ploidy of perisperm?
(1) n (2) 2n (3) 3 n (4) 4 n
171. Select the false statement from the following
(1) Persistent nucleus is the perisperm
(2) Integuments of ovule harden as though protective seed coat
(3) Micropyle remains as a small pore in seed coat and facilitates entry of oxygen and water into seed during
germination
(4) General metabolic activity of embryo is high
172. During pollen pistil interaction, chemical components are released from
(1) Only pollen (2) Only pistil (3) Both pollen and pistil (4) The ovary

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173. The pollen tube after reaching the ovary enters inside the ovule generally through which part of ovule?
(1) Chalazal end (2) Microphyle end (3) Any of these (4) Integument of ovule
174. Which one of the following is correct for artificial hybridisation?
(a) Combine desirable characters to produce superior varieties
(b)Approach towards crop improvement programme
(c) Desired pollen gains are used for pollination
(d) Stigma is exposed to receive pollen
(1) All of these (2) Only (a) (3) (a) and (b) (4) (a), (b) and (c)
175. Emasculation is
(1) Removal of anther from unisexual flower by a pair of forceps
(2) Removal of anther from flower bud after its dehiscence using a pair of forceps
(3) Removal of anther from bisexual flower bud before it dehisces using a pair of forceps
(4) All of these
176. The female parent plants produce unisexual flowers that
(1) Do not require emasculation (2) Require emasculation
(3) Are bagged during bud stage (4) Both (1) and (3)
177. Double fertilisation is
(a) Unique to flowering plant
(b) Results in formation of zygote and primary endosperm cell
(c) A process in which triple fusion and syngamy takes place
(d) A process in which triple fusion takes place only
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) All are correct (4) Only (a)
178. Post-fertilisation events do not include
(a) Formation of primary endosperm cell (b) Maturation of ovules in seed
(c) Formation of ovary into fruit (d) Formation of embryo inside seed
(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) (c) Only (3) (4) None of these
179. Endosperm is earlier __________ and then develops into ______________.
(1) Cellular; nuclear (2) Nuclear; cellular (3) Cellular; cellular (4) Nuclear; cellular
180. The number of nuclei in free nuclear endosperm before cellularisation is
(1) Fixed (2) Varies greatly (3) Fixed in species (4) None of these
181. Coconut water is the ___________ part of endosperm
(1) Cellular (2) Free nuclear
(3) Cellular as well as nuclear (4) Nneither cellular nor free nuclear
182. Which part of endosperm acts as white kernel of coconut?
(1) Cellular (2) Free nuclear
(3) Cellular as well as free nuclear (4) Neither cellular nor free nuclear
183. Total number of nuclei involved in double fertilisation is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
184. After penetrating stigmatic and stylar tissues, the pollen tube usually grows down towards the egg because
(1) The egg cell attracts the pollen tube as they have dissimilar electric charge
(2) The filiform apparatus of synergids is believed to attract the pollen tube
(3) It has no other passage to follow
(4) It grows under control of nucleus
185. Plasmogamy refers to
(1) The fusion of two haploid hyphae with simultaneous nuclear fusion
(2) The fusion of two haploid hyphae without simultaneous nuclear fusion
(3) Fusion of egg cell with sperm
(4) Fusion of sperm with polar nuclei
186. Oogamous sexual reproduction signifies
(1) Fusion of similar motile gametes (2) Fusion of dissimilar motile gametes
(3) Fusion of a motile and a non-motile gamete (4) Fusion of similar non-motile gametes
187. Which of the following is false about emasculation?
(1) During emasculation process, stigma is removed
(2) Emasculated flowers are bagged in order to prevent self-pollination
(3) Emasculation is the removal of stamens before maturation of selected bisexual flowers
(4) It is one of the steps for artificial hybridisation
188. The purpose of bagging an emasculated flower in artificial hybridisation programme is
(1) To prevent intra-floral pollination
(2) To prevent self-pollination (from the pollen of the same flower)
(3) To prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen
(4) For rebagging
189. Endosperm in angiosperms is formed from secondary nucleus
(1) After fertilisation but prior to embryogenesis (2) Before fertilisation but prior to embryogenesis
(3) As post-fertilised and post-embryogenetic tissue (4) as pre-fertilised and pre-embryogenetic tissue
190. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Endosperm formation starts prior to first division of zygote
(b) Angiospermic endosperm is mostly 3n while gymnospermic one is n
(c) The most common type of endosperm is nuclear
(d) Coconut has both liquid nuclear (multinucleate) and cellular endosperm
(e) Milky water of green tender coconut is liquid female gametophyte
(1) (a) and (b) (2) Only(c) (3) Only (e) (4) Only(b)
191. Ruminate endosperm is commonly found in the seeds of
(1) EUphorbiaceae (2) Cruciferae (3) Palmae or Arecaceae (4) Compositae

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Embryogenesis
192 Scutellum is reported in
(1) Plants having epiblast (2) Plants having open vascular bundles (3) Gram (4) Castor
193. In a fertilized ovule - n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in
(1) Antipodals, nucellus and endosperm
(2) Megaspore mother cell, nucellus and endosperm
(3) Egg, nucellus and microspore
(4) Endosperm, micropyle and egg
194. Endosperm is completely consumed by developing embryo before seed maturation in
(1) Pea, ground nut and beans (2) Coconut and castor
(3) Maize and wheat (4) Coconut and wheat
195 Which of the sequence is correct for embryogenesis in dicots?
(1) Zygote → Globular stage → Proembryo → Heart shaped stage → Matured embryo
(2) Zygote → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage → Matured embryo
(3) Zygote → Proembryo → Heart shaped stage → Globular stage → Matured embryo
(4) Zygote → Proembryo → Globular stage → Heart shaped stage → Matured embryo
196 Which one of the options all the four parts (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correctly mentioned?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) Scutellum Coleoptile Radicle Coleorhiza
(2) Scutellum Coleorhiza Radicle Coleoptile
(3) Hypophysis Coleorhiza Radicle Coleoptile
(4) Hypophysis Coleoptile Radicle Coleorhiza
197. Embryos of monocotyledons possess only one _______(a)_______. In the grass family the cotyledon is
called _______(b)_______ that is situated towards one side (lateral) of the embryonal axis At its lower
end, the embryonal axis has the radical and root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called
_______(c)_______.
The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum is the _______(d)_______
which has a shoot apex enclosed in a foliar structure called _______(e)_______.
(1) (a) - cotyledon; (b) - scutellum; (c) - coleorrhiza; (d) - epicotyl; (e) – coleoptiles
(2) (a) - scutellum; (b) - cotyledon; (c) - coleorrhiza; (d) - epicotyl; (e) – coleoptiles
(3) (a) - cotyledon; (b) - scutellum; (c) x coleorrhiza; (d) - hypocotyl; (e) – coleoptiles
(4) (a) - cotyledon; (b) - scutellum; (c) - coleoptile; (d) - epicotyl; (e) - coleorhiza
198. Ruminate endosperm is commonly found in seeds of
(1) Cruciferae (2) Compositae (3) Euphorbiaceae (4) Palmae (Areca nut)
199. Identify the correct sequence in the formation of a dicot embryo
(1) Zygote, Heart-shaped embryo, Globular embryo, Mature embryo
(2) Heart-shaped embryo, Globular embryo, Zygote, Mature embryo
(3) Globular embryo, Zygote, Heatt-shaped embryo, Mature embryo
(4) Zygote Gldbular embryo, Heart-shaped embryo, Mature embryo
200. Read tlie fotfbwitig statements carefully
(a) The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a diploid endosperm tissue
(b) The cells of endosperm tissue are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the nutrition of
the developing pollen grains
(c) In the most common type of endosperm development, the PEN undergoes successive nuclear
divisions to give rise to free nuclei This stage of endosperm development is called free-nuclear
ndosperm
(d) The coconut water from tender coconut is cellular endosperm and the surrounding white kernel is the
free-nuclear endosperm
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four

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201. Fill in the blanks and select the option with all correct labels
A typical dicotyledonous embryo, consists of a/an ________(a)______ and two ________(b)______
The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the ________(c)______, which terminates
with the ________(d)______ or stem tip The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is
________(e)______ that terminates at its lower end in the ______(f)_____ or __________(g)_____
The root tip is covered with a/an ________(h)______.
(1) (a) - embryonal axis; (c) - epicotyl; (h)- root cap
(2) (b) - cotyledons; (d) - epicotyl; (g) – plumule
(3) (c) - hypocotyl; (e) - plumule; (f) - root tip
(4) (d) - plumule; (f) - radicle; (h) - embryo axis
202. Multinucleate condition is present in
(1) Quiescent centre (2) Maize
(3) Meristematic tissue (4) Liquid endosperm of coconut
203. The portion of embryo above the cotyledon is called _________ and below the cotyledon is called
_________.
(1) Epicotyl; hypocotyl (2) Hypocotyl; epicotyl (3) Plumule; radical (4) Radical; plumule
204. At what stage of endosperm development, you rail observe nuclear or cellular type of endosperm?
(1) When divisions starts in embryo (2) When embryo is heart-shaped
(3) Mature stage of endosperm (4) Just after divisionof primary endosperm nucleus
205. The function of suspensor is
(1) To provide water (2) To provide oxygen
(3) To thrust the embryo towards endosperm to provide more food (4) To suck food
206. Tigellum is known as
(1) Testa (2) Tegmen (3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Main axis of the embryo

Seed and Fruit

207. In angiosperms, seeds are formed because
(a) Megaspores show in situ germination
(b) Male gametes are released near egg
(c) Female gametophyte remain within megas- porangium initially
(d) Embryo formation is within megasporangium
(1) (b) and (4) (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) All of these (4) (a) and (d)
208. Most recently discovered viable seed is
(I) Lupine (2) Date palm (3) Lotus (4) Fig
209. Sort out correct points from (i) to (vi) for
(a) - Albuminous and (b) - Exalbuminous seeds

(i) No endosperm (ii) Endosperm present (iii) Cotyledons-thin

(iv) Cotyledons-thick (v) Food is stored in cotyledons (vi) Food is stored in endosperms
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(1) (ii), (iii), (vi) (i),(vi),(v) (2) (i), (iv), (v) (ii), (iii), (v)
(3) (i), (iii), (v) (ii), (iv), (vi) (4) (ii), (iv), (vi) (i), (iii), (v)
210. During germination, micropyle of seed takes part in
(1) Forming weak point for the emergence of radicle (2) Entry of water and oxygen
(3) Passage of gases (4) Leaching inhibitors
211. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) Some 2000 years old viable seeds of Pheonix dactylifera were discovered during archaeological excavation of King
Herod's palace near Dead Sea
(2) Record of 10,000 years of dormancy of seeds has been estimated in Lupinus arcticus
(3) The number of seeds in each fruit in case of orchid and some parasitic forms like Orobanche and Striga is one
(4) Many fruits have evolved mechanisms for dispersal ofseeds
212. The above diagrams are related to castor seeds

Identify (a) - (d) in the given diagram

(1) (a) - Endosperm; (b) - Seed coat; (c) - Cotyledon; (d) – caruncle
(2) (a) - Seed coat; (b) - Endosperm; (c) - Caruncle; (d) – Cotyledon
(3) (a) - Seed coat; (b) - Cotyledon; (c) - Endosperm; (d) – Caruncle
(4) (a) - Seed coat; (b) - Endosperm; (c) - Cotyledon; (d) - caruncle

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213. In the given diagram of strawberry fruit, identify (a) and (b)

(1) (a) - Endocarp; (b) – Pome (2) (a) - Thalamus; (b) - Pome
(3) (a) - Thalamus; (b)-Achene (4) (a) - Mesocarp; (b) - Drupe
214. Arrange the following plants with respect to decreasing order of their seed viability
(a) Oxalis (b) Lupine (c) Date palm
(1) (a), (c), (b) (2) (b), (c), (a) (3) (c), (b), (a) (4) (a), (b), (c)
215. Consider the plants given below:
Mango, Cladophora, Banana, Cashew, Rice, Ferns, Bryophytes, Pines
How many of them involve syngamy and produce false fruits in the life cycle?
(1) Four (2) Three (3) TWo (4) One
216. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option
Column - I Column - II
(a) Non-endospermic seeds (i) Castor
(b) Endospermic seeds (ii) Pea
(iii) Coconut
(iv) Groundnut
(v) Beans
(1) (a) - (i), (iii); (b) - (ii), (iv), (v) (2) (a) - (ii), (iv), (v); (b) - (i), (in)
(3) (a) - (i), (ii), (v); (b) - (iii), (iv) (4) (a) - (ii), (iii); (b) - (i), (iv), (v)
217. The viability of Phoenix dactylifera is ______________ and that of Lupinus arcticus is _____________.
(1) 10000 years; 2000 years (2) 1000 years; 2000 years
(3) 2000 years; 10000 years (4) 2000 years; 1000 years
218. Select the total number of albuminous seed from the following.
Pea, Groundnut, Wheat, Maize, Barely, Castor, Sunflower
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Two (4) Six
219. Select the false statement.
(1) Hard seed coat provides protection to young embryo
(2) Generally seed is the product of sexual reproduction, so they generate new genetic combination leading to
variation
(3) Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitat and help the species to'colonise in other areas
(4) Pollination and fertilisation in angiosperm depend on water
220. Which oldest seed is excavated form arctic Tundra?
(1) Lupinus arcticus (2) Phoenix dactylifera (3) Solarium nigrum (4) Raphanus sativus
221. Seeds are called products of sexual reproduction because they
(1) Give rise to new plant (2) Are formed by fusion of gametes
(3) Can be stored for longer time (4) Are formed by fusion of pollen tubes
222. Vivipary means
(1) Fruits are not formed (2) Germination of seed on mother plant
(3) Formation of fruits directly by embryo (4) Production of fruitless plant
223. What are the external conditions required for seed germination?
(1) Oxygen, carbon dioxide and suitable temperature
(2) Oxygen, light and suitable temperature
(3) Light, moisture and suitable temperature
(4) Oxygen, moisture and suitable temperature
224. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) The storage tissue of rice and other cereal grains, is endosperm
(2) Outermost layer of endosperm of maize is triploid in nature
(3) Aleurone layer of maize gram is especially rich in proteins
(4) The transformation of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruit does not proceed simultaneously
225. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry (10%-15% moisture by mass)
(2) The seed dormancy is the internal or innate inhibition of generation of normal of viable seeds
(3) Embryo in dormant seed shows higher rate of general metabolic rate
(4) Because of dormancy, seeds remain viable for longer period and can be stored

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226. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option
Column - I Column - II
(a) Ovary (i) Groundnut, mustard
(b) Ovule (ii) Guava, orange, mango
(c) Wall of ovary (iii) Pericarp
(d) Fleshy fruit (iv) Seed
(e) Dry fruits (v) Fruit
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii), (iii) (iv) (v)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (v)
(4) (v) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
227. Perisperm is
(1) Degenerate part of synergids (2) Peripheral part of endosperm
(3) Degenerate part of secondary nucleus (4) Remnant of nucellus
228. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) Hybrid varieties of several of our food and vegetable crops are being extensively cultivated
(2) Cultivation of hybrids has tremendously increased productivity
(3) A few flowering plants, for example, some species of Asteraceae and grasses have evolved apomixes
(4) Production of hybrid seeds is least costly and so farmers buy such seeds frequently
229. Hybrid seeds have to be produced every year because
(1) Hybrid plants become sterile in coming years
(2) They show more heterosis in coming years
(3) Hybrid vigour is not maintained beyond one generation as segregation of genes begins in the second generation
(4) Hybrid seed industry tends to increase cost of the seeds
230. What is common between vegetative reproduction and apomixis?
(1) Both occur round the year (2) Both produce progeny identical to the parent
(3) Both are applicable to only dicot plants (4) Both bypass the flowering phase
231. Mechanical cracking of hard seed coat can induce germination of certain seeds, this phenomenon is termed
as
(1) Cracking (2) Stratification (3) Scarification (4) Chilling
232. The part of castor seed that yields oil is
(1) Cotyledon (2) Caruncle (3) Endosperm (4) Nucellus

Apomixis and Polyembryony

233. Which of the following represent recurrent agamospermy?
(1) Embryosac → Egg → Organism (2) Nucellar cell → Embryo → Organism
(2n) (2n) (2n) (2n) (n) (n)
(3) Embryosac → Egg → Organism (4) Embryosac → Egg → Fertilisation → Zygote
(n) (n) (n) (n (n) (n)
234. When vegetative cell of zygote form embryo, it is called
(1) Apospory (2) Apomixis (3) Diploid polyembryony (4) Adventive polyembryony
235. ___________ is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction
(1) Amphimixis (2) Polyembryony (3) Parthenocarpy (4) Apomixis
236. Apomixis means
(1) Fruits without seed (2) Fruit with seed
(3) Seed without fertilisation (4) Fruit without fertilisation
237. Polyembryony is
(1) One embryo in one seed (2) More than one embryo in a seed
(3) More seed in one embryo (4) Seed development without fertilisation
238. Although in most of species, fruits are results oi fertilisation, there are a few species in which fruit develop
without fertilisation and this process is known as
(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Parthenogenesis (3) Amphimixis (4) Apomixes

Miscellaneous
239. Find the Incorrect match
(1) Perisperm - Beet
(2) Dormant seeds - 20-25% moisture by mass
(3) Strawberry - Achenes
(4)Apomixis - Grasses
240. In angiosperms,
(a) Pollen tube discharge its contents in central cell
(b) Filiform apparatus guides the pollen tube toward micropyle
(c) In seed of sunflower, endosperm is not fully consumed by developing embryo
(d) Ovary contributes in fruit formation in cashew
Which of the given statements are correct?
(1) All of these (2) (1), (2) and (4) (3) (3) and (4) (4) (1) and (2)
241. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Pistil recognises pollen grain
(b) Cuticle is present on surface of thallus in bryophytes
(c) Majority of insect pollinated flowers are large, fragrant, rich in nectar and dull coloured
(d) Pollination by water is reported in water hyacinth
(1) (1) and (3) (2) (3) and (4) (3) (1), (3) and (4) (4) Only (1)

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242. If the diploid number of chromosome in a flowering plant is 36. What would be the chromosome number
in its perisperm?
(1) 36 (2) 18 (3) 54 (4) 72
243. Caruncle is dervied from
(1) Peduncle (2) Cotyledon (3) Integument (4) None of these
244. Essential whorls of flower include
(1) Calyx and epicalyx (2) Corolla and calyx (3) Androecium and corolla (4) Gynoecium and androecium
245. Select the odd one out
(1) Micropyle (2) Embryosac (3) Nucellus (4) Pollen grain
246. Which is the most logical sequence with reference to life cycle of angiosperms?
(1) Germination, Endosperm formation, Seed dispersal, Double fertilisation
(2) Cleavage, Fertilisation, Grafting, Fruit formation
(3) Pollination, Fertilisation, Seed formation, Germination
(4) Maturation, Mitosis, Differentiation, Fertilisation
247. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(1) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilisation does not take place
(2) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell
(3) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months
(4) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin
248. A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are as follows:
(a) Sexual reproduction always requires two individuals
(b) Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion
(c) Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction
(d) External fertilisation is a rule during sexual reproduction
Choose the correct statements from the following options
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c)
249. Which of the following is correct about Parthenium (Carrot grass)?
(1) Parthenium came tb India as a contaminant with imported wheat
(2) It has become ubiquitous in occurrence
(3) It causes pollen allergy
(4) All of these
250. Sperm cells of angiosperms differ from the rest of the plant groups like gymnosperms as
(1) In angiosperms the sperms cells are non-motile, whereas in the others they are flagellate
(2) In angiosperms the sperm cells are produced in the pollen grain, whereas in the rest they are produced in the
antheridium
(3) In angiosperms and gymnosperms the sperm cells are non-motile^ whereas in the rest they are flagellated
(4) None of these
251. If a sporangium is derived from a single cell, it is called
(1) Leptosporangiate (2) Eusporangiate (3) Heterosporangiate (4) Homosporangiate
252. How many meiotic (p) and mitotic divisions (q) are required for the development of 16 sperms from
microspore mother cells in flowering plants?
(1) p = 8 and q =16 (2) p = 8 and q = 8 (3) p= 16 and q = 16 (4) p = 2 and q=16
253. Majority of flowering plants produce _________________ flowers and pollen grains are likely to come in
contact with the stigma of the " flower
(1) Hermaphrodite; same (2) Unisexual; same
(3) Bisexual; different (4) Hermaphrodite; different
254. If 28 chromosomes are present in the antipodal cells of a plant. Then how many chromosomes should be
present in the zygote, leaf cell and endosperm respectively?
(1) 14, 28 and 14 (2) 56, 56 and 14 (3) 56, 56 and 84 (4) 14, 14 and 56
255. The initiation and development of floral primordium takes place by
(1) Only hormonal changes in plant (2) Only structural changes in plant
(3) Changes in seasonal variation (4) Both by hormonal and structural changes in plant
256. In angiosperms, both the male and female gametes are _______________.
(1) Motile (2) Large (3) Small (4) Non-motile
257. Study of pollen grains is called
(1) Palynology (2) Ethmology (3) Palaeobotony (4) Taxonomy
258. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates
(1) Longer viability of seeds (2) Prolonged dormancy
(3) New genetic combination leading to variation (4) Large biomass
259. Perisperm differs from endosperm in
(1) Having no reserve food (2) Being a diploid tissue
(3) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms (4) Being a haploid tissue
260. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) Pollens are received by stigma (2) Pollen tube is discovered by Amici
(3) Pollen kit is absent on pollen grains of capsella (4) Tigellum is the main axis of embryo
261. Meiotic spore formation in plants results in
(1) Restoring haploid condition (2) Mixing hybrid traits of both parents
(3) New genetic recombination (4) All of these
262. Which of the following is true in plants?
(1) Meiosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes
(2) Meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores
(3) The gametophyte is the dominant generation in flowering plants
(4) Plants exist continually as either sporophytes or gametophytes
263. If the nucellus cell of an angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, then the number of chromosomes present
in pollen grain, endosperm and embryo will be respectively
(1) 24, 36 and 24 (2) 12, 36 and 24 (3) 12, 24 and 36 (4) 24, 12 and 12
264. How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 200 seeds of Capsella?
(1) 200 (2) 400 (3) 250 (4) 300
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265. In angiosperm, if the number of chromosomes in endosperm is 30, what will be the numbers of
chromosomes in nucellus?
(1) 15 (2) 30 (3) 20 (4) 40
266. How many meiotic divisions are necessary for formation of 100 functional megaspores?
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 200
267. Which of the following occurs in an angiosperm ovule?
(1) An antheridium forms from the megasporophyte
(2) A megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis
(3) The egg nucleus is usually diploid
(4) A pollen tube emerges to accept pollen after pollination
268. What is the relationship between pollination and fertilisation in flowering plants?
(1) Fertilisation precedes pollination
(2) Pollination easily occurs between plants of different species
(3) Pollen is formed within megasporagia so that male and female gametes are near each other
(4) Pollination brings gametophytes together so that fertilisation can occur
269. Which of the following is not an advantage of an extended gametophyte generation in plants?
(1) Male gametophytes can travel more easily within spore walls
(2) The protection of female gametophytes within ovules keeps them from drying out
(3) The lack of need for swimming sperm makes life on land easier
(4) Female gametophytes develop egg cells, which are fertilized within an ovule that will become a seed
270. There are 10 flowers in one individual plant of Crotalaria Each flower has 10 stamens In each
microsporangium of every stamen of all the flowers, there are 30 microspore mother cells How many
pollen grains are formed from that plant?
(1) 4,000 (2) 10,000 (3) 24,000 (4) 48,000

01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10 11 12 13 14 15
4 3 4 2 2 4 4 2 1 3 2 4 2 4 3
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
3 4 4 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 2 2
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 1 1 2 4 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 4 3 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
3 2 1 3 1 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 4 2
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
1 3 2 2 1 4 2 1 3 2 2 1 1 4 4
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
4 4 4 4 3 1 2 1 1 2 4 3 4 2 1
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
4 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 1
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
3 2 4 3 4 2 4 1 4 2 4 3 1 1 3
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
2 4 4 3 2 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 4 1 3

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151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
2 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 4 1 4 2 2 1 1
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
2 4 2 4 2 4 3 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 2
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195
2 1 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 4
196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
1 1 4 4 1 1 4 1 4 3 4 4 2 1 2
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225
3 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 1 2 2 4 4 3
226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
1 4 4 3 2 3 3 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 3
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255
4 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 4 4 1 4 1 3 4
256 257 258 259 260 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
4 1 3 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 1 4

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