Report On The Examinations: Ministry of Education

REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION
DIRECTORATE OF NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS AND ASSESSMENT
REPORT ON THE EXAMINATIONS
NSSCO
OCTOBER/NOVEMBER 2013
CONTENTS
ACCOUNTING
Paper 4345/1.................................................................................................................................................................... 5
Paper 4345/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 12
AFRIKAANS AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Paper 4115/1 (Core) Reading and Directed Writing....................................................................................................... 19
Paper 4115/2 (Extended) Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................ 21
Paper 4115/3.................................................................................................................................................................. 23
Paper 4115/4 Oral Assessment...................................................................................................................................... 26
AGRICULTURE
Paper 4321/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 27
Paper 4321/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 29
Paper 4321/3.................................................................................................................................................................. 36
ART & DESIGN

Paper 0400/1 Observationa/Interpretative Assignment.................................................................................................. 39
Paper 0400/2 Design Assignment.................................................................................................................................. 43
Paper 0400/3 Historical and Critical Assignment........................................................................................................... 46
Paper 0400/4 Coursework Assignment.......................................................................................................................... 48
BIOLOGY
Paper 4322/1 Multiple Choice........................................................................................................................................ 51
Paper 4322/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 53
Paper 4322/3 Applied Practical Skills............................................................................................................................. 60
BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 4346/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 65
Paper 4346/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 72
COMPUTER STUDIES
Paper 4325/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 79
Paper 4325/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 89
DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY

Paper 4129/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 91
Paper 4129/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 93
Paper 4129/3.................................................................................................................................................................. 95
DEVELOPMENT STUDIES
Paper 4331/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 99
Paper 4331/2................................................................................................................................................................ 105
Paper 4331/3................................................................................................................................................................ 107
ECONOMICS
Paper 4347/1.................................................................................................................................................................111
Paper 4347/2................................................................................................................................................................ 117
ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Paper 4116/1&2 (Core & Extended) Reading and Directed Writing............................................................................. 123
Paper 4116/3 Listening Comprehension...................................................................................................................... 128
Paper 4116/4 Oral Assessment.................................................................................................................................... 133
FASHION AND FABRICS

Paper 4342/1................................................................................................................................................................ 139
Paper 4342/2................................................................................................................................................................ 146
FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS

Paper 4101/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 147
Paper 4101/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 150
Paper 4101/3 Literature................................................................................................................................................ 154
Paper 4101/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 156
NSSCO Examiners Report 2013 1

FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH
Paper 4102/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 166
FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN

Paper 4103/3&4 Literature & Oral................................................................................................................................ 170
FIRST LANGUAGE KHOEKHOEGOWAB

Paper 4104/1 Reading and Writing.............................................................................................................................. 171
Paper 4104/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 176
FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA

Paper 4105/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 183
FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA

Paper 4106/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 191
FIRST LANGUAGE OTJIHERERO

Paper 4107/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 201
FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI
Paper 4108/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 206
FIRST LANGUAGE RUMANYO

Paper 4109/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 213
FIRST LANGUAGE SETSWANA

Paper 4110/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 222
FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI

Paper 4111/4 Oral......................................................................................................................................................... 226
FIRST LANGUAGE THIMBUKUSHU

Paper 4112/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 237
2 NSSCO Examiners Report 2013

FOREIGN LANGUAGE GERMAN
Paper 4121/1 Listening................................................................................................................................................ 239
Paper 4121/3 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 249
FOREIGN LANGUAGE FRENCH

Paper 0520/1 Listening................................................................................................................................................ 251
Paper 0520/3 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 257
GEOGRAPHY
Paper 4332/1................................................................................................................................................................ 267
Paper 4332/2................................................................................................................................................................ 278
Paper 4332/3................................................................................................................................................................ 283
HISTORY
Paper 4333/1................................................................................................................................................................ 287
Paper 4333/2................................................................................................................................................................ 300
HOME ECONOMICS
Paper 4343/1................................................................................................................................................................ 311
Paper 4343/2 Coursework............................................................................................................................................ 321
Paper 4343/3 Practical Test.......................................................................................................................................... 323
MATHEMATICS
Paper 4324/1 (Core)..................................................................................................................................................... 325
Paper 4324/2 (Extended)............................................................................................................................................. 330
Paper 4324/3 (Core)..................................................................................................................................................... 337
Paper 4324/4(Extended).............................................................................................................................................. 341
OFFICE ADMINISTRATION AND KEYBOARDING APPLICATIONS

Paper 4348/1 Speed and Accuracy.............................................................................................................................. 347
Paper 4348/3 Office Administration.............................................................................................................................. 351
Paper 4348/4 Text Layout (Computer)......................................................................................................................... 364
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
Paper 4323/1 Multiple Choice...................................................................................................................................... 387
Paper 4323/2................................................................................................................................................................ 389
Paper 4323/3 Applied Practical Skills........................................................................................................................... 396
SIGN LANGUAGE
Paper 4123/1, 2&3....................................................................................................................................................... 401

ACCOUNTING
4345
Paper 1
General comments
Paper 1 was much easier compared to the paper of 2012.
Learners performed better. The lower range below 30% was smaller. Still marks were lost due to wrong or no dates,
wrong account details, wrong or improper lay-outs and theory – understanding and interpretation were still lacking.
Comments on individual questions
1 (a) Well answered.
(b) Well answered – except spelling.
(c) Fairly answered – had to name the account specifically = Bank Account.
(d) Well answered.
(e) Fairly answered – although learners tended to leave out the word “balance” in reducing/ diminishing balance
method and “line” in straight-line method.
(f) Fairly answered – but percentage left out and most of learners did not know the formula – those who knew it,
left out the percentage sign.
(g) Not so well answered. The correct definition was not known.
(h) Well answered.
(i) Fairly answered – learners did not always reflect to something and left out the period.
(j) Learners calculated the 2 discounts, but had a problem with calculating the final amount to be paid.
(k) Fairly answered, but there were still centres using the names Purchases Journal and Purchases Return
Journal. Learners also used Accounts in stead of Journals and used Credit Journal, etc.
(l) Fairly answered, because learners confused the uses with the advantages.
Answers
(a) Cost of sales [1]
(b) Omission
Commission
Principle
Original entry
Complete reversal
Compensation
Transposition Any two x 1 [2]
(c) Bank [1]
(d) (i) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account [1]

(ii) Profit and Loss Account [1]
(iii) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account [1]
(e) Straight-line/Cost price/Fixed instalment

Reducing balance/Diminishing balance/Book value
Revaluation Any two x 1 [2]

30 000 100
(f) (1) x
250 000 1
= 12% (2) C/F [3]
(g) Possessions of a business bought (1) for use in the business and not for resale (1) purposes
OR
Possessions (1) of a more permanent nature (1) [2]
(h) Cash book

Petty cash book Any one [1]
(i) Determines whether recorded information is a true reflection of the entries (1)
That took place during an accounting period (1) [2]
5 000 15
(j) x = 750 (1)
1 100
4 250 2
5 000 – 750 = x = 85 (1)
1 100
4 250 – 85 = N$4 165 (1) [3]
(k) (i) Creditors Journal [1]

(ii) Cash Book [1]
(iii) Creditors Returns Journal [1]
(l) Computerised ledgers / bookkeeping / financial statements

Spreadsheets or example
Data base
Stock handling / records / control
Reports
Electronic banking
Payments
Payroll
Source documents Any two [2]
2 (a) Poorly answered, because most learners left out the word CASH and used TRANSACTIONS instead of
PAYMENTS.
Answer
To record small transactions paid for in cash/small cash payments [1]
(b) Poorly answered. Learners did not start with correct balance N$300 – (used CASH and amounts).
Also recorded in wrong analysis column, e.g. envelopes in postages instead of stationery.
Left out amount in total column.
Did not know how to restore the imprest amount.
Did not know the correct names to use for TELEPHONE and ARNU SCHMID.
Did not know the correct format to balance
(c) Very poorly answered.
Learners could not explain how items in the PCB are POSTED to the General Ledger, especially dates (end
of the month and specific date).
Answer
At the end of each month the totals (1) of the analysis columns for expenses are debited to the appropriate
expense account (1) in the general ledger. The individual items (1) in the sundry accounts column are
debited to the appropriate account (e.g. creditor) in the debtors/creditors ledger on the date of the entry. (1)
OR
At the end of each month (1), totals of the analysis column are debited to the appropriate expense account
(1). Individual items are debited/credited to the appropriate accounts (e.g. telephone cr; Arnu Schmid dr) (1)
on the date of the entry. (1) [4]

Answer
(b) Petty Cash Book of Johnson – April 2013 CB13
Voucher Sundry Sundry Accounts
Receipts Fol Date Details Total Wages Stationery Postage
No. Expenses Details Fol Amount
N$ N$ N$ N$ N$ N$ N$
(1) 300 b/d 1 Balance
2 Stamps 10 (1) 24 24
4 Toilet paper 11 (1) 15 15
11 Wages 12 (1) 30 30
(1) 12 13 Telephone R13

Photocopy
15 paper 13 (1) 42 42
20 Wages 14 (1) 30 30
22 Envelopes 15 (1) 50 50
25 Postage 16 (1) 25 25
28 Arnu Schmid 17 (1) 70 Arnu Schmid 70
286 60 92 49 15 70
NSSCO Examiners Report 2013

(1)O/F 274 CB 30 Cash
(1)
c/d Balance 300
586 586
May 2013
(1) 300 b/d 1 Balance

[13]
7
3 (a) Fairly answered – but
- layout was a problem
- included general expenses and income of Trading Profit and Loss account items
- deducted instead of ADDED factory overhead
- indication of opening/closing or dates.
Answers
Okapere Dairies
Manufacturing Account for the year ended 31 March 2013
N$ N$
Cost of material consumed 58 100
Opening stock/Inventory of raw material 11 000 (1)
Add Purchases of raw material 52 000 (1)
Carriage on purchases of raw material 7 100 (1)
70 100
Less Closing stock/Inventory of raw material 12 000 (1)
Add Direct labour/wages 23 000
Prime cost 81 100 (1)
Add Factory overheads 49 000
Factory fuel & power (14 500 + 2 500) 17 000 (2)
Indirect wages 15 000 (1)
Rent (12 000 x 75%) 9 000 (2)
Depreciation: Machinery 8 000 (1)
130 100 (1)
Add Opening stock/Inventory Work in progress 8 700 (1)
138 800
Less Closing stock of Work in progress 8 800 (1)
Production cost of goods completed 130 000 (1)
Horizontal format is acceptable. [16]
(b) Poorly answered.

- Formula not used.
- Worked out the selling price.
- N$ sign left out.
- The 2 digit left out, e.g. N$2,60.
Answer
130 000 (1) O/F

50 000 (1)
= N$2,60 (1) O/F [3]
(c) Fairly answered, but learners interpreted the question wrongly by not reading the increase in the
purchasing prices.
Answer
Cost of raw material will increase/Purchases will increase
Production cost will increase
Unit cost will increase
Gross profit will decrease
Net profit will decrease Any two (1) each [2]

4 (a) Fairly answered.
- Did not know how to calculate the gross profit.
- Only did the calculation instead of the Trading Account.
- Did not know how to calculate the missing figure (cost of sales + purchases)
Answers
Otii
Trading Account for the year ended 31 March 2013
N$ N$
Sales 200 000 (1)
Less Cost of Sales 120 000
Opening Stock 60 000 (1)
(2) C/F
Plus Purchases 130 000 (1) O/F
190 000
Less Closing stock 70 000 (1)
Gross Profit 80 000 (2)
OR
Otii
Trading Account for the year ended 31 March 2013
Opening Stock 60 000 (1) Sales 200 000 (1)
(2) C/F
Purchases 130 000 (1) O/F Closing stock 70 000 (1)
Gross Profit 80 000 (2)
200 000 200 000
[7]
(b) (i) Well answered, although learners failed to indicate the correct form of ratio.
(ii) Fairly answered, although candidates did not always mention the ratio of Obed in the comparison.
Answer
(i) Otii Obed

200 000 180 000
100 000 (1) 240 000 (1)
= 2 : 1 (1) = 0,75 : 1 (1) [4]
(ii) Otii appears to have the strongest position (1) with current ratio of 2 : 1 while Obed is 0,75 : 1 (1)
Otii will be able to cover his current liabilities when they fall due. (1)
Answers based on own figures to (i) [3]
(c) Poorly answered. did not know the formula.
Answer
Rate of stockturn
120 000 (1) O/F

=
½(60 000 + 70 000) (1)
120 000
=
65 000
= 1,85 times (1) O/F [3]

5 (a) Poorly answered. The word ESTIMATE was left out. They answered as if the decision was already made.
Answer
- Look at debtors’ accounts and estimate which ones will not be paid
- Estimating on basis of past experience
- Make use of ageing schedule / Length of time taken to pay debts
- Current economic climate, if recession → higher percentage Any two x 1 [2]
(b) Very well answered. (But spelling!!)
Answer
Matching (1)
Prudence (1) [2]
(c)(i)-(iii) Very poorly answered

- Dates
- Contra accounts
- Amounts
Answer
(i)
Debtors Ledger
Viera Account DL 1
2012 2012
July 1 Sales 600 (1) Sep 30 Cash 450 (1)
Dec 1 Bad debts 150 (1)
600 600
OR
Debtors Ledger
Viera Account
Date Details Debit Credit Balance
2012 July 1 Sales 600 (1) 600
Sep 30 Cash 450 (1) 150
Dec 1 Bad debts 150 (1) 0
[3]
(ii)
DR Bad Debts Account CR
2012 2013
Dec 1 Viera 150 (1) Jun 30 Profit and Loss 150 (1)
[2]
(iii)
Bad Debts Recovered Account
2013
J u n 2013
30 Profit and Loss 150 (1) Feb 3 Cash 150 (1)
[2]

(d) Very poorly answered.
- Calculation of the new provision for doubtful debts.
- Did not know how to record the correct amounts in the Provision for doubtful debts account.
- Did not know how to balance the Provision for doubtful debts account.
Answer
DR Provision for Doubtful Debts Account CR
2013 2012
Jun 30 Profit and Loss 200 (2) Jul 1 Balance b/d 2 000 (2)
Balance c/d 1 800 (1)
2 000 2 000
Jul 1 Balance b/d 1 800
Running balance format acceptable. [5]
(e) Fairly answered.

The opening and closing balances of Debtors were used.
- Did not use the balance of provision for doubtful debts in the T - account to deduct from Debtors.
- The wording = LESS provision for doubtful debts must be there.
Answer
George De Wet
Extract from Balance Sheet at 30 June 2013
Current Assets
Debtors/Trade Receivables 45 000 (1)
Less: Provision for doubtful debts 1 800 (1) O/F 43 200 (1) O/F [3]
[19]
Positive suggestions to teachers

1 Use the syllabus instead of textbooks.
2 Work out previous examination papers.
3 Familiarise yourselves with the marking of questions.
Please emphasise the importance of dates and account details and the layouts of the accounts.
4 Teachers should encourage learners to give more attention to subsidiary books and ledgers accounts.
5 Previous examiner’s reports must be studied to prevent repetition of same mistakes every year

4345
Paper 2
General comments
The overall standard of the learners’ work with regard to handwriting and layout was moderate. Most candidates could
interpret the questions correctly.
The general problems remain dates, contra account details, abbreviations and headings.
The syllabus states specifically that names of debtors and creditors should be used as details in the ledgers and not
debtors or creditors. (Control accounts are not used in the General Ledger any more.)
Theory is still a matter of concern. Candidates do not read the theory questions carefully.
Teachers must be aware of the correct terminology as stated in the syllabus, e.g. “discount allowed” and not “discount
granted”.
Comments on indiviual questions
1 This question was poorly answered. The transactions were interpreted wrongly.
Transaction no. 2 ̶ Services rendered is Current Income. Most candidates wrote services rendered. (The account
for service businesses.)
Most candidates wrote debtor/creditor instead of the name of the debtor/creditor.
Transaction no. 3 ̶ A training bike for a sports training centre is equipment and not vehicles.
Candidates wrote drawings instead of capital. The lack of student understanding regarding the effect of the
equation was also of great concern. Some candidates only gave figures without the effect.
Answer
No Account Account Assets Owner’s Liabilities

Debited Credited Equity
N$ N$ N$
2 Marshall Current Income (1) + 400 + 400 (1)
3 Equipment Capital (1) + 30 000 + 30 000 (1)
Rent paid/
4 Bank (1) - 2 500 - 2 500 (1)
expense
Purchases Returns/
5 Global Suppliers + 140 - 140 (1)
Returns Outwards (1)
6 Bad debts Ryan (1) - 340 - 340 (1)
7 Sportsman’s Warehouse Bank (1) - 3 800 - 3 800 (1)
1 mark for Account debit and Account credit correct
1 mark for correct equation [12]

2 This question was poorly answered. Rules regarding dates, contra account details and layout were not followed.
The numbering off of the transactions in the question paper were entered as dates in the Cash Book. Again, the
names of debtors should be entered as details and not Debtors or Creditors. Most candidates wrote suspense or
correction of error for rent received. Candidates also did not specify whether it was rent received or paid.
The balancing off of the Cash Book was also of concern. The question stated that the Cash Book should be
balanced off and that the balance should be brought down on 1 October 2013. This again proves that candidates
do not read the instructions.
Items such as unpresented cheques and outstanding deposits were entered in the Cash Book, which resulted in
the candidates losing marks for balance brought down.
The Cash Book should be updated at the end of the month. September has 30 days and candidates wrote 31
September, which was wrong.
Interest on bank overdraft and bank charges are regarded as two separate accounts and candidates combined
them.
The account name ̶ interest on overdraft ̶ was wrongly used.
The rules for a bank reconciliation statement layout were not followed. Some centres had no idea of how to
prepare a bank reconciliation statement. The overdraft balances and the treatment of unpresented cheques and
outstanding deposits showed that the candidates had little understanding of this topic.
If a specific method was used, candidates did not stick to that method. They combined the Debit, Credit heading
method with the add, less method.
Answer
(a)
Storm Stores
Cash Book (bank columns) - September 2013
N$ N$
2013 2013
Sept 30 Balance 1 250 (1) Sept 30 Paul Jon (R/D) 900 (1)
Gavin Guithuka 1 500 (1) Rent received/income (1) 810 (1)
Balance c/d 1 600 Insurance 2 430 (1)
Bank charges 120 (1)
Interest on overdraft 90 (1)
4 350 4 350
Oct 1 Balance b/d 1 600 (1) O/F
[9]
(b)
Bank Reconciliation Statement at 30 September 2013
N$ N$
Dr balance at bank as per bank statement (overdraft) 9 013 (1)
Less: Outstanding deposits 9 780 (1)
(767)
Add: Unpresented cheques No 169 2 367 (1)
Cr balance as per cash book (1 600) (1) O/F
OR
N$ N$
Overdraft balance at bank as per bank statement 9 013 (1)
11 380
Cr balance as per cash book 1 600 (1) O/F
OR
N$ N$
Cr balance as per cash book (1 600) (1) O/F
767
Dr balance at bank as per bank statement (overdraft) (9 013) (1)
OR
Debit Credit
N$ N$
Cr balance as per cash book 1 600 (1) O/F
Debit Unpresented cheques No 169 2 367 (1)
Credit Outstanding deposits 9 780 (1)
Dr balance at bank as per bank statement (overdraft) 9 013 (1)
11 380 11 380
[4]
[13]
3 This question was poorly answered. Most candidates had difficulty to correct the errors and incorporate the
changes in the trial balance totals. In most cases the errors were ignored when preparing the corrected trial
balance.
The General Journal layout was a concern. The account debited should be entered first, followed by the account
credited in the following line.
Most candidates entered the amounts in the wrong columns in the trial balance.
The provision for the depreciation account should include the asset which is depreciated, e.g. provision for
depreciation on vehicles and not just provision for depreciation.
Again, the names of debtors/creditors should be entered as details and not Debtors or Creditors.
Bank (cr) ̶ candidates entered it in the debit column, whereas it was supposed to be in the credit column (overdraft).
Answer
(a) Ngaayo Traders
General Journal – August 2013
Debit Credit
N$ N$
31 Sales 120 (1)
Suspense 120 (1)
Depreciation 2 400 (1)

Provision for depreciation of vehicles 2 400 (1)
Suspense 360 (1)

Anri Stores 360 (1)
Suspense 70 (2)
Discount received 35 (1)
Discount allowed 35 (1)
Sales returns/Returns inwards 60 (1)

Elizabeth 60 (1)
[12]

(b) Ngaayo Traders
Corrected Trial Balance as at 31 August 2013
Debit Credit
N$ N$
Drawings 880
Premises 80 000
Capital 97 000
Bank (cr) 340
Loan: Fenni Bank 4 500
Purchases 5 500
Sales (11 100 - 120) 10 980 (1)
Returns inwards (200 + 60) 260 (2)
Vehicles 24 000
General expenses 2 330
Debtors (Trade receivables) (1 250 - 60) 1 190 (2)
Discount allowed (50 - 35) 15 (2)
Creditors (Trade payables) (900 + 360) 1 260 (1)
Discount received (60 + 35) 95 (2)
Depreciation 2 400 (1)
Provision for depreciation on vehicles 2 400 (1)
116 575 116 575
Any two of accounts with no effect (1) mark total of (4) marks
[16]
[28]
4 This question was fairly answered. Dates and contra account details resulted in candidates losing many marks.
The ledger account entry in the goodwill account is capital: name of partner. Candidates only wrote the name of
the partner or the initials of the partner’s name.
Most candidates could not calculate goodwill.
Question 4(c) – Theory question. Candidates did not read the question carefully. Many gave the advantages of a
partnership.
Candidates wrote profits and losses are to be shared. This cannot be regarded as a disadvantage.
Answer
(a) Goodwill Account
N$ N$
2013 2013
May 1 Capital: Abrille 18 000 (1) May 1 Capital: Abrille 15 000 (1)
Capital: Faith 12 000 (1) Capital: Faith 7 500 (1)
Capital: Lucy 7 500 (1)
30 000 30 000
[5]

(b) Capital Accounts
Abrille Faith Lucy Abrille Faith Lucy

N$ N$ N$ N$ N$ N$
2013 15 000 (1) 7 500 (1) 7 500 (1) 2013
Goodwill Balance 60 000 (1) 45 000 (1)
May 1 O/F O/F O/F May 1
Balance 18 000 (1) 12 000 (1)
63 000 49 500 49 500 Goodwill
c/d O/F O/F
Bank 57 000 (1)
78 000 57 000 57 000 78 000 57 000 57 000
May 2 Balance 63 000 (1) 49 500 (1) 49 500 (1)

b/d O/F O/F O/F
[11]
(c) - Profits have to be shared with another partner
- Decision-making may take longer
- More chance of disagreements occurring
- Decisions have to be recognised by all three partners/Joint policy decisions have to be followed by all
partners Any three x 2 [6]
[22]
5 This question was fairly answered.
Candidates had to indicate whether it was income or expenditures in the Income and Expenditure account. Many
candidates lost marks because they did not show the headings.
Most candidates could not calculate depreciation using the reducing balance method.
Most candidates could not calculate the prepaid adjustment in no. 3.
Candidates did not know that only the net loss of tournaments is entered under expenditure and not under income.
Most centres entered tournament entries under income and tournament expenses under expenditures.
Wrong terminology was used. Candidates used net profit/loss instead of surplus/deficit or Capital instead of
accumulated fund.
Candidates still struggle with the balance sheet layout. Proper headings are necessary. Abbreviations should not
be used. Candidates also had a problem with adding the depreciation calculated with the depreciation in the Trial
Balance and then entered it in the Balance Sheet.
Candidates wrote provision for depreciation instead of depreciation in the Income and Expenditure account.
Non-current Assets/Fixed Assets information with proper headings is essential.
The correct names of accounts, e.g. Accrued Income, Prepaid Expenses, Accrued Expenses and Income Received
in advance must be used and not Insurance prepaid, etc.
Answer
(a) Katriena’s Hunting Club
Income and Expenditure Account of for the year ended 28 February 2013
N$ N$ N$
Income 19 000
Membership fees/Subscription 19 000 (2)
(17 750 + 1 500 - 250)
Less Expenditure 17 290
Secretary’s Honorarium (1 870 + 130) 2 000 (1)
Tournament loss Expenses 6 700
Entries 5 500 1 200 (1)
Insurance (4 650 - 80) 4 570 (1)
Depreciation: Vehicles 3 520 (1)
Equipment 3 200 (1) 6 720
Vehicle Maintenance 2 800 (1)
Surplus of income over expenditure (1) 1 710

OR
Katriena’s Hunting Club
Income and Expenditure Account of for the year ended 28 February 2013
Expenditure N$ Income N$
Secretary’s Honorarium (1 870 + 130) 2 000 (1) Membership fees/ 19 000 (2)
Subscription (17 750 + 1 500 – 250)
Tournament loss (6 700 – 5 500)
1 200 (1)
Insurance (4 650 – 80) 4 570 (1)
Depreciation: Vehicles 3 520 (1)
Equipment 3 200 (1) 6 720
Vehicle Maintenance 2 800 (1)
Surplus of income over expenditure (1) 1 710
19 000 19 000
[9]
(b) Katriena’s Hunting Club

Balance Sheet as at 28 February 2013
N$ N$ N$
ACCUMULATED FUND
Balance 41 400 (1)
Add: Surplus 1 710 (1)(O/F)
43 110
EMPLOYMENT OF FUNDS
Fixed Assets (Non-Current Assets) Cost Price Provision for Book Value
Depreciation
Vehicles 22 000 7 920 (1)(O/F) 14 080 (1) (O/F)
Equipment 32 000 6 400 (1)(O/F) 25 600 (1) (O/F)
54 000 14 320 39 680
Working capital 3 430
Current Assets 3 810
Bank 450 (1)
Savings Account 1 780 (1)
Accrued Income 1 500 (1)
Prepaid expenses 80 (1)(O/F)
Current Liabilities 380
Accrued Expenses 130 (1)
Income Received in advance 250 (1)
43 110
Horizontal format acceptable [12]
(c) Advantages
- Increase in annual income/accumulated fund
- Increase in bank balance/better cash flow
- Club can provide better facilities/service/expanding, because of more cash/income/surplus Any one x 2
Disadvantages
- Fall in membership
- Difficult to attract new members
- Member not paying Any one x 2 [4]
[25]

Teachers must give more practice exercises, e.g. use previous question papers with proper mark schemes. Emphasise
the importance of dates. The best way for students to use the proper layout is to learn the layouts. Internal marking
should be very strict and feedback on every test/task/exam must be given. Teachers must use the syllabus for teaching
and not only the textbook.

AFRIKAANS AS A SECOND LANGUAGE
4115
Paper 1
Algemene kommentaar
Weer eens baie dankie aan al die taalonderwysers wat hard gewerk het om hul kandidate op standaard te kry. Hierdie
jaar was die taalgebruik en taalversorging aansienlik beter as in vorige jare. Slegs enkele gevalle van kru taal het
voorgekom.
Die kandidate se leesvaardighede was ook beter, soos geblyk het uit hul antwoorde. Al die kandidate ken egter nog nie
die verskil tussen “noem”, “volsin” en “sinsdeel,” nie. Onthou, LEES bly maar die sleutel tot `n uitgebreide woordeskat
en sukses in die beantwoording van `n vraestel.
Dit wil voorkom asof die leesstukke in hierdie jaar se vraestel meer toeganklik was vir die kandidate. Maak gerus
gebruik van die wenk, soos in verlede jaar se verslag genoem, om gebruik te maak van tydskrifte om u kandidate te
“leer” om beeldmateriaal te ‘lees’. Dit kan terselfdertyd `n les interessant en kleurvol maak.
Die opsomming in notavorm is baie swak beantwoord. Baie meer aandag sal aan hierdie aspek geskenk moet word.
Goeie skryfstukke is hierdie jaar gelewer, behalwe in sommige gevalle waar die opdrag verkeerd geïnterpreteer
is. Paragrafering en vormfoute het weer kop uitgesteek. Dril dit tog in dat daar slegs enkele skryfstukke is waar
paragrafering nie gedoen word nie. Min kandidate kon `n goeie artikel skryf. Ten slotte, noem dit vir u kandidate dat die
skoon bladsy benut moet word vir beplanning.
Kommentaar op individuele vrae
AFDELING 1
Oefening 1
1-5 Die meeste kandidate het dit reg beantwoord.
Oefening 2
6-8 Die meeste kandidate het hierdie vrae goed beantwoord.
9&10 Die antwoorde van die twee vrae is deur baie kandidate omgeruil.
Oefening 3
11-14 Die meeste kandidate het hierdie vrae goed beantwoord.

Baie kandidate het egter die opdrag van volsinne geïgnoreer en gevolglik punte verbeur.
AFDELING 2
Oefening 1
15-19 Hierdie afdeling oor taalvaardighede is oor die algemeen swak beantwoord. Dit blyk duidelik dat hierdie afdeling
by sommige sentra nog baie afgeskeep word. Ons wil u as taalonderwysers aanmoedig om meer aandag daaraan
te gee.
Die nuwer handboeke beskik nie oor baie vasleggingsoefeninge nie, maar u kan altyd weer in u argief gaan soek
na oefeninge in die ouer taalboeke.

Oefening 2
20 Die meeste kandidate het die vraag baie goed beantwoord. Die blokvorm en invul van vorms kan tog maar steeds
gereeld ingeoefen word.
Oefening 3
21 Die opsomming in notavorm bly steeds `n taai toffie. Skenk baie aandag aan hierdie vaardigheid en moedig
leerlinge aan om meer te lees. Laat hulle dan die kerngedagte van `n paragraaf neerskryf.
Daar is altyd meer feite, maar die kandidate moet onthou dat punte vir taal en styl ook toegeken word.
AFDELING 3
Oefening 1
22 Die meerderheid kandidate het daarin geslaag om oulike en oortuigende raad te gee. Heelwat vormfoute het egter
voorgekom, soos swak of geen paragrafering nie. Baie kandidate het die aanhef en slot verkeerd gehad. In baie
gevalle is die slot weggelaat.
Oefening 2
23 Slegs enkele kandidate het wel die opdrag behoorlik gelees en `n artikel geskryf. Die ander het dit óf nie gelees
nie, óf nie geweet wat die vorm van `n artikel is nie. Die inhoud van die skryfstukke was maar gemiddeld, want
weinig kandidate het al die aspekte aangeraak wat die opdrag vereis het. In enkele gevalle is die opdrag net so
oorgeskryf of is die twee onderwerpe “deurmekaar geklits”.

4115
Paper 2
Algemene kommentaar
Weer eens baie dankie aan al die taalonderwysers wat hard gewerk het om hul kandidate op standaard te kry. Hierdie
jaar was die taalgebruik en taalversorging aansienlik beter as in vorige jare. Slegs enkele gevalle van kru taal het
voorgekom.
Die kandidate se leesvaardighede was ook beter, soos geblyk het uit hul antwoorde. Al die kandidate ken egter nog nie
die verskil tussen “noem,” “volsin” en “sinsdeel,” nie. Onthou, LEES bly maar die sleutel tot `n uitgebreide woordeskat
en sukses in die beantwoording van `n vraestel.
Dit wil voorkom asof die leesstukke in hierdie jaar se vraestel meer toeganklik was vir die kandidate. Maak gerus
gebruik van die wenk, soos in verlede jaar se verslag genoem, om gebruik te maak van tydskrifte om u kandidate te
“leer” om beeldmateriaal te ‘lees’. Dit kan terselfdertyd `n les interessant en kleurvol maak.
Die opsomming is relatief goed beantwoord. Dit sal goed wees as u u kandidate ook voorberei vir die opsomming in
notavorm.
Goeie skryfstukke is hierdie jaar gelewer, behalwe in sommige gevalle waar die opdrag verkeerd geïnterpreteer
is. Paragrafering en vormfoute het weer kop uitgesteek. Dril dit tog in dat daar slegs enkele skryfstukke is waar
paragrafering nie gedoen word nie. Min kandidate kon `n goeie artikel skryf. Ten slotte, noem dit vir u kandidate dat die
skoon bladsy benut moet word vir beplanning.
AFDELING 1
Oefening 1
1-8 Die meeste kandidate het dit reg beantwoord.
Oefening 2
9 Slegs enkele kandidate kon hierdie idioom uit die leesstuk aflei.
10-11 Die vrae het nie probleme opgelewer nie.
12 Sommige kandidate het lukraak `n stuk uit die leesstuk gehaal en dan inderwaarheid geraai.
Oefening 3
13-17 Die meeste kandidate het hierdie vrae goed beantwoord. Baie kandidate het die opdrag van volsinne geïgnoreer
en gevolglik punte verbeur.
AFDELING 2
Oefening 1
18-24 Hierdie afdeling oor taalvaardighede is in die algemeen swak beantwoord. Dit blyk duidelik dat hierdie afdeling
by sommige sentra nog baie afgeskeep word.
U sal ernstig aandag aan hierdie afdeling moet gee by u skole.
Oefening 2
25 Die meeste kandidate kon nie die vraag interpreteer nie.

26 Hierdie vraag is baie swak beantwoord. Dit het duidelik geblyk dat die kandidate nie weet wat die verskil tussen `n
sinsdeel en `n sin is nie.
27-28 Die meeste kandidate het daarin geslaag om dié vrae te beantwoord.
Oefening 3
29 Die opsomming in paragraafvorm is oor die algemeen bevredigend beantwoord. Die meeste kandidate beskik oor
goeie opsommingsvaardighede en weet hoe om feite te orden en dan as `n afgeronde geheel aan te bied. Daar
was enkele gevalle waar kandidate dit puntsgewys oorgeskryf het of dit in twee paragrawe geskryf het.
Daar is altyd meer feite, maar die kandidate moet onthou dat punte ook vir taal en styl ook toegeken word.
AFDELING 3
Oefening 1
30 Die meerderheid kandidate het daarin geslaag om oulike en oortuigende raad te gee. Heelwat vormfoute het egter
voorgekom, soos swak of geen paragrafering nie. Baie kandidate het die aanhef en slot verkeerd gehad. In baie
gevalle is die slot weggelaat.
Oefening 2
31 Slegs enkele kandidate het wel die opdrag behoorlik gelees en `n artikel geskryf. Die ander het dit óf nie gelees
nie, óf nie geweet wat die vorm van `n artikel is nie. Die inhoud van die skryfstukke was maar gemiddeld, want
weinig kandidate het al die aspekte aangeraak wat die opdrag vereis het. In enkele gevalle is die opdrag net so
oorgeskryf of is die twee onderwerpe “deurmekaar geklits”.
Oefening 3
32 In baie gevalle is die idees wat gegee is, net so gebruik, maar in ander gevalle was daar baie oulike skryfstukke.
Baie kandidate het egter oor omgewingsbewaring deur die gemeenskap geskryf en heeltemal vergeet van die
opdrag: Maniere waarop skoliere kan help om die aarde te red.

4115
Paper 3
Algemene opmerkings
Kandidate het probeer om die vraestel na die beste van hulle vermoë te beantwoord.
Baie dankie aan al die kollegas wat kandidate so getrou vir die eksamen voorberei. Daar is egter altyd nog aspekte wat
aangespreek moet word:
1 Luisterbegrip moet geoefen word, in graad 11 en verder dan in graad 12. Tekste hoef nie altyd as klankopnames
beskikbaar te wees nie. Gebruik tekste (wat u voorlees) met definitiewe instruksies en vrae. Gebruik die bestaande
vraestelle om as gids en riglyne te dien.
2 Die volgende moet pertinent vir die kandidate geleer word:
(a) Antwoorde moet pas in die spasies wat daarvoor voorsien world.
(b) As die eerste probeerslag verkeerd is, moet dit netjies deurgehaal word. Die regte antwoord moet dan bokant
die deurgehaalde antwoord geskryf word.
(c) Elke opdrag moet korrek uitgevoer word.

Byvoorbeeld, as die antwoord met ŉ kruisie (x) aangedui moet word, is ŉ regmerkie (√) total onaanvaarbaar.
(d) Die antwoord moet bestaan uit wat hulle hoor.
(e) Geen ander taal, behalwe Afrikaans word aanvaar nie, allermins Engels.
(f) Netjiese werk is ŉ vereiste en nie opsioneel nie.
3 Kandidate se houding teenoor hierdie vraestel moet bewustelik verander word. Baie van hulle is die mening toe
gedaan dat hierdie vraestel afgeskeep kan word. Waarheid: In hierdie vraestel kry kandidate redelike geleentheid
om hulle prestasie in die vak te verbeter.
4 Aanbieders in hierdie vak moet altyd hul bes doen om al vier (4) die komponente deeglik te onderrig. Kandidate
het dan maksimum geleentheid om op hulle beste te presteer in elkeen van hierdie komponente.
Afdeling 1
1 1960/Meeste het goed beantwoord.
2 1 uit 5/Baie het dit verwar met .
3 ŉ halfuur/Engelse “a” en “halve” was ŉ probleem hier.
4 Help organe funksioneer./Die spelling van “funksioneer” het gelei tot die verlies van punte.
5 Dit oefen die bolyf./Die spelling van ”bolyf” was ŉ probleem.
6 Kalmeer voordat jy eksamen skryf./Die meeste kandidate het slegs die eerste gedeelte van die antwoord verskaf.

Afdeling 2
Oefening 1:
(a) (Koepel) tente/ ŉ Redelike persentasie het dit as “Berg Kenia” geantwoord.
(b) Landskap/Spelling het die antwoord hier beiŉvloed.
(c) Sonskyn/spelling was die ergste probleem.
(d) 4985 m/meter/”m” of “meter” is weggelaat.
(e) 9/nege/Redelik goed beantwoord, soms die enigste korrekte antwoord in die vraag.
(f) Warm sjokolade/Die Engelse spelling het kandidate punte laat verloor.
(g) Tee/die Engelse spelling het kandidate punte laat verloor.
(h) Die meeste aande/
(i) 8/Baie kandidate kon slegs “i” korrek beantwoord.
(j) (laat) opgebly/Waninterpretering het gelei tot uiteenlopende antwoorde.
Oefening 2:
8 Onwaar
9 Waar
10 Waar
11 Onwaar
12 Onwaar
13 Waar
14 Onwaar
15 Waar
Die meeste kandidate kon hierdie vraag goed beantwoord. Die grootse knelpunt was dat die meeste by Vraag 15
“Suider-Afrikaners” met “Suid-Afrikaners” verwar het.
Afdeling 3
Oefening 1:
16 1800 m/meter/Sommige kandidate het “m”/”meter” weggelaat.
17 Die (sogenaamde) Witvrou/White Lady/Die oorgrote meerderheid kon die vraag korrek beantwoord. Probleem
was “Wit Lady” en “White vrou”.
18 Hy het gedink dit was ŉ tekening van ŉ (wit) Europese besoeker/mens. /Die spelling van “Europese” is verwar met
Engels en is beantwoord as “Europease”.

19 Plaaslike mense/kunstenaars/klipmesselaars /Sommige het “plaaslike” weggelaat. /Die spelling van “kunstenaars”
het verskillende variasies aangeneem.
20 Die tekening word in die geskiedenisboeke die “White Lady” genoem. Die gebruik van “dit” in die antwoord was
verwarrend. Waninterpretering van “flater”.
Oefening 2:
21 Hy is in ŉ sandstorm vasgevang. /Die antwoord was soms nie volledig nie. “Vasgevang” is gespel as “Wasgevang”.
22 1908/Die meeste kandidate was suksesvol met hierdie antwoord.
23 Deur met hulle hande deur die sand te sif. /Die vraag is redelik goed beantwoord, behalwe waar daar ŉ probleem
was met die spelling van “gesif”.
24 3/drie/Meestal korrek beantwoord.
25 Dat die inwoners in weelde/weelderig/ryk gelewe het. /Baie kon nie die vraag in konteks beantwoord nie. Die
spelling van “inwoners” en “weelderig” het die puntetoekenning beïnvloed.
Positiewe voorstelle vir onderwysers
1 Kandidate moet die eksamenlokaal selfversekerd betree om dié vraestel te kan beantwoord. Daarom moet hulle
deeglik voorberei word om ̶
(a) na die opdrag te luister terwyl dit voorgelees word
(b) die spesifieke vrae te verstaan en te bemeester in die gegewe tyd
(c) die opdragte korrek uit te voer en
(d) aan al die vereistes wat hierdie vraestel aan hulle stel, te voldoen.
2 Waar getalle betrokke is, is dit raadsaam dat die kandidate die antwoord in syfers skryf.
3 Kandidate moet slegs antwoord wat hulle hoor.
4 Kollegas moet klem lê op die gebruik van “ŉ” en kandidate doelbewus leer om die verwarring met die Engelse “a”
totaal uit te skakel.
5 Kollegas kan enige geskikte leermaterial, bv. tekste, liedjies, resepte, vorige nasionale vraestelle, ens. gebruik om
die kandidate goed voor te berei vir die eindeksamen.
6 Gebruik altyd vorige nasionale vraestelle om u te vergewis van die vraestelformaat, tipe vrae, vraagstelling,
tegnieke, puntetoekenning, ens.

4115
Paper 4
General comments
First of all the moderators would like to thank all the examiners who tried their best and sent in good interviews.
Unfortunately, it was obvious to the moderators that there are still examiners who either do not read the examiner’s
report, or do not read the Examiner’s Booklet, therefore unnecessary mistakes still occurred. It is of utmost
importance that you adhere to the guidelines given, because it is to the benefit of your candidates.
THE NAMES ON THE SUMMARY FORMS MUST BE IN THE EXACT ORDER AS ON THE MS 1 FORM ̶ IN NUMERICAL
ORDER, NOT ALPHABETICALLY.
PLEASE, do not use the order on the checklist or the forecast form – they differ from the MS1.
If there is more than one teacher at a centre, do make sure that you do some standardisation beforehand, especially
when new teachers are involved. Each of you should then submit a CD with five recordings.
• There must still be ONE summary form for both teachers in the exact order as on the MS1 form.
• In the column for Class Group, the teacher puts his/her initials – not 12 A or 12 B.
• Please do internal moderation – there were many calculation mistakes this year.
Recording
Thank you for taking our advice on last year’s recordings. The noise levels as well as the interruptions during the
conversations, were less this year.
• It is better to record only 5 candidates per CD.
• Please check that the order on the CD is the same as on the blue cover letter and whether there is a recording on
the CD.
• This year we received CDs with no recordings on it.
• Indicate on the CD cover whether it is CD 1 or 2.
• Please save every recording in a separate file, not all in one folder.
Conversation
Some examiners took our advice and were friendly and enthusiastic. Unfortunately there were others who did not stick
to questions on daily life or school activities, but instead were negative and some questions were even very suggestive.
• We again want to remind you of the following:

• It is very important that you must be well prepared when you come to the examination venue.
• You as examiner should know your candidates and therefore should not select the most difficult topic for your
poorest candidate.
• Comments by the examiner must be in Afrikaans.
• Don’t answer your own questions, it is the candidate who must be evaluated.
• Notes are strictly forbidden!
• PLEASE READ YOUR EXAMINER’S BOOKLET.
Assessment
We would like to remind you to always stay objective when you evaluate your candidates. Evaluate what you hear and
do not be prejudiced. Examiners, you must be acquainted with the marking grid. Please bear in mind that the part-
time candidates are adults, more mature and in many cases more knowledgeable. They should not be evaluated more
severely.
WE URGE EXAMINERS TO TAKE HEED OF WHAT IS MENTIONED IN THE REPORT SENT TO THEM AND THEN
APPLY THE HINTS GIVEN.

AGRICULTURE
4321
Paper 1
General comments
The mean mark was 25.63. It has increased with 2.12 from 2012. This suggests that the candidates found the question
papers easier compared to 2012. The statistical module computer program highlighted 11 questions which were either
too easy or which learners found challenging. It appeared that in some of these questions learners failed to work out
the correct answer and resorted to guessing.
A: All candidates attempted this question, with only 99 getting it incorrect.
B: About 67.1% of the candidates knew that cutting down trees has the greatest effect on the water cycle.
C: The requirements for seed germination are water, warmth and air and about 72.9% of the candidates got the
answer correct.
B: The cuticle of a leaf reduces excessive evaporation. About 53.6% of the candidates got the answer correct.
B: Freehold being the land tenure system in Namibia that is based on ownership of the land and title deeds was not
known by 48.9% of the candidates.
D: A relatively easy question about HIV and AIDS was surprisingly left unanswered by one candidate while 0.7% of
the candidates got the answer incorrect.
B: Rainwater dissolving carbon dioxide to form carbonic acid was not known by 35.6% of the candidates.
C: The soil horizon made up of partially weathered rocks could be identified by 68.7% of the candidates.
C: Nitrites being changed to nitrates by the action of nitrifying bacteria was known by 61.5% of the candidates.
B: The fact that the application of organic matter helps to improve soil structure on arable land was known by 77.6%
of the candidates.
A: The increase of water in soil causes a decrease of air in the soil. This was not known by 57.6% of the candidates.
C: The candidates appeared to find this question very challenging, as only 13% of them knew that clay soil will have
a higher waterholding capacity compared to sandy soil because clay soil particles have a large total surface area.
A: A relatively easy question, yet 23.5% of the candidates still got the answer incorrect.
A: Soil erosion is increased when it has a low organic content. About 39.8% of the candidates did not know the correct
answer.
C: The soil structure refers to the grouping or arrangement of soil particles. This fact was known by about 64.8% of
the candidates.
B: Magnesium and nitrogen are needed for chlorophyll formation in plants. About 41.9% of the candidates did not get
the answer correct.
A: The correct order of size of soil particles from small to large is clay, silt, sand and gravel. This was known by 67.3%
of the candidates.
A: About 59% of the candidates knew that the absorption of mineral salts is an example of active transport.
C: It was evident that the candidates resorted to guessing and not calculating the correct answer as only 18.4% of the
candidates got the answer correct.
A: That aphids are a vector of viral diseases of crop plants was not known by 41.3% of the candidates.
A: The majority of the candidates could identify the pest in the diagram as an aphid.

C: Only about 15.2% of the candidates did not know that an aphid feeds by piercing and sucking.
A: Crop rotation and early planting was known by 79.9% of the candidates as methods of controlling weeds.
D: That starch is the main food storage in cereal seeds was known by 57.2% of the candidates.
C: The majority of the candidates knew that the testis is the part where sperms are produced.
B: The majority of the candidates knew the correct order of movement of food in the digestive system of a ruminant.
A: Candidates appeared to find this question about the cervix allowing entry of sperms to the uterus after mating
challenging.
C: Only about 5.6% of the candidates did not know that the function of proteins in an animal’s body is to repair wornout
tissues and for growth.
A: The majority of the candidates knew that dipping is a way of controlling parasites in livestock.
D: Surprisingly 65.1% of the candidates did not know that Newcastle disease is caused by a virus.
C: Only about 50% of the candidates could work out the outcome in a 3:1 ratio in sheep for wool length where both
parents are heterozygous.
D: A relatively easy question. The majority of the candidates knew that vaccination is necessary to prevent the spread
of infectious diseases in livestock.
A: Only 21.2% of the candidates knew that the function of droppers in a fence is to keep the fence in shape.
B: A relatively easy question as the majority of the candidates knew that pliers are used to tie wire during fencing.
C: Treating iron fencing posts are necessary to protect it from rusting was known by 85.9% of the candidates.
D: The majority of the candidates knew that dam structures are wider at the base than at the top to resist water
pressure which increases with depth.
D: Seeds and fertilisers are examples of farming essentials that contribute to variable costs for a farmer. This was
A: The majority of the candidates knew that farmers keep farm records to be able to show the profitability of a farm.
A: Only about 12.2% of the candidates knew that insuring the enterprise was necessary for any newly resettled farmer
to guard against risks.
C: The start of the stage of diminishing returns according to the graph illustrating the Law of diminishing Returns was
not known by 58.7% of the candidates.

4321
Paper 2
General comments
The performance of learners was a bit higher than in the previous year, with the majority of learners obtaining 40 to
50%. Very few scored above 70%.
Most learners could follow the general instructions concerning the choice of questions. The language proficiency
showed remains good with many learners able to spell most terms correctly.
Learners however, performed more poorly in the following syllabus topics:

• Sustainable Agriculture – the concept as well as sustainable ways of crop farming
• Animal breeding ̶ how breeding cycles can be managed to increase yield
• Agriculture economics ̶ profitability
• Pasture management – how pastures can be improved by using fertilisers and drainage and the dangers of
overstocking
• Cereal crops ̶ some centres did not know the maturity signs of a cereal crop
Key
R means reject that answer
/(slash) means an alternative answer
A means an acceptable answer
SECTION A
1 (a) Learners lost marks for repeating the word “sustainable” instead of using preserving natural resources. The
correct definition is:
preserving natural resources;
for future generation/future use/without depleting them;
(b) Many learners referred to decrease in food production instead of increase in food production.
more people need more food/high demand for food;
food will not be enough/shortage of food
high food prices;
high food production
(c) Some learners lost marks by referring to burning and slashing, or slash, burn as separate processes instead of
slash and burn as one process. The procedure of land reclamation should be written in the order of events:
slash and burn/clearing
stumping;
ploughing;
fertilising;
levelling/harrowing;
draining;
plugging gullies
(d) Many learners failed to match the effects with the activities. To get the marks, you should have answered as
follows:
Soil erosion – keeping soil under crop cover/grass strips/contours/plant trees/windbreaks/terracing/
use of chemicals
NB: Mulching is not used to reduce soil erosion but to reduce/minimise loss of soil moisture
fertility depletion – crop rotation/ploughing back crop residues/use of organic fertilisers/planting
legumes/green manuring
water pollution ̶ use organic farming/use non-pollutants/minimise the use of chemicals

2 (a) Many learners could not identify top soil layer correctly, they named humus as topsoil.
A – top soil;
B – sub-soil;
C – parent material/weathered material
(b) Some learners still referred to nutrients being washed away instead of washed downwards.
removal of nutrients by water downward;
out of reach of plant roots/
from layer A to layer B
(c) Many learners could not describe the chemical weathering process correctly. Some started with carbonic
acid before mentioning the combination of rain water and carbon dioxide. Some referred to carbon instead of
carbon dioxide.
carbon dioxide combines with rain water;
forming carbonic acid/weak acid/acid rain;
which causes rocks to dissolve or break down
OR
oxygen combines with iron in rocks;
forming iron oxide;
causing rocks to rust/break/dissolve/crumble/weaken mineral bond
(d) Many learners lost a mark for referring to the damage only without naming the activity.
deforestation/heavy irrigation/overgrazing; – causing erosion;
overcropping/monoculture; ̶ deplete fertility;
use of implements; – causing compaction;
burning; – destroys humus/destroys crumb structure/depletes fertility
3 (a) Many learners referred to NPK which is a compound fertiliser for all major nutrients and not only for potassium.
1 yellow leaves/stunted growth/poor growth
2 phosphorus;
3 muriate of potash/potash/potassium chloride/potassium permanganate/potassium sulphate
(b) Many learners referred to ways of fixing nitrogen into the soil in general and did not focus on plants. Some
referred to nodules and failed to mention the bacteria in the nodules. `Many learners did not know that plants/
bacteria have to die and decompose in order to release nitrogen to the soil for other plants to benefit.
legumes;
have nodules in their roots with bacteria;
which absorb nitrogen from the air and change it to ammonia and proteins/nitrates
when legumes decompose, nitrate is released into the soil
(c) Very few learners understood the question, many referred to inclusion of legumes in the field without referring
to rotation.
plough them in after they have grown/
include legumes in the crop rotation
(d) Many learners did not know that lime supplies

calcium
(e) Many learners referred to supply nutrients in general instead of referring to calcium. Some referred to improve
structure in general without mentioning clay. Few referred to the term flocculation.
reduce the acidity/
neutralise the pH/;
add calcium;
flocculate clay soil/improve clay structure/aeration/drainage

4 (a) Some learners lost marks in B by referring to fruit, which is not a process but fruit development.
A – transpiration/absorption/osmosis
B – reproduction/seed growth/fruit development;
/fertilisation/pollination
C – photosynthesis/diffusion
(b) Many learners could identify the process correctly as

respiration
(c) Many learners confused translocation with osmosis. Many failed to name the process. The correct answer
was:
translocation of/synthesised food/movement of sugars;
to the rest of the plant/to the roots
(d) Learners lost marks by referring to movement of water instead of water molecules.
movement of water molecules from a region of higher water potential to a lower water potential/from
high to lower concentration of water molecules/from weak to strong solution; through a partially
permeable membrane
(e) Most leaners obtained full marks by providing correct points.

provide water to all plant parts/provide water to cells/cooling the plant;
prevent wilting;
keep cells firm/keep plant firm/keep cells turgid;
opening (and closing) of stomata/working of guard cells;
absorb water from the soil;
provide water for photosynthesis;
provide water as a solvent;
allow plants to extract nutrients from the soil
(f) Many confused the question with animal reproduction by referring to sex intercourse, mating, etc. The correct
definition was:
propagation of plants by using parts of a parent plant/one parent/without gametes/without
fertilisation
(g) Many learners who answered (f) correctly could identify the examples correctly
sweet potato/cassava/Irish potato/yam/sugar cane/banana/sisal/pineapple/pawpaw/any other plant
that is propagated;
5 (a) Some learners confused the two terms. Some learners referred to animals stopping to breastfeed. Some
referred to lactation as production of first milk. Some referred to a process instead of a period.
(i) weaning – when the young stop suckling from the mother to move from milk to solid/
transition from milk to solid;
(ii) lactation – the period of time when the female animal produces milk
(b) Many learners could not read and interpret the graph correctly. Some gave the number of days instead of
months which were in the graph. Some referred to kilograms.
gestation – 9 months;
lactation – 9.5 months/9 months and 2 weeks/9.4 months
(c) Many learners repeated the first part of the question by saying “The growth of the calf…” instead of referring
to growing bigger. Many failed to obtain the second mark which required a point on why the milk decreases
when the foetus becomes bigger. The correct answer was:
when the calf/foetus grows bigger, the yield is goes down/
the smaller the calf/foetus, the higher the yield;
nutrients going to the calf in the uterus rather than into milk

(d) Many learners referred to a production ration and not to a specific nutrient. Many did not qualify their answers
by giving the reason for the nutrient at that stage.
protein ̶ for the growing calf/foetus
OR
calcium ̶ for milk production
(e) Many learners referred to mating of animal at the right time and failed to recognise that the emphasis is on
when the calves are to be born.
calves are born at the correct time;
calves born at the same time to exploit the market;
during the rainy season;
when there is enough food;
to prevent them from dying;
to make sure that cows have food to produce milk;
animals are in a good condition for mating;
6 (a) Many learners referred to tools such as pliers instead of materials.

wire/poles/droppers/wood/nails/
concrete/ cement/sand/water;
(b) Many learners could not spell the word “strengthen” correctly
to brace the fence/strengthen/tighten/support/keep firm
(c) Many referred to the features of the fence instead of the gate features.
large/big for animals to pass through;
durable/strong enough;
high to keep animals inside;
able to open and close/wide/flexible;
lockable/fastened/secure
(d) Some learners referred to branches or dead plants instead of living plants.
bushes/trees/shrubs planted in a line to form a barrier/fence
(e) The majority obtained full marks. Few referred to harbouring of pests.
lots of labour;
need regular maintenance/need trimming/pruning;
large animals might jump over/small animals can penetrate through/not stock proof;
easily destroyed by fire/termites/not durable/rot easily;
take long to grow
7 (a) The majority of learners could not separate income from costs. Learners did not know the term auction.
income = 32 000;
cost = 11 050;
total profit = 32 000 – 11 050 = 20 950
(b) Many learners failed to link the demand and supply to the price of commodities in order to determine the farm
profitability
higher demand; leads to higher price; high profitability;
and vice versa
OR
higher supply; lower price; low profitability

SECTION B
8 (a) Many learners could not draw the water cycle. Some could not place the processes correctly.
all processes: evaporation;
condensation;
precipitation/rainfall/raining
transpiration;
drainage/seepage/infiltration
run-off;
respiration;
R-absorption
(b) Many learners repeated the same effects on both wind and temperature and could be credited twice. Some
referred to high, low and optimum temperatures.
Similar effects
windy conditions/high temperatures:
increase/more evaporation;
increase/more transpiration;
wilting/loss in turgidity;
stomata close;
CO2 cannot enter/diffuse into leaves;
limiting photosynthesis
Windy only
physical damage
remove excess moisture from leaves/leaf surfaces, thus prevent fungal diseases;
aid pollination;
dispersal of seeds
High temperatures only

driy out soil surface;
enzymes denatures;

9 (a) Many learners failed to encircle the gametes. Some started the crossing right from the parent genotype.
B = dominant black
b = recessive brown
bull x cow;
Bb x Bb;
B b x B b
BB Bb Bb bb;
Phenotype: Black black black brown/3 black and 1 brown;
(b) Many learners listed factors to consider when selecting animals for breeding without referring to qualities by
qualifying them.
high productivity/high yield;
good/appropriate/correct body size;
correct conformation/good body shape
strong legs;
high fertility rate;
more/high number of progeny/high number of offspring;
resistance to drought;
resistance to diseases and pests;
adaptability to local conditions;
high growth rate/fast growth/matures early
(c) Many learners referred to negative effects only, forgetting that genetic engineering has many positive effects.
may result in defects/abnormalities/mutation/change in genetic make-up;
result in incurable diseases;
improve yield/productivity/production;
improve quality of products;
used to produce vaccine;
animals become resistant to diseases;
increase fertility/number of offspring;
adaptability;
fast growth
10 (a) Many learners lost marks by referring to general terms such as, that plants grow well. Some learners described
the ways of draining the land instead of the reasons and the benefits of draining.
fertilisers – fertilier application adds nutrients to the soil;
improves quality of grass;
provides more food for animals/increases plant/grass production;
drainage – removes excess water from the soil;
makes plant roots to respire/aeration/prevents rotting;
promotes microbial activities
(b) Many learners could not give the correct points. They failed to refer to points that are directly linked to
overstocking. For farm finances, learners referred to decrease of finances instead of income or profit.
(i) environment: too many animals can lead to ̶
overgrazing;
soil compaction;
lower productivity of the area
(ii) farm finances: poor quality of meat/milk/products;
lower quantity of meat/milk/products/low productivity/production;
resulting in low income/profit;
spending money on buying fodder;
spending money on buying medicine

(c) The majority of learners could answer this question correctly. A few lost marks by referring to breeding control,
which has nothing to do with rotation.
allows camps/fields to rest/
regrow/reseed;
prevents overgrazing/prevents selective grazing;
controls pests and diseases;
always food available;
improves the productivity of the veld
11 (a) Some learners lost marks for (i) and (ii) by naming a root crop instead of a cereal crop. Learners could
describe the soil and climatic requirements correctly. Most learners did not know how to recognise maturity
for a cereal crop. They referred to leaves turning yellow. Some referred to kernels to be fresh instead of dry.
Some referred to time of harvesting instead of method.
maize/millet/wheat/sorghum/rice/barley/oats
(i) requires deep;
fertile;
well drained/well aerated soil;
with pH of 5.5 – 7.0/8.0
requires high temperature/sensitive to frost;
good rainfall of 450 – 900 mm per annum/high rainfall;
needs a lot of sunshine
(ii) kernels dry/hard
Moisture content of 12 – 15%
leaves turn brown;
cobs hang downwards;
use combine harvester/use hands
store in dry conditions;
free from insects and other pests/apply fungicide/dust powder/ashes;
well ventilated/cool conditions;
clean
(b) Many learners obtained full marks for this question. A few referred to resistance to local conditions instead of
adaptable.
short growing period/matures early;
high yield/production;
quality products;
resistance to diseases and pests;
adaptable to local environment
Positive suggestion to teachers

• Teachers are advised to keep examiners’ reports as their teaching tool and not only for the resource file.
• Teachers should use correct agricultural terms when teaching.
• Resource books are to be used as supplementary rather than as textbooks for learners. The syllabus should be
used as the guide for teaching.
• Agriculture is a technical subject and therefore requires more knowledge then just following the textbook. Teachers
are therefore advised to seek assistance from extension officers in their areas, especially when teaching farm
structures, soil science and economics.
• Teachers are encouraged to ensure that learners get practical experience, especially with regard to cereal crop
production.
• Teachers should try by all means to use internet more regularly to confirm the correctness of the content when
teaching.
• Teachers in the same clusters/regions should work closely together and assist each other with content.
• Teachers should request their advisory office to use markers as resource teachers to conduct workshops about
examination-based teaching.
• Teachers should make a point of preparing their learners for examinations based on the specific requirements of
the examination paper.
• Teachers are encouraged to apply consistent marking throughout the year based on the marking requirements
provided in this report.

4321
Paper 3
General comments
The 2013 moderation exercise once again showed that many centres submitted most of the required relevant information
and documents for the moderation process. It was noted that this year, some centres shared worksheets of good quality
which included well generated specific marking points that benefited all. Nevertheless, the moderation team still wants
to emphasise the point that it would show more professionalism and commitment if individual centres could produce
own worksheets that suit the situation at specific centres. However, where sharing of worksheets is considered, such
arrangements need to be coordinated to the extent that all examiners should be involved in the development of the
worksheets in order to share expertise and skills in the whole process. This arrangement was perhaps realised among
other centres, especially in Khomas Region and some centres in the northern region where there were indications that
individual centres were in fact involved in the development of these worksheets. It must be noted that centres may
share some worksheets, but must never share the photographs which provide evidence for the tasks carried out by
each specific centre, because each centre is supposed to make sure that their learners were all physically involved in
doing the activities which are reflected in the photos provided for the moderation purpose. It was further noted with
some concern that some centres, especially part-time centres, still do not submit all the required documents for external
moderation.
Appropriateness of assessment tasks
Whereas there was an improvement in the appropriateness of the practical tasks selected by the centres the standard
of the practical activities produced by some centres was still not impressive for 2012. The actual standard of the
worksheets produced by some centres was below the level of senior secondary learners, e.g. chicken farm, weevils in
grains and determination of soil texture. These could be part of a bigger task. This trend can be attributed to the fact
that many centres conducted their practical activities very late, as reflected in the dates of learners’ written work and
some photos submitted. It was observed that if practical activities were carried out over a period of two years many
centres would conduct practical activities of high quality.
It was, noted that some centres continue to select practical tasks from all sections of the syllabus including Agricultural
Economics, while others concentrated on one or two sections only. It was furthermore realised that only very few centres
developed practical tasks that assess investigative skills. It remains a general trend that most centres prepare simple
tasks which are not challenging for candidates at this level. As mentioned earlier, the layout and presentation of the
worksheets were of an acceptable standard, but there is still room for improvement in the quality of the worksheets to a
higher standard. It is therefore recommended that, where possible, the worksheets should include candidates’ written
work as well as the specific marking criteria to make it easier for the moderator to verify marks awarded to candidates.
It was interesting to note that again this year, 2013, contrary to last year, the common task on “Seedbed preparation”
was more dominant. All centres are advised to make use of the “Distance Training Manual for Grade 12 Agriculture”
when selecting topics for practical exercises. It was furthermore appreciated that once again no project work was
submitted for moderation from all the centres as they all seem to continuously adhere to previous recommendations.
Centres should know that project work is not part of the syllabus specifications and need therefore not be assessed.
In addition, new centres are strongly urged to acquire the “Distance Training Manual for Agriculture” to guide them
in conducting course work for Grade 11 and 12 Agriculture. This manual is obtainable at the Ministry (NIED) and all
regional offices in the country.
Interpretation and application of assessment criteria
As usual, most centres were aware of the five assessment criteria that should be assessed in each practical task.
Many centres, like in the past, were able to identify specific marking points on individual practical tasks. However, a
few centres still experienced problems in generating appropriate and specific marking points which are required for the
awarding of marks to candidates.
Some of the centres continue to be too lenient in awarding marks compared to the candidates’ actual performance.
This usually leads to inconsistencies in the performance of the candidates in coursework (Paper 3) and the written
examination (Paper 2). It is also important for the centres to realise that written work generated from practical tasks
should be set at an appropriate level for all candidates and should be linked to the practical activity at hand. It is thus
important for the centre to always ensure that the marks awarded to candidates are valid and realistic. The written
work should be based on practical tasks that are assessed and should be set at an appropriate level that will help

candidates to apply practical knowledge and concepts in Paper 2 and 3. Again, some centres failed to provide evidence
of candidates’ written work. Remember, written work from the candidates is important, as it proves that they participated
in the carrying out of the assessment task/s.
Administration
It was appreciated that many of the centres complied with all the administrative procedures necessary for moderation
purposes. Centres are commended for providing information in a neat and organised manner. It was noticed this
year that some centres still put in extra effort by providing this information in well-organised files. This made the
moderation exercise much easier. In addition, some centres managed to submit (provide) specimens for practical
activities conducted at these centres. This proved most helpful to the moderating team.
Centres are reminded that internal moderation is only applicable in a centre where two or more teachers teach Grade 12
candidates. Centres are referred to the reverse side of the course work assessment summary form for more information.
Furthermore, centres are as usual advised to always make use of the new forms supplied by the Ministry where
raw marks are entered and should therefore not scale down marks. In addition, centres are advised that only 10
samples of candidates’ individual record cards should be submitted for moderation purposes. The rest of the individual
record cards should be safely kept by the centre till after the release of the results. This recommendation is not adhered
to by many centres as the office continues to receive a large number of individual record cards which are not needed. It
is important to verify before sealing the envelope that all the necessary information for external moderation is enclosed
in the envelope.
In general, the completion of the following documents was well done:

MS1 mark sheets
Assessment Summary forms
Individual Candidates’ Record Cards
In conclusion, the performance experienced from all centres has been satisfactory compared to the previous year, as
signs of negligence from only a few centres were evident. It is therefore recommended that training be arranged
for underperforming centres with the aim of assisting them in conducting and administering school-based
assessment in this subject. There are indeed certain schools that are destitute and need urgent support like those
in the Tsumkwe area.

ART AND DESIGN
0400
Paper 1
General comments
Responses to the questions were fairly evenly spread between Section A and B.
Q2 and Q6 were the most popular; followed by Q1 and Q8. Q4 was the least popular.
All questions offered a broad range of opportunities for observation, personal interpretation and experimentation.
Genres included landscape, portrait, fantasy, abstraction, pattern making/design, natural and man-made forms. Many
candidates had used the preparatory period well to gather information and explore ideas although many would have
benefitted from spending time planning alternative compositions whether answering questions from Section A or B.
The majority of the work was figuratively based either drawn or painted, although some experimented with pattern
and printing processes which were then used to good effect in collages and mixed media pieces. There were some
submissions resolved through photography or three-dimensional approaches, both of which are entirely appropriate.
Work seen at the higher levels was characterised by; maturity of concept, personal, imaginative and innovative
interpretations, research into relevant established artists, a very strong understanding of a journey throughout the
preparatory studies, excellent control of media and use of processes, a willingness to take risks and a considered
approach to presentation, particularly with photographic and three-dimensional submissions.
Work seen at the mid level also had some good concepts but at times lacked coherence and focus in the supporting
studies. Confidence with media handling was not so evident and in some cases the final outcomes did not ‘live up’
to the promises seen in the supporting studies. A number of candidates did not understand the importance of ideas
development choosing instead to present their supporting studies as a series of unrelated finished pieces which lacked
a cohesive journey.
At the lower levels, it was evident that many candidates appeared to follow a formula when producing their supporting
studies, inevitably resulting in a lack of personal qualities. Although there was some degree of experimentation with
media, clearly most candidates required a lot more practice in this area and a greater understanding of formal elements
in general. Some candidates were unsure of what their final outcomes should be as some of their compositions
remained unresolved. Much of the research carried out into other artists was largely irrelevant, it did little to inform ideas
or the work of the candidate.
In some cases it was a real pleasure to see sheets of research where one study had been linked to another across the
whole sheet, clearly showing the progress of an idea or technique.
The majority of candidates produced final pieces which filled an A2 sheet; consideration could be given as to whether
this format was appropriate as many of the supporting studies were more successful in either a different format or scale.
A2 is the maximum size, smaller paper is perfectly acceptable.
Some candidates chose to use different media in their final piece which sadly lacked the confidence of that displayed
in their supporting studies.
Question 1: A stack of books beside a table lamp Another book is open with a note pad and pen.
On the whole, interpretations of this question were very literal and direct. More often than not the elements were
arranged in one way and then photographed. Drawings and paintings were made directly from the photographs.

However, the best work showed thorough preparation and development work from first hand observation as well as
extensive experimentation with materials, lighting, colour and composition. A mature understanding of linear perspective
in the stack of books, note pad and the ellipses seen in the table lamp was apparent. These candidates explored the
effect that changing the direction of light from the table lamp had on the composition and they experimented with a
variety of media to achieve a dramatic effect, including oil pastel, paint and collage.
At the lower end, the basic shapes were present but large empty spaces of white paper dominated the page. Candidates
often left out the lamp altogether giving them added problems with composition. Many did not handle the use of
perspective with the books, and media control and drawing was generally poor.
Question 2: A selection of peeled and segmented or sliced fruit. Include the peel.
This was the most popular question and again a question to which responses were almost entirely observational. Some
of the best work submitted for this paper, however, was in response to this question.
Higher levels included studies of a range of fruit in a variety of states of being peeled, segmented or sliced, all clearly
drawn from direct observation and in a wide range of materials including pencil, paint and pastel. Other responses
saw additional objects such as cloths, bowls, or lighting to enhance the colours of the fruit. Some fruit was tempting
enough to eat! Supporting studies indicated a confidence with experimenting with media and clearly candidates had
explored different techniques to achieve successful outcomes that demonstrated an understanding of colour, form and
composition. The use of different coloured, and sometimes textured papers was an effective tool here.
Work seen in the mid-level relied on copying the same images in different media, and although accurate, the work
often lacked enough evidence of a real understanding of the form or texture of the fruit. The supporting studies did not
develop the initial drawings other than to change the media used. Candidates could have explored more fully elements
such as scale, background, composition and viewpoints.
Submissions achieving the lowest levels often simplified the form and structure of the fruit into very basic shapes.
Candidates were not able to create a range of tones within the chosen media and there was very little experimentation
or understanding of composition.
Question 3: Belts and buckles
Candidates seemed more prepared to ‘play’ with the arrangement of the elements for this question. There were some
quite interesting developments involving two or three belts intertwined and rearranged in search of more ambitious
solutions to the question.
The variety of belts available gave considerable scope for candidates to explore more personal avenues of enquiry and
to develop more original proposals.
Works seen in the higher level were detailed observational drawings of real belts showing the textures of the materials
they were made with. Some black and white buckles were enlarged and arranged on top of each other to overlap. The
leather texture was achieved through minute marks in spirals and removed by a resist method to show white lines.
Many mid level candidates worked in a range of media and achieved high marks for exploration and development of an
idea, but few were able to select and control the media to levels above ‘satisfactory’.
Lower level submissions failed to understand the overlapping and twisting form of the belts, some had clearly drawn or
traced from photographs and were unable to vary the scale or experiment with the composition.
Question 4: A person kneeling down to fasten their shoe
This question, although the least popular, attracted some strong submissions. Responses were notable for the use
of primary investigation through observational drawing based on the candidates’ own photographs of friends or family
fastening shoes. It was a challenging question incorporating understanding of the figure as a whole and particularly the
complexity of hands involved in the task. Some candidates clearly responded well to the challenge of rendering cloth,
sometimes very convincingly in coloured pencil.
Mid and lower level work showed some promise but many candidates struggled with proportion, foreshortening,
rendering of form and details such as the structure and form of hands. Photographic candidates did not pay enough
attention to lighting, the position and context of the subject and composition. Some submissions were little more than
snapshots with very repetitive supporting studies.

Question 5: Mending it
This question also attracted a fairly low number of responses with marks being spread evenly across the submissions.
It was interpreted widely with the best candidates conveying some imaginative ideas ranging from mending oneself
through self-improvement or prayer, the need for mending caused by social/political issues, surgery and actually
mending fabrics by stitching into the paper or using tromp l’oeil effects. A wide range of media were used including
threads and string for mixed media pieces.
Those gaining lower marks tended to opt for more obvious imagery such as broken hearts.
Question 6: On the edge
This was one of the most popular questions and submissions mainly achieved marks in the middle levels.
Candidates interpreted this question in a variety of ways but the most common was to explore the stresses and strains
of modern life on society. The most effective outcomes were achieved when the candidate had responded personally
to the question and their research dealt with pressures that were relevant to them, such as social pressure, academic
success and body image. Many of the submissions made use of photography and the more able candidates used these
to develop ideas by experimenting with manipulating the images and explored a range of media. Less able candidates
used second source imagery and often copied an image without developing it or changing it very much.
A small number of candidates successfully used exaggerated architectural viewpoints from below to create tension.
A few candidates at the high and mid-level responded to the question solely through photography, successfully using
‘joiners ‘to create a scene within which a drama occurred. Darker subject matter was popular in the mid and lower
levels with mental illness/ depression/ suicide/ anorexia being the most frequent themes for candidates to explore. At
these levels secondary source material was generally used as inspiration. Others at this level interpreted the question
more literally by placing figures near the edge of a high building, or painting a scene of mountaineers. Most of these
submissions were copied from secondary sources and lacked personal qualities.
Question 7: Distorted reflections
This was a popular question and candidates at the higher level in photography and painting and drawing had used
mirrors, glass containers full of water, reflective flat and curved surfaces and kitchen implements with chrome surfaces
to distort images which ranged from faces, figures, jewellery, hands and feet and typefaces. Other candidates looked
at the reflections in office buildings of trees or other buildings. Some very strong, and at times abstracted compositions,
were seen with a mature use of media and mixed media. Supporting studies were innovative; exploring a range of ideas
often mixing hand rendered studies and personal photography, and showed a clear and coherent journey to the final
work. Bacon and Saville were the artists chosen by many to explore their ideas.
Mid and lower level candidates also had some innovative ideas but were hampered by poorer rendering and weaker
compositions. Supporting studies at these levels indicated an inability to explore in depth and develop ideas.
Question 8: Sacred place
This produced mainly calm and reflective sanctuaries such as churches or buildings with an air of mystery or greyness.
Some Buddhist temples were seen as well as books as a sacred space.
Most responses to this question were in the middle and lower ability range with popular imagery such as ‘Stonehenge’
taken from Internet photographs being frequently used within paintings and drawings. The outcomes were often dull
and literal or had simply regurgitated very well used religious iconography. There were lots of pictures of religious
buildings and religious figures such as Jesus Christ and a variety of Eastern deities.
A few candidates used personal spaces such as bedrooms as a motif but in these there was a lack of skill apparent in
the manipulation of materials used. Disappointingly very few candidates indeed used their local culture as inspiration
for either observational or interpretative work.

Question 9: Unearthed
This was not a popular question. The best work seen was of a gilded statue partially uncovered from the earth which
was well painted in acrylic and supported by some good museum studies. There were some very good large paintings
and pastel drawings of vegetables, which had just been dug up from the ground, and also archeological finds within the
higher grades. Bold use of colour and texture was apparent in the best work with good understanding of how to use
tone to create form.
The majority of responses were in the lower mark range and these tended once again to rely on secondary imagery
from the Internet and copies of other artists’ work as preparation for the final piece. Most at this level struggled with the
rendering of surface qualities of objects that have been buried for a long time.
The weakest work contained very little preparation and development of ideas or imagery at all and the final pieces
reflected this. Some submissions were incomprehensible, lacking in any sense of form or composition.
Question 10: Spiral structures
The topic was interpreted fairly liberally, perhaps the most unusual being organs spiraling out of a body. Many referred
to Escher and the DNA helix, natural forms such as shells, trees, roots and flowers. Hair was a popular theme for this
question. The very best work seen showed excellent research, and ability to draw from direct life studies and develop
the spiral curls of the human hair into creative tresses and locks of richness. Others concentrated on abstract patterns
based on spirals. It was a pity more candidates did not take the opportunity to observe and draw from spirals in natural
and man-made forms from the objects themselves to understand these complex structures rather than relying on
photographs or the Internet. One candidate took extensive photographs of all sorts of spirals in the urban environment
some of which were then used effectively in an interesting photomontage.
Middle level candidates were able to complete a fairly successful final piece but there was little evidence of drawing
form observation or second source to any significant degree. Candidates often drew from images taken directly from
the Internet as the starting point and did not explain what the image was of or where it was found. It is important that
candidates document the source of images used in their supporting studies especially when the image is not their
own. These images were reproduced in a variety of media and colours and were sometimes manipulated to achieve a
personal response.
Lower level submissions worked purely from these images printed off the Internet and copied them without developing
any ideas of their own. Some even worked only from imagination and demonstrated no recording from observation or
second sources.

0400
Paper 2
General comments
All questions were responded to with Q3: ‘a vertical banner’; and Q4: ‘museum wrapping paper’ being the most
popular; followed by Q5: ‘fashion accessories’; and Q6: ‘headdress design’. Q9: ‘sculpture design’ was the least
popular.
There were very few submissions that reached the higher achievement levels. However, the few that did indicated a
very good understanding of the design process, and all included initial drawings from observation, personal photos and
good references in their supporting studies. The very best submissions showed that a number of alternative ideas had
been considered with good experiments with typography where relevant, strong relationships between image and text
and a fit-for-purpose use of colour.
Candidates at the mid-level showed a more limited understanding of the design process and although there were some
good ideas, the supporting studies often displayed only one idea which had then undergone few changes apart from
experimenting with different colour-ways. Drawing from observation was rarely seen, and references were thin.
Requirements for the research and development of ideas were well explained within the questions set. At the lower
levels it was obvious that many candidates did not read the questions carefully enough, or were poorly advised as all
too often they had ignored the required shape or size or sources for research. There were very few links to the work of
artists/designers. First-hand references were non-existent, and some of the submissions were the result of secondary
sourced images that had simply been traced.
Question 1: A film featuring great journeys in your region by rail, river and road is soon to be released. Using
research into your locality and various forms of transport, produce a design for the cover of a Blu-ray or DVD
box.
This was a reasonably popular question that attracted submissions across a wide range of abilities. The best work
demonstrated the use of the candidates’ own photography and/or drawings to research the local landscape, collect
images of local buses, land rovers, trains and boats. Some use of digital manipulation was seen, and some use of a
more imaginative illustrative approach was evident.
Much of the work seen in the mid-range was less successful in integrating images with type, ending up with very fussy,
overcomplicated designs. Overall, these candidates would have benefited from spending more time on initial research
into current designs of DVD or Blu-ray packages, and producing more alternative ideas before committing to the final
piece.
The weaker work tended to rely heavily on downloaded images, randomly put together with no coherent compositional
skills.
Question 2: Design an internet homepage or double page-page newspaper advertisement for a restaurant
chain that is looking to attract more families to its outlet. You should create a name for the chain.
Some very professional computer graphic work was seen from the best candidates. These candidates produced some
excellent designs of the homepage, incorporating many alternative outcomes that had been thoroughly explored during
the preparatory period. Candidates often chose foreign cuisine as a starting point and incorporated a range of cultural
references in their work.
Difficulties arose with the less able candidates who choose to concentrate their efforts around a family theme and
struggled to portray family groups, with all the problems around portraiture and figure drawing distracting from the final
work.
Most opted for a safer alternative, where research mostly consisted of a collection of photographs of food or restaurant
interiors which, in many cases, were simply ‘cut and pasted’ into the candidates’ work.

Question 3: A college is staging a performance of music and dance. Create a design for a large vertical banner
to hang outside the college to promote the event. Research the theme and produce a response showing the
excitement, colour and movement of the performances. Your final design should be in a vertical format of 4:1.
This was the second most popular question.
The best work demonstrated first-hand research into figures, costume, typefaces and dance styles such as ballet,
jazz and modern dance. Experimentation with a variety of media such as paint, stencil, collage, silk painting and
weaving was evident in these submissions, and this research and experimentation was used to develop lively and well
composed designs. Some creative use of digital media was also seen, using candidates’ own photography. The use of
flowing lines and repetition to convey movement was successful in many cases, particularly when combined with radical
cropping of imagery which created strong contrasts between the physical edge of the banner and the imagery within.
However, the use of colour to create a sense of excitement was not investigated to the same degree A few submissions
also included a photographic visualisation of the banner design in situ. Cultural references were a strong feature of
these submissions.
Less able candidates were generally restricted to a limited range of ideas with only one option, such as ballet or tango,
which had been developed from secondary source material.
The use of figures was popular in this question, but the weaker candidates struggled with this, opting to either use
downloaded imagery or rely on their own less well researched efforts. Many silhouettes of dancing figures were seen,
particularly at the lower achievement levels.
Many submissions completely ignored the design requirement of working to a vertical format of 4:1.
Question 4: A museum would like some new designs for the wrapping paper it uses in its gift shop. You will
need to research artefacts or exhibits from a museum, and develop your ideas based on an aspect of the
museum collection to produce a repeat pattern.
This was by far the most popular question, with the majority of submissions showing evidence of researching imagery
through first-hand drawings and photographs taken in local museums. Local cultural artefacts were a strong feature.
The best work demonstrated that candidates had been equipped with methods to develop repeat patterns by considering
each component pattern’s relationship with its neighbours. The use of negative space was understood and had been
integrated into the design. They had also been equipped with colour knowledge, some detailed technical skills and had
been expected to evaluate their work as it developed. Colour coordinates had been explored as part of this process.
Unfortunately, the majority of submissions fell well below this level. Difficulties with repeat pattern techniques was
evident with even the better submissions showing a tendency towards isolated design elements that appeared to ‘float’
in a grid. Most of the candidates had gathered visual research but mainly from secondary sources. The drawings
demonstrated limited skill and led to poorly executed outcomes. At the lower end candidates had not explored the range
of approaches to creating a repeat pattern and, on the whole, only used the tile format to communicate their ideas. Very
few candidates had looked at a range of designs in order to inform their own ideas.
Question 5: Design at least two fashion accessories, such as bags, hat, jeweller, glasses or shoes, that are
inspired by electronics.
This question prompted some interesting responses with some good experimental supporting studies of electronic
equipment. The best candidates had developed their final examination piece through drawing directly from electronic
circuits and components. The development of their designs demonstrated an understanding of appropriate styles
due to well chosen and thoughtful research of fashion design. Quite a few candidates decided to include electronic
devices such as wires and metal in their work which sadly came unstuck and was sometimes damaged during transit.
Candidates should always avoid using material that could cause injury when being handled.
Weaker submissions lacked a sense of the design process and many candidates submitted three pages of virtually the
same image showing very little further exploration of the idea. Research, in order to inform ideas, was often very narrow
and the concept of technology was reduced to looking at motherboards and electronic equipment such as telephone
wires and plugs. Some candidates had looked at other designers to inform their ideas but this was often very limited.

Question 6: Design a headdress based on local wildlife, to be worn at a fund raising event for a conservation
project. Research different aspects of local wildlife and produce some original and eyecatching designs.
Some very imaginative responses were submitted for this question, with designs including a variety of wildlife that
floated above the head, birds flying and elephant trunks or snakes descending to cover the face of the person wearing
the headdress.
The best work had been developed from initial first-hand study and thorough research into wildlife and conservation.
These candidates produced some very imaginative responses with many animals, birds, insects and plants used to
inform them. Studies were made of feathers, flowers, animal skin and so on, and these were then used to develop
ideas into the final outcome. Research into the work of established milliners and fashion designers, as well as images
of carnivals from around the world was also included. Candidates made their final pieces so that they could be worn.
Making skills were excellent along with the choice of a range of materials. Supporting studies were included a number
of designs which were well annotated and explained the decision making. The design of the headdress was well
considered and diagrams explained how they would work.
Middle and lower range work was often reliant on poor quality sources with limited evidence of the candidates’ own
ideas and imagination. Some candidates showed satisfactory skills in drawing animal heads but then simply placed
these on a human head in an unmodified form.
The worst submissions amounted to little more than copies of existing headdresses, Many had just copied North
American native headdresses, showing no personal ideas.
Question 7: A new shopping mall is looking is looking for a design for a large stained glass window that will
dominate one end of the building. Create a design based on the architecture of an urban area near you. Show
how your final idea would look when set into one end of the shopping mall. The design should be in a circular
format.
Very few candidates attempted this question. Unfortunately, some of the better candidates had not read the question
carefully and produced the wrong shape for the final design. Other candidates did not reference architecture in the
supporting studies or final examination piece.
Most candidates had produced rather formulaic designs using strong black outlines to break the design into blocks of
colour, and abstracted shapes based on buildings. The best used studies and photographs of buildings in their own
locality, and had used media to convey some sense of translucency, but very few were able to effectively show the final
design set into one end of a shopping mall.
Question 8: Design a mural for the entrance of a new sports hall. Create a design that will fill the space above
the entrance.
Due to the nature of the interior structure you will need to create a final design on two panels of the same size,
in the vertical format of 2:1.
Not many submissions were seen for this question. Some candidates had not read the question and produced the work
to the wrong proportion or just the one design. A large number of submissions used imagery of sports balls of various
kinds, the Olympics were also used a source of inspiration. Many candidates attempted to use images of sportspeople;
many had simply been traced with limited success.
Question 9: Design a sculpture based on the theme of the motor car, to be placed at the entrance to a Museum
of Motor Transport. Develop your ideas from research into cars and car parts. Show how the final piece would
appear when in place outside the museum.
This was the least popular question.
The best candidates demonstrated skill and control with a range of media, explored ideas thoroughly and took an
individual approach to the brief. The work had considered how the piece was to be presented, materials it would be
made out of and looked at the context of the motor car.
Whilst many had enjoyed making studies of cars, sadly most were just copied from secondary sources, there was little
evidence of design development, with the weakest just producing a painting of a car outside a building.

0400
Paper 3
General comments
Submissions were generally presented as either large or small sketchbooks; A2 sheets secured together; A4 written
essays; A4 folders/files, scrapbooks or A5 to A3 books produced from web site templates. The levels of attainment
were mostly within the ‘limited’ to ‘competent’ range.
All of the submissions seen at the 40+ mark range contained evidence of some first-hand experience of involvement
with the subject matter, which had clearly benefitted the attainment levels of these candidates.
Assessment Objective 1: Gathering, Recording, Research and Investigation
The strongest submissions always contained evidence of a first-hand source for research and/or experience of the
subject matter. Visits to Art Galleries, artist’s studios, and sculpture parks and craft fairs had all provided material
for visual and written analysis. Candidates found to be within the ‘competent’ to ‘outstanding’ levels had all exploited
such sources. Satisfactory, Competent and Proficient levels of visual research had been achieved through making
photographic records of visits to local sculpture yards in Zimbabwe.
Submissions at the lower levels of attainment contained little or no evidence of using a first-hand source for research.
The Internet, (which is a second-hand source for research) had often been used to just download information and
images. This often demonstrated a lack of awareness and understanding with one candidate even claiming to have
interviewed Francis Bacon!
Assessment Objective 2: Exploration and Development of Ideas
Some candidates at the higher levels of achievement had made some perceptive observations by making intelligent
comparisons between a local artist and well known western artists e.g. Picasso or Van Gogh.
Interviews with artists were useful when intelligent questions enabled the artist to reveal insights of how their work
develops as well as particular working methods and techniques.
The exploration of how artists, designers and craftspeople develop their work had enabled some strong candidates to
make some significant personal judgements. In one particularly outstanding photographic submission, the candidate
had made an evocative and emotional response, informed and inspired by the work of Ernest Cole (South Africa’s first
black photographer).
Submissions at the lower levels of attainment demonstrated very limited evidence of how artists and designers develop
their ideas, exploring themes and/or addressing issues.
Assessment Objective 3: Organisation and Relationships of Visual and/or other forms
The presentation of the study is very important, and imaginative methods, appropriate to the subject were seen at the
higher levels of achievement. The most popular form of presentation was the A4 folder or a clear plastic file. Some very
personal hand-made books were in evidence, and all the submissions from one Centre were customised, ready-made
sketchbooks. The use of ‘presentation book’ websites is becoming more prominent. Another method seen was the use
of mounted A3/A2 sheets of card, attached with clips, string or staples.
The layout and design of each page/sheet is vital. Some weak submissions were hand written so badly that they
became difficult to read. Some much stronger submissions were beautifully hand written in a traditional calligraphic
style. Some outstanding photographic studies were seen with very strong and personal images.
Weaker submissions displayed poor images, often downloaded and randomly pasted on chaotic pages, making them
confusing and difficult to ‘read’.
A few poor studies were seen consisting of a written essay and no images, which were visually dull and the written
content had clearly been downloaded.

Assessment Objective 4: Selection and Control of Materials, Media and Processes
The candidates own practical experiments, when clearly inspired and informed by their research and experience of
other artists, demonstrated an engaged and personal involvement in their chosen topic. Some intelligent and perceptive
visual analysis of the works of contemporary painters was seen. The candidates had dissected some Cubist works by
Picasso and focused on details in an imaginative way. The visual explorations added a lively and colourful element,
enhancing the project significantly. Several entries had made use of Photoshop in an attempt to liven up fairly dull
photography.
Assessment Objective 5: Personal Vision and Presentation
Methods of presentation were discussed under Assessment Objective 3, and clearly have a direct connection with the
personal qualities, also demonstrated through Assessment Objective 5, with personal commitment to the whole project
through an interpretive and creative response.
Submissions seen at the lowest levels often contained no evidence of any personal judgements and were only copied
and/or downloaded biographical and descriptive accounts, limited by a lack of curiosity, enquiry and enthusiasm. The
strongest submissions presented an informed response through personal evaluation, reflection and critical thinking.

0400
Paper 4
General comments
The majority of candidates had followed a Painting and Related Media course of study with just a handful were received
for Photography, Graphics Design or Textile Design.
A wide range of responses were seen with evidence of imagination and the development of personal interests. The best
work resulted from in-depth research from first-hand study of chosen subjects. Still-life, natural and man-made forms
were very popular. There were examples of studies made in the local landscape and from around the home. Visits to
local buildings of interest were also a popular choice of study. There were also a few that were based on the figure,
using themselves, friends and family to work from and in some cases, pets and other animals also featured.
There were examples where the research into the work of other artists, designers or cultures had informed candidates’
ideas. The best had been encouraged not just to copy the work of other artists but to analyse aspects of their subject
matter or technique to inform their own work. However, there were still many examples comprising downloaded copies
of written biographies, lengthy descriptions of technical processes and downloaded photographs of such poor quality
or of images that had no relationship to the candidates’ theme, that they could not be credited as having made any
contribution to the candidates’ own development.
There was evidence of over direction in a number of Centres, where all candidates had followed the same theme or
approach. This approach can be very supportive to the less able students within a group, but with little freedom to
develop individual ideas, the ability range tended to be very narrow with few candidates able to access the higher mark
ranges, especially for Assessment Objective 5, personal vision and presentation.
In general terms the presentation of work for this component was of a good standard. The sheets in the supporting
portfolio were clearly labelled with the final outcome being clearly identified and presented on top of the portfolio.
Notation was generally concise and helpful, although a significant number of candidates had incorrectly labelled
drawings that were very clearly from secondary sources as ‘direct observation’ or ‘firsthand studies’. Teachers need
to ensure that the distinction is made very clearly to students, first-hand studies are the result of working from direct,
immediate experience of people, objects or places. This experience offers the potential for a candidate to see and
sense much more about the subject and consequently, the work becomes more unique and personal.
Teacher assessments were mostly generous and significant scaling was applied in many cases. Whilst the order of
merit in Centres was generally acceptable, teachers have a tendency to assume that their best candidates fall within the
‘outstanding’ achievement level. This was rarely the case and marks within this band should only be given for work that
is genuinely of the highest quality in meeting the criteria for all of the assessment objectives evenly.
Comments on areas of study
Painting and Related Media
The vast majority of submissions were in Painting and Related Media. Watercolour, pastels and pencil were the most
popular media, closely followed by acrylics. Many candidates had used Photography for first-hand investigation of their
subject matter. Whenever the aesthetic potentials of viewpoint, light conditions and composition had been considered,
this method assisted the development process considerably. However, it was disappointing to see a large number
of photographs that were out of focus, poorly composed and badly printed. This type of quality of work inhibited
development and usually reinforced other evidence of the candidate’s limited critical awareness and technical ability.
The best candidates had explored their subject matter from first-hand experience using a variety of media. The work
was always purposeful and informed by an understanding of the work of other artists. Experiments had a clear focus,
such as, an examination of mark-making or the effect of light on space or different surfaces or an exploration of dramatic
composition. The investigation of ideas and media was thoughtful, ambitious and sustained, which enabled skills to
be acquired. Candidates were able to make independent choices about their work and personal ideas evolved into
successful outcomes.

Some candidates in the middle range used media with sensitivity, there were some interesting ideas seen but the full
potential was not fully realised. In some cases, this was due to an over-reliance on poor quality secondary sources
which restricted the refinement of skills. In other cases it was the absence of any research of the work of other artists
that had severely limited the candidates’ ability to select and refine their own ideas.
Most of the weaker candidates’ submissions lacked focus and often indicated that they did not have sufficient critical
understanding to be able to develop their ideas or skills beyond that of a ‘limited’ level of achievement. Some candidates
submitted very little work; others submitted a random selection of drawings from secondary sources; a small number of
others had made first-hand studies but of a very poor quality. Evidence of progression was absent and none of these
candidates had informed their work with any research of the work of other artists.
Graphic Communication
Only a handful of submissions were seen for this area of study, but most were of a ‘satisfactory’ or ‘competent’ standard.
Outcomes were varied and consisted mostly of logo and related business card and letterhead designs; with a few
posters or CD/DVD designs.
The best work recognised the importance of typography and candidates had researched different type faces and had
integrated the most appropriate with their own imagery which had been developed from their own photographs or hand
drawn images, scanned and digitally manipulated.
Weaker submissions demonstrated an over-reliance on digital manipulation from downloaded secondary images.
Candidates’ own hand-drawn work was often limited to copies of their CAD printouts. Credit for creative development
was limited.
Photography, digital and lens-based media
There were very few submissions for this area of study. The very best seen contained evidence of research with the
camera documented with thumbnail prints. Digital enhancement was relevant in the development of the candidates’
intentions.
Work seen in the low-range tended to consist of a small number of poor quality images that demonstrated ‘very limited’
development or critical awareness. None of the candidates had researched the work of other photographers or showed
an awareness of standard photographic practices, consequently skills and personal qualities were weak.
Textile design
There were a few successful submissions which consisted of lively and imaginative printed lengths of fabric, the
supporting work included fabric samples and very thorough evidence of research and development. These particular
submissions were clearly the result of well structured courses with well directed experimentation, culminating with the
development of an impressive and well crafted textile pieces.
Three-dimensional Studies
There were too few submissions seen to make comments on.

BIOLOGY
4322
Paper 1
General comments
The mean mark increased by 1.73 marks. The statistical reporting module programme identified five questions that
appeared to be very easy, while only three were very difficult. It appeared that in general the candidates found the
question paper easier than the 2012 question paper.
1 The majority of the candidates knew that the characteristic of living organisms was respiration.
2 About 68.1% of the candidates knew that viruses have a protein coat.
3 Candidates appeared to have difficulty with this question. The kingdom of an organism that is unicellular with a
definite nucleus is protoctista.
4 Muscle tissue functions by contracting. Only 3.3% of the candidates did not get the answer correct.
5 The objective lenses of a light microscope are responsible for magnifying an object. This was known by about
64.4% of the candidates.
6 About 62.2% of the candidates did not know that an organ is a group of tissues working together to perform a
particular function.
7 The cell membrane of red blood cells is partially permeable, therefore allows water, oxygen, carbon dioxide and
glucose to pass through. This was known by the majority of the candidates as only 7.3% of the candidates did not
know the answer.
8 Solution X had more solutes dissolved in it than solution Y. Therefore solution Y had a higher water potential than
solution X and caused the level of the liquid in the tube to rise when osmosis occurred.
9 Only 42.4% of the candidates did not know that the uptake of glucose from the villi of the small intestine into the
blood stream happens by active transport.
10 Vitamin C is necessary to prevent scurvy. The majority of candidates could answer the question correctly.
11 The midrib contains the vascular bundles in leaves. This was known by 54.9% of the candidates.
12 The majority of the candidates knew that Benedict’s solution is used to test for glucose.
13 The part of the alimentary canal where egestion takes place was known by the majority of the candidates.
14 The pancreas secreting both digestive enzymes and hormones was well answered and known by the majority of
the candidates.
15 The fact that the phloem is responsible for translocation thus the transport of sugar to different parts of the plant
was well answered. However, still 32.1% of the candidates did not know the correct answer.
16 That veins have valves, arteries have more elastic fibres and capillaries consist of a single layer of cells was not
17 About 77.7% of the candidates knew that fibrinogen is the blood protein which is converted into fibre to trap red
blood cells.
18 The majority of the candidates knew that vaccination aids in people becoming immune to polio because vaccination
promotes the production of antibodies.
19 A relatively easy question, however 29.4% of the candidates did not know that cell respiration takes place in the
mitochondria.
20 The balanced equation for respiration was well answered.

21 This appeared to be a challenging question as only 33.3% of the candidates knew that the correct order for
changes during a 100-metre race is muscular activity producing carbon dioxide, which causes an increase in the
carbon dioxide concentration in the blood, which causes an increase in the breathing rate, which then results in
increased availability of oxygen to the muscles.
22 The majority of the candidates failed to recognise that moisture indicated in the diagram is needed for oxygen to
dissolve in the alveolus.
23 The fact that carbon monoxide reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin in blood was known by the
majority of the candidates.
24 The excretory products found in the urine of a healthy person are salts and urea, while no glucose should be
present. The majority of the candidates knew the correct answer.
25 Jumping up as the reflex action when Mary stepped on a large thorn was known by the majority of the candidates.
26 That the abuse of alcohol leads to damage of the liver was known by the majority of the candidates.
27 About 51.2% of the candidates did not know that a personal problem that can arise from drug abuse is hearing
things that do not exist.
28 Candidates appeared to find this question challenging as only 10.2% of them knew that gametes have half the
number of chromosomes compared to the original nucleus.
29 The majority of the candidates knew that the reason why oxygen moves from the maternal blood to the fetal blood
is that there is more oxygen in the maternal blood than in the fetal blood.
30 About 46.7% of the candidates did not know that all offspring being genetically identical is an advantage as well as
a disadvantage of asexual reproduction in plant species.
31 Feathery stigma being a characteristic of wind-pollinated flowers was well known.
32 The majority of the candidates knew that cutting off the sperm duct is a way of birth control surgically.
33 The cotyledon being the part of the seed where food for the growing embryo is stored was well answered.
34 The majority of the candidates knew that growth in organisms can be measured using the dry mass method.
35 About 50% of the candidates could work out that the probability of a child with blood group O being born to a
heterozygous type A man and a homozygous type B woman is 0%.
36 Only about 28.7% of the candidates did not know that the best-adapted organisms surviving and reproducing
describes the process of natural selection.
37 A ladybird feeding on an aphid, with the ladybird representing the secondary consumer was well known.
38 The majority of the candidates knew that an increase in predation will cause the aphid population to decrease.
39 The majority of candidates knew that precipitation is the process taking place at X and part of the water cycle.
40 The majority of the candidates knew that irrigation does not increase soil fertility or produce high crop yields.

4322
Paper 2
General comments
1 (a) (i) classification / classifying / taxonomy; [1]
(ii) kingdom, class, order, family; max [3]

4 correct = 3 marks
2 correct = 2 marks
1 correct = 1 mark
(b) (i) fur / pelt / hair;

mammary glands / nipples / teats present;
pinnae / external ears / ear flaps present;
® ref. to breast max [2]
(ii) E. burchelli / E burchelli / burchelli; [1]
(iii) (group of similar) organisms which can (inter)breed / mate to produce fertile offspring / or described; [1]
[8]
(a) (i) Term classification was known by most learners.
(ii) A few learners could not write the groups in the correct sequence.
(b) (i) The majority got “they have fur / hair”.

Many mentioned ears but failed to describe it correctly as “external ears / pinnae”
Some learners mentioned other features of mammals that are not external
(ii) Less than 10% got this answer right. It must be understood that the species’ name in
italics should be underlined. The correct answer could have been E. burchelli.
(iii) Learners answered this question partly and could not score a mark, only a few got it.
Organisms belonging to the same species should be able to breed / interbreed and
produce fertile offspring.
2 (a) (i) A – vacuole;

B – chloroplast; [2]
(ii) E epidermis / epidermal cells; [1]
(b) translocation; ® if wrong substances are translocated; [1]
(c) lignin / cellulose; [1]
(d) (i) diffusion; [1]
(ii) water:
arrow from xylem through cells to chloroplast; [1]
carbon dioxide:
arrow through stomata and air spaces to chloroplast; [1]
(e) to maximise / increase exposure (of leaf) to light / sunlight / AW ; [1]

(f) (i) carbon dioxide concentration;
temperature;
(sun)light intensity;
availability of water; [3]
if temperature is qualified with high and low in brackets:
® if in front of temperature (word), A if after temperature (word)
(ii) (external) factor in short supply;

or
factor that slows down / decreases / reduces the rate of photosynthesis / reaction / process;
® limit max [1]
(g) no / not enough / water (available) / water in short supply / loss of water greater than gain;
enzymes denatured;
closed stomata; max [1]
[14]
(a) (i) A – Well answered except for many spelling errors.

B – some put chlorophyll instead of chloroplasts
(ii) Most learners identified epidermis correctly but a fair share made spelling errors.
(b) Poorly answered because learners mentioned correct substances but failed to state the correct
process “translocation”; instead they just stated “transport”.
(c) Some learners misinterpreted the question and mentioned substances transported instead of
substances in the wall. Many spelling errors on lignin.
(d) (i) Most learners got diffusion with few mentioning osmosis and photosynthesis.
(ii) Many made arrows that did not touch chloroplasts, arrows for water passing through
air spaces. Learners should be trained to always draw their lines and arrows up to the
structure in question.
(e) Question wrongly interpreted because most answers were about maximum absorption of sunlight
instead of maximum exposure of leaf to sunlight.
(f) (i) Learners gave incomplete answers.

Carbon dioxide instead of carbon dioxide concentration. Water instead of availability of water
(iii) Most learners failed to mention factor in their definition, they instead mentioned substances.
(g) Fairly answered.
3 (a) - monocotyledonous seed has one cotyledon / seed lobe / leaf, while a dicotyledonous seed has
two cotyledons / seed lobes / leaves; [1]
(b) (i) moisture / water;

oxygen;
warm / suitable/ optimum / correct temperature / warmth; [3]
(ii) 1 enzymes activated by water;

2 named enzyme; NB enzyme must end with-ase
3 converts / changes / breaks down / digests / hydrolyses starch / fat / protein to glucose / simple
sugars / maltose / fatty acids and glycerol / amino acids; A catalyse
4 insoluble molecules/ substances broken down / converted to soluble molecules / substances;
5 (used) for respiration / growth / metabolic reactions / processes; [3]

(c) (i) A = correct axes with labels and units when appropriate;
S = correct scale on y-axis and even-sized bars on x-axis + spaces between bars;
P = horizontal line at top of block at correct position according to scale;
L = blocks clearly labelled and in the same order as table; [4]
max 2 for line graph: A and P
max 2 if information from wrong column used: S and L
4 4.1
2 2.3
2.0
1
1.0
0.8
sorghum
wheat
oats
maize
brown rice
CEREAL
(ii) 4.9 g x 37 kJ = 181.3 kJ; [1]
(iii) 1 absorbs / retains / holds / keeps water;

2 makes faeces more bulky;
3 promotes / helps / makes it better / peristalsis / described;
4 softens faeces;
5 prevents constipation / described;
6 prevents colon / bowel / large intestine cancer; max [2]
[14]
(a) Some learners just came up with general differences instead of concentrating on the seed.
(b) (i) Learners mentioned factors instead of conditions.
(ii) Most learners concentrated on the effect of temperature on enzyme activity. A few
confused substrates with enzymes, e.g. enzymes broken down by substrates.
(c) (i) Learners should be taught to stick to the spaces provided. Emphasis should be put on
the types of graph, especially histograms and bar graphs. Labels should be put in order
as they appear on the table. Scale on the y–axis should be maintained.
(ii) Learners seemed to have no mathematical skills. Whenever possible, teachers should
give calculation exercises.
(iii) Most learners got “prevent constipation”, however on colon cancer they just mentioned
cancer, intestinal cancer or cancer of alimentary canal which was wrong.
4 (a) (i) B: hepatic portal vein; [1]

C: small intestine / ileum; [1]

(ii) part: duodenum;
function: digestion / chemical digestion / described (occurs here);
OR
part: ileum;
function: absorption / final / completed digestion;
for absorption
substances that are absorbed max [2]
1 mark for the part, 1 mark for the function,
note: part + function must match
(iii) lipase; [1]
(b) (i) - glucose;

- amino acids;
- mineral ions / minerals / named mineral;
- vitamins / named vitamin;
- water;
® fatty acids, glycerol and nutrients max [3]
(ii) 1 glucagon / adrenalin (stimulates);

2 A / liver / liver cells to convert / change;
3 glycogen to glucose; max [2]
[10]
(a) (i) Fairly answered but with spelling mistakes. Learners should be taught to spell terms correctly.
(ii) Fairly answered, some could not establish a proper link between the name and the function.
(iii) ase should be emphasised,
(b) (i) Some just mentioned things like urea and oxygen and not nutrients.
(ii) glucagon and glycogen were wrongly spelled and interchanged.
5 (a) (i) A – lymphocyte;

B – phagocyte / neutrophil; [2]
(ii) A – nucleus / cytoplasm; [1]
(iii) B – (nucleus) circular / round / large in A, and lobed B;

or
– (cytoplasm) non-granular in A, granular in B; max [1]
(b) 1 correct ref. to pathogens / infectious diseases /antigens

2 lymphocytes / body / white blood cells produce / antibodies; ;
® engulfs and digests pathogens
3 body produces own immunity / antibodies;
4 no foreign / artificial antibodies / no vaccination / chemicals / medicine / pills received / AW;
5 provides long-term protection / person / body immune (to disease / pathogen);
6 antibodies pass through placenta / breast milk to baby;
7 provides short-term protection; max [4]
® any reference to vaccines in MP 2 an MP 3
[8]
(a) (i) lymphocytes interchanged with phagocytes and were wrongly spelled
(ii) Some learners misunderstood the question and started giving differences. Nucleus was
wrongly spelled and lost a mark.
(iv) Functions were mentioned instead of differences in features.

(b) Learners showed lack of understanding of the topic. Learners should be taught that pathogens
cause diseases and not just bacteria and viruses. More emphasis should be put on this topic
for learners to have a clear understanding.
6 (a) (i) growth response of a part of a plant;

correct ref. to gravity and light; [2]
(ii) 1 auxins;
2 (made) in tip (of shoot / seedling);
3 move / diffuse to shaded side / away from the light ;
4 more auxins accumulate in shaded side;
5 cells grow more / faster / more rapidly / elongate / divide more rapidly;
6 correct ref. to differential growth;
7 seedling / shoot grows towards the right / light;
MP 7 must be linked to MP 5 or 6
® bends, curves max [4]
(b) (i) line to retina (L);

(ii) line to cornea (B);
(iii) line to iris (A);
(iv) line to choroid (T); [4]
(c) eye:
correct ref. to electrical / nerve impulses;
transmitted / conducted quickly / rapidly / very fast / (response) is a reflex action;
plant:
(plant) hormones / auxins;
diffuse / move slowly;
takes time for cells to grow / cells grow slowly; max [3]
[13]
(a) (i) Learners did not know the definition of phototropism and geotropism. Almost all of them
failed to indicate that it is only part of the plant that grows towards stimuli.
(iii) Teachers should put more emphasis on the role of auxins and it should always be the
starting point. Learners should avoid using words like “bend” or “curve” towards light.
(b) Learners should be taught the structures and functions. Teachers should keep posters of
structures with labels in the classroom. The use of labelling correctly using label lines must
be taught.
7 (a) A – placenta;
B – umbilical cord;
C – amnion / amniotic sac; A uterus wall / uterus lining [3]
(b) (i) any two from glucose, amino acids, minerals, vitamins, antibodies, oxygen, water; max [2]
(ii) carbon dioxide / urea; [1]
(c) (i) burning (sensation) / pain during urination;

yellow discharge / pus from the vagina; [2]
(ii) antibiotics / penicillin; [1]
(iii) condom / femidom; [1]
[10]
(a) Well answered except for spelling mistakes.

(b) (i) Most learners had an idea, but they mentioned complex insoluble substances or just
“nutrients”.
(ii) Well answered but some mentioned CO instead of carbon dioxide and urine instead of urea.
(c) (i) Answers were written incompletely, leaving out some facts that could make the answer
complete.
e.g. “discharge from vagina” / “burning when urinating”
(ii) Most learners answered it right, but some wrote antibodies.
(iii) Some learners could not specify the method they just mentioned, namely mechanical, but
not all mechanical methods can prevent the spread.
8 (a) (i) burning / combustion of fossil fuels / coal / crude oil / natural gas /deforestation by slashing and
burning; [1]
(ii) starch; [1]
(iii) broken down / decomposed / decayed / used during respiration;

by fungi / bacteria / decomposers;
released as CO2 (into atmosphere)
carbon stored in fossil fuels / carbon is fossilised; max [2]
(b) 1 leads to soil erosion;

2 destruction of animal habitats;
3 extinction of species / reduced biodiversity / loss of genes;
4 increased levels of / more carbon dioxide (in the atmosphere) / decreased levels of / less oxygen (in the
atmosphere) / global warming;
5 desertification;
6 poor / low / little rainfall / droughts;
7 flooding / landslides;
8 increased leaching of minerals / infertile soil;
9 disruption of food chains / food webs; max [3]
[7]
(a) (i) Some learners missed key points, e.g. writing cutting down trees / deforestation instead
of deforestation by slash and burning, burning fuels instead of burning of fossil fuels.
(ii) Some wrote glucose instead of starch, only a few got it correct.
(iv) Most could not link the carbon dioxide which is released with the decomposition correctly.
(b) Well answered.
9 (a) (i) sun; [1]
(ii) energy does not flow / move backward / moves in one direction;
does not return to sun;
(energy) is lost (to environment); [2]
(b) 1 90% of energy lost during transfer from one trophic level to the next / ORA;
2 short food chains lose less energy;
3 more energy available in second trophic level than in third trophic level;
4 more organisms / humans can be supported / fed;
5 less land needed for growing crops;
6 less resources / expense in producing food; max [3]
(c) (i) maintaining the environment;

and natural resources;
to maintain biodiversity; max [2]

(ii) 1 capture run-off water in reservoirs / dams / tanks;
2 use drought-resistant crops;
3 fog harvesting;
4 careful / wise use of water or described restrictions / stopping leaks / closing taps / mulching, etc.;
5 re-use household water;
6 recycle water after sewage treatment; max [4]
(iii) 1 provides money / foreign currency / income for government / AW;

2 to build / maintain wildlife parks / game reserves;
3 provides employment / job opportunities / AW;
4 maintains / increases wildlife in Namibia / prevents extinction of species / protects biodiversity /
environment;
5 AVP; other valid comments to help conservation
e.g. raises awareness of poaching / prevents poaching; max [2]
(iv) 1 damage to species / habitats + by roads / vehicles / camp sites / land degradation;
2 extra noise / activity + disturbs wildlife;
3 pollution by plastic / cans / bottles / water pollution + may harm wildlife;
4 increased competition between human and animals / animals may interfere with human activities +
damage crops / homesteads / water supplies / Livestock / AW; max [2]
[16]
(a) (i) About 50% answered right, some, however, confused sun with sunlight and some mentioned
producers.
(ii) Most learners missed the point, they focused on energy lost along levels.
(b) Poorly answered. There was a misconception that plant food contains more energy than
animals. Learners should have related their answers on energy available at the level
“pyramids” rather than energy available in organism “food chains”.
(c) (i) Learners did not use the words maintain and natural resources and this made their
answers wrong.
(ii) Most just splitted wise use of water into many points.
(iii-iv) Most learners just mentioned general advantages/disadvantages for tourism which do
not benefit conservation.
Learners should be taught that points listed together in a book may answer different questions.

4322
Paper 3
General comments
The candidates entered for this paper showed a higher range of ability compared with last year’s entry. Many scored
higher marks and showed a sound knowledge of practical skills with an ability to express their understanding and
biological knowledge clearly and concisely.
The drawing skills were sometimes not so good but there has been an overall improvement.
It is important that candidates read carefully through the introduction to the questions and follow the rubric exactly. Some
candidates answered using theoretical knowledge instead of the information contained in the stem of the question.
It appeared that most candidates had sufficient time to complete the paper.
The range of marks seen covered 1 to 46 out of a possible 60.
1 (a) (i) Many candidates had this answer correct, but the majority said that the reason for the layer of oil is to
prevent evaporation from the plant.
Answer
- to prevent evaporation/AW (from flask);

- only measuring water loss + from the plant/transpiration/AW; [2]
(ii) Candidates must learn to read a question. The whole of Question 1 was about the loss of water from a
plant and this water must first be taken up by the roots.
Answer
- oil may get on the roots/AW; R- roots absorb oil
- preventing water uptake/AW; [2]
(iii) There are many ways to measure the rate of transpiration. To find the difference in mass of a plant after
transpiration is one way and this is what this question was all about. Many candidates did not refer to the
apparatus given to determine the rate of transpiration. The majority referred to the volume that they will
measure instead of the mass of the plant.
Answer
- set up apparatus and note the weight on day 1;
- measure the weight on day 7;
- subtract weight on day 7 from weight on day 1
- and divide by 7/find average;
OR
- Find difference in mass every day;
- By subtracting the last one from the previous one;
- At same time every day;
- Add differences in mass and find average; Max [4]

(iv) Candidates confused results with conclusion. Results are the things that they will see and from the
results a conclusion can be drawn.
Answer
more weight loss /AW (in higher temperatures) [1]
(v) Candidates really got the idea of using nail varnish or something else that will cover the stomata on the
leaf, but in most cases only one plant or 2 leaves were used to perform this investigation. The question
clearly stated that the apparatus given should be used. How can one cover the stomata on both sides of
the leaf and draw a conclusion from that?
Answer
1 two plants with identical leaf area;
2 on one plant cover all upper surfaces of leaves ;
3 with petroleum jelly/nail varnish/oil;
4 on another plant cover all the lower surfaces (with petroleum jelly/nail varnish);
5 take weight of both at the beginning;
6 put both for same time period;
7 in the same conditions/temperature/sunlight/wind/humidity;
8 determine the weight loss of both after that time period;
9 plant with lower surfaces covered should have least weight loss;
10 same species; max [5]
2 (a) Carbon dioxide is used during photosynthesis and removed from the air, making the indicator change from red
to purple.
Answer
0 hours = red;
12 hours = purple; [2]
(b) Some candidates recognised and suggested three correct factors which had to be kept constant in the
investigation. There were, however, many candidates who did not read the question carefully and described
a totally wrong investigation.
Answer
- same size tubes;
- same + volume of indicator;
- same surface area of leaf/leaf same size;
- place in darkness/AW; max [3]
(c)
Answer
(i) red; [1]
(ii) dim light/low light intensity [1]
3 (a) Many candidates interpreted this question wrong. There was nothing wrong with the sequence of the steps
given but in each step something was wrong that should be rectified.
Answer
(a) 1 food should be in a liquid form/crushed up with water/crushed;
2 add Benedict’s solution;
3 - the tube should be placed in a (boiling) water bath;
- two minutes of heating are enough;
4 a red/brown/green/yellow colour indicates the presence of reducing sugar; max [4]

(b)(i)-(iii) Food tests are one of the objectives of the syllabus and learners need to know the positive colour changes.
It was a straight-forward question testing their knowledge.
Answer
(i) 1 ̶ E,G; [1]
2 G; [1]
(ii) D, E, G [1]
(iii) B, F [1]
(iv) Words in a question should not be part of the answer. Fats and starch were present in this solution and
the reason why it would provide the most energy is that both are energy-rich nutrients.
Answer
- energy-rich nutrients/energy sources/AW;
- like fats and starch present; R- if any other nutrient included [2]
(v)
Answer
- impossible to get from table the quantity of nutrients present; (not quantity of energy)
- D/answer to (iv) may contain only a little fat + a little starch;
- whereas C may contain a large quantity of only fat/E may contain a large quantity of only starch;
- solutions may contain other energy-rich nutrients; max [3]
4 (a) The standard of the drawing skillshas improved. The outline of the drawings was clear and generally less
sketchy than previously, but proportion was still a big problem. More care and effort is needed in the proportion
drawing.
Candidates must pay attention to what should be drawn. In many cases the whole insect was drawn. No
arrows should be used and the label line must touch. If not, they were penalised once for a mistake.
Answer
Drawing: O = outline;( clear, sharp lines, no shading);
S = size; (larger + in proportion + eyes touch antennae)
H = only head drawn;
D = detail; (hairy head, split antennae + compound eyes) [4]
Labels: - eyes/compound eyes;
- antennae/feelers;
Not head drawn only: 1 label mark. [2]
(b)(i)-(ii) Most candidates were able to names three similarities between the two insects. Candidates should name
a feature which is shown on the two animals rather than a negative feature such as “no simple eyes”.
Answer
(i) Similarities
- 6 legs/3 pairs of legs/jointed legs;
- 3 body parts/head, thorax, abdomen;
- 1 pair of antennae;
- compound eyes I-wings max [3]

(ii) Here, candidates should have given clear differences as seen in the pictures. Comparative words should
always been used where applicable. Colour should not be used and as far as possible candidates must
try to leave size out of comparisons.
Answer
differences
- table with ruled lines [1]
- label A and B; [1]
A B
Shorter/straight antennae/feelers Longer/curved antennae/feelers;

Wings: present/not folded/transparent/no cover absent/folded/not transparent/cover; R=colour
Thorax same size as abdomen thorax smaller than abdomen/ORA;
Larger (compound) eyes Smaller ( compound) eyes;
Hairy body/any part of body Not hairy/AW; A-ref to fur
Pinchers absent Pinchers present
Segments visible Segments not visible max [4]
(c)
(c) distance between X and Y = 9 – 10 mm /0.9 – 1.0 cm; [1]

actual size of head = 0.9 /1.0/ 9/ 10 ÷ 5
= 0.18 – 0.2 cm/ 1.8 mm – 2 mm; c.a.o [1]
magnification: length of drawing ÷ actual size; [1]
= x.......; R- units used [1]
5 Easy marks scored.
Answer
(a) 6; [1]
(b) (i) trypsin

(pH) 8; both correct for 1 mark. [1]
(ii) 1 incorrect pH used/pH 6 used by mistake;

2 measurement taken too soon/time shorter;
3 temperature lower in this dish/wrong temperature used/not optimum;
4 lower enzyme concentration/volume used;
5 area calculated incorrectly/AW;
6 gel was thicker/deeper/more in dish;
7 pepsin and pH 6 used by mistake;
8 AVP; max [3]
(c) Hydrochloric acid had the most frightening origin!
- gastric glands /gastric juices (in stomach);

- hydrochloric acid; A- Hcl acid; [2]

BUSINESS STUDIES
4346
Paper 1
General comments
1 (a) Many candidates answered this question well. Candidates were expected to know that specialisation is about
the “worker” or “business” while division of labour refers to the “production process”. Candidates could not
be awarded marks if they did not mention skilled or expert or good at in the definition of specialisation.
Candidates could also not be awarded marks if they did not state “splitting of production process” in the
definition of division of labour. One mark was awarded for the correct definition of Division of labour and the
other mark for specialisation.
Answer
Specialisation refers to the worker, but Division of labour refers to the production process
Specialisation when business or worker become an expert in one task
Division of labour refers to the splitting of the production process into different section
1 mark for each clear definition/explanation [2]
(b) This question required candidates to relate their answers to the Namibian economy (which was the case) or
the Namibian government. There was only one point that needed to be developed. The point was “mixed
economy is a combination of features of planned and free market economy”. If this point was missing
candidates could not be awarded marks. The development of this point should include at least two features of
each economy, but not the definitions of the two economies. One mark was awarded for the point, four marks
for the development (2 marks for each economy) and one mark for the case.
Answer
- A mixed economy as applied in Namibia combines some characteristics of both a free market economy
and a command economy e.g. where the private sector operate with profit as main aim while in the public
sector the government try to provide essential services to those who can’t afford it. Also provides services
such as the police and the armed forces which cannot be provided by private sectors.
- Many products and services are provided only by private businesses not by the state e.g. cars, computers,
etc.
- In order to finance state operated services, the population pays taxes to the government
- The government places limits on the nature of business activity e.g.
controlling pollution
- Many important goods and services, which can benefit society as well as the consumer, are provided by
both the state and the private sector of industry e.g. schools, health services.
Case: Namibian/Namibia economy
NOT only Namibia
List maximum 2 marks P+D+C
2 + 3 + 1 [6]
(c) Only a few candidates answered this question well. Some learners confused the reasonsfor an increase in
globalisation with the benefits of globalisation. Advantages/benefits of globalisation could not be awarded
marks. Three marks were awarded for three correct points and other three marks for their development.
Answer
- Free trade agreements and economic unions have reduced protection for industries. Consumers can
purchase goods and services from other countries with no import controls.
- Improved travel links and communications between all parts of the world have made it easier to
compare prices and qualities of goods from many countries. This further developed as internet
becomes available more widely
- Many countries which used to have much undeveloped manufacturing industries have been building
up these businesses very rapidly. Some have their own manufacturing industries and are exporting in
large quantities P+D
3 + 3 [6]
(d) Many candidates demonstrated an understanding of the effects of an increase in the interest rate. Both
positive and negative effects were awarded marks. Candidates who described the effects of an increase in the
interest rate on the country or economy could not be awarded marks, because the question specifically wanted
candidates to mention the effects of high interest rates on the business (Comfy Shoes C.C.) and consumer
itself. Two marks were awarded for two correct points and three marks for the development. One mark for
case (Comfy Shoes).
Answer
- A good answer should consider the effect of the increase in interest rate on both company and the
customers. It should also clearly relate to Comfy Shoes + both positive and negative effects
- Comfy Shoes CC is having an existing loan which means that they will have to pay more interest, as a
result their profits will be less - less profit paid to members
- Decisions of expansion might be delayed less growth
- Consumers with mortgages will have less money to spend on shoes – so sales decreases - demand fall
- make workers redundant
- Investment - earn interest P+D+C
2 + 3 + 1 [6]
2 (a) (i) Many candidates could explain what variable costs are, but only a few candidates could develop the
explanation. Examples of variable costs were accepted as a development. One mark was given for a
definition and the other mark for the development.
Answer
Variable costs
Costs which vary with the number of items sold. Also referred to as direct costs since it can be
directly related to a particular product OR raw materials [2]
(ii) The same as (i).
Answer
Fixed costs
Costs which do not vary with the number of items sold/produced in the short term. Must be paid
whether the business is making any sales or not e.g. rent, salaries etc. [2]
(iii) Few candidates could score full marks in this question. For the candidate to score full marks he/she
was supposed to indicate the Extra cost a business incurs by producing one more unit of output.
Candidates who wrote cost of producing an extra unit was awarded one mark only.
Answer
Marginal costs
Extra costs a business will incur by producing one more unit of output/cost for producing an extra unit[2]
For each P+D
1+1
(b) (i) Many learners could not be awarded full marks because they could not develop the definition or they did
not include compulsory points such as plan in the definition of the budget and estimation/prediction in
the definition of the forecast. Candidates were not allowed to relate the definition of forecast to cash flow
forecast or sales forecast to explain forecast in general. Two marks were awarded for the correct points
(plan, estimation/predicition) and two mark were awarded for the development of the points.
Answer
A budget is a detailed plan for the future containing numerical figures. Budgets are used to review
performances + any other advantage of budgets
A forecast is a prediction of what could occur in the future given certain conditions, working with predicted
figures
P+D
2 + 2 [4]

(ii) This was poorly answered. Many candidates failed to give the importance of budgeting properly. The
importance includes benefits of budgeting. Candidtaes confused up the general management of the
business and budgeting and they could not score marks in this case. Two marks were awarded for two
correct reasons and three marks for the development of the reasons given.
Answer
- Budgets provide targets for departments to work towards. This helps to give focus to the work
people do and helps to motivate them
- They can be used to control how the business is performing by comparing budgets with actual
results
- The setting of budgets can involve all workers and supervisors as well as managers. Budgets are
likely to be more accurate since people working with it, is setting the budgets
- Budgets help to control the whole business. They control the amount of money allocated to each
department and in this way resources should be efficiently allocated.
- Help with planning and decision-making P+D
2 + 3 [5]
(c) (i) Many candidates did not answer this question well because they failed to follow the instructions. The
question required candidates to identify questions that a bank manager would ask; they wrote factors,
but not in a question form instead. Marks were not awarded for this.
Answer
Ask for
- Is a cash flow forecast available?
- Is a business plan available?
- Is a forecasted profit and loss account available?
- What is the gearing ratio?
- Will the loan be secured?
1 mark for each valid QUESTION
This means that if the answers are factors rather than questions, then NO MARKS can be awarded. [2]
(ii) Poorly answered as this question was related to Question 2 (c) (i). If the answer in 2 (c) (i) was wrong,
then the answer for this question was automatically wrong. Two marks were awarded for two correct
points and one mark for the development of one of the mentioned points.
Answer
Banks don’t want to take unnecessary risks and will refuse to give loans if the firm is in a risky position.
It shows whether the business will remain solvent and be in a position to repay the loan.
The banks want to be sure that the business is being run properly. It must be sure that there is a
Business Plan. It needs to know that the business is aware of where it is, financially; and where it is
going.
There must be a link between question and answer P+D
2 + 1 [3]
3 (a) Many learners could identify the correct type of union which is an Industrial union. It was the only union that
wad accepted. Candidates who wrote industrial trade union could not be awarded a mark.
Answer
Industrial union [1]
(b) (i) Poorly answered. Many candidates indicated that all workers join one union and this was not awarded
any marks. Full marks could only be awarded if the candidate indicated that workers can join any union,
but the firm will only negotiate with one particular union and no others.
Answer
Workers can join any union but the firm will only negotiate with one particular union and no
others P+D
1 + 1 [2]

(ii) This question was poorly answered as most candidates presented the advantages and disadvantages of
unions instead of those of a single union.
Answer
Advantages
- Discussions clearer since only one union to negotiate with management
- A better working relationship develop between management and the union
- Disputes will be solved more quickly as only one union is involved in negotiation
- Easier to agree to changes to working conditions and less time wasted in arguments
- A better relationship between management and employees means fewer disputes which is better
for both parties
Disadvantages
- There can be an increase in militancy, leading to more strikes and industrial disruption.
- Disruption/dissatisfaction if the workers with different levels of skills consider that they are not being
represented fully and correctly. Firm can be hit by internal labour problems which they cannot
resolve
Answer in full sentences
List only 2 marks - 1 advantage + 1 disadvantage [4]
(c) This question required candidates to explain the meaning of selective strike and work first and then develop
the two definitions in terms of the effectiveness of these industrial actions. If candidates did not define the two
actions, no marks were awarded. Two marks were awarded for two points (definitions) and four marks for the
development. (2 marks for each point.)
Answer
A selective strike
- Only a few selected workers go on strike, they play a key role in production
- Might be effective because of disruption cause in production
- Most workers will still be paid. Cost high to the firm but low to the employees
Work to rule
- Is when rules are strictly obeyed so that work is slowed down
Causes lot of disruption to the business because work is slow down - decrease in output - delay in delivery
P 2 = definitions
D 4 = effectiveness [6]
(d) Many candidates managed to identify examples of non-financial rewards which were treated as points. Some
candidates wrote allowances, however, since non-financial rewards do not include money, allowances could
not be acceptable. Two marks were awarded for two examples, one mark for indicating non-monetary rewards
or no money involved in rewarding, and the other mark for demonstrating that these rewards vary according
to the seniority of the job (only a few candidates mentioned the last point for a mark).
Answer
Non-financial rewards that vary according to seniority of the job - also refer to as fringe benefits like: health
care paid for, pension paid for by company, discount on company’s products, team working/job rotation/job
enlargement/job enrichment
List maximum 2 marks P 2 = example
D 2 = definition [4]
(e) Most candidates confused employer associations with trade unions, which led to poor answers. Three
marks were awarded for three correct reasons why businesses join employer associations. Candidates was
supposed to write short sentences and not only words.
Answer
Employers are represented and they negotiate with trade unions, they give advice and they act as a
pressure group. They gain strength of numbers, they are not alone. They will know what other firms in the
industry are doing. The associations can also negotiate with governments as well as trade unions.
NO marks for interest protect
settle quickly OR time [3]

4 (a) (i) Many candidates scored at least two marks for this question. The question required candidates to explain
both product and market-orientated businesses and then justify why a business is a market-orientated
business. Two marks were awarded for the two definitions and one mark for the justification.
Answer
Product orientated – refers to a business whose main focus of activity is on the product itself. No
market research is carried out.
Market orientated – refers to a business in which market research is carried out to find out consumer
wants before a product is developed and produced.
Since the manager consults with the customers over what they want, and presumably then meet this
demand, the fir m is market orientated.
1 mark for each definition
1 mark for a correct analysis and conclusion P+J
2 + 1 [3]
(ii) Market-orientated business was the only correct answer for this question. Candidates who wrote that
market- and product-orientated businesses can be successful could not be awarded any marks. Markers
should not choose for the learners. Many candidates could identify the correct point and scored a mark
for that. Three marks were awarded for three correct developments (why market-orientated businesses
have a chance of being successful) and the last mark was awarded for the case (Posh Africa or Portuguese
dishes).
Answer
Question is set in the catering field, so market orientated is likely to be the most successful. Why?
- Because research is carried out, they know what is demanded by consumers
- Therefore more prepared for changes in customer tastes
- Able to take advantage of new market opportunities which may arise
- New products launched with confidence when needs have been identified P+D+C
1 + 3 + 1 [5]
(b) Many candidates stated the correct marketing objectives, but some canididates wrote the general objectives
of the business and some indicated the 4 P’s, all of which were wrong. Each correct objective was awarded a
mark.
Answer
- To increase sales revenue and profitability
- Increase or maintain market share
- Maintain or improve the image of products/business
- Target a new market or market segment
- Develop new products or improve existing products
1 mark for each correct and appropriate marketing objective
[Remember the question is set in the catering industry] Any four [4]
(c) The majority of candidates identified the correct method of transport which was road. Some learners gave
different methods of transport. This was not acceptable (even if road was among those that were mentioned).
Markers should not choose the correct answer for the candidates. One mark was awarded for the correct
method of transport, three marks for the development and one mark for justification. If learners used examples
like cars, vans and motorbikes without indicating roads we gave the mark, but not for lorries and trucks.
Answer
They will have to move many small loads to many different addresses at short notice and quickly.
Road transport (Advantages)
Advantages
- Quick form of transport
- Cargo to places with no rail links
- Deliver even in bad weather conditions
- Deliver on your doorstep
- Delivery vans can be used to promote product or business
- Low cost transport required
- Use of motor scooters or motor bicycles is indicated P+D+J
1 + 3 + 1 [5]

(d) Well answered. However, some learners could not indicate advantages and disadvantages, which led to a
loss of all three marks. Candidates were expected to give two advantages and one disadvantage or vice versa
to score full marks. No marks were awarded if learners said was too expensive to afford a TV.
Answer
Television
- Advert will be seen by many people
- Product can be shown in an attractive way
- Can reach biggest number of customers at times on programmes when they watch TV
- Very expensive
- Not everyone has a television P+D
2 + 1 [3]
5 (a) (i) Very well answered. Most candidates scored full marks. One mark was awarded for each valid effect.
Two effects were the maximum that could be given marks.
Answer
- Dangerous products could be produced and sold
- Firms could damage the environment during production
- Monopolies could be created that lead to high pieces
- Workers might be exploited in terms of low wages & poor working conditions
- Unregulated advertising may mislead customers
- Population
1 mark for each valid effect, to a maximum of two [2]
(b) The majority of candidates scored marks for this question. However, some candidates wrote inflation without
low inflation or balance of payment without indicating a surplus, stable or positive balance of payment. this
was not acceptable. Three marks were awarded for the correct economic objectives. Social objectives were
not accepted.
Answer
- Low inflation
- Low levels of unemployment
- Economic growth
- Stable Balance of payments avoiding serious deficits
1 mark for each valid objective, to a maximum of three [3]
(c) Some candidates discussed the factors to be considered for the location of a business, even if they were not
related to a service business. For example, raw materials. The service business does not need raw materials.
Only factors that are related to a service business could be considered and awarded marks. Two marks were
awarded for the two correct factors and three marks for their developments.
Answer
Customers
Certain types of services need direct contact with customers therefore as near to customers as possible
Technology
Allowed some services to locate away from their customers - outskirts where it is cheaper and only
communicate over telephone or internet
Availability of labour
If a large number of workers are required it cannot be in remote areas. If a particular skill is required it will
have to be near to cities
Personal preference of owners
Where they choose to locate/family ties
Climate
Especially in the tourism industry - hotels locate themselves where the climate is good
Near to other businesses
Some services serves needs of businesses such as service equipment found in big companies
Rent/taxes
If the service does not need to be in the centre of town e.g. doctors, lawyers, they will locate where taxes
are lower P+D
2 + 3 [5]

(d) Many candidates could identify and explain the correct social costs. Candidates who wrote air pollution,
noise pollution, water pollution and ground pollution as separate points could only be awarded one mark as
they are all pollution. Other marks were awarded if the correct development was presented. There were a
few candidates who gave private costs and social benefits, which was totally wrong. This is an indication that
these candidates did not read the question well. Two marks were awarded for the two correct social costs and
three marks for the development.
Answer
- Pollution
- Loss of natural environment
- Heavy demand for water and electricity
- Ugly factory building
- Housing shortage since out of town work seekers
- More road traffic, more accidents
- More crime Listing maximum 2 marks P + D
2 + 4 [6]
(e) This was the poorest answered question in the whole examination paper. Candidates failed to single out that
the government sets up laws and regulations, which was the point to be developed. They instead started with
an explanation of ways of protection and this resulted in zero marks. One mark was awarded for the correct
point (laws and regulations), two marks for development and one mark for case (Namibian government.) For
this question we want to know the HOW = Laws.
Answer
Government sets laws and rules by which these firms will operate which includes guidelines on lending and
risks involve like
- Borrower must put forward security if defaults on repaying loan - lender has first call on any money
raised from secured assets
- Money be repaid with interest
- Financial statements that must be made available to all interested parties
- Shareholders are protected by limited liabilities P+D+C
1 + 2 + 1 [4]

4346
Paper 2
General comments
The standard of the learners’ answers showed a general decreased. In most questions the learners got confused
with concepts used, therefore questions were wrongly answered. Learners should read questions carefully before
answering it in context.
1 (a) Most learners managed to answer this question. Some learners confused the term “productivity” with
“production”.
Answer
Productivity relates to the output of something to create/produce it e.g. How much a worker produces per
hour, how much is produced per Namibian dollar spent, etc. It is a measure of efficiency of the production
system and should not be confused with the overall production level. High productivity assists in keeping unit
costs of production low.
NO formula P+D
1 + 1 [2]
(b) (i) Well answered. Some learners mostly focused on how the improvement of the level of mechanisation
and the modernising of plant and equipment might benefit a business instead of the workforce.
(ii) Fairly answered. The problems of the workforce were required but some learners’ answers focused on
the problem to a business, e.g. repairs and maintenance of machines, which was incorrect.
Answer
(i) - New machinery might be safer to operate

- New machinery or new working practises could demand further training and raising of employees’
skills level - become experts
- Better capital productivity can lead to better labour productivity with the opportunity for improved
salaries
- Newer work practices tend to be more environmentally friendly, which could lead to better working
conditions
- Greater job satisfaction stimulates workers, boring jobs done by machines P+D
2 + 2 [4]
(ii) - New machinery might mean the need for a reduced workforce. This would end up in redundancy
- Automated machinery might lead to the de-skilling of the operator’s function
- Skilled and semi-skilled jobs could be replaced with monotonous low-skilled routines that lead to
dissatisfied and demotivated staff
- Keep on training workforce due to new technology ̶ workers get tired of consistent training P + D
2 + 2 [4]
Note: Answers that gave a single circumstance in (i) and (ii) were restricted to 2 marks for each
part of the question.

(c) Most learners failed to score maximum marks because one-sided answers were given. Learners failed to
evaluate. They were supposed to give both positive and negative sides of the importance of the production of
quality goods for the business.
Answer
Yes
- It is easier to create customer loyalty
- Saves on the costs associated with customer complaints, for example replacing defective products
- Longer life cycles for products
- Less advertising may be necessary, as the brand will establish a quality image through the performance
of the products
- Higher price can be charged for such goods – quality can therefore be profitable
No
- Quality may be less important than speed of production when selling in the rapidly changing youth
fashion market. Perhaps, in the school uniform market, value for money is more important than just
quality.
To achieve full marks - both sides
One side maximum 3 marks P+D+C+E
2 + 1 + 1 + 1 [5]
2 (a) Well answered. Most learners achieved full marks but some learners’ answers referred to words “level/volume”
which will change the meaning of the right ways to measure the size of a business.
Answer
- By number of employees
- By capital employed/technology
- By number of output and sales/market share/outlets/branches
- By profit
NO - level/volume P3 [3]
(b) Poorly answered. Most learners did not understand the question. Their answers referred to “how and why”
the government should intervene in production and location instead of what could be DRAWBACKS to SASA
(Pty) Ltd if the government intervened in production and location decision.
Answer
Note also that we are looking for DRAWBACKS to SASA.
Do not reward answers that refer to advantages, or the effects on workers.
- Business cost will increase, for example purchasing of pollution control equipment
- These costs and the administrative burden imposed by controls act as a disincentive to smaller firms
with limited resources
- Countries with lowest level of control have an unfair competitive advantage over others
- Increase the cost of products in shops - demand falls ̶ sales decrease - profit decreases P + D + C
2 + 2 + 1 [5]
(c) Fairly answered. Only a few learners achieved full marks. Some learners misinterpreted the question and
gave problems that SASA (Pty) Ltd might face instead of the smaller rivals.
Answer
- Lack of specialist management expertise - tends to reduce their efficiency and increase average cost
- Problems in raising both short- and long-term finance ̶ small firm has little security to offer banks ̶
more difficult to obtain finance. Limited resources available ̶ more risky to banks ̶ higher interest rate
- Marketing risk from a limited product range ̶ small firms produce one type of good ̶ consumers taste/
technology changes ̶ exposes firm to problems
- Difficult to find suitable and reasonably priced premises ̶ best locations expensive ̶ small firms cannot
afford it
- Small firms cannot afford to use flow production ̶ average cost high for them ̶ production line
expensive
- Competition P+D+C
3 + 3 + 1 [7]

3 (a) Well answered. Some learners did not know the difference between brand name, image and loyalty.
Answer
Brand loyalty is when consumers keep buying the same brand because of quality instead of choosing a
competitor’s brand P+D
1 1 [2]
(b) Poorly answered. Some learners could identify penetrating pricing as a pricing strategy that could be used in
the introduction stage, but they could not identify the right promotion method.
Answer
The context is important here. SASA sells clothes, both fashion clothes and school uniforms. Answers may
be set in either market, but fashion clothes are likely to be the most common.
They are likely to be faced with competition, and the need to inform the potential buyer.
They will use informative advertising to make consumers aware of the product. They will use penetrating
pricing because they try to enter a new market. There are competitors in the market. P+D+C
2 + 2 + 1 [5]
(c) Fairly answered. Learners could identify one function that packaging performs for SASA (Pty) Ltd, but fail
to write in context, e.g. school uniforms cannot get rotten or break. Some learners gave the functions of
packaging in general instead of choosing the appropriate function that will fit SASA’s product, which is clothing.
Answer
Remember, we are looking at a firm that operates in the clothes industry. Answers should be in context.
- It has to be suitable for the product to be put in. Packaging gives protection to the product and prevents
it from getting spoilt. If has to be suitable for transporting the product from the factory to the shops.
- Packaging is also used for promoting the product. The labels on the product carry vital information
about the product.
ONLY one function P+D+C
1 + 2 + 1 [4]
(d) Fairly answered. Some learners’ answers referred to the weaknesses of primary research instead of secondary
research.
Answer
- Information might be out-dated/second hand
- Originally collected for another purpose, it may not be entirely suitable for the business using it
- Data collection methods and accuracy of these may be unknown
- Might not be available for completely new products
Listing maximum 2
NOT bias, wrong, false P+D
2 + 2 [4]
4 (a) Well answered. Some learners confused private/public companies with private/public sector.
Answer
Privatisation is the process of selling state-owned (public sector) businesses to the private sector
Nationalisation means that the business was once in the private sector, owned by private individuals, but
was bought or taken over by the government P+D
2 + 2 [4]

(b) Poorly answered. Most learners did not consider the impact of privatisation on the consumer and the
government as being positive or negative. Some learners answered it as advantages of privatisation in
general or only the impact on consumers.
Answer
Consumer
- Business more efficient/lower prices (because of competition)
- Will improve service/product
- Close certain services ̶ fewer choices
- Monopoly ̶ high prices for consumers P+D
1 + 2 [3]
Government
- Will raise funds from selling of business (put this money to better use) + tax
- Less of a burden on government;
- Does not benefit from income of previous business P+D
1 + 2 [3]
(c) Well answered. Most learners could compare the aims and objectives of SASA (Pty) Ltd with the aims of a
similar business in the public sector.
Answer
The question requires an answer in the context of SASA. Full marks could only be awarded if SASA was
specifically considered.
We are looking for a comparison, so each point must have different objectives for the two types of
companies.
Content: - SASA aims to make a profit, while the public sector only tries to break even when they provide
a service against an affordable price.
- SASA aims for efficiency while the public sector tries to keep people in jobs.
- SASA aims for a profit, while the public sector tries to keep prices low.
NO marks for vice versa P+D+C
2 + 2 + 1 [5]
5 (a) Poorly answered. Most learners confused joint venture with expansion. Learners found it difficult to understand
the terms risk/opportunities.
Answer
Opportunities
- Sharing of cost ̶ more capital
- Local knowledge when Joint Venture Company is already based in country/skills/ideas
- Risks are shared
NO marks for more profits
Risks
- If new project is successful, profits have to be shared with joint venture partner
- Disagreements over important decisions might occur
- Two partners might have different ways of running a business – different cultures
List maximum 2 marks [4]
(b) Poorly answered. Only a few learners could describe how an organisational structure might affect SASA
positively, but could not describe the need for SASA of having an organisational structure for expansion.
Answer
Need (why)
- The business has changed and it has grown.
- The number of employees will have increased, and roles and responsibilities have changed.
- They will have changed their organisational structure and chart to maximise the efficiency of the firm,
and to formalise the position for all the employees to see.
- Need to explain responsibility and duties of each one

Advantages/positive effects
- Chart shows how everybody is linked together and which channel to use for communication ̶ helps to
aid investigation if communication problems occur
- Each individual can see his own position ̶ to whom they are accountable and over whom they have
authority.
- It shows links and relationships between different departments within the organisation
- SASA employees a sense of belonging – motivation
The learner is required to answer “Why the need?” and “What are the positive effects?” both in the context of
SASA. P+D+C
2 + 4 + 1 [7]
(c) (i) Poorly answered. Learners gave formula instead of explaining the term. Most learners described owner’s
equity instead of capital employed which includes long-term liabilities.
Answer
This is the total long-term and permanent capital of the business comprising loans, share capital and
reserves
Used to pay for the net assets of a business P+D
1 + 1 [2]
(ii) Poorly answered. Most learners could not suggest one reason that might increase percentage return on
capital employed. Most answers referred to increase in sales.
Answer
- Prices have been put up by more than costs have risen
- Cost of goods bought in have been reduced ̶ possibly a new supplier is used or managers have
negotiated lower cost prices
NO marks for formula
All answers must increase profits
More profit generated ̶ NOT money P+D
1 + 1 [2]
6 (a) Well answered. Most learners could identify the correct leadership style.
Answer
Democratic/Theory Y [1]
(b) Poorly answered. Most learners did not know Theory X and Theory Y. Some learners’ answers referred to
managers instead of who you as a worker would prefer to work for a Theory X/Y manager.
Answer
This was not an easy question. It depends upon what type of person you are. Thus there is no single
correct answer.
Theory Y - Democratic/Definition
This type of leadership will get other employees involved in the decision - making process. Information about
future plans will be openly discussed before the final decision is made by the leader. Communication will be
two-way. More delegation will take place. A manager is people centred. The workforce can work without a
leader. They accept responsibility and seek responsibility.
Theory X - Autocratic/Definition
This is where the manager expects to be in charge of the business and to have his orders followed. He
keeps himself separate from the rest of the employees. He makes virtually all the decisions and keeps
information to himself. Communication is one-way. These managers are job centred. Very little delegation
takes place in the workplace. The workforce depends on a leader. Workers avoid responsibility ̶ punish to
work hard.
One-sided maximum 3 marks P+D+R
2 + 4 + 1 [7]

(c) Well answered. Some learners could identify the two qualities of a good manager but failed to explain it.
Answer
- Intelligence to be able to understand difficult ideas and deal with different issues
- Initiative/creativity to be able to suggest solutions to problems and take control of situations
- Self-confidence to be willing and able to lead others and to set an example
- Assertiveness and determination to be able to take command of others and to push ideas and policies
to their conclusion
- Communication skills to be able to put ideas and messages across to subordinates
- Energy and enthusiasm to set high standards of effort and involvement so others are encouraged to act
in a similar way
- Honesty/loyalty/trustworthiness P+D
2 + 2 [4]
(d) Well answered. A few learners could identify one management function but were unable to explain it. Some
learners gave departmental functions, which was wrong.
Answer
Planning
Involves setting aims or targets for a business. Aims and targets will give the organisation direction or
purpose ̶ feeling to work for something
Organising/coordination
The manager’s task is to organise people and resources effectively to meet objectives
Controlling/supervision
The manager must try to measure and evaluate the work of all the individuals and groups to make sure that
they are on target
Leading/leadership/command
They will lead, motivate and if necessary discipline the staff in their section P+D
1 + 2 [3]
7 (a) Poorly answered. Only a few learners could identify two ways of specialisation.
Answer
- Regional specialisation
- Between industries/industrial specialisation
- Division of labour Any two [2]
(b) Fairly answered. Learners had to evaluate the principles of division of labour. Most learners concentrated on
the advantages of division of labour, but failed to describe the disadvantages and make a recommendation.
Some learners’ answers referred to batch/flow production instead of division of labour.
Answer
This was another evaluative question.
It was about the effects of division of labour on the workers, not the firm.
Thus a two-sided answer was expected.
Yes
- Workers are trained in one task and specialise in this ̶ this increases efficiency and output
- Less time is wasted moving from one workbench to another
- Each worker only needs one set of tools which is in constant use
No
- Workers can become bored by doing just one job ̶ efficiency might fall
- If one worker is absent and no one else can do the job, production might stop
- Worker may lose skills therefore it would be difficult to move them around in the factory and also difficult
to get another job

JUDGEMENT
Positive
Become an expert ̶ more pay ̶ better living standard
Negative
Worker may lose skills ̶ difficult to get another job
Note: A very good one-sided answer may be awarded 5 marks.
No marks for a simple yes/no answer. P+D+C+J
2 + 4 + 1 + 1 [8]
• Learners should be taught to answer in context and to avoid general answers, otherwise they lose marks.
• When teaching privatisation/nationalisation special emphasis should be placed on the change of ownership and
government should be used to avoid confusion.

COMPUTER STUDIES
4325
Paper 1
General comments
The 2013 examination was generally executed at an acceptable level by most learners. It is very important that teachers
guide learners to provide answers in a more “understanding of concepts” fashion rather than memorising definitions and
phrases from notes and books. When a learner gives an answer it should be clear that he/she knows and understands
what he/she wrote.
It is extremely important that teachers guide and assist learners with their spelling. Remember, the moment the
spelling changes the meaning of the word, it might be wrong. It was disturbing how many Grade 12 learners
cannot spell simple terms correctly.
In this subject area learners should be able to analyse a given scenario and answer with appropriate sentences
related to the scenario and related to given terms or topics. Phrasing has become unacceptable, e.g. faster, easier,
cheaper or no mistakes made. Learners should use FULL SENTENCES where needed.
Therefore learners should be guided to know when to use a statement and when to describe or explain. It is
important that teachers be consistent in teaching learners to provide answers using sentences, not short phrases or
statements (e.g. easier, it is cheaper etc.).
Learners should guard against using phrases or sentences such as “There will be no errors” or “No mistakes will
occur”. These statements are not valid. Rather use something like “less”. Also note that words such as “stuff”, “things”,
“something” are not acceptable in answers.
It was an overall problem that learners could not answer the spreadsheet formula questions in the paper. Teachers
should let learners do practical work and then give enough exercises afterwards to enable them to write out formulae
correctly.
It was amazing to see how Grade 12 Ordinary Level learners can not identify input devices and had a lack of knowledge
on the features and advantages of programming languages. Use all available resources to teach learners these topics.
It is important.
1 State, using examples where appropriate, the meaning of these computer terms:
(a) OCR
- Optical Character Recognition/Reader
- converts scanned text from images/pictures of the text
- to an editable text format (ASCII code)
- can be imported into a word processing application and manipulated [2]
[This question was answered well by most learners]
(b) serial access file

- reads through previous records one by one
- one after the other
- new records are added at the end
e.g. transaction file [2]
[Most of the learners had a problem with this question]

(c) sensor
- a device that collects data
- detects change in physical environment
- needs an ADC to convert this into a digital signal
e.g. humidity sensor, temperature sensor, light sensor, etc. [2]
[Learners answered this question well]
(d) laptop
- portable computer system/can be used anywhere
- has integrated keyboard/screen/pointing device
- uses battery/mains power not required [2]
[Question answered well in general]
(e) network operating system

- “manages computers and devices on a network
- controls other software and hardware that runs on a network
- a system software that manages the activity of a network [2]
[Learners had very little knowledge or understanding of this concept]
2 The Pay’n’Go supermarket uses a point-of-sale system to record sales.
(a) State two input devices that could be used to input data into the point-of-sale system.
- barcode reader
- touch screen
- monitor
- credit card reader (EFTPOS)
- keyboard/keypad [2]
[It was amazing to see that most of the learners had a problem answering this question. Many just wrote
scanner, which could not be accepted]
(b) The point-of-sale system runs on a server.

Define the term server.
- a computer that provides services
- to the other computers on the network
- main computer – controls the processes, data, etc. on a network [2]
[Learners could not answer this question]
(c) Give two benefits to the supermarket of using a point of sale system.
Any 2 from
- up-to-date sales records
- better stock control
- easy to update stock and prices
- automatic reordering of stock
- reduces errors
- faster service [2]
[Most learners could answer the question]
3 Anna did not update her anti-virus program regularly and is now experiencing problems with printing.
What would be the best way to solve her problem?
Any 2 from
- updating anti-virus program/instal a new antivirus program
- remove/quarantine the virus via a scan
- reinstal printer driver [2]
[Learners answered this question well]

4 Computer systems are widely used in film making.
State two examples of the use of computer software when making films.
Any two from
For example,
- Animation
- Editing, e.g changing colours on film
- Addition of text, e.g. subtitles
- Special effects, e.g. morphing
- Tweening, etc
- Music editing
- Enhancement of images or music [2]
[Most learners answered this question well]
5 Kanatje Primary School has decided to have an open day for parents of children who may wish to come to the
school in future. A teacher has decided to use a word processor to produce a poster to advertise the school’s open
day.
Describe two methods that the teacher can use to insert pictures of the school onto the poster.
Any 2 from
- insert picture from a file if picture has already been saved in a computer
- use copy/paste from another open document
- scanning a hard copy photo into the poster
- insert picture directly from a digital device, e.g. digital camera, mobile phone, etc. [2]
6 Maria, a Grade 12 learner at Yetu Secondary School needs to do extra Mathematics lessons. She plans to use
e-learning.
(a) What is meant by e-learning?

any two from
- Term used to describe when educational lessons are conducted online
- Using a computer system to learn while being ONLINE [2]
[Learners had difficulty answering this question. They could not distinguish between CBT and E-Learning]
(b) State two advantages for Maria of using e-learning.

any two from
Learn at
- own pace
- can access information from anywhere
- vast amount of information available
- can study at convenient times
- can repeat lessons
- immediate feedback on progress [2]
[Again confusion since learners gave the benefits of CBT not e-learning]
(c) Give one advantage for the Mathematics teacher of learners using e-learning.
- diagnostic tests available
- variety of exercises/lessons readily available
- saves time as several learners can study different topics at the same time [1]
[Most learners did not answer this question successfully since they stated that the teacher is not needed or
does not need to teach anymore, etc.]

7 A car has been fitted with a Global Positioning Satellite (GPS) navigation system.
(a) Describe how the GPS calculates the exact location of the car.
any 3 from
- satellites in outer space transmit signals to the earth
- a computer (GPS) in the car receives and interprets these signals
- the satellite relies on very accurate timing
- each satellite transmits data indication position and time
- computer in car calculates its position based on received satellite data
- at least three satellites are required to give the car its exact position [3]
(b) How does the GPS system show the driver of the car the correct route to his destination?
any 2 from
- the computer has a number of pre-stored maps
- car location shown on appropriate map
- on on LCD screen in the car
- directions are given verbally or on-screen output ( on a map) [2]
(c) Give two benefits for the driver of having a GPS system installed.
any 2 from
- it is generally safer (driver doesn’t need to consult maps while driving)
- error reduction (e.g. can’t go the wrong way down a one-way street)
- if the car breaks down/involved in accident, its exact position is known
- to facilitate recovery ( especially in remote areas)
- system can warn driver of speed cameras, road works, heavy traffic. etc. [2]
8 Fantastic Furniture has several branches in Namibia and would like to replace its existing paper-based sales
system with a computerised system.
(a) Compared with the paper-based sales system, state three advantages for Fantastic Furniture of using a
computerised system.
any 3 from
- Fewer staff needed
- Less chance of data loss
- Less paperwork (therefore less storage requirements)
- Easier/quicker to search for/sort a given file
- Easier/quicker to insert/reference sections of files in reports
- Information/documents can be electronically transferred between branches
- Can open up files from any computer terminal linked to the system [3]
(b) State two possible effects on the staff of Fantastic Furniture due to the introduction of the computerised
system.
any 2 from
- Training/need for new skills
- Possible unemployment ( job loss)/retrenchment
- Possible working from home
- Deskilling
- Stress due to change in working conditions etc. [2]
[This question was answered well by most learners. Teachers should make sure that learners clearly
understand the meaning of the word DESKILLING]

(c) Describe two methods that can be used to find out about an existing system.
- ask questions (interviewing people)
- get people to fill in carefully designed questionnaires
- sit with various people to observe how the job is done at the moment
- inspect paper documents, screen displays and files which are used in the present system. [2]
(d) When the system is implemented, the systems analyst will provide documentation.
One type of documentation is for the staff at Fantastic Furniture.
(i) Name this type of documentation.
User documentation [1]
(ii) Give two items that should be contained in this documentation.

any 2 from (only if (i) is correct)
- instructions for loading and running the software
- description of the input required
- screen layouts
- sample runs
- trouble shooting [2]
- hardware requirements
- description of the output produced, etc.
9 Monitoring of a patient’s vital signs (e.g. heart rate) in the Intensive Care Unit is done automatically using a computer
system. Readings are displayed on a screen as a graph, and numerically.
(a) State two items of specialist hardware which are needed to obtain the patient’s heart rate.
- Sensor
- Analogue to digital converter [2]
[Most learners had difficulty to state both the Sensor and ADC]
(b) Why are the readings displayed in both graphical and numerical form?
- Graphical – easy to view change in values over time
- Numerical – can see exact current heart rate/could view highest and lowest readings [2]
[Most learners could not answer this question correctly]
(c) Describe how this computer system monitors the patient’s heart rate.
Any 4 from
- The heart rate is measured by sensors
- Information from sensors is converted by ADC
- into a digital form that the computer can use
- result then stored on the computer
- Result from sensor is compared to a preset value on the computer/previous result
- If the patient’s condition changes suddenly or value exceeds given values
- An alarm sounds to alert medical staff. [4]
[Many learners could not answer this question correctly]
(d) Give two advantages of using automatic monitoring.

Any two from
- reduces labour cost / fewer employees needed
- fewer mistakes than humans
- easier to analyse results
- quicker to respond to problems [2]

10 The following spreadsheet shows the payment details for employees at Bateleur Game Park.
(a) Give the cell reference for a cell which contains a formula.
anyone from D5:D11 accept E5:E11 [1]
[Most learners answered correctly but many used B13 and B14 or F5:F11 which has no data inside,
therefore they did not receive a mark]
(b) What formatting has been done to display the text in row 3?
it has been rotated [1]
[Learners had GREAT DIFFICULTY to answer this question}
(c) (i) Write down a formula that could be inserted in cell F5 to calculate the
Amount Paid.
=D5-E5*D5 or =D5*(1-E5) or =SUM(D5-E5*D5) [1]
[Very few learners answered the question correctly. Teachers need to pay special attention to writing
formulas]
(ii) What would be the value in cell F5?

2185.00 [1]
[Most learners gave the correct answer]
(d) Write down a formula that could be inserted in cell D13 to calculate the highest Total Pay.
=MAX(D5:D11) [1]
[Again special attention is needed for writing formulas. Learners could not answer the question correctly]
(e) Cell E5 contains the function =IF(D5 >= 3000.00, “10%”, “5%”) and is copied into cells E6 to E11. Write down
the function that will be in Cell E10.
=IF(D10 >= 3000.00, “10%”, “5%”) [1]
[Very few learners could answer the question]
(f) Explain how to arrange the data in the spreadsheet, according to Name of employee, in ascending order.
For example
Select cells A5:F11
Go to Data menu
Select Sort,
Select/Choose Column A – Ascending
NOTE accept any working solution [2]
[Very few learners could answer the question]

11 A school keeps a database of learners who take part in various kinds of sport. Part of the database is shown in the
table below.
ADMIN NO SURNAME NAME AGE GENDER SPORT

3025 Shangula Ndapandula 16 F Netball
2956 Oxurub Axaro 15 M Basketball
1999 Simataa Sibongile 17 M Soccer
3222 Pieterson Cheril 16 F Netball
2100 Mbarandongo Hitjevi 13 M Tennis
1809 Fusch Heinrich 17 M Volleyball
3456 Vermaak Jan 16 M Rugby
3467 Kudumo Verona 15 F Tennis
1000 Angula Tangi 14 F Soccer
(a) (i) How many fields are shown in the table above?
6 fields [1]
(ii) State one more field that could be added to this table.
grade; contact telephone, etc.
any other reasonable field [1]
[Most learners could answer this question]
(b) Explain how you could display one record at a time.

Create FORM using wizard
Select Database table
Select all fields
Select Finish
NOTE accept any working solution (2,0) [2]
[Most learners could answer this question]
(c) The following search condition was typed in: (SPORT = Tennis) OR (AGE > 16) Using ADMIN NO only, write
down the results of this search.
1809, 1999, 2100, 3467
-1 mark for each error [2]
[Many learners could answer this question correctly]
(d) Write down a search condition that will display all the girls who play soccer.
(GENDER = F) AND (SPORT = Soccer)
<- 1mark -> <- 1 mark ->
or
(SPORT = Soccer) AND (GENDER = F)
<- 1mark -> <- 1 mark -> [2]
[Most learners could answer this question correctly]
12 A school asked Mr. Paul, a network manager, for advice on how to set up its computer network. He suggested the
school could use a peer-to-peer network.
(a) What is meant by a peer-to-peer network?

- all computers on the network communicate directly with one another
- all computers have THE SAME STATUS
- no server on peer-to-peer [2]
[Very few learners answered the question correctly. Note that on a peer-to-peer network all computers can
function independently and there is no server, only information or data is shared]

(b) He suggested using wireless technology to link the computers.
(i) Describe what is meant by wireless technology.

- allows connection of a computer to a network without the need for connecting cables
- any computer in the network area/hot spot can be connected to the network [1]
[Many learners could answer this question but many lost focus and DIRECTLY LINKED WIRELESS TO
THE INTERNET, resulting in 0 marks]
(ii) State two advantages of using wireless technology.

- portability (can connect from anywhere within range)
- no trailing wires
- flexibility in the layout of computing environment [2]
[Many learners answered correctly but AGAIN many linked the advantages to wireless enabling an
internet connection)
(c) State one device that could be needed to connect the school network to the Internet.
- router/gateway/modem [1]
13 Electronic circuits use logic gates.
(a) (i) Draw the symbol for NAND gate.
A
X
B
1 mark for correct symbol

1 mark for two inputs and one output [2]
(ii) Draw a truth table for NAND gate with inputs A and B and output X.
A B X
1 1 0
1 0 1
0 1 1
0 0 1
1 mark for drawing the truth table (columns A and B)

1 mark for output (column X) [2]
[Many learners could answer the question BUT MANY HAD NO IDEA OF WHAT TO DO]
(iii) Describe the function of a NAND gate.

- correct statement about output
- correct statement about input
e.g. the output is true if A AND B are not both true
e.g. output is false except when both A and B are false [2]
[Very few learners could describe the NAND gate functions]

(b) Complete the truth table for the following logic circuit.
A B C D X
1 1 1 0 1
1 0 0 1 1
0 1 0 0 0
0 0 0 1 1
1 mark for each correct row [4]

[Many learners had great difficulty with the question]
14 The following is a program that will prompt the user to input ten students’ marks.
The program will then do the following operations:
calculate the average of the 10 marks entered,
determine the highest mark,
determine the lowest mark,
output the average, highest mark, lowest mark.
Program high_low;
var
mark, high, low, total, count : integer;
average : real;
begin
write (‘enter a mark: ‘);
readln (mark);
high := mark;
low := mark;
total := mark;
for count := 1 to 10 do begin
writeln (‘enter a mark: ‘);
if mark > high then high := mark;
if mark < low then low := mark;
total := total + mark;
end;
average := total /10;
write(‘average: ‘, average:0:2, ‘highest mark: ‘, high, ‘lowest mark: ‘, low);
end.
(a) The program, on page 14, has been written using a high-level programming language.
Describe three advantages of developing programs using a high-level programming language.
- Portability
- Easier to write programs (English like statements)
- Easier to understand/modify programs
- They are problem oriented [3]
[Very few learners could answer the question. Teachers should pay more attention to this section of the
syllabus → the comment goes for the entire question including b and c]

(b) (i) Using examples from the program on page 14, describe two programming features that have been used
to make the program readable.
Feature: meaningful variable names/identifiers
Description: using variable names that define what data the variable is storing
Example: mark/ high/ low/ total/average.
Feature: indentation
Description: increasing the space from the margin for a block of code to help identify a structure such as
a procedure, selection statement, iteration, etc.
Example: The if statements/ the for.. do loop/code block [6]
(ii) Describe one more programming feature that could be used to make the program more readable.
Feature: Annotation/use of comments
Description: Explaining lines/blocks of code using an appropriate language e.g. English
Or
Feature: Use of white space
Description: leaving a blank space between blocks of code e.g. procedures, structures such as selection
structures, iterations, etc. [2]
(c) Identify one error in the above program and give a solution to the error that you identified.
- The loop repeats itself 10 times
- therefore the program will prompt the user to enter 11 marks
Solution: The loop could read;
For count := 1 to 9 to begin
Note: Accept any correct answers. [3]

4325
Paper 2
General comments
It is important that all teachers take note that Computer Studies is a two-year syllabus. It is recommended that
candidates start with their projects in Grade 11 already. It was clear throughout the projects that candidates did not
start early enough. Teachers should revise and pre-assess project work of candidates more often. It was clear that
many candidates had no idea of what to do at specific sections and even left out many sections. Teachers MUST guide
candidates through the entire project and give suggestions for improvement as much as possible.
Teachers are advised to guide candidates on all the topics for the project. Each topic (section) should be discussed
and handled thoroughly with candidates. Give target dates and then check up on candidates’ progress on the set dates.
This way the teacher can see where candidates struggle and where to assist or guide through specific problem areas.
When marking projects, teachers should familiarise themselves with the requirements of each section in the syllabus.
Also use the syllabus for the number of marks to be allocated to each section. Read the contents of the projects “word
for word” before allocating marks. Beware of just giving marks for ‘words’ from the syllabus or just “word-spotting”. The
candidate can only get the maximum mark if everything required in that section is present on the paper.
Warn candidates about plagiarism and copying from the internet as well as from one another. In future when work is
copied either from the internet or from another candidate, no marks will be allocated for that section AND it might even
be considered as incomplete (especially where evidence can be found on copying etc.). If the teacher is unsure whether
specific candidates have copied from the internet or otherwise and the candidates cannot come up with a reasonable
solution to the problem, seek help from your subject advisor or educational officer.
If copying/plagiarism etc. should be the case, you (the teacher) should be able to pick it up fairly early, since you
started in Grade 11 already and assessed different sections of the project regularly. Guide the candidate to redo
that section or start over. DO NOT LET COPYING OF PROJECTS WORK (from the internet or otherwise) GO ON FOR
TOO LONG, the longer you (as the teacher) wait the worse it becomes.
The overall standard of the project work was acceptable, but there were several problem areas which need to be
addressed AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.
Important note to all ordinary level teachers
Make sure that ALL candidates’ projects are sent in for marking! Not only 10%, but ALL. Also make sure that all
projects are available in digital form- an updated copy in the school’s safe clearly labelled with the Centre Number,
Project Name and Candidate Number. This should be available on request at any time to DNEA.
Specific sections
• The action plan should in all instances be clearly related to the objectives and the Gantt chart should reflect what
is set out in the action plan.
• Testing of the proposed solution should involve test strategies for Input, Processing and Output of the proposed
system. Most candidates focussed on Input only. Queries (parameter and action where entries are made and a
process takes place) can also be used for testing a type of data.
• Take note that Extreme Data testing should not result in an error message!! Extreme data is testing to the
boundaries which means the entered data should fit into either the upper or the lower boundaries. No error.
• Hardware and software requirements should be related to THE REQUIREMENTS OF THE PROPOSED
SOLUTION, not general requirements to use a computer application. It should be made clear to candidates that
they should identify the hardware and software used to CREATE the system in the Technical Documentation
and the hardware and software needed to RUN the system in the User Documentation.
• Teachers should guide candidates to ensure they understand that the Technical Documentation is not a separate
document but it is the Entire Project (excluding User Documentation). This section is marked as a unit, which
starts with the introduction and ends with coding.

• User Documentation should be CLEAR. There are several guidelines on what should be included in the
user documentation. It should have a separate front page, index, introduction, problem description, etc. User
documentation should guide the user STEP BY STEP on how to use EVERY FEATURE AND BUTTON of the
proposed solution.
• Candidates should make sure to create their OWN CUSTOMISED VALIDATION RULES WITH ORIGINAL AND
CUSTOM-MADE ERROR MESSAGES. System error messages cannot be accepted.
• The Descriptions of the method of solution (8) – here candidates should show HOW they are going to create the
proposed solution. Candidates should show what each module would look like including algorithms where needed.
This topic should NOT show the final system modules, but the proposed modules. This means that preliminary
designs and algorithms the proposed solutions. The entire system should be shown including the main menu,
relationships, proposed field names, tables, forms, reports etc.
• Separate Modules should be clear and complete. Candidates should show ALL modules of the proposed solution
using top-down design.
• Candidates can only get a maximum mark of 3 for programming code if the entire solution was created by coding OR
if the candidate can show (Accurate Method of Solution) all CUSTOMISED CODING (not copied from SQL or VB
only) including self-designed macros which do more than just “next”, “previous”, etc. A good example of customised
macros is where the candidate created a macro which runs several different objects (delete query, another macro,
printing a report, etc.). Again the coding (VB) should be custom and not a screenshot of the macrowizard only.
Overall project work was of an acceptable standard. Teachers are advised to familiarise themselves with the assessment
methods used for project work before marking the projects. Create a sample project with candidates in the classroom
to indicate where marks will be given and where not, which sections and items are important not to miss and what is not
needed. Work hard with the candidates to ensure the level of project work improves from one year to the next.

DESIGN & TECNOLOGY
4129
Paper 1
General comments
Most of the syllabus topics tested are done as early as in Grade 8 and progressively all the way through to Grade 12,
yet candidates could not be able to prove the understanding thereof. This is an issue that needs to be addressed and
seriously looked into since it greatly contributes to the poor results. Such topics just need to be constantly revised to
ensure the candidates master them at all costs. Where necessary, external assistance could be arranged through
the office of the REXO. It was notable to see that candidates failed to describe processes correctly, and solve given
problems appropriately by virtue of sketches and notes. The topic on plastics seemed to be a defiant problem that
candidates still struggle with, and should be addressed as a matter of urgency. This is evident since most centres lost
a considerable number of marks [23] for this section.
Section A
1 (a) Most candidates were unable to correctly answer this question. Candidates were expected to refer to barrier
cream as a preventative cream applied to protect against chemicals, poisons, oil and grease sticking to the
skin.
(b) This is one of the most basic/general questions of which candidates were expected to score maximum marks,
yet almost all candidates failed to give the correct answer.
2 Most candidates did well with the exception of a few who gave answers like discarded tyres being used to plant
flowers in. In other words, even though not a wrong answer, candidates are not allowed to copy from the picture
given.
3 (a) Answered relatively well by most candidates.
(b) Not correctly answered by most candidates. It was evident that candidates were unable to do basic calculations
to determine the average.
4 (a) Poorly answered which showed that either centres did not cover this part of the syllabus appropriately, or
candidates found it difficult to understand the required process.
(b) Most candidates found it difficult to give a correct description of the ergonomic factors with particular reference
to the “hand and finger size”.
5 Well answered.
6 Most candidates listed the steps of the design folder instead of listing the items that could be included when
compiling a production schedule for the manufacturing of a product.
7 (a) Poorly answered by almost all centres. Even though almost all candidates opted for the Resistant Materials
option of the syllabus, candidates were expected to show basic understanding by making simple construction/
projection skills which they did at JSC level.
(b) Fairly answered.
8 Centres did well in this question.

9 (a) Most centres attempted this question well, but it was surprising to note that candidates suggested nails and
glue which is not a suitable method to attach metal to wood.
(b) Most centres found it difficult to evaluate the aesthetic property of the handle of the candle holder.
10 Well attempted by almost all centres.
11 Not attempted by any centre.
12 (a) (i) Poorly answered. Candidates found it difficult to write the appropriate thermosetting plastic.
(ii) Most centres were unable to answer this part correctly; it was evident that even though resistant materials
are covered as early as the junior secondary phase, candidates at NSSC level were unable write the
correct answer.
(b) Poorly answered. It was evident that candidates did not know the syllabus on plastics. It is strongly
recommended that all topics in the syllabus are covered to prevent the kind of scenario where learners totally
fail or attempt to answer the part on plastics.
(c)(i)-(iii) Candidates had difficulty answering this question; however marks were awarded for properties listed
instead of a description given.
(d) (i) Well answered.
(ii) Fairly answered. Candidates were expected to show a production process using clear sketches and
matching descriptive notes.
(iii) Almost all centres failed to use appropriate sketches and notes to show how to attach the chimney stack
to the boiler and to ensure a smooth rotation of the front roller.
(iv) Well attempted by almost all centres.
(e) (i) Most centres were not be able to show a proper procedure as to how access could be gained to the inside
of the chicken house. Some candidates suggested solutions such as glue.
(ii) Most centres could not suggest a suitable method. (Examples could include a hole saw, jig saw.)
Candidates suggested tools like chisels, long drills etc.
(iii) Some centres could hardly give a proper and a clear description of the identified method.
(f) (i) Well answered.
(ii) Well answered.
(iii) Most centres were unable be able to show through their sketches how the back leg could be designed in
a way to enable it to swivel. Little detail and construction methods were shown even though candidates
were not penalised.
(iv) Finishing methods were identified but some candidates could not give a matching description.
(g) (i) Well answered.
(ii) - Almost all the centres did well, but a minority suggested answers such as glue and nails. Though not
a suitable answer, candidates were not penalised.
- Only a few learners were able to show how the table could be adjusted although with little detail and
explanatory notes.
13 Not attempted by any centre.

4129
Paper 2
General comments
This was the sixth examination for NSSC Design and Technology. There has been a significant increase in the middle
cadre performance and in the standard and content of the answers compared to those of the previous year. The pass
percentage also indicated an improvement. Fewer candidates misinterpreted questions. It was reassuring to see that
sketch work had improved. Despite this, quite a few candidates still appeared to be poorly prepared for the type and
style of questions.
No candidate attempted Question 3 which deals with the Technology option. Centres should ensure that their candidates
are fully informed about the options available and, particularly, make them aware of the syllabus requirements for each
of these options.
Candidates generally answered parts (a) and (b) fairly well. The other sub-questions were, in nature, more demanding.
Very few candidates demonstrated the ability to consider possibilities of a wider range than the most general aspects.
They tended to concentrate on a single idea or concept, which limited their scope of being innovative and original in
their proposals.
1 Many candidates chose this question.
(a) Specification points

• graphics should be eye-catching, brightly coloured, relevant info displayed
• clear graphics, pleasing appearance, etc.
(b) Letter types

• accept any two suitable letter types
• presentation of each letter type
(c) Ideas
• Learners are judged for communication (simplistic, appropriate/good clear approach) and suitability
(simplistic designs, more detail, sensible solution, accurate solution, good fitness for purpose, detailed
construction).
• Ideas need to be conveyed in a fluent manner with the necessary detail (notes, graphics, labels, etc.).
• Sketches must be complemented with notes and labels.
(d) Evaluation
• Each idea must be evaluated in terms of the Brief and the Specification list, not only making minor
statements about the ideas.
• Then one idea should be selected, justifying the requirements as listed in the Brief and the Specification
list.
(e) Three criteria are evaluated for this part of the question:
• Quality of presentation (line work, proportions, detail, shading, rendering, etc.)
• Dimensioning
• Construction details
Most learners did not include dimensions and construction details.

Good line work, the use of shading, detail, dimensions on the prescribed standard and relevant construction details are
required for a good mark.

(f) Any suitable fixing method, including
• rivets
• sewing/ stitching
• using thin wire, etc.
Good detailed description of process.
(g) Any suitable method

• method stated
• process described accurately
• presentation
2 Many candidates misinterpreted this question, but were credited. It was expected of them to design a type of
bracket and “fix” it to the tow bar. Instead, many of them designed trailers.
(a) Acceptable points to include:

• strong and durable construction
• adequately reinforced/braced
• considering production cost in relation to material to be used
• considering safety standards
(b) The question required learners to describe two fixing methods for the device. Many learners referred to the
goose neck and chains.
Two methods:
• using bolts and nuts
• using pins or any other suitable fixing method
The methods should not be named only. Sketches and descriptions were required.
(c) Ideas
• Learners are judged for communication (simplistic, appropriate/good clear approach) and suitability
(simplistic designs, more detail, sensible solution, accurate solution, good fitness for purpose, detailed
construction).
• Ideas need to be conveyed in a fluent manner with the necessary detail (notes, labels, etc.)
• Sketches must be complemented with notes and labels.
(d) See (d) of Question 1.
(e) See (e) of Question 1.
(f) The materials suggested should be suitable and the reason should be relevant to the specific properties of the
suggested material. Wood, plastic and metal are not accepted. Candidates must be specific.
(g) Manufacturing method

See (g) of Question 1.
3 No candidate chose this question.

4129
Paper 3
General comments
The overall quality of the folders was satisfactory, although there is still room for improvement. It was generally found
that the Assessment Criteria were mostly interpreted and applied too leniently.
It is essential to note that if work under a particular assessment heading has been over-marked, learners may have
been brought under the impression that their work is of a satisfactory standard.
This notion seemed to be validated judging from the results and standard of candidates’ answers for parallel assessment
topics addressed in Papers 1 and 2 of this syllabus.
It may thus be concluded that if the Assessment Criteria, as prescribed in the syllabus, are not consistently and
appropriately interpreted and applied, learners will not be suitably prepared and guided to master the assessment
domains as envisaged in the syllabus.
This emphasises the responsibility of centres, and ultimately the Design and Technology teacher, to be fully acquainted
with the Assessment Objectives and the grade descriptors, so that these can be used as a basis for how the assessment
criteria for course work should be interpreted and applied.
The coursework samples for moderation were generally presented well, and the moderator was able to follow the order
of design folders in considering the marks awarded by centres.
Some centres produced excellent folders and submitted photographic evidence of outstanding products. It could clearly
be seen that much effort, commitment and dedication had been put into the coursework.
It was clear that the Design and Technology teachers guided these learners in an extremely efficient way.
There were, however, quite a few cases of arithmetical errors on coursework documents, so centres are kindly requested
to have these and the transcription of total marks checked by a second person.
Centres are also reminded of the need to include both the Coursework Assessment Summary Form 4129/3 CASF, and
the copy of form MS1 with the sample of work sent to DNEA.
Without these two documents moderation cannot proceed.
Comments on specific assessment headings
Identification of a need or opportunity with a brief analysis leading to a design brief
As this is the starting point for most design processes, it is important that learners complete this section correctly.
Most candidates were able to state the problem clearly and this was usually followed by a clear design brief, but many
learners failed to fully analyse and research the actual problem.
In this section candidates are required to identify the aspects of the design problem that need to be considered and
subsequently researched.
The requirements for the intended product should be generic in nature.
Some candidates confused design briefs with specifications.
All too often candidates included several pages of information on materials, constructions, finishes and fittings before
any ideas or concepts had been put forward.

This really is a waste of time as the Assessment Criteria for this design topic do not allow for marks to be awarded for
such content.
Issues relating to materials, constructions, finishes and fittings should be considered as part of the development of the
final idea.
Research into the design brief resulting in specification
This section requires a thorough research into the design brief with relevant data identified and collected. Candidates
should then analyse the collected identified data and use their analysis to compile a set of detailed specifications for
the intended product.
Most of the candidates did not do research on the brief, limiting their scope to design creative products.
Research does not only relate to the review of existing products and (mostly) “ghost” questionnaires, it should also
reflect some testing of certain aspects of the possible solutions.
Only a few candidates were unable to identify and compile a list of at least five sensible specification points.
The specification lists of most of the candidates were often generic in nature or referred to materials required for final
design solutions.
If the list of specification points is completed with care then it becomes the criterion for us at the evaluation stage against
which the completed product could be tested and evaluated.
Specification could also include special features that the intended product should have.
Many candidates took on projects that resulted in a model of the made product. The syllabus allows this route to be
followed.
Unfortunately, the content of candidates’ portfolios did not always make the reader aware of this particular outcome.
Since this was not addressed in the Specification section, Testing and Evaluating the final product could not be done
against a predetermined set of criteria.
Where a model is to be produced, the reasons for this, or the use to which the model will be put, must be stated clearly,
so that a more meaningful evaluation can be carried out.
If photos/pictures are used in the research section, it should be supplemented by relevant notes and comments.
Generation and exploration of design ideas
In many ways this is the most important and interesting part of the design folder and, as such, it is one of the sections
in the assessment scheme that is awarded the highest marks.
Most candidates seemingly thought that three ideas would make up a good range of ideas, while the moderator would
consider four ideas as only a fair range of ideas. This is the opportunity for candidates to be really creative and to record
any ideas that come to mind, regardless of how feasible they may seem at this stage.
Some candidates became stifled by adopting a too formal drawing style and did not allow their ideas to flow. Others
adopted a very flexible approach and added annotations to their drawings as thoughts came to mind so that they could
be creative in the true sense of the word.
Secondly, the moderators would expect more than just a general presentation of an idea. It is expected that a
specific concept or components with each idea should be further investigated or developed while keeping the defined
specifications in mind.
This could include a general reference to ergonomics, form construction, a special material suitable for a component,
the particular mode of operation of a section/component, possible testing or experimentation to be done or any detail
that may become important should the ideas be further developed.

Some candidates should be congratulated on the variety of design ideas put forward and on the high quality of graphic
techniques used to communicate those ideas.
It is important that candidates display a wide range of different ideas rather than concentrate on variations of one or two
themes.
IT SHOULD BE NOTED THAT THE IDEAS EXPLORED, SHOULD COMPLY WITH THE REQUIREMENTS AS SET
OUT IN THE DESIGN BRIEF AND THE SPECIFICATION.
Development of proposed solution
This is the point at which candidates should consider and make reasoned decisions about the form, materials,
construction and finish of the proposed solution to their design problem.
There should be evidence that alternative approaches have been considered in all these areas if high marks are to
be gained. These decisions should then be followed by the production of working drawings that give all the required
information for the manufacturing of the final product in the school workshop.
Where a model is to be produced this section should focus on the form, materials, construction and finishing of the
model, depending on its purpose.
Candidates sometimes consider the full-size article when they know that a model is to be made, although there may be
cases when the best modelling material to represent certain real materials needs to be considered.
It is important to provide relevant measurements, to present ideas through isometric, orthographic and exploded views,
to develop and suggest assembly methods and to suggest and indicate finer/additional detail through appropriate
annotations, labelling and supplementary notes.
Planning for production
Successful candidates considered how they were to go about making the solution before any work commenced and
then produced some form of planning chart, outlining the significant stages of manufacture.
Unfortunately this was one area where candidates often produced the content after their products had been made, with
the result that their “planning for production” sections were, at best, retrospective reports, reflecting no actual “planning”
for the sequential application of processes and procedures.
Marks cannot be awarded for this type of approach.
It is definitely not required that candidates should detail basic construction/assembly procedures, but it is advisable that
they show some consideration of procedures applicable to the more complex tasks or those procedures that would need
adjustments/careful application to be successfully completed.
A flowchart indicating the sequenced process to show the structure/framework of the production process would be
acceptable to aid the planning.
Product realisation
It was clear that many candidates had gained considerable experience from and were very proud of the product they
had made. Some design solutions were of a very high standard indeed and would clearly perform the required function
for a considerable period of time.
It is reassuring to see candidates achieve success in this way and gain so much satisfaction from their hard work.
Centres are reminded of the assessment requirement that clear photographic evidence of made products should be
included as part of the material submitted for moderation.
These should include an overall view of the article together with appropriate evidence of detail to support the mark
awarded.

Unfortunately, some centres failed to do this.
This year no centre submitted photographic evidence of “bought” products.
In future, suspected fraudulent products will be investigated and the responsible person will be taken to task.
Testing and evaluation
It would be fair to acknowledge that evaluations are improving in quality and becoming more meaningful. This is
particularly the case where candidates have gone to the trouble of arranging appropriate testing of the product and then
linked the outcome to their original design specification for the solution.
It is not sufficient to produce a simple list of tick boxes against each specification point, as candidates need to qualify
how and why the point has been met.
Unfortunately, most candidates focused their evaluation on how well the project progressed and omitted to consider and
test the product in its intended environment. This approach can be awarded only very few marks.
The made products are to be tested against ALL requirements as set out in the Design Brief and Specifications.
Improvements/modifications should be suggested and communicated.
Conclusion
Again, as previously recommended, each candidate should be provided with a copy of the Assessment Guidelines
outlined in the syllabus.
This may assist them in compiling their portfolios in a similar sequence and to judge whether the content compiled under
a particular assessment topic meets the requirements described.
Markers should study the Assessment Criteria thoroughly in order to prevent overmarking.
The moderator hopes that this report will assist centres in their effort to guide candidates through this demanding
component of Design and Technology.
If assistance is needed, contact the DNEA through your REXO.

DEVELOPMENT STUDIES
4331
Paper 1
General comments
• Part-time candidates showed an improvement in this paper, compared to the full-time candidates.
• Some candidates lacked exposure and pre-knowledge. They failed to integrate the subject content into the real
practical situation.
• More and more of the learners continue not follow the instructions. They failed to start each question on a separate
page.
• They had a problem with spelling and language and failed to construct proper sentences.
• Most learners did not understand the sources provided and thus failed to obtain marks for simple observations from
the source.
• Full-time candidates seemed to be under the impression that Development Studies is an easy subject and therefore
did not prepare properly for the examinations.
Answer
The number of years a newborn can expect to live.
(b) Fairly answered. They failed to compare the two countries and some could not give the statistics for the two
countries.
Answer
China: Life expectancy is higher in years. (China: 1960 – 46,6 and 2008 – 73,1 while India: 1960 – 42,4
and 2008 – 63,7 years.)
Literacy rate in the case of males and females is higher in China than in India (China 97,7 and 90,5
respectively while India is only 75,2 and 50,8 respectively)
Human Development Index of China is higher than in India (China 80% while India is 62%) GDP
growth rate in China is higher than in India (only 6,9 in India between 2000 and 2009 while in China
it was 10,3)
GDP per capita in China is higher than in India (China $6 828 while India is only $3 270)
(Use of GDP figures for 2011 - 2015 not relevant because it is a prediction and not achieved)
NB No credit for both GDP growth rate and GDP per capita. Only one of them should be used.
1st mark for indicators interpreted (clear comparison), 2nd mark for data
(c) (i) Poorly answered. Most candidates were only able to define GDP and not the GDP per capita.
Answers
Gross domestic product divided by the population of a country/Average income that a person can get if
income is equally distributed.
(ii) Poorly answered. Learners misunderstood the question and they referred to India as a poor country,
forgetting that China and India are NICs.
Answers
Two reasons for growth of GDP of India
- Industrialisation/Import substitution/Export orientation
- High literacy rate
- Role of government support
- Presence of multinational companies
(d) (i) Very well answered.
Answers
Newly Industrialised Country
(ii) Well answered although some of them referred to South Africa and Japan and therefore lost marks.
Answers
Brazil, South Korea, Malaysia, Taiwan, Egypt, India, Mexico, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Turkey,
Argentina (any 2) [2]
(NOT CHINA because it was part of the question)
(iii) Fairly answered. Learners could not come up with other strategies of how governments play a role in the
rapid economic development of a country. Most referred to loans, importing less and exporting more.
Answers
Role of the government
Diversify the economy/industries
Close partnerships with the private sector/Giving loans to set up businesses
Incentives of private sector to encourage them/Tax incentives/Subsidies
Create environment conducive for businesses/Peace and national security
Remove obstacles for business, like import and export duties and taxes/Produce local industries from
foreign competition
Lobby/lure MNC to invest in the country/Foreign investment
Government-implemented market-conforming interventions like policies to give a guide towards industrial
growth
Policies that support economic and industrial growth/Import substitution and export orientation policies/
Free-trade policy
Implement market-complementary interventions by identifying weak areas of the economy and try to
boost those areas
Implement market-correcting interventions to make sure that resources are fairly distributed and guided
towards development
Establish the necessary infrastructure
Train local people/Human resource development/Educate people
2 (a) (i) Fairly answered. Some candidates did not understand the sources and did not read the caption (subtitle)
and therefore could not identify the services.
Answers
Electricity/power lines/telephone lines
(ii) Fairly answered.
Answers
- Water supply
- Telephone services
- Waste disposal
- Sewerage disposal
- Electricity (if not mentioned in (i)
(Not Education and Health)
(iii) Poorly answered. Most candidates had no knowledge of how local governments are chosen.
Answers
Elected by people in the municipality/local people

(iv) Fairly answered. Most learners did not study the source, therefore they referred to demonstrations in
general.
Answers
Positive: - Keep authorities on their toes
- Ensure that people get what they need to survive
- It will make living standards/circumstances better
Negative: - Disrupts peace and stability/discourages investors/tourists/conflict/civil war
- Damages infrastructure/vandalism
- People can be wounded/indjured/even killed when uprising is suppressed by military
foces
- Slows down production due to absence from work
(b) Fairly answered. Most candidates referred to rural-urban migration as the cause for the high population in
urban areas for which they could not score marks.
Answers
Why GRN spends more money on services in urban ares
- More people live in urban areas
- More political pressure/politically active
- Industries and business activities need services
- Water and sewerage problems more serious in urban areas
- To encourage foreign investment/visitors/tourists
- Cheaper to supply urban areas/rural areas too widely spread out
- Ministers/politicians/officials in urban areas
Skilled/educated people in urban areas can afford to pay for services.
(c) Well answered. Most candidates were able to score four marks though others generalised and lost marks.
Answers
Goals of NDP
- To achieve and sustain economic growth
- To create job opportunities
- To eradicate inequalities in income distribution
- To eradicate poverty
- To empower women through gender equality
- To fight for economic empowerment
- To prevent the further spread of HIV and Aids
- To plan the development of a country
- To reduce the gap between rich and poor
- To raise the living standard
3 (a) (i) Well answered. Most candidates were able to identify the factors of production.
Answers
- Land
- Capital
- Labour Any two
(ii) Fairly answered. Some candidates referred to examples of energy sources instead of types of energy.
Answers
Fossil fuels/coal/oil/gas non-renewable energy
Electrictiy from sun, wind, water etc./renewable energy

(b) Fairly answered. Most candidates referred to terms like consumption, products, demand for which they could
not score a mark.
Answers
To satisfy people’s needs and wants/to provide goods and services
To exchange/trade/export
(c) Poorly answered. Candidates failed to choose an example of a manufacturing industry and they failed to
describe the interdependency between the three sectors of production. A few candidates managed to score
three marks.
Answers
Levels of marking
Level 1 (1 or 2 marks)
Simple statements with basic points referring to sectors of the economy without applying to a specific
industry
A production plant receives raw material from the primary sector
Electricity is needed to run the machinery
Processed meat is sold in shops
The goods are advertised in different media (services)
Transport services are used to distribute the outputs (services)
Level 2 (3 or 4 marks)
A sound attempt with points being developed or exemplified with reference to 3 sectors indicating a specific
industry
A meat processing plant receives raw material/meat from the primary sector
Animals are delivered by road or rail to the meat processing plant
It uses machines and computers which will need power suppliers to run
Processed meat will be sold in shops
Goods will be advertised in newspapers, over the radio or on the internet.
Level 3 (5 marks)
A comprehensive attempt with points being developed in detail
A meat processing plant may receive its raw materials/meat from the farms (primary sector) in the area
The raw materials are transported by means of road or rail to the meat processing plant
The services sector also supplies electricity for the machinery and computers and water for the different
processes. Skilled workers are trained by education (service sector)
Marketing of the product on the internet or advertisement in newspapers is needed
The products will have to be distributed to the shops to be sold
4 (a) (i) Well answered. 50% of the candidates managed to answer although some referred to life expectancy for
which they could not score a mark.
Answers
Information on the age and sex structure of the population
(ii) Poorly answered. Most candidates could not add the two sets of data and did not use the “thousand”,
therefore they lost marks
Answers
262 thousand (260 000 – 265 000) (Must state thousand)
(iii) Fairly answered. Many candidates could only give a description of the pyramid or only an explanation
and not both to enable them to score two marks.
Answers
Typical of a developing country
It has a wide base which indicates many young people/high birth rate
It has a narrow top which indicates few old people/high death rate, low life expectancy
(Only one mark for wide base/narrow top, second mark for explanation)

(iv) Very poorly answered. Candidates failed to collect the correct figures to explain the decrease.
Answers
Changes in the birth rate
In 2010 272 to 276 thousand babies were born and it is predicted that only 267 to 269 thousand will be
born in 2020.
No mark if no or incorrect statistics
(v) Well answered
Answers
Reasons for drop in birth rate
More women will be better educated/know about dangers of having lots of children
More women will have careers/earn money
Better medical and health services to slow down IMR
Knowledge about contraceptives/Family planning
Emancipation of women/can decide for themselves
Late marriages
Better educated to look after children properly to slow down IMR
Improvement in agriculture technology so children are not needed to work on the fields
(vi) Poorly answered. Many candidates referred to problems of overpopulation instead of the old age
population. In addition they failed to focus on more/increase of services
Answers
Consequences of increase of old people
More medical services to bigger number of old people
More social services needed/more old age homes/more pension money
Heavy work load on those of working age
May lead to higher retirement age
May lead to maltreatment of the elderly
(Focus should be on MORE)
(b) Well answered.
Answers
Why GRN is concerned about population growth
- The country may run out of resouces like food/land/space, etc.
- Economic growth swallowed by growing population, thus cannot provide better/improved education/
health care/infrastructure, etc.
- Increased damage to the environment such as pollution/deforestation
- Pressure on services like water supply, electricity, etc.
- Unemployment which can lead to higher crime rate
- Overcrowded areas which lead to diseases, etc.
5 (a) (i) Well answered.
Answers
Foreign Direct Investment
(ii) Well answered
Answers
Africa

(iii) Well answered, although few candidates referred to banking and tourism and therefore could not score a
mark.
Answers
Primary/Agriculture
Tertiary/Services
(iv) Well answered.
Answers
Brazil/China/South Asia
(b) Well answered. Some candidates did not understand that multinational companies are examples of FDI.
Answers
Problems caused by FDI
- Investors send profits back to their home countries/do not re-invest in the country
- Production methods are capital-intensive thus less local people are employed/Low wages and poor
working conditions
- No consideration for environmental degradation/main motive is profit/exploitation of natural resources/
pollution, etc.
- Sometimes interfere with local politics
- GRN over-protects MNCs at the expense of local interests/small local businesses close down due to
competition
- Incentives offered to attract MNCs are not extended to local companies
- Investors can withdraw at any time
- Employ own people in managerial/high positions
(c) Poorly answered. Most candidates gave examples of infrastructures without explaining how it will help the
local economies and industries.
Answers
Explanation of how investment in infrastructure can help local economies or industries
- Industries need road and transport facilities to bring in raw materials and transport the finished products.
- Industries cannot work without power and water supplies.
- Industries need telecommunication to contact their suppliers and customers.
- Modern industries need an educated workforce.
- Good infrastructure will attract foreign investors.
(d) Fairly answered, although some candidates confused (c) with (d)
Answers
Benefits of foreign investment for Africa
- Creates jobs/employment/better living standards
- Brings new technology and capital
- Creates wealth for host country through exports/foreign income
- Provides training/human capital/get skills
- Some foreign companies give scholarships/sponsorships to local people

• Teachers must emphasise definitions in class.
• Teach how to compare data and conditions.
• Practise interpretation of sources and get as much information as possible from the source.
• Discourage candidates to use lists instead of full sentences when answering questions.
• Encourage candidates to improve language in order to understand the questions.
• Focus on the command words at the back of the syllabus to prepare learners to follow the commands.
• Standard of marking for internal examinations should be according to the requirements of national marking. This
will prepare candidates better to give exact responses to questions and not a wrong idea of real achievements or
progress.

4331
Paper 2
General comments
Generally the performance was average. A good number of learners scored between 25 and 34 out of 60. Most
learners did well in Question one compared to Question two, where only a few learners scored above 20 marks. This
is attributed to the fact that most teachers did not spend quality time on the topic. (Population, health and education)
The numbering of answers was still not up to standard as some learners did not number their answers correctly.
Therefore, teachers need to address this shortcoming as it resulted in loss of marks by the learner(s). Administrative
work done by most Heads of Centres needs improvement. In some part-time centres, there were no checklists to verify
attendance.
Finally, teachers should teach learners the differences between “lack of” and “no” and other important terminology, for
example, explain, describe, etc.
1 (a) (i) Fairly answered, although some learners were not able to identify the traditional rural societies in
the pictures.
(ii) Poorly answered. Instead of giving a description of how labour was shared, most learners only described
what they could see in the source or pictures. The descriptions also did not match the pictures.
(b) (i) The majority of learners answered this question well, however, the definition for crop rotation was not
correct in some cases. The correct definition for crop rotation is “the growing of different crops on the
same piece of land every year” OR “growing crops in succession”.
(ii) Well answered.
(iii) Well answered, however, some learners could not use the source to answer the question.
(c) (i) Well answered.
(ii) Well answered, although some learners referred to “other countries” instead of Brazil.
(iii) This question was well answered; however, some learners did not use the correct units, for example,
percentage instead of millions.
(iv) Well answered, however, some learners confused the problems caused by deforestation with the causes.
(v) Fairly answered. Some learners said government should provide alternative sources of energy instead
of saying government should encourage the use of alternative sources of energy.
Possible answers for this question were

- Insist on replanting/replacing what was cut
- Educate the population to conserve trees/education programmes
- Limit the cutting of trees/set quotas
- Give cutting permits
- Plant more trees in new areas
- Set up national forests/community forests/convervation areas
- Encourage the use of other/alternative fuel/solar power/electricity in villages, etc.
(d) (i) Well answered
(ii) Well answered
(iii) Fairly answered

(e) (i) Well answered, however, some learners referred to other theories instead of the sustainable theory of
development.
(ii) Well answered
(iii) Fairly answered, however, some learners misinterpreted the question. Instead of referring to the direct
benefits to the community, they referred to the benefits to the conservancy.
2 (a) (i) Well answered, although a few learners referred to the general definition of the literacy rate, instead of
emphasising adults.
(ii) Well answered
(iii) Fairly answered, but learners confused literacy with education.
(b) (i) Fairly answered
(ii) Fairly answered
(c) (i) Well answered
(ii) Well answered
(d) (i) Poorly answered. Instead of explaining “Below Poverty Line”, they explained the “Poverty Line”.
Below Poverty Line means “the level of living standard that is not acceptable/manageable by the
population” OR “the level below the minimum living standard that is not acceptable” OR “this is when
people cannot afford the basic needs”.
(ii) Well answered, although learners got the units wrong. Instead of making reference to millions they
referred to percentage.
(iii) Poorly answered, learners could not differentiate between “lack of” and “no”.
(e) (i) Fairly answered, although some learners could not copy the answer directly from the source.
(ii) Well answered
(iii) Well answered
(iv) Poorly answered. Learners only referred to the importance of family planning instead of explaining how
family planning eventually contributes to the health of the community.
Possible answers to this question

- Less frequent births mean better health for the mother
- Fewer children will be born to prevent overcrowding/spread of diseases/reduce diseases
- Parents are in a better position to feed/clothe, look after children if fewer children are born
- Healtheir babies are born with lower the IMR (infant mortality rate)
• Teachers should cover the whole syllabus.

• Teachers should teach learners to answer questions correctly according to the actions verbs.
• For example, explain, describe, etc. Instead of explaining and describing, some learners just listed the answers
which resulted in loss of marks.
• Teachers should explain the difference between “lacks of” and “no”. “Lack of” means something is there but not
enough while “no” means there is nothing at all.
• Teachers are encouraged to use a variety of sources instead of the prescribed sources or books. Teachers need
to take note that learners study from different sources such as Namcol modules, Development Studies in Context
Book 1 and Book 2, O-Level Study guide etc., therefore teachers need to verify information from these sources. It
will possibly help if teachers compiled a summary on all topics for their learners.
• Teachers could also make use of the Examination Booklets.

4331
Paper 3
General comments
• There was a slight improvement in the performance of learners

• Some part-time centres performed better this year compared to previous years, but some still failed to answer
Section B.
• There was a lack of understanding of command words, e.g. describe, explain, etc.
• Some learners did not number Section B and wrote a full report although it was not asked.
• The neatness of the answer scripts was commendable, but there is still room for improvement in some centres.
SECTION A
1 (a) An average number of learners managed to answer the question, but some confused the continent with the
country.
United States/USA [1]
0 = America/s
(b) Learners could only explain random sampling, but failed to give the exact definition.
All people have the same chance to be selected. Respondents are chosen by chance. [1]
0 = For an example/randomly chosen
(c) Most learners answered the question well.

60% [1]
(d) Most learners failed to write the outcome in their own words. Instead they copied from the source.
- Americans were not warned in advance of a layoff
- Not all of them received compensation
- Unemployed people experienced anxiety, depression, etc.
- Conflict between partners/Did not want to socialise [2]
0 = copying
(e) Learners could mention the sampling method, but could not justify why they selected that specific sampling
method.
Full description of relevant sampling method.
Example: Stratified sample/cluster/systematic/quota
- To get a balanced representation of the population/include all groups including gender, different age
groups, ethnical groups, etc.
- Would give fair distribution of groups/minimise bias
- Researcher will get opinions of different groups of participants
- Will cover all the regions in the USA [2]
(f) Learners could not score maximum marks for this question. They only made general remarks with regard to
the advantages of data collection methods. Learners must try to write developed statements and not only
quotations to save time.
Advantages of questionnaires
- Large amounts of data can be collected in a short time
- Usually reliable
- Inexpensive and efficient
- Easy to compare answers of respondents [3]
0 = easy/fast/saves time/not time-consuming
1 = if the above mentioned advantages are fully explained [10]

2 (a) (i) Learners only made reference to newspapers. “Only newspapers had accessible archives” but failed to
say why other sources, e.g. radio and television were excluded. Learners must be taught to read the
questions before they attempt to answer the questions.
They do not have easily accessible archives/difficult to access their archives [1]
(ii) Learners wrote general sources of secondary data instead of the secondary sources given in the source.
(a) Primary data – interview
(b) Secondary data – newspapers
0 = interviewing [2]
(iii) Learners just copied key ideas from the source instead of mentioning why the newspaper was not a
reliable/accurate source.
- Writer of article may be biased/could have been selective in the information included
- Some information might not be relevant
- Personal views/opinions/political views might be revealed in article
- Newspapers are often guilty of distorting the truth [2]
0 = inaccurate/not accurate/unreliable/secondhand info/outdated
(iv) Learners were unable to make the link between quantitative and numbers
Quantitative – A collection of data consisting of numbers/obtaining numerical data after analysing a
large amount of collected data.
0 = copy from the source “its results are numbers and percentages”
Learners could not differentiate between the different concepts: interview, interviewer, interviewee
Interview – face-to-face conversation with respondent to obtain information/asking questions face to
face/asking questions verbally [2]
(v) Learners referred to problems of an interview in general, but failed to link it to the current situation/this
particular case. Learners should be taught to make it more applicable to the scenario given in the source.
Difficulties of interviews
- People might not be willing/have the time to answer questions
- They make irrelevant/distorted remarks
- People can be suspicious because they feel threatened
- Transport to different newspaper offices is very costly/expensive
- People might be offended by the nature of some questions
- Conclusions can be based on a very small pool of newspaper journalists. [4]
0 = language barriers/wrong info/accommodation, unless well explained.
(b) (i) Learners were able to identify the graph and say why it was suitable, however, they failed to link it with
the contributions made with reference to corruption. Learners should be taught how to read and draw
conclusions from a graph.
Bar graph
- Shows clear information
- Easy to compare organisations involved in corruption
- Clear to read/understand
- It enables us to see the level of corruption committed by different institutions.
0 = easy to draw/use/accurate [3]
(ii) Most learners failed to use comparative words, e.g. most, few, high, least, to show the level of corruption
in different organisations. Teach learners the use of comparative words which indicate the level or rate,
e.g. more, less, high, higher, highest, low, lower, lowest, while, only, etc.
- The graph shows that the level of corruption is very high.
- Corruption is present in all sectors.
- Public companies are mostly involved in corruption.
- Parastatals, government ministries and private companies are more involved in corruption.
- Private schools, foreign companies, the state hospital and the border posts are the least involved
in corruption. [4]

(c) (i) Candidates/Learners are not able to formulate questions based on a topic (case from the source), due
to the fact that they are constrained by the use of the English language. It is expected of learners to use
interrogative pronouns to interpret the question correctly, e.g. who, what, when, where, why, how, etc.
The formulation of questions must be practised during the lessons of interviews, questionnaires,
pilot studies, etc. to rectify any problems in drawing up questions.
Any three relevant research questions. EXAMPLE:
- Did the number of cases reported in newspapers increase between 2004 and 2006?
- Which organisations were mainly involved in corruption?
- Can we trust the facts/information supplied by the newspapers? OR
- Do newspapers reveal the outcome of corruption cases?
- What are the main causes of corruption?
- What are the economic/social effects of corruption?
- What can be done to prevent/avoid/reduce corruption? [3]
0 = How can we solve/stop corruption in Namibia?
(ii) Learners could not come up with new measures to reduce corruption. They only recommended already
existing measures to curb corruption.
- Better enforcement of laws and policies against corruption
- Detailed newspaper/TV coverage to make corruption public/exposure
- Make punishment/verdict in case of prosecution publicly known.
- Educate public about the social/economic impact of corruption.
- Introduce severe/heavy/long-term punishment.
- ACC offices should be established in the different regions.
- Whistle-blowers should be protected/Report corruption cases/Officials
- Strict control measures should be applied in different organisations.
- Awareness campaigns about corruption. [4]
0 = Dismissals/fines/people must be jailed/people must be fired [25]
SECTION B
3 (a) (i) There was a visible improvement in formulating the Research Question, Hypothesis and Aims, however,
some learners still could not distinguish between a research question and a hypothesis.
Explain to learners clearly what is meant by a development issue.
Full statement of hypothesis or research question
AND
A well-formulated aim of what you want to find out about your research question or hypothesis
e.g. Topic: Female-headed housholds.
Hypothesis: Female-headed households are rapidly increasing in Omuthiya.
Research question: What causes the rapid increase in female-headed households in Omuthiya?
Aim: To find out why there are so many female headed households. [2]
(ii) Most learners just defined “pilot study” but could not manage to explain why a pilot study was used.
NB: Pilot study does not involve flying an aeroplane or training to become a pilot.
Gave questions to friends to answer to-pre-test the questionnaire to see if it was suitable/Rectified the
questions and added new questions related to the research question or hypothesis. [2]
(iii) The majority of the learners made a few finds and conclusions, although the findings were not well
developed. Many learners did not include implications or recommendations.
Findings and conclusions
3 findings and 4 conclusions OR 4 findings and 3 conclusions
Level 1 1 – 3 marks
Simple findings and conclusions drawn, but poorly related to aims and not well supported by evidence
Well-developed findings and conclusions drawn based on evidence and related to aims
Full and valid report on findings and conclusions, based on evidence, including implications and
recommendations [7]

(b) The majority of learners gave problems experienced by a researcher instead of mentioning problems they
found in the community where they did the research.
Learners must be taught what the role of government is and the functions of the local authorities (municipalities).
Learners must be taught how to improvise or find practical solutions. Government is not the solution.
2 marks for valid problems and 2 marks for appropriate solutions to address problems experienced by the
people in the area. [4]
O = Problems and solutions of interview [15]
• Teachers and learners should identify development issues in their area which learners can investigate. (NB: Traffic
count is not a development issue.)
• Drill learners in the basic terminology of research, e.g. interview, questionnaire.
• Reading newspapers must be part of lessons, so that learners can become aware of development issues going on
in Namibia. A discussion should follow to ensure that learners understand the basic consequences of research. We
would like to enphasise reading research articles with understanding to improve performance.
• Part-time tutors must teach learners about Paper 3, because some part-time learners lacked skills and knowledge
to answer it or did not answer the question at all! They lost 15 marks, which is not acceptable!
• How to prepare learners for examinations.

- Teachers must already start with Paper 3 in Grade 11.
- Learners should have conducted their own research about a development problem in order to answer Paper 3.
- Learners must have a clear understanding of the command words like describe, explain, suggest, etc.
- To be successful in Paper 3 learners must already be examined in Grade 11 and not twice in Grade 12!

ECONOMICS
4347
Paper 1
General comments
The question paper was up to standard and the difficulty level was moderate. There were a few questions with which
some of the learners struggled. This clearly indicates that it was either not discussed with the learners or that they might
have struggled with that part of the syllabus. All the questions were clearly phrased and the instructions were also clear
– therefore no misunderstanding regarding instructions.
The importance of the command words cannot be emphasised enough. Some learners still gave their answers in a
listed format, although the questions asked to describe or explain. It is vital that all teachers should teach their learners
not to list their answers, but to write in full sentences and to develop all the facts mentioned. Learners must also read
the questions thoroughly before they attempt to answer to ensure they understand the question and that they answer
what the question/examiner requires.
SECTION A
1 Well answered. Most learners were able to explain the term scarcity.
Answer
When there is not enough of a good to completely satisfy everyone’s wants.
Limited resources + unlimited wants [2]
2 Fairly answered. Some learners only scored 1 mark or zero.
Answer
It is when the production of a good or service is broken down into a large number of separate operations and
each worker does a specific task. [2]
3 There were still a few learners who did not know the meaning of “unlimited liability” and scored 1 mark only.
Answer
- Unlimited liability means the owner is responsible for business debts.
- The owner can lose all his personal possessions. [2]
4 Fairly answered. Some learners still confused a public company with the public sector and others did not know the
features.
Answer
- Limited liability
- Transferability of shares
- The life of the company is independent of the lives of its members/separate legal entity/continuity
- Ownership and control in different hands/separation of ownership and control
- Name must end in Ltd
- Shares are listed on the stock exchange/invite general public to buy shares
- Minimum of 7 and no maximum shareholders Any two [2]

5 Poorly answered. The majority of learners only scored 1 mark for the example.
Answer
Craft union – restrict membership to workers possessing certain skills, e.g. electricians. [2]
6 Well answered by most of the learners. There were cases where they gave the qualities instead of functions.
Answer
- A medium of exchange
- A measure of value or unit of account
- A store of value
- A standard for deferred payment [2]
7 Poorly answered. Many learners experienced difficulty in relating the shares listed on the stock exchange with
selling shares to the general public.
Answer
It means that the shares can be sold to the general public. [1]
8 Learners failed to score full marks because of incomplete answers, e.g. income only instead of a change in income.
Answer
- Changes in income
- Changes in price or the price of the good
- Changes in the prices of other goods or substitutes or complementary goods
- Changes in taste and fashion
- Advertising
- Hire purchase
- Population growth Any two [2]
9 Poorly answered by the majority of candidates. Some learners confused joint supply with joint/complementary
demand.
Answer
When the production of one of the goods creates a supply of another good, e.g. beef and hide [2]
10 Well answered.
Answer
- Income or wealth
- Social attitude towards saving
- Changes in the rate of income tax
- The number and variety of saving schemes
- Changes in the distribution of income
- Interest rate changes or rate of interest
- Saving for a particular objective
- Desire to provide for future needs
Listing maximum 1 mark Any two [2]
11 Fairly answered. The majority of the learners could not explain the term “marginal cost”.
Answer
- Change in total cost when output changes by one unit
- Additional cost of producing one extra unit of output
- The cost of producing an additional (extra) unit of output [2]

12 Poorly answered. The majority of learners had this answer wrong.
Answer
N$1 050 000 – N$10 000 (1) = N$1 040 000 (1)
N$ sign not needed [2]
13 A few learners struggled to describe a conglomerate merger. The majority managed to score 1 mark.
Answer
- A merger between two firms that do not produce similar products and that are not part of the same total
production process OR example (2nd mark)
- When a firm amalgamates with another firm that has little or nothing to do with its existing activities
- When two firms that are in different industries and operate at different stages of production join together [2]
14 Fairly answered. Most learners could identify the number of employees but could not identify the other indicators.
Answer
- Number of employees
- Local/National/International trading
- Value of capital employed or level of technology
- Value of output/revenue/profits
- Total market share (number of customers)
- Form of ownership (sole trader/company (plc)) Any two [2]
15 Many leaners failed to explain the term and instead just wrote “changing of a private company to a public company”
which was wrong.
Answer
- The process of transferring an industry from private ownership to public ownership
- When an industry which was privately owned (private sector) is now controlled by the government [2]
16 Poorly answered. A few learners mentioned progressive taxes only, thus could only scored 1 mark.
Answer
- Taxes – fiscal policy → progressive taxes - those with higher income pay higher tax than those with lower
income
- Benefits (merit goods and services), such as cheaper health, welfare payments, etc.
- Price-fixing of necessities
- Introduction of minimum wage legislation [2]
17 Poorly answered. They confused it with income tax → progressive taxes.
Answer
Proportional [1]
18 Fairly answered. Most learners scored 1 mark for the example given, but could not explain the term.
Answer
When people tend to work at certain times of the year but not necessarily at others, e.g. agricultural workers/
holiday employment [2]

19 Fairly answered. Most learners could name the methods, but some could not explain the terms/methods.
Answer
Output method
Measure the value of the output of all the different industries
Income method
Income earned from providing factors of production to firms
Expenditure method
What was spent over the year on goods and services [2]
20 Poorly answered. Learners lacked understanding of the depreciation of a currency.
Answer
Price of exports will increase and volume of exports will decrease [2]
21 Well answered, but some learners failed to score full marks because they left out price/value in the definition.
Answer
Value of one currency in terms of another
Amount of money to be paid to obtain one unit of another currency [2]
SECTION B
Answer
- Getting of loans
- Lack of business management skills
- High debt rates
- Training [4]
(b) Learners lost marks since many did not describe the functions, but only listed them. Some also confused the
functions of the commercial bank with those of the central bank.
Answer
- Receiving deposits (savings accounts/current accounts)
- Making payments (direct debits/standing orders/cards/ATM)
- Giving loans/overdrafts/mortgages or provision of advances
- Insurance (short term/long term)
- Wills (executor of)
- Foreign currency (international travel law/buyers (importers))
- Investments services (advice)
Listing maximum 2 marks [4]
(c) Poorly answered. Most learners did not know that the fiscal policy has to do with government spending and
taxes. The majority wrote about loans and interest rates, which is the Monetary Policy.
Answer
Government spending
- Increase its own spending on training programmes for new entrepreneurs, etc.
- Decrease its own spending on other projects and provide grants and subsidies
Taxes
- Tax exemptions
- Lower taxes on profits of new, small entrepreneurs
- Increased taxes on foreign goods [4]

(d) Poorly answered. Once again, learners did not read the question thoroughly and only gave a one-sided
answer. They focused on the advantages of small firms only and failed to realise that “consider whether”
refers to the disadvantages as well. The majority of learners did not give a conclusion.
Answer
Benefits
- Reduce unemployment
- Reduce poverty/increase the standard or living/satisfy needs and wants
- Increase in output/economic growth
- Contribute through paying taxes
- Less transfer payments to unemployed (decrease in government expenditure)
- More exports/contribute to BOP (4/3)
Disadvantages
- Increased externalities
- Over-exploitation of resources
- Increased demand which will lead to an increase in prices/increased inflation
- Operate in informal sector ̶ tax evasion (3/4)
Conclusion
Although there are disadvantages involved, Namibians can become job creators and provide and earn their
own income. Entrepreneurs are important for economic development or the growth of the economy. (1) [8]
23 (a) Not well answered. Most learners could only mention “high prices and no competition” as some of the features
and could not outline the other features.
Answer
- Only one supplier of a good or service, or controls more than 25% of the market
- No competitors
- Can set either the price or the quantity it wishes to sell/price maker
- Because it can control supply, it can influence the price or can charge high prices
- High barriers to entry
- Downward sloping demand curve
- Maximise profit/Always supernormal profits [4]
(b) Fairly answered. Most learners could identify the 2 main types of taxes, but could not relate it to the sales and
profit of computer software companies.
Answer
Direct tax
- Company profits (corporation tax)
- Business selling software ̶ tax on profits
Indirect tax
- People buy software (spending)/VAT
- Import duties (import software) [4]
(c) Poorly answered. Most learners just copied the case study, thus no reference was made to how buyers of
legal software will benefit.
Answer
- Genuine software
- No/fewer problems (installation and running)
- Security updates
- Product upgrades
- Warranty/guarantees
- Technical support
- Faulty products may be returned [4]

(d) Fairly answered. The majority of learners didn’t focus on IT, but on technology as broad term. Most could
identify employment creation as a means of reducing poverty.
Answer
Productivity
- Increase in efficiency
- Manual work replaced by machinery ̶ faster and easier to manage so output is large
- Neater and accurate work if word-processing functions are used properly
- Deliver better quality work
- Difficult calculations can be done quickly and accurately
- Job satisfaction ̶ since workers can manage easily and are confident
- Statistics can be presented clearly and neatly on spreadsheets
- It is easy to retrieve information
- Large number of employees can all be replaced by one person (5/3) or (4/4)
Poverty
- Employment/earn an income/afford basic necessities
- People educated or more skilled to use programmes and the internet
- Medical data (breakthroughs in medical science)/or improve the quality and type of medical services
- Start own businesses/encourage people to be self-employed
- Training ̶ better qualifications (3/5) or (4/4) [8]
Some learners managed to score average to good marks and this is an indication that all the work in the syllabus
was discussed with them, as well as they were thoroughly prepared for the examination. Teachers who ensured that
their learners scored average to good marks should be commended for their hard work and efforts. The way in which
some learners wrote their answers (full sentences and developed) was also an indication that they were taught by their
teachers how to do it, hence they scored good marks.

4347
Paper 2
General comments
• The answer papers ranged from very poor to very good scripts.
• Language (grammar) still poses a serious problem, because candidates sometimes do not understand the questions
and then write anything that comes to mind.
• Listing of answers is still a major factor that contributes to candidates not receiving full marks, because they do not
pay attention to the command words e.g. describe, explain, assess, etc.
• The majority of candidates chose to answer Question 6. Question 4 was the least chosen question of the optional
questions.
1 (a) (i) Well answered by most candidates
Answer
Land – all gifts of nature (natural resource) [2]
(ii) The majority of candidates identified that mining is in the primary sector but few were able to identify that
tourism is in the tertiary sector.
Answer
Mining
- Primary sector
- Extracting of raw materials (2)
Tourism
- Tertiary sector
- Services (2) [4]
(b) Some candidates did not explain opportunity cost correctly. Only a few candidates were able to illustrate it
from the extract. Many candidates copied from the extract and lost marks.
Answer
- Sacrifice of the next best alternative forgone. (2)
- Park or mines (choice between resources and allocation) (1)
- Choice is the opening of mines (2)
- Opportunity cost is the loss of natural beauty (Naukluft) (2) [7]
OR
Definition (2)
Parks OR Mine (1)
(resource allocation)
↓
choose (1) mine (1)
↓
Park (1) opportunity cost (1)
NOT: park = choice + mine = opportunity cost [7]

(c) Many candidates explained why the conservation of the Namib Naukluft Part should be in the hands of the
government and not in the hands of private individuals. Few candidates explained why the conservation of the
Park should be in the hand of private individuals.
Answer
Why Government
- Protect resources, reduce external costs (future generation)
- Merit good and service (parks are paid for by permits and it is educational)
- Employment creation
- Government receives taxation
- Benefits all citizens (income helps to achieve government objectives)
- Government keeps entrance fees and permits affordable
- Prevent private monopolies (high prices, external costs, etc.) (4/2)
Why Private Sector
- Profit driven = taxes to government
- More efficient (better services and quality)
- Less political interference and corruption
- Helps to reduce government spending and opportunity cost (2/4)
Conclusion (1) [7]
2 (a) Candidates who explain the advantages instead of the features of a centrally planned economic system lost
marks. Most candidates received half the marks.
Answer
- State owns all factors of production (no private ownership)
- State decides what to produce and how resources should be allocated
- No consumer sovereignty (limited variety)
- Workers employed by state (no choice of career)
- Prices determined by government (price fixing)
- No profit motive [6]
(b) Many candidates failed to explain the change from a centrally planned economic system to a mixed economic
system. Candidates could have either explained the advantages of a free market system or the disadvantages
of a centrally planned system.
Answer
Advantages of free market Disadvantages of centrally planned
More freedom of choice No freedom of choice
- Producers (what to produce) - Producers cannot decide
- Consumers (what to buy) - Consumers cannot buy
Less government involvement More government involvement
- No strict laws and regulations - Many regulations and lack of foreign investors
- Increase foreign investment
Profit motive No profit motive
- Efficiency - Lack of efficiency and variety
- Tax to government - No private business to pay tax to government
- Variety (more choices)
Increased competition No competition
- Lower prices - Prices fixed by government
- Better quality - Poor quality
- More shortages + surpluses
Price mechanism
- Less shortages and surpluses (3 x 2 + 1) [7]

(c) Few candidates distinguished between the possible problems that the government and the consumers might
have with the mixed economic system. Candidates did not do well in this question.
Answer
Government
- Lack of control over resources
- Unemployment created
- Adapt to new labour laws
- Shortages and surpluses
- Bribery and corruption
- Private monopolies + MNEs
- External costs due to increased production, e.g. dumping, pollution
- Consumer demand leads to high demand and inflation (3/4)
- Unequal distribution of income
- Rich get richer (lots of wealth)/poor get poorer
Consumer
- Private schools and hospitals = high prices
- External costs of consumer demand and open market = alcohol, drugs (demerit goods)
- Shortages
- Less competition = higher prices (monopolies and MNEs)
- Excessive variety
- Higher prices (no price fixing)
- Consumer protection laws needed
- Higher prices for goods and services (previously free or low priced) (4/3)
MUST mention consumer and government to earn 7 marks [7]
3 (a) Most candidates received half the marks but were unable to differentiate between the methods of advertising
for the taxi driver and the engineer. A few candidates mentioned specialist magazines or job agencies for the
engineer. Many candidates referred to television, billboards, cinemas and other methods used to advertise a
product or service, but not vacancies.
Answer
Taxi driver
- Newspaper
- Family and friends
- Notice boards (pamphlets/posters) (3)
Production engineer
- Newspaper
- Internet
- Job agencies
- Specialist magazines (3)
NOT Radio/TV/Billboards/Packaging
If no differentiation maximum 5 marks [6]
(b) Well answered, although candidates repeated some reasons more than once.
Answer
- Driver’s licence (taxi licence)
- PDP licence to transport people
- Ability to do job/work with people/love job/not difficult
- Income (unemployed/retrenched/dismissed/retired)
- Lack of education (unskilled)
- Flexibility of work/working hours
- Extra income (improves living standard/money for studies)
- Recognition and status in community
- High demand for taxi drivers could mean higher income [7]

(c) Many candidates were able to explain why a production engineer earns higher wages than a taxi driver. Few
candidates linked the higher wage to the demand and supply of engineers and taxi drivers respectively.
Answer
Demand = high production engineer
= low taxi driver
Supply = high taxi driver
= low engineer
Because of
- Qualifications and duration of training
- Status of job
- Natural ability/skills (analytical/innovative/constructive)
- Responsibility (bridges/dams/buildings/roads)
- Dangerous job (construction sites)
- Working experience and seniority
NOT fringe benefits/regional differences/male and female/profit sharing and overtime and bonus
If not linked to demand and supply maximum 5 marks (7 x 1 OR 3 x 2 + 1) [7]
4 (a) This question was well answered by most candidates. Listing posed a problem.
Answer
- Job opportunities and better living standards
- Increase GDP/economic growth/economic development
- Increase exports (cement)
- Decrease imports of cement
- Country becomes self-sufficient in production of cement
- Expansion of technology and skills
- Lower cement prices
- Corporation tax (Ohorongo)
- Scholarships/sponsorships/donations
- Increase foreign currency – multiplier [6]
(b) Candidates should have discussed the advantages of specialisation in cement production for Ohorongo
Cement and its employees, and not specialisation in general.
Answer
Ohorongo Cement
- Higher output (of cement/production is faster)
- Specialised machinery (tools)
- Resources not lying idle
- Better quality cement (standardised product)
- Increases output = fall in average cost = economies of scale (3/4)
Employees
- Easier unskilled employment (machines do the work)
- More income due to more output (piece rates, productivity bonus, etc.)
- Less exhaustion (less walking around and machines do the work/shorter working hours)
- Fewer mistakes (fewer disciplinary problems) (4/3) [7]
(c) Many candidates failed to link the advantages of Ohorongo Cement to the building industry and explained the
advantages of Ohorongo Cement to Namibia.
Answer
- Reduce transport cost
- Reduce building cost = more profits
- Not dependent on imports = lower import costs, e.g. tariffs
- Purchasing economies of scale = buy cement in bulk and get discount
- Regular supply of cement (not imported/locally produced)
- Competition between cement suppliers = lower prices and better quality
- Increase building operations = more revenue
Explain [7]

5 (a) Most candidates did not describe structural and cyclical unemployment. Lack of skills/training/education/
qualifications/experience was identified as the main reason for the high unemployment rate in Namibia by the
majority of candidates.
Answer
- Seasonal ̶ fishing
- High population growth
- Lack of skills/training/education/qualifications/experience
- Structural ̶ lack of demand (industries and exports)
- Cyclical = economy in recession (lack of total demand and many businesses closing down)
- Technological unemployment
- Frictional ̶ lack of knowledge of available jobs
- Occupational immobility due to specialisation
- Diseases = HIV/Aids
- Cultural beliefs
- Labour union involvement
- Unaffordable minimum wages
- Lack of funding for SMEs
- Social attitude (alcohol misuse and teenage pregnancies)
- Lack of motivation (wages too low and high transfer payments)
- Low government spending to increase demand and jobs (regional development) [6]
(b) Some candidates mentioned the three methods of measuring the national income instead of the reasons for
measuring the national income.
Answer
Provide government with essential information
- To make plans for the economy (economic objectives) (2)
To indicate changes in the standard of living
- To see average income of people
- Tell us how national income is distributed (3)
Compare living standards in different countries
- Compare status of country in international rankings on living standard issues (2) [7]
(c) Candidates who listed the factors which influence the standard of living in Namibia could score a maximum of
three marks. Few candidates were able to discuss these factors in detail.
Answer
- Education/literacy rate (number of schools and tertiary institutions)
- Health/doctors per person (hospitals, clinics, vaccinations)
- Income per person/GDP per capita (poverty and not able to satisfy basic needs)
- Inflation rate and price increases (higher prices = less real income)
- Basic amenities (housing, sanitation, water, telephones)
- Infrastructure development (roads, telecommunication, water, electricity)
- Social and cultural beliefs (women and children not educated and working)
- Law and order and crime rate (no income, bad living conditions, no values)
- Diseases/disabilities (no income and employment and spending money on medicine)
- Population growth (birth rates and death rates and migration rates and life expectancy)
- Amount of government spending on merit and public goods and services
Discuss (7 x 1 OR 3 x 2 + 1) [7]
6 (a) (i) Well answered; most candidates were able to identify roads as an example of infrastructure.
Answer
- All manmade features/assets/environment
- Example, roads, railways, electricity and water supply, etc. [2]

(ii) Most candidates were able to explain the benefits of capital-intensive production methods, but could only
score one mark for increased output, productivity or efficiency/faster or easier.
Answer
- Increases output/productivity/faster/efficiency/easier/variety
- Better quality/more accurate (standardised products)
- Machines do dangerous/dirty work/work continuously and do not get tired
- Fewer labour problems and costs
- Higher output and lower average costs = economies of scale [4]
(b) Many candidates listed the factors that might influence a person’s ability to spend instead of explaining how
each factor influences spending.
Answer
- The level of disposable income (satisfies needs and more luxury products)
- The rate of indirect tax (VAT) (lower VAT = lower prices = more spending)
- Holding of personal wealth (house, buildings, farms, cattle, cars)
- Interest rates and borrowing (lower interest rates = more borrowing and loans = more spending)
- Credit facilities and availability of shops and hire purchase (more available = more spending)
- High inflation rates = high prices (less real income = less spending)
- Attitude towards spending and saving (save money to provide for future needs = less spending)
- Social life (taste, brands, parties and clubs)
- Age (young people spend more than older people) (7 x 1 OR 3 x 2 + 1) [7]
(c) This question was answered well. Most candidates explained why the government should be involved in the
provision of infrastructure.
Answer
- Mostly public goods (roads, street lights)
- It requires a huge capital outlay
- Benefits whole country
- Necessity (development of country and better living standard)
- Government receives and uses taxation to provide infrastructure
- Employment creation
- Prevents monopolies
- Controls externalities
- No market prices (no measured consumption = non-excludable)
- Merit goods and services (water, electricity, telecommunication) = affordable prices [7]
• Teach candidates not to list any features or facts unless the question specifically asks them to do so.
• All answers must be written in paragraph form and in full sentences.
• Tables and tabulating of features are not allowed.
• Pay attention to command words, e.g. describe, explain, assess.
• Set all tests and examination question papers according to NSSC standards and mark accordingly. Do proper and
detailed corrections.
• Make sure that candidates know how to analyse questions and how to link and apply knowledge.
• Read market sections and economic news every day (in newspapers) and apply that knowledge to the economic
topics taught in class. Put newspaper articles (economic) on notice boards on classrooms.
• Candidates should pay attention to mark allocation. One sentence only is not enough for 4 to 6 marks. Candidates
should not decide on how marks might be allocated.
• Teach candidates to leave lines open between questions and to begin each question on a new page. Read the
instructions before starting.

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE
4116
Paper 1&2
General comments
The length of the papers was acceptable. The overall performance of the candidates has improved considerably in
Paper 1 and slightly in Paper 2. Parts 1 and 2 were answered fairly well, although poor lifting or incomplete ideas cost
the candidates valuable marks. Part 3 once again showed improvement in the following areas:
• The use of paragraphs. Only a few candidates did not use paragraphs.
• Most candidates used the spaces provided.
• Only a few candidates could not complete all sections of the paper, which showed that they were able to manage
their time reasonably well.
• Prompts were addressed well and developed although teachers can spend more time on teaching the proper
development of prompts.
The following aspects need to be addressed urgently:

• Too many candidates are on the wrong level. Centres must take greater care in determining the level at which
their candidates are entered. Another major problem that grows yearly was that the head of examinations and
the invigilators did not make sure that candidates wrote the correct papers. This year especially there were far too
many wrong entries.
• Length of summary NOT MORE and especially NOT LESS than 5 words off the word limit. Too many summaries
are still too long or too short.
• Lifts used incorrectly, seeing that only partially correct information is lifted and this results in the candidates not
scoring marks.
• Careless lifting resulting in no marks gained.
• Careless spelling, concord and grammar need a lot of attention. Common errors such as lifting an e-mail address
and proper nouns incorrectly will not be rewarded. Changing the meaning of a word, e.g. grow instead of glow costs
the candidates valuable marks.
• Words from the passages are copied incorrectly e.g. Stuyvesand instead of Stuyvesant.
• Candidates had a serious problem with the language section. They failed to punctuate correctly, resulting in their
losing many unnecessary marks.
• Candidates used idioms randomly, which had no reference to the written piece.
• Again, many candidates lost marks because they completed their paper in pencil. No work in pencil will be
marked – the instructions are very clear. Write in dark blue or black ink!
Part 1 – Exercise 1: Questions 1 – 7
This section was answered fairly well by the majority of candidates, although there were some disappointing answers.
1 This question was well answered. Most candidates lifted the correct answer: “He came from jail with such grace
and forgiveness”.
2 Many candidates answered this question correctly although some left out South Africa and therefore did not score
the mark since the correct answer was “Opening a school in South Africa”.
3 The majority answered this question correctly, giving one of the two options correctly. Either “claimed more than
200 000 lives” or “deadliest natural disaster in a century” would have been rewarded. Some candidates, though,
only lifted part of the second option leaving out “deadliest” or “in a century” or wrote “in a country” which did not
score a mark.
4 This question was generally answered poorly. The correct answer was “A subsequent visit to Sri Lanka a year
later” or “He went back to Sri Lanka a year later”. Candidates failed to write the complete answer.

5 This question was well answered although some candidates spelled Stuyvesant incorrectly in which case no mark
could be awarded because it is a proper noun.
6 The question was well answered. Most candidates managed to give the correct answer “unifying power” and some
gave the second option “Music is the thing that brings everyone together”. Some candidates wrote the wrong
option “It helps fight racism” scoring no marks.
7 This question was well answered. Candidates gave one of the two options oprahmag.co.za/subs@ramsaymedia.
co.za Unfortunately, there were many candidates who scored no marks because the “s” or “z” was a capital letter.
Some candidates wrote a telephone number first or added a full stop to the address which meant no marks.
Exercise 2 (Extended Paper): Questions 8 – 13
Candidates struggled to answer the first three questions in this section.
8 Very few candidates could give the correct answer “325 million baby names were used/analysed”.
9 Most candidates who did not score a mark left out vital information. The correct answer was “dropped from 25% in
1945 to 8% in 2007”.
10 Most candidates answered this question poorly because they did not add the year. The question clearly stated that
the candidate had to give the difference before 1990 and after 1990; therefore it was imperative that the date was
mentioned correctly in the answer. The correct answer was also not just a mere lift, because it would have resulted
in the wrong answer. The candidate had to manipulate the information to supply a correct answer. The correct
answer was “Before 1990 people wanted to fit in/follow the rules but after 1990 people were standing out and being
unique/our culture becoming more self-centred”.
11 This question was generally well answered. Candidates who scored no marks either spelled Taylor Lautner
incorrectly or wrote “Twilight” or “Jacob”.
12 Most candidates could answer this question correctly. The answer “would make a fool of the child/set her up with
a social disability and handicap”.
13 This question was well answered. Most candidates wrote the correct answer “They would name their first-born
after the person who found their dog.”
Exercise 2 (Core Paper) Questions 6 - 10
This question was answered fairly well by most candidates.
6 This question was generally answered poorly. Many candidates opted for the first hormone “ghrelin” instead of
“leptin” because they did not read properly.
7 This question was answered well by most candidates stating “it slows thinking skills”.
8 Candidates who scored no marks for this question wrote “melatonin, cancer-fighting antioxidant, disease-fighting”,
clearly showing candidates do not read properly. The answer was set out clearly in the heading and repeated in
the passage. The options were “cancer/breast cancer, depression, ulcers, colds”.
9 This question was answered fairly with most candidates giving the correct answer “6 – 7”.
10 This question was problematic because the candidates had to make sure that they answered it correctly. If they
only wrote “depression and low self-esteem” or “they will take to drink and drugs” it meant that getting enough sleep
could result in this. The correct answer was “Those who sleep poorly are more than twice as likely to take to drink
and drugs/It can lead to depression and low self-esteem if they don’t get enough sleep/To avoid depression and
low self-esteem/The depression and low self-esteem often associated with just being a teenager actually correlates
with sleep shortage”.

Exercise 3: Questions 14 – 19
This question was also problematic. Candidates only lifted partial ideas, therefore not scoring full marks.
14 This question was answered poorly. Most candidates scored only one mark instead of two. The information was
in more than one paragraph therefore candidates had to read the passage. The correct options were “A fearless
fighter, iron willed and determination/determined”. Any two would have scored full marks.
15 Candidates answered this question fairly well. All information was required to get full marks “To save Africa’s
forests and root out the corruption that was behind their destruction.”
16 This question was answered well although some candidates wrote “environment” instead of “environmentalist” and
“activity” instead of “activist”. The correct answer was “She was an environmentalist; not a peace activist”. If the
candidate wrote “piece” no mark was awarded.
17 Many candidates only quoted “protecting our natural resources” which is actually the reason for peace and not war.
The correct answer should have been “When resources are degraded/natural resources / protecting our natural
resources is the key to peace, since it’s often the reason people go to war.”
18 Very few candidates mastered this simple question because they left out vital information. To score the mark
candidates had to write the complete answer “scrap plans to build an office tower in Uhuru Park”.
19 This question was also problematic because candidates once again left out a vital idea. The correct answer was
“she was horrified by the changes her homeland had undergone/the horrifying changes in her homeland”.
Part 2 – Exercise 1: Questions 20 -26
This part was once again answered poorly by the candidates. Candidates used full stops incorrectly, capital letters
in the wrong places and made terrible spelling errors. Teachers must note that only slight variations are done yearly,
but the basic language competencies like direct and indirect speech, active and passive voice and different types of
sentences are always tested. Teachers must spend considerable time incorporating language in their lessons.
20 Candidates had to write only the words that were left out, but some wrote the entire sentence, while others
wrote the words with a capital letter or put a full stop behind it. In both cases the candidates scored no
marks. The correct answers were: a) an/the b) around c) wades d) its
21 Many candidates couldn’t find the correct answer which was “afraid”.
22 This question was answered fairly well and candidates gave the correct answer: “Chimps do not use tools a lot.”
23 This question was answered poorly although there were a considerable number of candidates who scored a mark
for the correct answer: “A stick is grabbed (by the gorilla) to help her find her way.”
24 Candidates did not answer this question well, clearly showing that many of them have not mastered basic English
yet. The correct answer was “too and for”.
25 Many candidates struggled with changing sentences from direct to reported speech. The correct answer was
“(that) that was the first time a gorilla had been seen using tools in the wild.”
26 Candidates had to underline “waste” and “quiet”. Many candidates deleted the answers or underlined only one
option. These are unnecessary mistakes and should be avoided.
Exercise 2 (Extended Paper) Question 27 - 31
27 Candidates struggled to get both ideas correct and most scored only one mark for “his seat rattled wildly” and left
out “it felt like a hand was pushing him straight up into the air”. Many candidates also wrote “widly” and “widely”
which resulted in not scoring a mark at all.

28 Candidates who failed to score two marks either wrote one correct answer only, or made a spelling error, e.g.
“growing back” instead of “glowing black”. The correct options were “velvety blackness/darker than any colour/inky
darkness seemed like it was glowing black”.
29 This question was answered well with most candidates scoring the mark. If a candidate wrote only “13” instead of
“13 seconds” no mark was awarded.
30 This question was again mostly answered partially. To score both marks candidates had to write “solar flares that
reach the Earth’s atmosphere cause gases in the atmosphere to glow”. If candidates wrote “grow” no mark was
awarded for the second part of the answer. Very few candidates received a mark for “solar flares”.
31 This question was answered poorly because many candidates lifted incomplete ideas. Candidates had to compare
the sunsets on Earth with those you see in the shuttle and they failed to make the comparison. To score three
marks candidates had to write “In the shuttle you orbit Earth every 90 minutes, therefore seeing 16 sunsets. (one
mark) On Earth we can see one sunset because Earth rotates/spin on its axis. (one mark) It takes Earth 24 hours
to complete one rotation. (one mark)
Exercise 2 (Core) Questions 20
The form-filling exercise.
This question was answered poorly and a major disappointment. Candidates could not lift straight-forward information
like a name and address. The e-mail address was also problematic because it should NEVER be in block letters, have
spaces, a full stop or be written in cursive writing. Few candidates managed to get it correct. The telephone number
was also a problem because candidates had to read carefully to notice that the telephone numbers were switched in the
answer. Teachers must please spend time on completing forms in class. This is an exercise where candidates should
aim for full marks.
Exercise 3 (Extended)
This question was answered fairly well. Candidates still lifted irrelevant information or wrote too short or too long
summaries. This resulted in candidates scoring very low marks for the language section. However, many candidates
scored good marks for content. They could score a maximum of 6 marks for content. The content marks were:
1. A lack of balance makes us fat./Varied as possible.
2. We consume less than 60 calories per day from table sugar.
3. Table sugar is just a natural carbohydrate.
4. Can adhere to low-fat diets for longer.
5. Metabolising table sugar uses up quite a lot of calories.
6. Contains half the calories of fat.
7. Combined with high-fibre food, helps us balance our energy levels.
Exercise 3 (Core)
Many candidates found this question problematic. The note-taking summary needs to be dealt with in class. Candidates
will continue struggling with it unless teachers pay more attention to it.
Part 3: Exercise 1
Candidates answered this question poorly. They wrote about helping groups of people instead of only one person. The
difficulty they helped with was also very vague and not mentioned specifically. Many candidates wanted to help people
to enter for the competition which was not what was required of them. They also said how they would use the money
to help someone, which was not asked either. Learners must be taught how to analyse questions before answering
them. They should not rush through the reading of questions because that results in their misunderstanding what is
expected of them.
Exercise 2
This question was answered relatively well. The three prompts were used effectively, but were not developed resulting
in candidates scoring average marks. The tone was also often not encouraging which was a requirement for this
question.

Exercise 3
Many candidates scored average marks because it was a discursive and not an argumentative essay. The biggest
mistake they made was to list the ideas mentioned without developing them properly or adding some ideas of their own.
This resulted in many candidates scoring C3 L3. Candidates must also make sure that they understand the question.
For this question they had to give their ideas on whether bullying is a growing problem or whether children should be
left to deal with this problem on their own. It was not about bullying in general.
Candidates should be taught the following:

• Grammar, spelling, concord.
• To use prompts correctly and to develop them.
• To use correct register and tone.
• Interpretation of a question: read and read again!!
• To lift correctly.
• To use the spaces provided.
• To adhere to word limits.
• To write legibly without any inappropriate language.
• To instil a love of reading.
Teachers should ̶
• use different texts from different sources when teaching
• actively become involved in marking

4116
Paper 3
General comments
The question paper was of such a standard that it accommodated all levels of candidates’ abilities and was according
to the prescribed syllabus. There was therefore an improvement in the candidates’ performances compared to those
of the previous year.
The majority of candidates showed a comprehension of the questions which was portrayed in the answers given. Some
candidates did not follow instructions and lost marks in Question 7 where they needed to tick and not write “T” and “F”
in the boxes for True and False. No pencil answers are allowed, however, a few candidates still made use of writing
in pencil for which they were penalised. Candidates should be taught that there is not enough time to give answers in
pencil and then rewrite them in ink.
The paper was not difficult and most candidates should have had an average performance, however, the use of poor
sound systems could have prevented them from scoring higher marks at some centres. It is advisable that centres
test their sound systems before the test is taken with the candidates already seated to avoid this in future. Also,
large centres could place smaller groups in classrooms with a cd player to take the test. Many part-time candidates
complained about the quality of the sound system on their answer scripts. Thus, this advice should be taken seriously,
especially the part-time centres.
Indecipherable handwriting and untidy work contributed to the poor performance of some candidates. Everyday-used
words, for example breakfast, kilogram and numbers like “five thousand/5 000” were spelt incorrectly, which affected
the candidates’ marks. Candidates must be taught to write what they hear and should not change words. For example,
instead of “Mathematics classes” they wrote “Mathematics lessons”, which resulted in a wrong answer. Additionally,
candidates wrote long answers and only the first part of the answer was considered. They should be taught to make
use of the provided lines only and give only what is asked in the question.
Many candidates performed well in the first two parts of the paper and only had difficulty to answer Part 3. Teachers are
once again advised to practise listening comprehension exercises with the learners throughout the year.
Part 1
Exercise 1: Questions 1-6
1 This was an easy question and many candidates gave the correct answer. Some, however, wrote “shore grounds”
and some candidates added the other venue mentioned in the text, “City Centre” or “Windhoek” which made the
answer incorrect.
Correct answer
(at the) showground(s)
2 Although many candidates got this answer correct, some did not, because the word “all” or “mathematics” was
omitted. Also, some candidates did not use the correct tense. Instead of “did not” they wrote “are not” or “do not”
attend which made the answer incorrect. Many answered “class” (singular form) instead of “classes” (plural form)
which resulted in the wrong answer. Lastly, some changed the word “classes” to “lessons”.
Correct answer
They did not attend all the mathematics classes.
3 This was also an easy question. Most candidates gave the correct answer.
Correct answer
620 km/620 kilometres/six hundred and twenty kilometres

4 Many candidates could not spell “certified” and “identity” which resulted in no mark. They wrote “satisfied”,
“certification” and/or “indentity”, “identification” and “card” instead of “document”.
Correct answer:
(i) Certified copy of (their) statement of Grade 12 results
(ii) Identity document (ID)
5 This was a very challenging question for the majority of the candidates. Most candidates could not provide clear
directions and failed to spell words like “straight”, “Independence”, “avenue” and “robots” correctly. The candidates
also struggled to give the correct prepositions, for example “down Independence Avenue” and “left at the robots”.
Many wrote “straight to Independence Avenue and turn left on the robots” which made the answer incorrect.
Correct answer:
Straight down Independence Avenue and turn left at the robots.
6 This was well answered. Some candidates however did not know the difference between pm and am as they wrote
“11 pm in the morning”.
Correct answer:
11 pm/eleven pm/23:00
Part 2
Exercise 1:
7 Many spelling errors occurred in this exercise and candidates added unnecessary words to the correct answers.
For example, candidates wrote “body water” and not only water or “regular meals” and not only regular which were
already on the answer script.
Candidates should be taught that for the cloze exercise (gap filling) they only need to provide the missing information
and should learn to read the question beforehand in order to know what needs to be written – as they do not need
to rewrite the words already in the sentence on the question paper.
Correct answers:
(a) Crash
(b) water
(c) Protein
(d) permanent
(e) lifestyle
(f) tiredness
(g) negative
(h) regular
(i) breakfast
(j) vegetable
(k) 1/one kilogram
(l) dietician

Exercise 2
8 Many candidates scored full marks in this exercise. There are however still candidates not following the instructions,
for example instead of ticking as per instruction, they made crosses or wrote “T” or “F” or completed the question
in pencil, which resulted in a loss of marks.
Correct answer
(a) False
(b) True
(c) False
(d) False
(e) True
(f) False
(g) True
(h) False
(i) True
(j) True
(k) False
(l) False
Part 3
Exercise 1
9 This was the most challenging exercise of the paper for all the candidates. Many could not provide the correct
answers and scored no marks. Many spelling errors were made with everyday-used words which resulted in no
marks given.
(a) Hardly any candidates could make the comparison in this answer. They only gave the first part of the answer
and omitted the comparison “apart from fires”.
Correct answer:
Most common and widespread (of all natural disasters) apart from fires.
(b) Many candidates merely wrote “low lying areas near water and downstream from a dam” omitting the verb and
the comma when listing information. This resulted in an incorrect answer as they did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
Those located in low lying areas/near water/downstream from a dam.
(c) Many candidates scored one mark for this question, however many spelling errors resulted in incorrect
answers, for example – “Planned department, Plan department, Planning departmet, Planning departement
or Planning dipartment”.
Correct answer:
Planning department (at your local Municipal Offices).

(d) Most candidates struggled with the spelling of the correct answers and lost marks. Candidates knew the
correct answer and tried to write the words but failed to write words sounding similar to the correct answer, for
example – “plae wood, play wood and/or plastic shitting and/or shavels and/or send back, sentbagy”.
Correct answer:
- plywood
- plastic sheeting
- shovels
- sandbags (Any 2)
(e) Most candidates also struggled with the spelling of the correct answers and lost marks. Also, some candidates
failed to give the complete answer, instead they wrote only the first part of the correct answer, for example –
“food and water” omitting “emergency”. This also applies for the other incorrect answers.
Candidates knew the correct answers and tried to write the words but failed to write words sounding like the
correct answer, for example – “first aid kid, emergence food and water, protect clothers/cloth”.
Correct answer:
- first aid kit (and manual)
- emergency food and water
- non-electric can opener
- non-electric medicine(s)
- protective clothing (Any 2)
(f) This question was problematic for most candidates. Instead of writing “How and when to call for medical
help”, they wrote “How and when to go for medical health/emergency/assistance/aid and lost marks.
Very few candidates understood the question. How and when were ignored and the answer was regarded as
incomplete or only wrote “which radio to tune into...”.
Correct answer:
How and when to call for medical help OR Which radio station to tune into for emergency information.
Exercise 2:
10 This exercise was poorly performed, wrong details were provided, irrelevant information was given and in some
cases unnecessary details were written. However, most candidates scored at least two (2) marks for (c).
(a) It was difficult for most candidates to answer this question correctly. Most candidates only wrote “Through
coughs and sneezes” leaving out respiratory droplets. Many failed to spell the words “respiratory droplets,
coughs and sneezes” correctly.
Correct answer:
Through respiratory droplets of coughs and sneezes (when someone has a cold).
(b) Many candidates lost marks for incorrect information given and spelling errors. The word “hard surfaces”
which was not part of the answer was written as “hot surfaces” and therefore it was marked wrong. Many
candidates did not spell some words like cafeteria, telephone, keyboards, doorknobs correctly and some even
wrote keyboards as two words. If the word did not sound like the correct answer it was marked wrong.
Correct answer:
- cafeteria tables
- telephone receivers
- computer keyboards
- doorknobs

(c) Most candidates scored two (2) marks for this question. Some candidates did not know how to write numbers,
for example, instead of writing 36 000 and 5 000 they wrote 360 000 and 500 000 respectively or 36 000
thousand and 5 000 thousand. Some candidates wrote 36 000,00 or 5 000,00 as if they were referring to
money.
Correct answer:
- 36 000/thirty six thousand
- 5 000/five thousand
(d) This question was misunderstood by most candidates because they substituted the correct answer with “they
don’t wash their hands before preparing a meal” which is not what was asked. Additionally, many candidates
substituted the correct preposition “before” with “after”, which made the answer incorrect.
Correct answer:
(They) do not wash their hands before leaving (the rest rooms).
(e) Some candidates could answer this question, and many omitted “through” which was essential to answer the
question. Many candidates could not spell “nose” and instead wrote “noise” which was incorrect. Plus, some
candidates added ears, and face and wrote inappropriate body parts as part of their answer.
Correct answer:
Through (your) eyes, nose and mouth.
There was a tremendous improvement in the candidates’ performance in this paper. Teachers should continue giving
more listening exercises in class to prepare the candidates for the listening comprehension examination. Furthermore
teachers are encouraged to do Spelling Bee competitions at their school to improve the listening and spelling skills of
candidates.
Teachers should motivate their learners to read the questions before answering them and underline what they should
listen for in that particular question. Also, candidates should read instructions carefully before they attempt to answer
any question. Candidates should be encouraged by their teachers to write what they hear and not write synonyms of
the words they have heard.
Teacher should guide their learners to keep their answers brief and write only on the lines provided. Especially because
this is a listening comprehension examination and the recording is only played twice, candidates should be taught to
write clearly and visibly. If candidates omit a word and they have to add it, they should make use of the relevant sign
used to indicate where they would like to place it.
Teachers should reinforce dictation to make sure that learners are exposed to vocabulary and will not struggle with the
spelling of words. Usage of dictionaries by all learners must be emphasised as from Grade 8.
Lastly, centres should test their sound systems before the time with the candidates seated, as an empty hall will not
deliver the same sound quality as an occupied hall. The sound system should be of high quality to ensure that all
candidates have equal opportunity to deliver their best in this examination. Part-time centres need to address this
problem with immediate effect to avoid candidates losing marks unnecessarily in future.

4116
Paper 4
General comments
As was reported in 2010, 2011 and 2012 many Grade 12 English Second Language teachers once again did not
follow the simple instructions as stipulated in the Examiner’s Notes. The procedures regarding the conducting
of the oral examination as well as the awarding of the marks according to the marking criteria were not followed
at many centres. This was the reason why many candidates were disadvantaged in 2013 as was the case in
2011 and in 2012.
Generally, as in 2012, many problems were again experienced during the moderation process of 2013. Problems
included:
• the submission of CDs that could not open on a CD player because the recordings were not burnt on the CD,
• blank CDs were submitted, proving that internal moderation was not done at the schools,
• the recorded candidates were not in the same order as indicated on the blue CD label,
• not starting each CD with a clear statement stating the centre number, centre name, examination, examiner’s name
and date,
• not introducing each candidate by stating the candidate number and candidate name,
• incomplete samples, e.g. not 10 recordings per centre or 5 recordings per examiner at centres with more
than one examiner and more than 10 candidates,
• the selected candidates on the CD were not always indicated with an asterisk (*) on the OASF,
• the candidates indicated on the blue CD label did not correspond with the recordings on the CD,
• incorrect candidate numbers were written on the blue CD label,
• incorrect candidate numbers were written on the OASF,
• adding and transfer mistakes were made,
• lozenges were skipped and not shaded on the MS1,
• absent learners were not indicated as absent on the OASF, especially at the part-time centres, and where candidates
eventually turned up for the examination, their marks were not transferred to either the MS1 or the OASF,
• marks of candidates on the OASF differed completely from those on the MS1 – and this did not happen due to a
transfer mistake, but the mark had been deliberately erased and changed on the MS1,
• examiners wrote names and examination numbers on the MS1 forms, which is not allowed,
• the order of the names of the candidates on the Oral Assessment Summary Form (OASF) at some centres was still
not listed as it appears on the MS1,
• examiners and/or candidates, especially NAMCOL candidates, had their cellphones on during the examination,
which is totally against the rules of the examination,
• either the MS1 or the OASF or both documents were not included in the envelope containing the centre’s examination
material.
In addition to the abovementioned, the oral test was not conducted as prescribed.
Some examiners:
• skipped the warm-up section,
• conducted warm-up sessions that lasted less than a minute or 1 minute only,
• conducted the main part of the test for only 4 - 5 minutes which was too short,
• were unprepared so that confusing questions were asked, or
• converted the prompts into the only questions set to the candidates, and they were not ready to ask relevant
questions if candidates responded briefly to questions,
• asked questions that were poorly structured and not grammatically correct; often the candidates were confused and
could not respond appropriately/relevantly to the question,
• did not assist the candidates, because they expected from them to deliver long monologues on the selected topic,
• were not sympathetic towards the weaker candidates, because they did not keep the conversation going by asking
easy and relevant questions, instead the examiners were the cause of the long pauses,

• interrupted or completed candidates’ sentences if it seemed they took too long to complete their thoughts,
• “hi-jacked” the candidate’s conversation, leaving the candidate to play a minor role in the test which is meant to be
the candidate’s examination session.
The abovementioned points give a clear indication that many examiners neither read nor follow the instructions
in the Examiner’s Notes.
Examiners have been requested since 2009 to study the comments in the moderators’ reports carefully and to
apply them, but this is ignored year after year as the instructions in the Examiner’s Notes are ignored.
Quality of recordings
The sound quality of the recordings was generally very good, although there were a few recordings which were indistinct
because the microphone of the recorder was placed too far away from the candidates.
Examiners’/candidates’ cellphones were on and could be heard on the recordings. This is not allowed.
Background noise was again a disturbance such as babies crying, children yelling and screaming, cellphones ringing,
teachers fiddling with papers or scribbling on papers and chairs scraping over the floors.
Recommendations
• All the centres must listen to the samples before submitting them for external moderation.
• Examiners should switch off their cellphones during the examination. DO NOT put them on vibrate or silent!
• Examiners should record the sample and the back-up sample in an area or at a time where there is as little noise
as possible.
Range of samples
Many examiners did not adhere to the instructions in the Examiner’s Notes regarding the range of samples. These
centres did not submit sample recordings that covered the whole range of abilities; especially the weakest and the
strongest candidates were not recorded. Alternatively, many centres submitted samples that included the best and the
weakest candidates and the average candidates were not recorded.
Some examiners did not indicate the samples recorded on the Oral Assessment Summary Form with an asterisk (*).
The names of the candidates on the sample were not written on the blue label of the CD as they appeared on the
sample. Some centres also indicated candidates as part of the sample whose recordings were not included in the
sample.
Many examiners started each recording with the centre number, name, examination, examiner name, the date, the
candidate number and name. This should not be done!
Recommendations
• Each centre should select and record 10 candidates who represent the centre. It would be good if 3 of the best, 4
middling and 3 of the weakest candidates are recorded as part of the sample.
• At centres where two or more examiners are responsible for Grade 12 English as a Second Language, 5 candidates
per examiner must be recorded.
• Examiners should make sure that the candidates whose names appear on the blue label are indeed the
names of the candidates who are recorded as part of the sample. That is why internal moderation is so
important.
• Examiners should only state the centre number, name, examination, examiner name and the date at the beginning
of each CD with the sample recordings.
• Examiners need not say “end of sample” anymore, since the recordings are on CDs.
• The sample of 10 recordings should fit onto one CD. Each CD can take up to 700 MB of memory. This is big
enough for 10 recordings of ± 15 minutes.

Examining techniques
Many of the examiners were well prepared and asked relevant, interesting and thought-provoking questions. However,
too many examiners still allowed long monologues and did not support the candidates by asking questions, thus creating
a conversation.
The purpose of the warm-up section is to put candidates at ease, but many examiners asked one or two questions that
lasted for a minute only instead of 2 to 3 minutes as prescribed. Where examiners made full use of the 2 to 3 minutes
to put candidates at ease, candidates generally performed very well during the oral test. Alternatively, some warm-up
sections lasted too long. In addition, examiners asked difficult questions to candidates such as “What do you think of
unemployment in Namibia?” or “What do you think about the recent passion killings in Namibia?
The main part of the oral test should last about 9 minutes. Many examiners rushed through the oral test which lasted
only 4 to 6 minutes, and thus disadvantaged these candidates.
Again, examiners penalised candidates who spoke slowly, because low marks were awarded to these candidates.
Many examiners chose the difficult topics, or topics that the candidates could not relate to, especially for the weaker
candidates. E.g., topics such as Exciting Career Options, the Internet or Forgiveness were selected for weaker
candidates who could say little about the topics.
Some examiners did not give candidates time to express their opinions about the topics. They kept on interrupting
them, some even took over the conversation.
Some examiners showed impatience with the weaker candidates, especially when they could not answer the posed
questions. They clearly showed irritation.
Many examiners struggled to structure grammatically correct questions. This resulted in confusion and candidates
could not respond to the best of their ability.
Recommendations
• Examiners should adhere to the instructions given in the Examiner’s Notes. The warm-up section has a purpose
and MUST be conducted. Prepare interesting and relevant questions to ask during this section. Ensure that the
questions are clear and grammatically correct.
• The examiners should remember that the oral test is one of spoken language and not of subject knowledge.
If the candidates cannot speak about the topics that were chosen for them, the examiner may move to a
more productive topic within the selected topic. Alternatively, change the topic to one that the candidate
may be able to speak about. There is no need to stick rigidly to the topic or the examiner prompts on the
Oral Topic Card. No candidate needs to struggle through a topic that they cannot talk about.
• The examiners should prepare questions on the different Oral Topics in addition to the prompts on the Topic Card.
This will help them to guide candidates into a conversation if a candidate has little to say about the given prompts
about the Oral Topic.
• Listen to what the candidates have to say about a topic and probe them on their opinions and ideas. So, listen
attentively to candidates and develop real conversations with them.
• If candidates speak slowly it does not necessarily mean that they cannot speak about the topic or that they are
weak. Many of the candidates listened to, were good speakers. Examiners should be objective and should not
allow this matter to influence them when marks are awarded to candidates. If a candidate speaks continuously
about the topic and has the vocabulary to express his/her thoughts, they cannot be considered as weak or average.
Weak candidates will give single-word responses or utter sentences with many language errors that blur, but do not
obscure communication.
• Examiners should study the topics carefully beforehand and select the easier topics for the weaker
candidates. Examiners who really know their candidates will carefully select the oral topic which would
best suit every individual candidate.
• When recording the sample the examiner should try to include as many of the different topics provided as possible.

• Examiners must not be hesitant to award high marks, because the marking grid is lenient, especially towards the
weaker candidates.
• When marks are awarded for the different categories, they should relate to each other. For example, if 7 out
of 10 is awarded for vocabulary and 4 out of 10 for fluency, the marks do not relate to each other because
one needs vocabulary to be fluent.
• NAMCOL tutors must familiarise the candidates with the examination process for oral. This must be done either
during class time or during the holiday workshops.
• NAMCOL candidates must obtain the same information as any full-time candidate. It is, therefore, the responsibility
of the tutor to see that the candidates are familiar with the examination process of the oral test.
• Candidates should be taught not to use foul language during interviews.
• Examiners should NOT enter names and candidate numbers on the MS1.
Topic Card A – Mobile phones
This topic seemed to be the easiest topic for many candidates. Many candidates could talk about what they use
cellphones for and the advantages and disadvantages of cellphones.
Topic Card B – Exciting career options
Many candidates seemed to find this topic difficult. This is the topic that examiners should have chosen for the strongest
candidates.
Topic Card C – The internet
This topic also seemed to be a difficult topic for many candidates who do not have access to the internet. Many
candidates could not speak at length about this topic, even if the examiners posed relevant questions. Frequent
prompting from the side of the examiner was necessary if candidates could not relate to the topic.
Topic Card D – School rules
This topic also seemed to be an easy topic for many candidates. Many candidates could speak at length about it and
frequent prompting from the side of the examiner was unnecessary. Many candidates expressed strong views about
school rules, who should set them, what should happen if they are broken and the importance of it.
Topic Card E – Forgiveness
This topic seemed to be a difficult topic for many weaker candidates. They could not really speak about the reasons
why it is difficult to forgive other people, the advantages and disadvantages of forgiving a person and reasons why girls
may find it easier to forgive than boys.
Recommendations
Select topics for the candidates that they can talk about and relate to. Some examiners skilfully asked questions about
a topic to test candidates’ understanding and relationship to the topic during the warm-up sessions. If candidates could
relate to the topic the examiner explored the prompts during the oral test.
Examiners should remember that the Oral Assessment Card may be given to the candidates to prepare themselves
approximately 10 minutes before they are examined. When candidates prepare, they should do it in an isolated room
and should not be allowed to make notes or speak to anyone. Candidates should then know if they would be able to
speak about the topic. It is, therefore, easy for the examiner to change the topic to which the candidates can relate or
which the candidates know something about.
Candidates should NOT select the topics. The examiner should do it for them. A few examiners, especially at
NAMCOL, indicated during some recordings that candidates selected topics themselves.

Where there is more than one examiner at a centre, the marking should be standardised to prevent inconsistent allocation
of marks at one centre. Internal moderation at the centres should be done to ensure that all of the instructions in
the Examiner’s Notes were executed correctly. Too many adding and transfer mistakes still occurred this year.
Many of the examiners put a lot of effort into conducting the oral tests. They were well prepared and conducted the
examination with confidence. They asked relevant and helpful questions to keep the conversation going. It was evident
that they prepared as many as possible questions about the different topics. All examiners should do this.
In most cases the administrative tasks were neatly done. However, too many examiners still do not mind to scratch out
names and numbers or to write over numbers. In addition, some examiners did not indicate that a candidate was absent
or they drew lines without a ruler to indicate that a candidate did not do the oral test.
The names of the candidates on the Oral Assessment Summary Forms must correspond with the MS1.
The candidates’ names and numbers on the blue CD label should be in the same order as the recordings on
the CDs.
Examiners should scrutinise the instructions in the Examiner’s Notes to acquaint themselves with the
instructions and procedures of the Oral Assessment or with any changes in the instructions. They should NOT
do things that are not in the Examiner’s Notes.
Best wishes for 2014.

FASHION AND FABRICS
4342
Paper 1
General comments
There was an improvement in the answering of Section A, Question 1. Candidates still had difficulty in answering
questions on textiles.
SECTION A
In general, this section was well answered by most of the candidates. The candidates were taught to interpret pattern
study and provided the correct answers.
1 (a) All candidates could answer most of this question correctly. The correct answers were:
(i) front button

(ii) shaped
(iii) tabs
(iv) wrong side
(v) drawstring
(vi) A-line
(b) Most candidates answered correctly. The answer was Size 14.
(c) Some candidates still confused the measurement of cm with metres and some still did not use metric
measurements. The correct answers were:
(i) 2.00 m
(ii) 0.80 m/ 80 cm
(d) Candidates answered correctly. The answer was 13 buttons
(e) Candidates answered correctly. The correct answers were cotton, cotton blends, challis, chambray, cotton
flannel
(f) Candidates had problems identifying the type of fabric and then with describing the structure correctly. The
teacher should teach the candidates the four natural fibres, namely cotton, wool, silk and linen and their
origin, structure, appearance and weight. The candidates should also know the types of fabric found in each
category. It is essential for candidates to be able to identify the fabric correctly. The correct answer was:
Fibre origin: cotton plant
Structure: cylindrical/twisted fibrils
Appearance: twisted ribbon with thickened edges
Weight: light
(g) Candidates could not identify the roll collar

Candidates identified the method of controlling fullness correctly, namely tucks.
(h) (i) Most candidates identified the collar correctly. The collar on the pattern envelope was a flat/roll/Peter
Pan collar
(ii) Candidates could not apply practical skills to this question. The correct answer was: crossway strip cut
on bias/stretchable
(iii) Candidates could not answer this question correctly. The seam edge is notched every 25 mm to ensure
that the collar lies flat when turned right side out

(iv) This question was answered poorly. The purpose of the notches is to fit the collar to the neckline edges,
centre back of the bodice and the ends of the collar on the centre front markings
(v) Most candidates answered correctly. Seam edges are graded to avoid bulkiness, to allow the collar to lie
flat and to turn out more easily
(vi) The correct hand stiches were slip-hemming/hemming stitch
(vii) Most candidates did not know where to attach the parts of the neckline so that no hand-stitching will be
seen on the right side of the garment. The correct answer was: shoulder seams/front facing
SECTION B
The most popular questions were 2, 3 and 6. Very few candidates answered 4 and 5, and they were poorly mastered.
2 Candidates answered poorly. They did not know the fabrics made from wool and linen fibres. The answers were:
(a) Wool fabrics: flannel, felt, jersey cloth, gabardine, serge, tweed, twill, worsted suiting, velour, wool crepe,
wool lace, wool georgette, wool challis, wool voile, satin, barathea, boucle, doeskin, hopsack, broadcloth, wool
ottoman, cheviot cloth, Melton, plaid, ratine.
Linen fabrics: crash, damask, sheeting, towelling (huckaback), Irish linen, summer suiting, dress linen,
Moygashel
(b) This question is often asked in Section A and candidates could not answer it correctly. The appearance of
wool and linen under the microscope is as follows:
Wool has a distinct layer of cells that are overlapping and consist of irregularly shaped scales. The free ends
of scales point towards the tip of the fibre. The scales are composed of hornlike tissue.
Linen is composed of bundles of filaments that are cemented together by a natural adhesive substance. It
resembles a bamboo stick. The “nodes” that are visible on the fibre are caused by irregular growth of stem.
(c) Candidates got some facts correct. Teachers are reminded that the section on textiles must be dealt with
thoroughly. The answers were:
Blended fabric is the blending of two or more types of staple fibres before spinning the blended yarn, or
spinning together two yarns, each made of different fibres to obtain a blended yarn. Two fibres of different
types are spun together into a yarn so that the qualities of one can improve the qualities of the other
Fabric made from a mixture is when yarns of one fibre are taken for the warp and yarns of another fibre for
the weft to weave a blended fabric. The mixing is done during weaving.
(d) Candidates could not give a proper comparison of the laundering of wools and linen fabrics. The correct
answers were:
Wool Linen
Washing and water temperature:
hand-washed in lukewarm water/correct cycle for linen can be machined-washed with very hot to
washing wool by machine/If washed by hand/use boiling water and placed on the maximum wash
soft water/soap free from caustic soda or other cycle/if linen has a special finish, machine cycle/
strong alkalis/avoid friction/do not rub but knead the water should be hand-hot and medium wash/
and squeeze gently/use fabric softener/do not if hand-washed, hand-hot water used/cold rinse/
wring short spin
Bleaching:
should not be bleached/coloured wool articles can withstands alkalis/damaged by acids
be rinsed in vinegar
Ironing:
press lightly on wrong side with cool iron and dry linen must be ironed on the wrong side with a hot
pressing cloth iron while the fabric is damp
store dry (mildew can form)

Dry-cleaning:
dry-cleanable but check the care symbol dry cleanable
Drying
do not hand wring/do not hang the article but dry drip dry/spin machine or wring
flat in the shade
3 marks for explaining care symbol 3 marks for explaining care symbol
[6]
[18]
3 Candidates answered this question well. Some candidates just wrote single words and did not give an explanation.
The expected answers were:
(a) The sewing machine must have a guarantee/warranty.

Spare parts must be easily available so that it can be repaired.
The sewing machine must be able to sew a variety of fabrics.
The swing needle function must be available for seamline construction.
The machine should have many stitches available, e.g. hemming, buttonhole stitching.
The stitches could be used for decorative finishes or for embroidery. It should be light-weight. The machine
must be easy to store. If the machine is built with an auto-thread function it makes it easy to sew. The cost of
the machine must be considered. The machine should have an established brand. It must be easy to carry.
(b) Candidates answered this question poorly. The question required the advantages and disadvantages of using
an electric and a hand sewing machine
Automatic/electric sewing machine Hand model sewing machine

Advantages Advantages
Decorative stitches/light weight/fast/easy to thread Hand operated/sewing speed can be regulated/
with colour coded guidelines/bobbin easy to wind/ maintenance costs are low/straight stitching with
many accessories/light weight limited decorative stitches/can be converted to
electric model
Parts easily available/used in remote rural areas/
does not need electricity
Disadvantages Disadvantages
Expensive/few repair outlets/parts not readily Heavy/mounted/limited stitches/slower sewing
available/complicated/made mostly from plastic speed/ cannot stitch all types of fabrics
(breaks easily)
After sales service not always available
(c) Candidates answered this question on the selection of an ironing board well. The answers were: The ironing
board must be firm/stable. It must be easily stored. The ironing board must be able to be placed close to
a power point. Padding in the form of a blanket or foam for softness should be placed over the board. The
covers must be washable. The height must be adjustable. The board should be shaped. Milium covers make
efficient use of heat by reflecting it. The iron should have an area to rest on.
(d) Candidates could discuss a few points on the pressing cloth. The correct answers were: The pressing cloth
protects the fabric. It prevents shine on the garment. It achieves a good finish. Steam can help shrink away
slight fullness when ‘easing in’ woollen material. The press cloth can raise the pile on velvet.
4 (a) Candidates could not answer this question correctly. As a whole, this question was poorly answered by the
candidates. The correct answers were:
Darts give shape to fit the curve of the body. When fitting, the width of the seams can be adjusted to fit the
figure. It allows for a neater finish on the wrong side of the garment. Darts cannot be constructed when seams
have been completed as this will change the form of the garment. The width of a dart can be adjusted. The
length of dart can be adjusted

(b) Most candidates could answer this correctly, but failed to label the diagrams and to use explanatory notes.
• Place right sides together/fold fabric double along the dart fold line.
• Match dots together.
• Pin at right angles to the fitting line.
• Tack on the wrong side starting from the base.
• Stitch from the wide side so that it tapers to a point.
• Run last 3 stitches parallel to the fold.
• Keep needle in work at the dart point, pivot the work around and stitch back on the last 4 stitches.
• Cut threads and tack away.
(c) Candidates could not answer this question correctly, but it was applied in their practical work
The correct answers were:
Shoulder: towards neck or centre back
Elbow: towards the wrist
Waist: face the nearest seam
(d) This dart is part of the practical file that the candidate should submit. Teachers are requested to make the
candidates aware that the practical part and the theory are linked. The answer is that the snipped part of the
dart allows the dart to lie flat. It avoids bulkiness and makes the garment fit better.
(e) Well answered. The construction of the single seam is as follows:

• Two pieces of fabric with right sides together
• Raw edges must be level
• Pattern notches match
• Pin pieces together
• Tack on fitting line
• Stitch seam on fitting line just inside the line of tacking
• Remove tacking
• Press seam open on the wrong side
• Neaten the raw edges of the seam

(f) Some of the candidates could cope with some answers. The methods to be considered were:
tendency to fray
style of garment
type of fabric
thickness of fabric
knitted fabrics need special finishing
firmly woven fabrics can be zigzagged
welt seams on stable knits are made to prevent edges from curling
used as decoration
French seam for transparent fabrics
gives a tailored appearance.
5 (a) Candidates could give some instruction on how to remove stains made by oil, tea and ball-point ink. The
correct instructions were:
Stain Reagent Method

(i) oil French chalk/starch/bran/ Cover stain with layer of absorbent/rub in circular
flourtalc, eucalyptus oil/ movement/brush powder from fabric/place blotting
benzene/carbon tetrachloride/ paper or tissues under stain/press warm iron/remove
blotting paper/brown paper/ paper and brush
tissues/commercial stain
remover sprays e.g. Vanish
(ii) tea Cold water/boiling water/ Soak stain in cold water/then pour boiling water over
glycerine/javelle water/lemon/ the stained area/rub glycerine on spot to remove
lime juice/borax/soda water tannic stain/bleached stained white cotton can be
treated with javelle water/soak in borax solution/
wash in cold water
(iii) ball-point ink Methylated spirits/eucalyptus Soak in cold water/sprinkle salt and lemon juice on
oil/milk and vinegar/lemon white fabrics/wash. Milk can be used on coloured
juice and salt/toothpaste fabrics/rub methylated spirits/toothpaste on stain/
allow to rest/wash and rinse well
(b) Candidates gave some factors that should be considered when removing common stains. The correct answers
were:
• Remove stains as soon as possible.
• Remove stains before you wash and iron articles.
• Determine the cause of the stain/use the reagent and method specified for removing that stain/if stain is
unknown, use cold water.
• Test the fabric.
• Determine if fabric is washable or not.
• Test the reagent on a piece of fabric.
• If bleaching agents are used, rinse well.

• Use cloths of the same fabric and colour to remove the stains.
• Cleansing liquids are inflammable; work in well-ventilated room.
(c) Some candidates answered well. It is essential to read the question properly as the candidate had to draw
and explain each care symbol found on a coloured cotton blouse.
medium temperature drip dry/hang out wet
do not bleach hang on line to dry
Spin-dried in machine
or wrung by hand
210° hot
A dry-clean
Washing: warm water
Drying: hang to dry/drip dry/hang out wet/spin dry in washing machine or wring out by hand
Ironing: hot iron
Dry-cleaning: dry-cleanable
Bleaching: do not bleach (coloured item)
Six marks were awarded for correct care symbol and explanation
6 (a) Many candidates could define the terms but gave incomplete definitions. The answers were:
(i) Resilience: the springiness of a fibre or its ability to recover its shape over a period of time after it
has been subjected to bending, stretching, flattening and twisting
(ii) Absorbency: the ability of a fibre to take up or absorb moisture. The absorbency of fibres determines
the properties of washability, rate of drying, shrinkage, dyeablity, soiling and wearing comfort.
(iii) Water repellant: fabric treated with silicones to reduce their affinity for water to be absorbed, while the
fabric remains porous.
(iv) Crease-resistant: fibres treated with resin to make them more resilient. Fabric should not be ironed
after washed.
(v) Bleaching: fibres are bleached to remove all natura colour. Bleaching is a chemical finish, used to
increase the affinity for dyes. 
(vi) Antistatic finish: ‒ fabrics rub against another object – generates friction/static electricity builds up –
synthetic fabrics treated with a chemical process or rinsed in commercial softener e.g. Staysoft etc. 

(b) Candidates discussed wardrobe planning for this question. The question demanded candidate to discuss the
choice of fabrics/garments for a holiday. The correct answers were:
Advantages Disadvantages
Easy to wash Limited to certain fabrics
Dries quickly More in casual line of clothing
Soft to handle Fabrics can be too light/do not always cater for climate
Light in weight
Sheds creases easily
Fairly elastic
Drapes well
Improves warmth quality
Does not shrink
Little ironing
Mix and match

4342
Paper 2
General comments
Teachers are thanked for the work submitted.
There was a marked improvement in the submission of files, however, the standard of some of the garments submitted
was poor.
The following guidelines should be implemented:
1 The practical manual and textbooks should be used for the construction of the processes.
2 Photographs showing the front and back of the candidate wearing the garments should be submitted.
3 Teachers must give sufficient comments on the abilities of the candidates on the individual record cards.
4 There must be a clear distinction between the ability of the candidate in the construction of the garments in Grades
11 and 12.
5 The construction of collars and sleeves needs attention. Often these processes are poorly constructed and it spoils
the appearance of the garments.
6 Very few hand skills were found on the garments. Teachers should encourage candidates to use more hand skills,
especially when finishing hems, attaching facings to the collar, etc.

FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS
4101
Paper 1
Algemene opmerkings
Die leesstukke het gehandel oor twee bekende Afrikaanse skrywers, Deon Meyer en Chris Barnard. Daar was voldoende
ooreenkomste en verskille tussen die twee skrywers om kandidate ‘n billike kans te gee om ‘n goeie vergelyking te skryf.
Dit was verblydend om te sien dat sommige sentrums die vaardigheid om ‘n vergelyking te skryf goed ingeoefen het.
Daar is egter steeds ‘n sentrum of twee waar kandidate duidelik onvoldoende leiding en oefening kry in die skryf van ‘n
vergelyking tussen twee tekste. Die antwoordstelle was oor die algemeen netjies versorg. Wat hierdie jaar besonder
opvallend was, was die feit dat sommige sentrums se kandidate duidelik geleer is om standaardtaal te gebruik in die
eksamen.
Opmerkings oor individuele vrae
1-3 Die drie meerkeusevrae is goed beantwoord.
4 In Vraag 4 moes kandidate eers sê of ‘n stelling wat gemaak is WAAR of ONWAAR is en dan ‘n sinsdeel uit die
leesstuk aanhaal om hulle antwoord te staaf. Indien die waar/onwaar gedeelte van die vraag verkeerd beantwoord
is, kan die kandidaat natuurlik geen punte kry vir die aanhaling nie, selfs al word die korrekte aanhaling gegee.
Aanhalingstekens behoort gebruik te word wanneer ‘n aanhaling uit die leesstuk gegee word.
5 Min kandidate het volpunte gekry vir hulle antwoord op Vraag 5, waarin hulle sekere inligting uit die leesstuk in hulle
eie woorde moes weergee. Die hoofrede hiervoor was dat kandidate hulle nie laat lei het deur die aantal punte wat
die vraag getel het nie en dan te min feite gegee het.
6 Vraag 6 was só bewoord dat kandidate noodwendig hulle antwoord met ‘n ʺjaʺ of ʺneeʺ moes begin en dan hulle
antwoord met inligting uit die leesstuk bewys. Die vraag is oor die algemeen goed beantwoord, alhoewel daar
‘n klompie antwoorde was waarin die inligting wat uit die leesstuk gehaal is, glad nie die kandidaat se standpunt
bewys het nie, maar eerder weerspreek het.
7 Kandidate moes ‘n formele brief aan Deon Meyer skryf om hom uit te nooi om ‘n kort skryfkursus by hulle skool te
kom aanbied en motiveer waarom hulle besluit het om juis hóm uit te nooi. Die mees algemene tekortkominge was
die volgende:
• Kandidate kon nie onderskei tussen formele en informele aanspreekvorme nie. Talle het rondgespring tussen
ʺjyʺ en ʺuʺ - in dieselfde brief. Talle het ʺuʺ met ‘n hoofletter geskryf, wat nie korrek is nie. In Afrikaans bly die
hoflikheidsvorm ʺuʺ - dit sal nooit aanvaarbaar wees om in ‘n formele brief die informele aanspreekvorm ʺjyʺ
te gebruik nie.
• Talle kandidate het kleigetrap met die adres van die afsender deur Paarl, Bloemfontein of Durbanville, almal
dorpe in Suid-Afrika wat in die teks genoem word, in die adres te gebruik. Die opdrag was baie duidelik dat die
skrywer genooi moet word om ‘n kursus by die skool te kom aanbied, dus ‘n skool in Namibië.
• ‘n Algemene swak punt was dat kandidate vir Deon Meyer in detail vertel het watter toekennings hy al vir sy
skryfwerk gekry het. Die bedoeling was duidelik dat hulle dit as motivering wou gebruik oor hoekom hulle juis
op hom besluit het. Wat hulle eintlik moes skryf, was bloot dat hulle hom gekies het omdat hy ‘n bekroonde
skrywer is.
• Hoe is dit moontlik dat ‘n kandidaat aan die einde van graad 12 ‘n brief kan skryf sonder enige hoofletters en
leestekens? Hier is ‘n werklike voorbeeld van wat voorgekom het:
“u is die perfekte mens om ons te leer om soetsappige gedigte te skryf hoe versamel ons ervarings en emosies
en stories en mense se karakters u skryf al baie jare dit sal ‘n plesier wees om u hier te hê om die kursus aan
te bied”

8 Vraag 8, die vergelyking, is aansienlik beter beantwoord as verlede jaar. Slegs in enkele sentrums het kandidate
nie leiding gekry oor die uiteensetting van die skryfstuk nie. In sulke gevalle maak die kandidate gewoonlik so
‘n gemors van die skryfstuk dat geen ooreenkoms of verskil duidelik genoeg bewoord word om vir hulle punte te
verdien nie. Na regte behoort die vergelyking ook binne ‘n beperkte aantal woorde geskryf te word, ‘n aspek wat
op die vlak van Gewone Graad-kandidate nie beklemtoon of gepenaliseer word nie.
Die volgende aspekte moet onderrig word:
• Omdat ooreenkomste en verskille gevra word, moet kandidate aandui waarmee hulle besig is. Handel eers
die ooreenkomste af en lig dan verskille uit.
• Elke ooreenkoms en verskil wat uitgelig word, moet eers duidelik bewoord word en dan toegelig word met
inligting uit beide leesstukke.
• Laat ‘n reël oop tussen twee ooreenkomste (of verskille) ̶ dan staan dit duidelik uit. Dit is deel van die opdrag:
“Sit jou werk duidelik uiteen”. Sommige kandidate het nie eens elke ooreenkoms wat hulle uitwys op ‘n nuwe
reël begin nie, maar net aangegaan waar hulle die vorige punt gesit het.
• ‘n Ander belangrike deel van die opdrag is: “Skryf in volsinne”.
• Leesstuk is ‘n samestelling lees en stuk en word daarom met ‘n dubbel s geskryf. Almal weet dat hulle die
woord in die eksamen gaan nodig kry. Hoe is dit dan moontlik dat graad 12-kandidate wat Afrikaans Eerste
Taal skryf die woord nie korrek kan spel nie?
• Kandidate moet geleer word om fyn te lees WAT hulle moet vergelyk: die twee skrywers se lewe en werk. Hulle
sal nooit die opdrag kry om “die twee leesstukke” te vergelyk nie. Dit het baie bepaald implikasies vir die tipe
verskille en ooreenkomste waarvoor hulle moet soek. As die opdrag is om die twee skrywers te vergelyk, kan
kandidate nie skryf: “In albei leesstukke word oor die biblioteek gepraat” nie. Dit sou wel reg kon wees om te
sê: “Die biblioteek het ‘n groot rol gespeel in albei skrywers se lewe.”
• Baie hang ook af van die duidelikheid van formulering.
9 In Vraag 9 moes die kandidate twee dinge doen in ‘n praatjie: hulle skoolmaats inlig oor hedendaagse Afrikaanse
skrywers EN hulle motiveer om meer te lees. Te veel kandidate het slegs een van die twee aspekte in hulle praatjie
aangeraak.
Algemene komentaar
‘n Ernstige tekortkoming wat vanjaar duidelik geblyk het, is die gebrekkige woordeskat waaroor Afrikaans Eerste Taal-
kandidate beskik. Die feit dat Engels die voertaal is in al hulle ander vakke, behoort nie hulle Afrikaanse woordeskat so
sterk te beperk nie. Die waarheid wat hier soos ‘n paal bo water staan, is dat kandidate nie Afrikaans lees nie. Daarom
die volgende opmerking hier: Hou aan om die rol wat leesonderrig in ‘n kind se taalvaardigheid speel te onderskat en
dra die gevolge. Hier volg ‘n paar voorbeelde:
• “en van hulle weet nie die waarde en goedheid van lees nie”
• “In vandag se lewe belet kinders om die biblioteek te besoek.”
• “Ons het ook gedink dat die kursus ons kinders se styl van skryf sal belemmer.”
• “Jy moet hulle kom teespraak aan die belange van boeke.”
• “Lees was sy hedendaagse aktiwiteit by sy huis.”
• “...dit het ‘n positiewe indruk op ‘n mens se lewe.” (invloed?)
• “Ons hou baie graag van lees.”
• “Hy het ook die kortlys vir die M-Net-boekprys ontvang.”
• “Ons het u hele berigte gelees.” (?)
• “... om advies vir kinders af te deel.”
• “Ons aanskou Meneer as ‘n ware legende.”
• “Die meerderheid van ons dorpie eien ‘n boek van Meneer.”
• “Ons wil nie baie van u tyd bestee nie, daarom wil ons nie ‘n lang kursus hê nie.”
• “Ons wil vra dat u ons kinders kom bemoedig om meer te lees.” (aanmoedig?)
• “U werke het al soveel pryse betower, dat dit vir ons ...” (verower?)
• “Ek skryf die brief aan jou as een van jou grootste toeskouers.”
• “Ek hoop u gaan graag wil kom, want dit sal ‘n groot danksegging wees vir ons.”
• “U is ‘n goeie letterkundekategorie en het ‘n passie vir skryf.”
• “Ons wil u graag nooi om ‘n skryfkursus te kom aanbied om skrywers te ontwerp.”

• “Albei skrywers doen werk op meer as een grond.”
• “Albei leesstukke noem hoe die skrywers ander oproepe gehad het voordat hulle begin skryf het.” (beroepe?)
• “Die leerlinge het baie geskrewe talent.” (skryftalent)
Hier volg nog ‘n paar algemene foute wat kandidate gemaak het:
• Talle kandidate het duidelik nie geweet wat “soetsappige gedigte” is nie.
• In Afrikaans moet die dae van die week met hoofletters geskryf word: Maandag, Donderdag, ens.
• “Albei leesstukke verwys dat ...” in plaas van verwys daarna dat ...
• Kandidate het nie geweet wat die meervaoud van roman is nie. Talle het verwys na romane of romanse.
• Kandidate het nie geweet wanneer meneer met ‘n klein- of hoofletter geskryf moet word nie.
• Kandidate kan nie woorde afbreek aan die einde van ‘n reël nie.
• Kandidate ken nie persoonlike voornaamwoorde nie: “Ons wil hê u moet die leerlinege help om in dit te glo”
(daarin); “Die leerlinge kyk op na dit.” (sien daarna uit?)

4101
Paper 2
Algemene komentaar
Die onderwerpe was gebalanseer wat betref die moeilikheidsgraad. Die verspreiding in die beantwoording van
die onderwerpe hierdie jaar was swakker as verlede jaar, hoewel alle onderwerpe beantwoord is. Die verhalende
onderwerpe was weer eens die gewildste onderwerpe. Die punteverspreiding was gebalanseer. Baie swak punte is
hoofsaaklik te wyte aan ‘n gebrekkige interpretasie van die onderwerp.
Taalgebruik was hierdie jaar opvallend beter – hoewel nog nie na wense nie. By sommige sentrums kon werklik
waargeneem word dat daar ag geslaan is op vorige verslae en baie harde werk aan taalgebruik het vrugte afgewerp.
SMS-taal is minimaal gebruik, so ook al die geykte uitdrukkings van die verlede, naamlik “hartseerlik”, “ons, as mens”,
“onse”, “onderjarig” – om enkeles te noem. Wat ook werklik ‘n verskil gemaak het, was dat gedwonge idiome minimaal
was. Opstelle wat vooraf voorberei en “ingedwing” was, is ook minder. Opstelle se sukses het gelê by natuurlikheid.
Die struktuur van die opstelle was oorwegend goed, maar die slot het by baie tekort geskiet. Daar kan ook nog gewerk
word aan kreatiewe interpretasies. Motiveer ook leerlinge om nie ‘n onderwerp te kies as hulle nie honderd persent
seker is van ‘n begrip (al is dit net een) in die opdrag nie. Die begrippe “swartskaap en liefling” soos wat dit in die
onderwerp se konteks gebruik is, is waninterpreteer en weinig kandidate het selfs gemiddelde punte vir hierdie opstelle
behaal.
Die meerderheid kandidate kies die verhalende onderwerpe wat aansluit by hulle alledaagse lewe. Ongelukkig vertel
hulle steeds gebeurtenisse wat hulle werklik ervaar het. In die proses word dit ‘n gewone relaas van gebeure. Moedig
dus die leerlinge aan om werklik ‘n kreatiewe storie uit te dink i.p.v. hulle eie belewenisse te vertel.
PROBLEME WAT PUNTE NEGATIEF BEȈNVLOED HET
1 Lengtevereistes word steeds verontagsaam. Kandidate word streng gepenaliseer.
2 Lomp sinsbou, verkeerde woordorde sowel as lang, aaneenlopende sinne.

Sinne behoort nie meer as een voegwoord te bevat nie en nie meer as 15 – 20 woorde lank te wees nie. ‘n
Toenemende neiging om voornaamwoorde uit te laat aan die begin van ‘n sin was opvallend. Bv. Het nie
geweet i.p.v. EK het
3 Kandidate spring rond tussen verlede tyd en teenwoordige tyd – ‘n verbetering is waargeneem, maar dit moet
steeds aandag geniet.
4 Van die opvallendste probleme was: die verkeerde afbreekmetode aan die einde van ‘n reël.
5 Die gebruik van SMS-taal het radikaal verbeter, maar kom nog hier en daar by sekere sentrums voor.
6 Die verkeerde gebruik van direkte rede in die verhalende opstelle skep steeds ernstige probleme. Ontmoedig
kandidate om direkte rede te gebruik. Inoefening in indirekte rede sal deel van die taallesse moet word.
7 Struktuur:
Paragrafering het minder probleme opgelewer hierdie jaar.
‘n Effektiewe slot was egter nog by sommige opstelle ‘n probleem.
‘n Samevatting van die onderwerp moet ingeoefen word.
8 Kandidate skryf die verhaal/storie, maar gaan dan oor in ‘n lang “preek” – hierdie neiging het in ‘n hele aantal
opstelle voorgekom. Waarsku kandidate dat hulle moet waak hierteen as die onderwerp toegepas kan word op
veral die jeug en hulle optrede.
9. Engelse woorde word steeds gebruik. Dit is ontoelaatbaar, selfs al word dit in aanhalingstekens geplaas.
10 Anglisismes het steeds vrylik voorgekom.

11 Kru-taal – vloek – het hierdie jaar nie in ‘n enkele opstel voorgekom nie.
12 Die afgesaagde “verhale” oor dronkpartytjies en dwelms/seks was ook tot die minimum beperk.
3 AANBEVELINGS
3.1 Algemeen
• Lengtevereistes moet onder kandidate se aandag gebring word.
• Die nommer en titel soos op die vraestel moet aangedui word.
• Die korrekte aantal woorde moet aan die einde van die opstel aangedui word.
• Handskrif moet aandag kry ̶ baie klein skrif en ligte ink (penne) bemoeilik die merk van die antwoordstelle.
• Interpretasie-oefeninge moet gedoen word.
3.2 Taal en struktuur

• Gedurende klasonderrig behoort aandag gegee te word aan ̶
woordeskat
woordorde
die lengte van sinne
sinskonstruksie
leestekens – veral die korrekte gebruik van die komma (veral t.o.v. want en maar) en
kommapunt.
Sinstrukture met die voornaamwoorde moet ingeoefen word.
Voorsetsels sal deel van taalonderrig moet vorm.
• Die belangrikheid van ‘n effektiewe inleiding en slot moet beklemtoon word.
• Inoefening van indirekte rede.
• Die korrekte gebruik van tye moet ingeoefen word.
• Afkortings soos ens., bv. moenie toegelaat word nie.
• Lettergreepverdeling aan die einde van ‘n reël moet weer ingeoefen word
• Anglismes moet duidelik uitgewys en ontmoedig word.
• Inoefening van die skryfwyse van tyd, syfers, datums. Sinne moet liefs nie met datums/syfers begin nie.
Indien ‘n syfer aan die begin van ‘n sin moet staan, moet dit uitgeskryf word.
• Meer aandag aan Morfologie om voorvoegsels soos “ge” en agtervoegsels soos
“heid”korrek te gebruik, sal help met spelling (bv. gebeweeg en/of ge gaan, is algemene
foute wat voorkom).
• Klanke soos “ei” moet ingeoefen word ̶ leerlinge skryf “ie”, bv. klien, laaghied, ens.
• Die gebruik van deeltekens en kappies moet weer behandel word.
• Die verdubbeling van konsonante moet ook dringend aandag kry. (kammer i.p.v. kamer)
3.3 Die volgende algemene foute het voorgekom:

• die dubbele ontkenning word geïgnoreer (nie.....nie, nooit .....nie)
• mees belangrikste i.p.v. belangrikste, meer strenger, meer belangriker, ens.
• foutiewe gebruik van betreklike voornaamwoorde bv.: op ....wat i.p.v. waarop
• van i.p.v. want
• familie i.p.v. gesin
• van i.p.v. deur (iemand gedoen)
• ek’t, iet’s, kinder’s, i.p.v. ek het, iets, kinders –
• als i.p.v. alles
• daai i.p.v. daardie
• se i.p.v. sê
• die skryfwyse van tyd bv. vier uur i.p.v. vieruur/ 4uur i.p.v. 4-uur.
• kan/mag/sal/ moet/gaan/wil/te het i.p.v. kan/mag/sal/moet/gaan/wil/te hê
• tedoen (ens.) i.p.v. te doen
• so (Ek so gaan, maar ...) i.p.v. sou (Ek sou gaan, maar...)
• verlede tyd van hulpwerkwoorde – kan/mag/sal/wil/moet – kon/sou/wou/moes.
• gaan i.p.v. sal (Ek gaan ook .... gaan) i.p.v. (Ek sal ook ... gaan)
• Anglisismes en Engelse woorde:
Opgee (“give up”) i.p.v. tou opgooi/moed verloor
Optel (“pick up”) i.p.v. oplaai
Op tyd i.p.v. betyds
Admireer i.p.v. bewonder
Drywers i.p.v. bestuurders

Antie i.p.v. tannie
Partner i.p.v. metgesel
Hostel i.p.v koshuis
Game i.p.v. spel
Kandidate moet leer dat hulle eers die mooi, korrekte Afrikaanse woord moet soek en nie sommer net gryp
na ‘n anglisisme nie.
• Ek gaan met my vriende... i.p.v. Ek gaan saam met my vriende.
• Die man het gedood ... i.p.v. ...het doodgegaan/gesterf.
• Ken i.p.v. weet. (het baie verbeter)
• Onderjarig i.p.v. minderjarig (het baie verbeter)
• Spandeer i.p.v. deurbring met ..., geld bestee, tyd bestee
- anders verkeerdelik gebruik i.p.v. ander (mense)
- sports i.p.v. sport (ook moet dit sport beoefen wees en nie sport doen nie)
- selfs i.p.v. self (Ek sal dit self doen)
- teen alle tye i.p.v. te alle tye
- opgeëindig i.p.v. eindig
- my hulle familie i.p.v. my hele
- my hele vriende i.p.v. al my vriende.
- Begin van sinne met voegwoorde want, maar, en.
- Die foutiewe gebruik (en spelling) van ter wille van en as gevolg van.
- Die foutiewe gebruik van meestal i.p.v. die meeste.
- Wat (ek daar kom), i.p.v. toe (ek daar kom).
- Die huis word ingebreek i.p.v. daar word by die huis ingebreek.
- Ek nodig geld, i.p.v. ek het geld nodig.
- Onderskei tussen: beroemd/bekend
Hard/moeilik
Ry/bestuur
• Foutiewe uitdrukkings soos:
Mense kyk my met slegte oë (i.p.v. mense skinder van my/ kyk my skeef aan)
Om met my vriende te bly (i.p.v. saam met vriende te wees/kuier)
Die geykte: “saamstaan” en “skool klaargemaak” (voltooi ... skoolloopbaan)\
Kommentaar op spesifieke vrae
1. Soos al jou maats het jy baie uitgesien na die matriekafskeid, maar toe het ‘n bepaalde gebeurtenis die
aand vir jou totaal bederf. Vertel wat gebeur het. Hierdie was die tweede gewildste onderwerp. Kandidate het
ellelange relase gehad oor hulle hare en rokke voordat hulle uiteindelik by ‘n afgewaterde “bepaalde gebeurtenis”
gekom het.Dit was dan ook meestal die rok wat nie na wense was nie. Lengteoorskryding was ‘n groot probleem,
asook ‘n baie lang aanloop tot die uiteindelike onderwerp – m.a.w. ‘n hoop nietersaaklike inligting word vooraf
gegee. Punte was baie gemiddeld vir hierdie onderwerp.
2. Padongelukke het skrikwekkend toegeneem in Namibië. Waaraan sou jy dit toeskryf en wat dink jy kan
gedoen word om dit te voorkom?
Slegs enkele kandidate het hierdie onderwerp gekies. Opstelle was oor die algemeen
ondergemiddeld, want oorsake is beswaarlik aangeraak of beperk tot een oorsaak.
Selfs die oplossings is oorvereenvoudig, met geen werklike feite nie.
3. Skryf ‘n opstel waarin jy ‘n kunstenaar van wie jy baie hou, beskryf. Dui ook aan hoekom die persoon vir
jou spesiaal is.
Slegs enkele kandidate het hierdie onderwerp gekies. Dit was oor die algemeen goeie
opstelle, en kandidate het baie goeie kennis gehad van die kunstenaars wat hulle gekies het. Gemiddelde tot
bogemiddelde punte is hier toegeken.
4. “Ek luister nooit weer na my maats nie”. Vertel wat jou hierdie besluit laat neem het. Hierdie was saam
met onderwerp no.1 die tweede gewildste onderwerp. Die verhale was oor die algemeen saai, moontlik a.g.v. te
veel “ware verhale”. Hierdie onderwerp het ook weer enkele “drank- en dwelm/sekspartytjies” opgelewer. Baie
gemiddelde punte is toegeken.
5. Jy het een nag wakker geword en besef dat die huis oorkant die straat aan die brand is. Vertel wat toe
verder gebeur het.
Hierdie was die gewildste onderwerp. Opstelle was gemiddeld tot bogemiddeld.
Interpretasie was korrek en heelwat kreatiewe opstelle het na vore gekom.

6. Sport is die antwoord op die meeste van die probleme in die samelewing. Stem jy hiermee saam? Sê ook
hoekom jy saamstem of nie.
Min kandidate het hierdie onderwerp gekies. Enkele voorbereide gedagtes/inhoud is hier ingeforseer. Daar is
heelwat afgedwaal van die werklike opdrag en kandidate het op hulle eie sportvoorkeure/prestasies gekonsentreer
– of hoe dit hulle eie probleme opgelos het. Punte was swak.
7. In elke familie is daar baie spesiale mense én mense wat die familie liefs nie as familie sou wou hê nie.
Beskryf die liefling en ook die swartskaap van jou familie.
Heelwat kandidate het hierdie onderwerp gekies. Dit was egter die onderwerp wat die meeste probleme opgelewer
het. Kandidate kon nie onderskei tussen “gesin” en “familie” nie. Verder het hulle nie die begrip “swartskaap”
verstaan nie. Kandidate het ook hulleself as die “liefling” gesien, maar bloot as hulle ouers se lieflingkind. Hulle het
dan uitgebrei oor hulle verhouding met hulle ouers. Nog ‘n probleem was dat hulle bloot hulle eie ma of pa beskryf
het, slegs as hulle gesin se liefling – dan was dit ‘n blote uitbreiding van waarom hulle ouers hulle rolmodelle is.
Feitlik geen kandidaat het hier goeie – of selfs gemiddelde – punte behaal nie.
8. Vertel hoe jy gevoel het die dag toe jy ontdek het dat jou beste vriend/vriendin jou verraai het.
Dit was nie ‘n baie gewilde onderwerp nie. Die opstelle het hoofsaaklik oor ‘n liefdesdriehoek gehandel. Dit het
verval in saai, herhalende vertellings. Min aantrekkingskrag, en gemiddelde tot swak punte is behaal.
9. Musiek gee ritme aan my lewe.

Hoewel min kandidate hierdie onderwerp gekies het, het dit die heel beste opstelle
opgelewer.
Werklik kreatiewe werk het baie goeie punte opgelewer. Geen probleme is met interpretasie ondervind nie.
Omdat die kandidate wat hierdie onderwerp gekies het, oor die algemeen ‘n passie vir musiek het, het hulle uit
die hart uit en natuurlik geskryf. Hulle het dus met die onderwerp geïdentifiseer.

4101
Paper 3
Algemene opmerkings
Sommige eksaminatore het duidelik ŉ passie vir letterkunde en baie moeite word gedoen met die ondering daarvan.
Hierdie passie blyk ook uit die reaksie van die kandidate. Baie dankie.
Dis verblydend om te sien dat die individuele verslae en die algemene verslag in sommige sentrums deeglik bestudeer
word. Daar is ŉ merkbare verbetering in die kwaliteit van die opstelle in hierdie sentrums. Dis ongelukkig ook duidelik
dat daar in ander sentrums geen ag geslaan word op die kommentaar nie. Dieselfde foute word jaar na jaar by dieselfde
sentrums aangetref. Kandidate word uiteindelik sodoende onnodig benadeel.
Doen asseblief moeite met die verskillende verslae. Dis nie daarop afgestem om foute te vind of te kritiseer nie. Die
doel is om riglyne te gee vir groei, sodat ons almal die standaard van onderrig kan verhoog, kandidate daardeur kan
help en die land dien met afgeronde kandidate.
Kommentaar op spesifieke sake
Komentaar op eksamineringstegniek en evaluering:
ŉ Inligtinggewende en opsommende voorblad is funksioneel en skep die indruik van deeglike werk. Daarop verskyn die
inligting oor die kandidaat [Naam, van, eksamennommer], titels van die twee boeke afsonderlik, die opstelonderwerpe,
ŉ gespesifiseerde skema vir bepunting met al vyf die onderafdelings en ŉ totaal vir elkeen van die twee werke onder
bespreking, handtekening van die eksaminator en datering.
Opstelle behoort vir elke kandidaat gesamentilk ingelewer te word. Kram die twee opstelle van een kandidaat aan
mekaar en plaas een voorblad wat die inligting in die bo-staande paragraaf bevat, voorop.
Dis onaandvaarbaar dat handgeskrewe opstelle ingelewer word. Alle opstelle moet getik wees en verkieslik in Times
New Roman ̶ lettertipe in ŉ 12 punt lettergrootte. Vreemde lettertipes lees moeilik en oorgroot drukwerk mors onnodig
papier.
Opstelle behoort volgens die kandidate se eksamennommers gerangskik te word. Die steekproef van tien kandidate
moet uit die pak gehaal word en afsonderlik aangebied word. Op die puntelys moet die name van die kandidate wat
deel van die steekproef is, met ŉ asterisk [*sterretjie] aangedui word.
Alle onderafdelings moet duidelik bepunt wees, sodat dit duidelik is waarvoor punte toegeken is. Dis ook belangrik dat
daar reeds in die onderrigproses aandag gegee word aan die vyf onderafdelings:
1. Begrip van tesks
2. Begrip van taak
3. Bewyse uit teks
4. literêre taalgebruik en bespreking
5. Persoonlike respons
Elkeen van die vyf onderafdelings word uit 3 nagesien vir 15. Die twee opstelle se punte word bymekaargetel vir ŉ punt
uit 30. Dankie vir die aanduiding van die onderafdelings.
Kandidate moet vooraf weet dat dit die norm is waarop die opstel beoordeel gaan word en dat elke onderafdeling ewe
veel punte tel. Sentrums waar die kandidate aan hierdie vereistes voldoen, word outomaties bevoordeel. Sommige
opstelle is baie goed, maar as daar geen bewyse, literêre bespreking of persoonlike respons is nie, kan die kandidate
die hoë punte kry nie.
Leerlinge moet asseblief die presies aantal woorde by hulle werkstukke aandui. Dit moet volgens die sillabus slegs 600
woorde wees.
Baie dankie aan die sentrums waar daar soveel aandag aan die strukuur van die opstel gegee is. Die opstel moet
voldoen aan die normale strukturele vereistes van enige opstel wat die kandidate skryf. die strukturele aspek wat die
meeste afgeskeep word, is steeds die slot. Gevolglik kry die “Persoonlike Respons” onderafdeling ook die minste
aandag en die minste punte.

Die persoonlike respons kan op sinvolle wyse in ŉ slotparagraaf aandag ontvang. Hierin kan aandag gegee word aan
die aktualiteit van die spesifieke boek en opstel. Die kandidaat kan ook op grond van die spesifieke opstelonderwerp
sy mening oor die onderwerp en die boek gee. Die persoonlike respons behoort aan te sluit by die onderwerp, want die
opstel vorm steeds een geheel. As die persoonlike respons ŉ enkelsin is waarin ŉ prekies gelewer words oor die boek,
kan dit nie hoë punte kry nie. Die respons tel, soos al die onderafdelings, drie punte. Daar moet egter by die literêre
teks gehou word. As die kandidaat oor die aktualiteit van Siener skryf en daar is slegs drie sinne oor die literêre teks en
die res gaan oor die aktualiteit van drankmisbruik, dwelms, gesinsgeweld voldoen die opstel glad nie aan die vereistes
van hierdie evaluering nie. So ŉ kandidaat kan nie punte verwag nie. Dis die soort opstel wat in Vraestel 2 tuishoort.
Aspekte waaraan kandidate nog aandag kan gee:
ŉ Duidelike opdrag of vraag rig die bespreking. IN die opstel word dan gekonsentreer op die kemteme van die opdrag.
Die opstel is gevolglik nie ŉ vernuftige opsomming van die inhoud nie. Die opstel vorm ŉ sluitende eenheid wat die
vraag/pprobleem oor die teks met bewyse uit die teks beantwoord en beredeneer.
ŉ Groter verskeidenheid onderwerpe kan deur die leerlinge bespreek word. Dis belangrik dat elke leerling se
onderwerp duidelik geformuleer is. Die onderwerp en veral die spesifieke formulering daarvan dien as uitgangspunt vir
die beantwoording. Dit rig die antwoord en voorkom dat die leerlinge slegs die storie/verhaal chronologies oorvertel.
Op grond van die onderwerp kan ŉ keuse gemaak word uit die teksinhoud waarmee die spesifieke vraag/onderwerp
beantwoord word.
Aanhalings ter stawing van bewerings of perspektiewe ontbreek te dikwels. Die aanhaling moet gapas wees; nie te lank
nie [een woord is weer te kort] en die bladsyverwysing is noondsaaklik. Dit behoort ŉ deel van die teks te vorm. Dit MOET
tussen aanhalingstekens geplaas word. Daar behoort gewaak te word teen die gebruik van enkelaanhalingstekens. By
gedigte moet die reëlverwysing aangedui word. ŉ Aanhaling wat nie aan al hierdie vereistes voldoen nie, tel geen punte
nie. Daar moet minstens ses gespaste bewyse wees wat korrek aangehaal is om volpunte te verdien.
As beeldspraak en stylfigure uitgewys word, moet dit die argument ondersteun. Dit moet benut word om die opdrag of
vraag bo-aan te beantwoord. Weer eens kan dit nie net lukraakopgenoem word omdat dit een van die onderafelings is
wat bepunt gaan word nie. Die uitwysing van beeldspraak en stylfigure moet funksioneel wees vir die bespreking van
die opdrag. Dit geld enige ander literêre terme. Kunsmatig aangeplakte literêre terme verdien geen punte nie. Elke
spesifieke onderwerp veronderstel sy eiesoortige literêre taalgebruik. As daar oor die dramatiese effek in Raka geskryf
word, moet spanning, dialoog, konflik, direkte voorstelling, handeling, bou van die drama ... aandag kry.
Kandidate behoort duidelik onderrig te word in literêre tegnieke. Baie meer literêre taal behoort tersprake te wees
in die fomulering van die onderwerpe/vrae onder bespreking. Daar moet gemaklik verwys kan word na karakters,
karakterisering, milieu, verhaalstruktuur, simboliek, die onderskeid tussen letterlike en eerste vlak betekenis van die
teks en die figuurlike of tweede vlak betekenis van die teks.
Die gebruik van bronne was in die algemeen bevredigend. Begrip en insig in die teks, die literêre aard, taal en kwaliteit,
die vraag ... is belangriker en blyk duidelik uit die soort opstelle wat kandidate skryf. Dit word verder bevestig deur die
reaksie in die mondelinge evaluering. Sommige van die opstelle en die fomuleringswyses skep steeds die indruk dat
die leerlinge die aantekeninge oorskryf. Alle antwoorde op dieselfde vraag behoort nie presies dieselfde struktuur en
aanhalings te hê nie.
Dit titels van boeke behoort onderstreep te word. Sodoende word daar duidelik onderskei wanneer van die werk Raka,
Siener in die Suburbs en Fiela se kind gepraat word en wanneer van die persoon. Gedigtitels en kortverhaaltitels word
tussen aanhalingstekens geplaas. Behou dit deurgaans ten einde verwarring te voorkom.
Die afkapteken op die ŉ word te dikwels weggelaat.
Waak teen te vernuftig geforseerde literêre besprekings. Die leerlinge moet ook die tekste geniet en gemaklik kan
verduidelik. Laat die leerlinge byvoorbeeld die storie of gedig teken omdat dit hulle sal help om dit te verwoord. Begrip
van die teks is die einddoel. Baie dankie vir die besondere manier waarop daar wel moeite gedoen word om begrip te
skep.

4101
Paper 4
Algemene Opmerkings
Die mondeling bied aan kandidate die geleentheid om met vertroue die vreugde wat hulle uit die lees van die literêre
werke put en die bespreking daarvan oor te dra in ‘n gesprek. Die onderrig van literêre aspekte van graad 8 af skep ‘n
gemaklikheid, sodat dit natuurlik kom in hierdie matriekgesprek.
In sentrums waar literêre aspekte deurlopend op natuurlike wyse van vroeg af onderrig word, blyk die beginsels duidelik.
Baie dankie daarvoor.
Kommentaar oor spesifieke sake
1 Kwaliteit van opnames wat ontvang is
Die meeste opnames was baie duidelik en hard genoeg. Waak teen bygeraas wat die luister bemoeilik. Kies
asseblief ‘n stil plek vir die maak van die opnames. Baie dankie vir al die ure wat u spandeer aan die maak van
hierdie opnames ̶ dikwels in die namiddag.
2 Verteenwoordiging van steekproef
Monsters verteenwoordig kandidate oor die spektrum. Baie dankie aan die sentrums met groot getalle kandidate
waar baie harde werk gedoen word en ure bestee word aan hierdie taak.
Neem asseblief die kandidate op in die volgorde van hulle eksamennommers. Merk die steekproef met ‘n
asterisk [*sterretjie] op die puntelys.
Kommentaar oor eksamineringstegniek en evaluering
1 Opwarming
Opwarming is noodsaaklik. Daar moenie te veel tyd daaraan bestee word nie. Dis bloot ter wille van ontspanning
en die skep van ‘n gemaklike atmosfeer ter wille van die kandidate. Daar moet op alledaagse en persoonlike vrae
gekonsentreer word. Menings en kennis moenie hier gevra word nie. Varieer die vrae by opwarming. Die eie aard
van elke kandidaat behoort te blyk.
Die meeste eksaminatore hanteer die opwarming met wysheid en deernis.
2 Vraagstelling
Vrae behoort ‘n wye spektrum te dek. Variasie en vraagvlakke is noodsaaklik. Genoegsame aandag aan literêre
aspekte is noodsaaklik.
Formuleer vrae kort en helder, sodat kandidate langer kans kan kry om te antwoord. ‘n Vooraf-opgestelde
vraestel lei tot goeddeurdagte vrae. Dit laat reg geskied aan die kandidaat se eie werkstuk. Vrae moet ook
indringend wees en die leerlinge die geleentheid bied om hul heel beste te lewer.
Gee leerders genoeg tyd om te antwoord voordat ŉ volgende vraag gevra word. Die eksaminator mag geen
reaksie toon nie. Vrae wat verkeerd beantwoord word, mag nie deur die eksaminator korrek beantwoord word nie.
3 Begeleiding
Te veel begeleiding tydens die mondeling is onaanvaarbaar. Leerlinge mag nie gelei word om by die korrekte
antwoord uit te kom nie. Dis nie ‘n ekstra onderrigsessie waar dit wat leerlinge nie kan antwoord of begryp nie,
verduidelik behoort te word nie. Dit gaan nie oor die eksaminator nie, maar oor die kandidaat. Die klem moet val
op die kandidaat se deelname. Kandidate moet die beskikbare tyd kan benut om hul bes te lewer. Die fokus val
nie op bloot regte of verkeerde antwoorde nie, maar op die insig in die teks en letterkunde. Waak teen te veel
kommentaar deur die eksaminator.

Die presiese onderwerp waaroor die mondeling gaan [opstelonderwerp], moet duidelik blyk. Plaas die hooffokus
op die opstelle wat deur die kandidate uitgewerk is. Literêre terme moet getoets word.
4 Aard/verskeidenheid van vrae
Daar word duidelik meer aandag geskenk aan die literêre en digterlike aspekte. Daar is wel nog sentrums wat
te veel klem plaas op die teksinhoud. Literêre aspekte moet toegepas word op die teks. Leerlinge moet die
wyse waarop dit in die spesifieke teks gebruik word, helder kan verduidelik. Dit wys of die leerling verstaan presies
hoe die teks werk en of die leerling insig het.
Daar kan by Raka nog meer gekonsentreer word op die teks as gedig. Daar is goeie, indringende vraagstelling
oor die teksinhoud met ‘n deeglike konsentrasie op die detail van die teks. Dit moet ook toegepas word. Onthou
dat dit die verpligte gedigafdeling is.
By die vraagstelling oor die verskillende tekste behoort ook ‘n onderskeid gemaak te word tussen die
verskillende kandidate. Kandidate met dieselfde onderwerpe moenie dieselfde vrae beantwoord nie. Dit skep
ongelukkig die idee dat die leerlinge vooraf op spesifieke vrae voorberei is. Sommige van die antwoorde skep die
idee dat dit uit die kop geleer is – veral as bladsyverwysings wat geen doel in ‘n mondeling dien nie, gegee word.
Genre-aspekte word nog nie genoegsaam gedek nie, alhoewel daar al ‘n groot verbetering in dié verband
waarneembaar is in sommige sentrums. Baie dankie. By Siener word onder meer verwys na karakter, motiewe,
konflik, maatskaplike probleemdrama, ironie . . . maar die dramatiese aard van die teks kry nog nie genoegsaam
aandag nie. Daar word nog te veel gekonsentreer op die inhoud en die deurlopende motiewe. Groter insig in die
manier waarop die teks as drama werk, kan aandag ontvang.
Vra liefs een vraag op ‘n slag. Wees versigtig vir die vra van twee vrae gelyktydig/ dubbeldoorvrae.
Die gebruik van Engelse woorde moet vermy word. Slengtaal deur beide die kandidaat en eksaminator hoort nie
in die mondeling nie.
Algemeen
Daar behoort op geen manier die idee gewek te word dat leerlinge die antwoorde voorlees nie. Die doel is nie om
korrekte antwoorde te toets nie, maar die leerlinge se eie insig en vaardigheid om selfstandig met die teks om te gaan.
As die leerlinge kripties antwoord en net op korrekte antwoorde konsentreer, kan daar nie ‘n baie hoë punt vir die spreker
se vaardighede toegeken word nie. Daar moet voortdurend in gedagte gehou word dat dit ‘n mondeling is. Spontane, uit
die vuis antwoorde met insig is gevolglik noodsaaklik. Daardeur word die leerling se formuleringsvaardigheid getoets.
Dit is juis wat hier ter sprake is.
Die mondeling mag nie 15 minute oorskry nie. Dit benadeel eerder as bevoordeel die kandidate. Na 12 minute is dit
reeds baie duidelik waartoe die kandidaat in staat is.
Aanbeveling
‘n Oefenlopie vir die matriekmondeling kan reeds in graad 11 gedoen word oor die boek/boeke wat reeds afgehandel
is. Neem die mondelinge selfs in klasverband op. Laat die res van die klas die kandidaat evalueer volgens die
voorgeskrewe skema. Sodoende leer hulle waarna opgelet moet word. Laat die klas kommentaar lewer met die doel
om elke kandidaat te help, eerder as te kritiseer. Sodoende raak hulle die proses gewoond en verminder die spanning.

FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH
4102
Paper 1
General comments
It was disappointing to note that teachers have not addressed the issues raised in the examination report of 2012, as
many of the same issues are still a problem.
Some of these issues are:
The use of colloquial language in an inappropriate manner. Words such as “a lot” and “alright” are non-words, yet
still used regularly. Other colloquialisms are the use of “kids” for “children”; “guys” for men and the continued use of
contractions, usually used incorrectly.
Candidates need to learn in which situation colloquialisms may be used. Their inability to do so suggests that teachers
should focus on register and audience.
Grammar, spelling, syntax and punctuation remain issues that are not addressed at schools. Structures and paragraphing
also require urgent attention.
Other issues also remain the same. Schools are encouraged to realise that English First Language Ordinary level
remains a viable alternative for candidates struggling at the Higher Level.
Part 1
1 (a)(1-11) Most candidates did not struggle with the multiple-choice section.
(b) This answer was only sporadically answered correctly. Candidates struggled to work out the context of the
word as used in the passage.
(c) The candidates generally answered this question correctly.
(d) This answer met with sporadic success. Candidates are reminded to be guided by the mark allocation, as
most just mentioned one or two instances of irony.
2 The dialogue question was quite a challenge for the candidates. Several candidates did not pay enough attention
to the demands made by the question. Many answers were much too short, or lacking in one or other aspect of
the question. Some paid more attention to the events and neglected the thoughts and emotions of the victims and
vice versa, or the candidates neglected to formulate a suitable plan of action.
Furthermore, candidates only had a sporadic knowledge of the correct format required to present a useful
and suitable answer. Teachers are reminded that the directed writing exercises that may be asked in the final
examination are all detailed in the syllabus. Candidates should be taught as well as practise the various formats
that can be required by the examiners.
3 Summary
It is difficult to understand why some candidates find it hard to realise that this question is a summary and not
a speech or an essay. Several candidates struggled to identify suitable material for the summary from both
passages, and not only one. The better candidates wrote excellent summaries that focused on all the elements
required by the question. Candidates require additional practice at school level. The successful summary focuses
on advanced grouping of the points, beyond the guidelines given by the question. Lifting was, as always, the most
common method used to reflect the content. The difficulty of the summary lies in presenting the correct content
material in a suitable grouping and form while avoiding mass lifting and poor expression.

4 This question called for the candidates to write a newspaper article. What this entails is a specific approach regarding
register and structure. The style calls for objective, fact-based reporting, focusing on events, opinions, impressions
and interviews. Many candidates failed to realise this. Many answers were opinionated and emotionally charged,
written in a journal style, or as a story.
The strong bias on description was not picked up by many candidates, which was unfortunate. However, candidates
who remembered the stylistic elements of a newspaper article, did so with great success.

- Practice. Teachers most practise the various directed writing exercises as laid down by the syllabus.
- Focus on skills. Candidates should do much remedial work in production, grammar and spelling.
- Avoid common errors. Teach candidates to avoid making concord errors, etc. The use of “loose” instead of the
correct “lose”, for example.
- Avoid Americanisms, such as using an adjective where an adverb is required: Examples of this are: “I did good”
instead of “I did well”; or “they ran quick” instead of “they ran quickly”.
- Avoid colloquialisms. The examination is a formal setting and should be treated as such. For example, a dialogue
between a Prime Minister and a Major requires formal speech – characters in such a situation would not
exchange common pleasantries. The situation should match the content.

4102
Paper 2
General comments
Twelve centres wrote in for this examination and ninety-nine scripts were received from candidates. Unfortunately the
Part-time Centres are unaware of the fact that their candidates are not allowed to enter for the English First Language
level as they are unaware of component three and four, the literature and speaking components respectively.
Furthermore, there are still some full-time candidates who would have done for better had they written in for English
Second Language.
Most candidates were able to use the correct formats for the narrative, the discursive or argumentative types of essays.
Some, however, did not follow the instructions as was evident in Question 5.
Unfortunately the same errors were still evident in this year’s marking session. Teachers are encouraged to emphasise
the following points to achieve even better results in the future:
• Candidates should copy the number of the topic they have chosen and the correct title of the essay. The full title
is needed.
• The introductory paragraph of the essay should link up with the conclusion.
• Linking words should be used to begin paragraphs. Avoid using firstly, secondly and thirdly.
• All sentences must contain subjects. Many candidates begin sentences with a present participle without a
subject,e.g. Sailing ……..
• Some phrases are repeated to begin sentences which leads to monotony.
• Complex sentences become ambiguous and lead to verbose language, which detracts from the idea which is
discussed.
• Each paragraph should contain only one idea. Many candidates tried to incorporate a variety of ideas into
oneparagraph, which led to confusion.
• Candidates should not change tenses within a paragraph.
• The structure of sentences within a paragraph is very important. Some candidates ended a sentence in the middleof
a line and then proceeded to write the next sentence in the same paragraph, in the next line. This created confusion
as the paragraph structure was hampered.
• Candidates should not leave a number of lines open after the last paragraph on the first page and then begin a next
paragraph on the next page. The examiner assumes that the candidates has completed the essay, which could
lead to the loss of valuable marks as the essay could be considered too short or that it has no conclusion.
• Candidates should not use brackets within a sentence but rather be taught how to use parenthesis.
• The incorrect use of irregular verbs still poses a problem.
• The continuous use of the same pronoun throughout an essay without first indicating a proper noun creates
agrammatical error of note also, for example, using you and then proceeding to use one, rather than using one or
the other.
• Candidates neglect to use an article before a noun.
• The correct use of the apostrophe continues to be a problem as many leaners referred to many rhinos as rhino’s
rather than adding the s for the plural form only.
• Colloquial language hampers the candidates from attaining good results, e.g. “stuff”. Other phrases which need to
be eliminated are “whatever”, “etc”. and so on as they have no meaning.
• The American spelling also contributes to lower marks, e.g. “color; favor”, behavior” and “programs”.
• The following words are often misspelt:
Cannot √ can not x governments √ goverments x
Receive √ receive x resive x extinct √ exteinted x
Century √ centuary x features √ feachers x
Beautiful √ beautifull x licence √ license xDecade √ decate x
• Candidates also do not know the difference between “affect” and “effect” as well as “live” and “life”.
• Numbers should all be written out until twenty one after which they may use numerals.

1 Change and transformation in the world begins with the individual. “Whatever we change in our world, however
small, is like a rippling effect.” Do you agree?
Twelve candidates chose this topic. Most candidates were able to answer this question correctly as they chose to
write the essay in an argumentative format. However, there were a few who tried to argue their points and keep to
one idea within a paragraph. There were very good ideas from the candidates, which were extremely inspiring and
gave the examiner hope for our future generations.
2 Write a narrative essay in which you express what your memories are made of.
Ten candidates chose this question which was one of the easiest. All these candidates wrote with great ease as
they were all able to identify with the topic. There were some very amusing tales told and the majority of these
candidates gained good marks.
3 Discuss how art has been influenced by technology in this century.
Four candidates chose this topic and each learner did extremely well. They were able to discuss how technological
influences have changed art. It was pleasing to note that applicable jargon was used to enhance the effect of the
essay. Three-dimensional graphic art was mentioned while original sketching and sculpting were compared to the
latest technology.
4 “Carpe Diem” means to “seize the day!” Most people believe that the past is dead and that there is no tomorrow.
Discuss why it is important to live and experience each moment in your life with all your soul.
Thirteen candidates chose this insightful topic. Many candidates used a number of other quotations to substantiate
this idea, for example, “yesterday is history”, “today is a gift, tomorrow is a secret”. The topic could have lent itself to
candidates writing about extreme rampages, however, on the contrary, they all based their essays and information
on very mature ideas which were related to the value of their families in their lives.
5 “The Namibian in me!” Write a narrative essay in which you depict your patriotism towards the country of your birth.
This question was answered by nine candidates. The instructions stated that they were to write a narrative
essay. Many candidates ignored this and promoted Namibia through writing expository essays. This led to many
candidates being penalised on the content structure side of the grid, which resulted in a lower mark band.
6 You are obliged to give a waitress/waiter a tip of at least ten percent of the bill as a form of gratitude for his/her
services provided to you.
Do you agree with this statement?
Eight candidates chose this topic which was argued in a clever way. The majority of the candidates did not agree
with this statement. It was quite evident from this that none of them have been waiters or waitresses before!
7 Is there a place for traditional medicines in today’s society? Discuss this question.
Twelve candidates chose this question which seemed to be quite popular. Most of the candidates gave very
good examples to support their statements. Surprisingly, even though most of these candidates are from cities,
they believe that traditional medicines are still seen to have a rightful place in society in the modern world. All the
candidates used the discursive format, however, at times there were too many ideas used in one paragraph. This
resulted in lower marks on the content/structure side of the marking grid.
8 Describe how the environment has changed in the world around you in the last ten years. How do you feel these
changes will influence our future?
This open-ended topic was chosen by the vast majority, a total of twenty-three candidates. Many discussed the
effects of climate change, yet a number also chose to express/discuss issues pertaining to their direct environments
at home. The latter could have chosen Question two, however, that was a narrative option as opposed to this type
of question, the discursive format. Some very high marks were achieved from this question as the candidates had
a good knowledge of the topic. They had obviously written similar essays before or had taken note when teachers
were discussing issues for data banking in class.

9 Write an essay based on the photograph entitled “Is this the legacy we are willing to leave for our next generations?”
This was a topical issue which resulted in eight candidates choosing to address it. Most of the candidates were
able to give very good responses. One statement which was quite disturbing was the fact that one learner believed
that the giraffe is a member of the Big Five!
Important tips to remember when preparing candidates for this examination are: Data banking sessions, paragraph
structure sessions, grammatical revision sessions and spelling revision sessions, not forgetting the different format
sessions.
With regard to data banking: candidates can bring topics to school or send them to the teacher via email. Once a week,
the teacher can put eight to ten of these topics on the white board. The class can then be divided into smaller groups.
The topics can thus be allocated to the different groups. A brainstorming session can commence and the pros and cons
of this topic can be discussed with the feedback session to follow. Each group’s notes can be given to the whole class
after the lesson. Each learner can then revise these issues before a continuous writing test or examination.
Continuous concord, vocabulary and spelling sessions are very important, as technology and colloquial language have
become the English teacher’s enemies. Candidates believe that spell checks as well as grammar-checks will support
them, as computers are the order of the day. We know that this is a farce and that when it comes to writing examinations,
the learners are unable to apply these rules.
Thank you all for the endless slog and hours of marking in preparing your candidates for this examination. It is difficult to
do this as one never really feels that one is gaining any ground with many of them. They do not seem to adhere to any
advice which one gives them. What is worse is the fact that once the candidates have decided to enter on the Ordinary
Level, they feel that they do not have to give as much attention in class as their Higher Level counterparts have to.
Be strong and remember that one may not realise it, but even if one has only reached one candidate, one has made a
difference.
Good luck for 2014 and keep up the hard work..

4102
Paper 3
General comments
This year’s examination went well and once again examiners are to be congratulated on a job well done.
Eight centres participated in this year’s examination which made up a total of 94 candidates, and 35 candidates’ work
was moderated. There were 15 centres which entered part-time candidates, however, no work was submitted as
candidates were marked off as being absent. In 2012 seven centres entered candidates and 37 candidates’ work was
moderated.
As most centres have very experienced examiners, the majority of results were not altered.
However, there were some marginal differences.
The incorporation of quotations, referencing and the introduction of literary devices is still a problem in Some centres.
Examiners are encouraged to emphasise these aspects when the candidates are preparing to write the literature essays.
Literatures essays
Poetry essays
All examiners chose poetry which was prescribed in the syllabus. Once again the most popular poems which were
chosen, were those about war and love. Only one centre chose African poetry, which showed individuality.
Novel: Of Mice and Men – John Steinbeck
Most centres sent in essays which dealt with “Of Mice and Men”
The themes which were covered were loneliness, George and Lennie’s relationship, the American Dream, authority and
fate.
Candidates need to place more emphasis on the analysis and application of the question in future rather than retelling
the story.
Drama: Macbeth – William Shakespeare
Only two centres sent in essays on “Macbeth”.
Questions which were presented to candidates were: Planning the murder of a king and the relationship between
Macbeth and Lady Macbeth.
These candidates discussed some interesting points which could have been substantiated in greater detail so as to
achieve higher marks.
Drama: Twelfth Night – William Shakespeare
One centre chose “Twelfth Night”.
The questions which were moderated were: Reread Act 3 Scene 4 – Amusing and cruel – what is your response? and
Discuss love as a major theme in “Twelfth Night”.
These essays proved to be well written, however, they needed more substantiation and literary devices.

Drama: Road to Mecca – Athol Fugard
Three centres chose “Road to Mecca”.
The questions were: “The role of Marius in the play”, “Discuss the values and attitudes of the characters towards life,
as depicted in the play” and “Discuss the theme of Light and Darkness in the play”.
Candidates seemed to enjoy writing these essays. The light and darkness theme proved to be the most successful.
Examiners are encouraged to persevere and continue to push and encourage candidates to hand in well-structured
literature essays. There were many candidates who received low marks for this examination due to a lack of detail
and elaboration while their oral interviews proved to be the opposite. One realises that the initial essays are written at
a time when the candidates are oblivious of the importance thereof, but one needs to keep on encouraging them to do
more research to establish a better understanding of the topic which they have chosen. Please persevere and keep on
slogging as you will reap the rewards with your candidates.
Thank you all for the hard work.
Best of luck for 2014!

4102
Paper 4
General comments
Eight centres wrote candidates in for this year’s examination. A total of 94 candidates participated in this process and 35
candidates’ work was moderated. In 2012 seven centres entered candidates and 37 candidates’ work was moderated.
There were 15 centres which entered part-time candidates, however, no work was submitted.
Examiners and candidates are to be congratulated on sterling efforts this year. Most examiners were able to instruct
their candidates according to the syllabus and were able to achieve the best results from them.
Most recordings were very clear and examiners and candidates were heard throughout the interviews. They were all
marked clearly and recorded chronologically. Thank you to all the examiners, as this made the moderation process so
much easier.
Range of samples
All centres submitted the full range of sampling prescribed. Thank you, as this gave a good indication of what mark
range was dealt with in the assessment process.
Comments on examining technique and assessment
Some examiners still conduct a warm up before proceeding to the interview. Please refrain from doing this for the
First Language English evaluation. Rather do warm-ups with the candidates before commencing with the recorded
interviews.
All examiners were friendly and assisted their candidates as much as possible to achieve the best results according to
their abilities. The accentuation of certain words and ideas as well as oodles of patience helped candidates through
the interviews.
The atmosphere in the examination rooms was pleasant and benefited examiners and candidates alike.
All centres’ administration was neat and assisted the moderator in the moderation process.
Other comments
Examiners asked stimulating questions which allowed candidates to express personal responses as well as the required
analysis as per the syllabus.
Examiners are asked/requested to please emphasise the following when they prepare candidates for this examination:
Encourage candidates to use poets’ full names and surnames instead of only using a Christian name or only a surname.
They should also use the full titles of the poems when referring to them. So too, should candidates use full titles when
they refer to the other genres e.g. drama, play or novel.
Candidates should avoid using slang and “cause” instead of “because”. The words “basically”, “nice”, “get” and “got are
used repetitively, which creates a negative effect.
Once again examiners are encouraged to do preparatory orals with their candidates in Grades 11 and in the earlier part
of the Grade 12 year to build up the candidates’ confidence, which will ensure even better results in the final Grade 12
examination.
Best of luck for 2014 and continue the high standard of work.

FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN
4103
Paper 1
The examination paper respected syllabus content and the Namibian context. Overall results were at an expected
average. No centre could significantly improve results and no centres delivered surprisingly good or poor results.
1 Candidates performed best in this question, which was also considered the easiest in this paper.
2 Candidates generally achieved average marks in this question. Most candidates seemed to have problems
with the concept of having to write a summary that join the main ideas of the two texts and wrote separate
summaries. Leniency was applied when marking. Quality of language and expression was generally poor
to average. Some few candidates, however, did achieve high marks in this section
3 Learners generally performed worst in this section and students struggled to keep to the format of the
article, structure thoughts and address the target audience. Quality of language and expression was
generally poor to average. Some few candidates, however, did achieve high marks in this section.
Increased exposure to magazine and newspaper texts that lend themselves to comparison and joint summary could
possibly increase performance in this paper and enhance language and expression skills. Text production and developing
own thoughts from stimulus texts should also be practised in class.

4103
Paper 2
General Comments / Allgemeine Kommentare
Die Sprachkompetenz der Schüler zeigt große Defizite. Das Niveau ist besorgniserregend.
Die Rechtschreibung der Kandidaten lässt sehr zu wünschen übrig und es treten viele Grammatikfehler auf.
• Ein Teil der Kandidaten kann seine Gedanken nur begrenzt zum Ausdruck bringen.
• Der Wortschatz ist bei vielen begrenzt.
• Es wird nach den Ausdrücken aus dem Englischen und Namibiadeutsch gegriffen, wo es vom Still nicht gefragt
wird.
Es ist wichtig, dass die Kandidaten eine Stoffsammlung und eine Stoffgliederung erstellen.
Vielen Aufsätzen fehlte jegliche Struktur. Ohne Gliederung besteht die Gefahr, vom Thema abzuweichen.
Es ist auffällig, dass es den Kandidaten an Kenntnis von Kommasetzung fehlt und die Großschreibnug von den
Substantiven Schwierigkeiten bereitet.
Die vorgeschriebene Wortanzahl wurde in den meisten Fällen eingehalten. Die korrekte Wortanzahl ist am Ende des
Aufsatzes anzugeben.
Die Nummer und das Thema sind vollständig abzuschreiben.

Bitte, keine eigene Überschriften erfinden.
Comments on individual questions/Kommentare zu den einzelnen Themen
Thema 1:
Die Zukunft fängt schon heute an.

Dieses Thema wurde nicht gewählt.
Thema 2:
Manchmal wünsche ich mir, ich wäre jemand anderes.

Thema 3:
Mir lief es eiskalt den Rücken herunter. Es war noch schlimmer als ich es mir vorgestellt hatte… Schreiben Sie die
Geschichte weiter.
Dieses Thema war das beliebteste Thema. Da es ein relativ freies Thema ist und zur Kreativität auffordert, waren die
Kandidaten ermutigt sich damit auseinanderzusetzen.
Sie haben das Thema angemessen bearbeitet.
Thema 4:
Beschreiben Sie Ihren idealen Lehrer.

Thema 5:
Facebook, Twitter, Skype… Was halten Sie von diesen sozialen Netzwerken? Begründen Sie Ihre Meinung, auch mit
Ihrer eigenen Erfahrung.
Auch dieses Thema war beliebt. Mit dem Internet und Sozialnetzwerken kennen sich die Jugendlichen gut aus und
haben damit selber Erfahrung, also war es für sie einfach, Stellung zu nehmen.
Sie konnten es zufriedenstellend bearbeiten.

Thema 6:
Hat es die heutige Jugend besser als die Generation der Eltern und Großeltern? Argumentieren Sie.
Aufgrund der Tatsache, dass die Jugendlichen mit der Generation der Eltern und Grosseltern immer verglichen werden,
konnten ihre Argumente angemessen Formulieren.
Thema 7:
In Namibia scheint fast jeden Tag die Sonne. Warum wird Solarenergie noch so wenig genutzt und was können wir für
ihre Förderung tun?
Thema 8:
Sie liegen auf einer Sanddüne und schauen in den Sternenhimmel. Was geht ihnen durch den Kopf? Erzählen Sie.
Zwei Kandidaten wählten dieses Thema. Leider hat ein der Kandidaten das Thema im Hauptteil verfehlt, aber sich doch
dann am Ende noch gefangen. Der zweite Kandidat hat das Thema angemessen bearbeitet.
Thema 9:
Gruppendruck an der Schule – welche Erfahrungen haben Sie gemacht?


4103
Paper 3&4
General comments
Literature assignments and Oral on Literary Topics
All the centres presented an appropriate range of texts and topics. Assessment and evaluation for both the assignments
and orals were mostly done accurately, only minor adjustments were necessary. The presentation of written tasks was
very neat and sometimes even esthetically pleasing. Some teachers did not use the official marking grid and/or used
different categories when marking the assignments, which made moderation more difficult and less accurate than it
should be.
Literature assignments
Some few assignments were very good, displaying literary proficiency, depth and good analytical skills. These candidates
could have very well have passed the Higher Level examination. Most assignments, however, were of average quality
in content and fairly well structured. Few assignments were of poor quality. First Language proficiency was not a given
with some candidates. Referencing and quoting was mostly done properly, although not always meaningful. No copying
and pasting could be detected.
Orals
The oral examinations were generally well conducted and an appropriate number and range of topics/questions were
raised. A few conversations were very good, displaying literary proficiency, depth and good analytical and speaking
skills. These candidates could very well have passed the Higher Level examination. Most conversations, however,
were of good to average quality in content and fairly well structured. Few conversations were of poor quality. First
Language proficiency was not a given with some candidates, which was more evident in the orals than in the written
assignments.
Please use the official marking grids and categories so as not to unfairly disadvantage or advantage candidates during
moderation.

FIRST LANGUAGE KHOEKHOEGOWAB
4104
Paper 1
General comments
There has been a huge improvement in the spelling of candidates and some had very few spelling mistakes. However,
there are still unnecessay spelling mistakes because of wrong pronunciation of words. It is again stressed that wrong
speech patterns and pronunciations need to be addressed continuously in the classroom in speech and in writing.
Examination centres are encouraged to look at previous examiner’s reports, as well as workshop material to address
wrong representation of sounds in written work.
The required length (number of words) for written pieces in this paper was indicated for each question. However, there
were still candidates exceeding the required length in their written work. Many candidates failed to write in paragraphs.
At each centre there were a good number of candidates with beautiful, neat and legible handwritings which made
marking a pleasure, yet there were still candidates with handwritings that could hardly be read. Very small letters, letters
tilted backwards and filling the whole space between two lines, fancy letter forming and other unacceptable ways of
letter forming such as with ‘a’ and ‘u’, ‘h’ and ‘n’ should be forbidden in class exercises.
Some candidates did not distinguish between capital and small letters in their writing. It was noted that a capital letter
was used in the middle of word. The letter directly after a click becomes a capital letter if such a word is at the beginning
of a sentence.
In an earlier report it was mentioned that the use of abbreviations in written work should be discouraged.
1 All centres did very well in this question. Most candidates scored 80% to 100%. Only a few candidates scored
average marks of between five (5) and six (6) marks.
2 When a speech or an address to people is in writing, there is a definite structure to be followed. The majority of
candidates did not reflect their knowledge or awareness about this aspect in their responses. It is also important
to interpret the question correctly and to focus on what is required by the question.
3 (a) In this question it was expected of candidates to point out the similarities between the two texts. Only a
very limited number of candidates succeeded in that by giving well-written and constructed responses. This
resulted in most candidates scoring very low marks, as they just gave a reproduction of Passage one and
Passage two without indicating the relation between the two.
(b) The question clearly indicated on which part the response had to be written. Many candidates failed to do that.
4 The rule is that each letter must always begin on a new page. There are enough pages in the answer book.
Many candidates did not know the form of a letter, in this case the friendly letter. Candidates also failed to use
paragraphs.
Candidates need to properly prepare themselves for reading and directed writing. There are different types of written
pieces, each with its own structure, such as reports, addresses to people, different types of letters, etc. Therefore it is
necessary that candidates practise through regular classroom writing excercises the various types of written pieces in
the syllabus.
As indicated earlier in this report, wrong speech patterns and incorrect use of sounds in Khoekhoegowab have an
influence on the spelling of candidates. Common mistakes can be corrected and improved on through regular classroom
practice of spelling tests and quizzes. Teachers can have a positive influence on the spelling skills of learners by always
speaking correctly in the classroom.
Handwriting is one of the first impressions one can get about a person. A neat and legible handwriting must always be
encouraged. Discourage learners to use fancy handwritings which cannot be read properly.
4104
Paper 2
General comments
Spelling remains a serious problem in the essays and this results in candidates scoring lower marks. It was also noted
that some candidates use English words in their essays. This practice should be discouraged in normal classroom
practice. Some candidates did not use a capital letter at the beginning of a sentence. In the case of Khoekhoegowab
where a click symbol is used at the beginning of a sentence, the letter following the click is written as capital letter, e.g.
ǀǀGam. A long list of spelling mistakes was compiled and will be sent to examination centres to address the issue of
spelling which is always mentioned in each examination report.
There were instances where candidates left two lines open between paragraphs. The normal practice is one line. It is
a matter of concern at this level that there are still candidates who write essays without dividing them into paragraphs.
There are still candidates who exceed the required length in their essays.
It is recommended that teachers in normal classroom teaching address the issue of legible handwriting. It is sometimes
hard to read and to make sense of what was written. It may result in that candidates lose marks unnecessarily. Some
candidates write in fancy ways and their letters are not properly formed, e.g. in many cases the marker could not
distinguish between a “d” and “g”, and between “a” and “u”.
There are still basic language errors which are addressed at training workshops about wrong language usage, e.g. ǀǀga
and ǀkha. By way of illustration the following: Sats ge !Autsawises ǀǀga (to) ra !gû, and not Sats ge !Autsawises ǀkha
(with) ra !gû. The number of spelling mistakes is the result of wrong speech patterns and pronunciation (approximately
100 common spelling mistakes were noted down). To illustrate: !hoa (talk) is spelt wrongly as !khoa (ice), which is
indicative of wrong speech and pronunciation practices.
In one case a candidate first wrote with a pencil and then with a pen on top of the pencil writing. The candidate could
have utilised the time better by carefully reading through the essay and improving or correcting where necessary.
It was heartening and pleasing to note that all candidates at a centre when choosing Topic 2 used totally different ways
and issues compared to all other centres.
1 It was the most popular choice, chosen by 41 (31.3%) of the 131 candidates. It is necessary in daily classroom
practice to beef up essays with some real examples, and where possible, with some statistical data. Alcohol abuse
and violence and the mushrooming shebeens, is a topical issue in our society.
2 This was the second most popular choice (34 candidates – 25.9%). Some good essays were received.
3 This topic on technology was chosen by the third highest number of candidates (18 – 13.7%). However, it was
found that all essays lacked substance, and broader reference to the many technological innovations that had a
major influence on the development of countries and people, e.g. the wheel, radio, x-ray machines, microwave,
modern construction, for example the the building/construction of bridges.
4 Only one candidate attempted this topic on the physically, mentally and psychologically challenged. It was a topical
issue and candidates should throughout the year have opportunities in the classroom to deal with a wide variety
of societal issues to broaden their knowledge and to help create a desire for reading and if on television, to rather
watch documentaries.
5 Six candidates opted for this essay, but some tried to give an explanation of the poem, instead of using it as a point
of departure for their essays.
6 The topic on the “Church and religion in the lives of the youth” was also chosen by six candidates (4.5%). No in
depth discussion of the topic was found in the essays.
7 The situation at schools and how this affects the youth was taken by six candidates. Again, the essays were rather
shallow.

8 The topic on cultural pride was attempted by only three candidates.
9 For the first time many candidates chose the “picture topic”. Interesting and some good essays were marked.
Classroom debates and and open discussions on topical issues would enhance the general knowledge of candidates.
It may also stimulate a reading habit which would help to broaden their knowledge. Equally important is to create your
own “word bank” for words from English for Khoekhoegowab. This can be shared among schools. Collect newspaper
and magazine articles on issues. The internet is another valuable resource, and where a teacher might be at a centre
lacking modern infrastructure and resources, kindly link up with colleagues to gather information.
Regular spelling tests or quizzes would be beneficial for the learners. Always put up or reflect on common spelling
mistakes. Equally important for teachers is the fact of speaking correctly in the classroom, as certain speech forms
negatively influence the speaking, reading and spelling skills of the learners.
Handwriting is one of the first impressions one can get about a person. A neat and legible handwriting must always be
encouraged. Discourage learners to use fancy handwritings which cannot be read easily.
Regular classroom practice in essay writing will also help to determine how long one should write to have the required
length.

4104
Paper 3
General comments
The quality of the learners’ work improved considerably in comparison to previous years in terms of language usage
and understanding of questions.
In some centres the learners achieved marks between 35 and 50. These are schools that have taught Khoekhoegowab
for years. Schools which recently introduced Khoekhoegowab at Grade 12 level did poorly.It was also remarkable that
in schools with very few Grade 12 learners offering Khoekhoegowab, the individual candidates fared poorly.
Most of the schools which failed to achieve good marks did not obey the following rules:
• Neat writing, unclear signs, length marks, nasals, etc.
• Answers without numbers occurred far too often.
• Answers without proper spacing between subdivisions of a question was commonly experienced.
• It is unacceptable that so many spelling errors were found in most of the scripts of those who did poorly.
SECTION A
1 The interpretation of the symbols like blood, cross and lamb referring to the death of Christ, gave most of the
learners a headache. Only a few candidates could master this. The description of Good Friday was done well.
2 Learners who chose this question did very well in most centres. The bad and the good use of diamonds in our
country, was handled with ease.
However, some learners, changed their answers by giving bad uses in (b) and good uses in (a). It happened
because learners did not read the question properly before answering.
SECTION B
3 The candidates generally failed to give or leave spaces between the various sub-questions.
Some candidates reported or answered properly in their own words, while a few still rewrote the words (same
words) in the text verbatim. Most learners scored between 9 and 15 marks out of 20 for this question. Only (f) was
a tricky question for many.
4 Very few candidates chose this question and most of them did poorly. Some did not even know the meaning of
“Ovakuruhe” in the text.
SECTION C
5 Only (d) and (e) were poorly answered. In (d) the learners failed to bring together the results of the court and the
title of the book “Kai !hūbaib . . .”.
In (e) the learners were unable to combine their general knowledge and the text given in answering this question.
6 Most of the learners did well in this question. Only poor handwriting and lack of punctuation and paragraphing
lowered the value of the content in most cases. Names of the characters in the drama were written with small
letters.

Teachers should again look at:

• Poor handwriting of learners
• The building of paragraphs
• Spelling of common words
e.g. go/kō, tani/dani
• Predicative verbs and objective nouns should be written disjunctively, e.g.
ǂnau bi not ǂnaubi
Tani te not tanite
• Spaces between subsections of a particular question.

4104
Paper 4
The recordings of all the centres were very clear and without disturbances.
Range of samples
Centres with ten and less candidates included all their candidates in their samples. It was found that some centres
submitted more than ten candidates for the sample. Some samples reflected candidates with varying abilities, whereas
in some there was very little difference in the allocated marks. It was pointed out in the report of 2012 that certain
centres still allocate exceptionally high marks. Variation would be indicative of the ability of candidates.
Comments on examining technique and assessment
The oral examination was conducted well at all centres. The examiners were friendly, well prepared and conducted the
conversations with confidence. In general, the questions posed were relevant and stimulating. However, it remains
a concern that questions are mostly aimed at testing the reproduction of the content. It is important that candidates
be examined to interpret the content of the text. Thereby it is implied that questions to candidates should be posed
in such a way that they would demonstrate their understanding of the content of the text, and relate it to their own life
experiences and circumstances. This was also pointed out in the previous report.
It was found that some examiners still allow candidates to have long monologues which are just a reproduction of the
content of the text.
Some oral examinations were too short and others too long. The syllabus give guidelines on the oral examinations.
Examiners are encouraged to acquaint themselves with that before the examination.
The allocation of deserved high marks is not discouraged, but marks should be in relation to the abilities demonstrated
by the candidate. The marking grid (Addendum D) should be used for the oral examination.
Other comments
It is once again stressed that examiners should study the syllabus guidelines for the oral examination. A proper preparation
after the August examination would surely set the tone for the depth and types of questions for the examination.
The approximate length of the oral examination is also indicated in the syllabus. The general concern about the correct
pronunciation of sounds cannot be over-emphasised.

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA
4105
Paper 1
General comment
There have been no improvements in the performance of candidates. The overall performance of the candidates was
below average, some candidates still found it difficult to use written language and language structure (orthography no.
3). There is grave concern that many candidates failed to read and understand the rubrics before attempting to answer
the questions. Candidates should be encouraged to read different passages in order for them to be able to understand
the main ideas, rather copying the whole passages when they answer explanatory and short questions.
1 (a)-(c) Most of the candidates answered these questions very well and they adhered to the instructions of writing
the number of the question and the letter with the correct statement, e.g. 1.B.
(d) Most of the candidates did not answer this question correctly. They did not know the meaning of the idioms
and proverbs. Questions were:
(i) “okuvava edu” = “okuyandja ombili”. Most of the learners thought that it meant “okulikakeka, okulivakela
meumbo ino monika, okuhondama ile okufufya”.
(ii) “Ongalamwifi yaShiteni” literally means “oshifima” or “ofudilwa”. Most of the candidates thought it was
the process of preparing porridge, food or fire, some candidates thought it was fire. The learners from
other languages (dialects) named it in their languages, such as Oshimbalanhu ̶ speaking learners wrote
oshikulya.
(e) The question was poorly answered by most candidates. They did not know the meaning of the term “ovanamake”
which means “ovakwati nawa voinima, have i kaleke po.” The matching proverb is “Oyamukwati, kai shi
yamumoni.” Only a few candidates managed to get it right. Some of the candidates gave a direct translation
of “hard work” or “people who work hard”.
(f) The question was fairly answered while most candidates copied whole sentences and paragraphs instead of
extracting the relevant point from the passage. They copied the whole paragraph. For instance, the answer
was “opo va kale ovakoshoki ile ounona va kale va tekulikika” but candidates copied the whole sentence,
which influenced the answer negatively.
2 This part was better attempted but most candidates failed to come up with the correct format of the
speech. Some speeches were too short while some were too long and a lot of repetitions were frequently
detected. The correct format ought to be:
A Oshipalanyole: Opwa pumbwa oshipalanyole she lifikamena, shihe shi efatululo loshinakuwanifwa, ngaashi
“Outekuduliko noilonga”. Oshinyolwa keshe osha pumbwa efiku pombada.
B Etwalemo la mana ko ovanashihongi aveshe pamifika doilonga yavo.
C Etwalemo la ulika edina lomupopi, eifano laye nelalakano laasho ta popi.
D Olutu (la tukulwa nawa moutendo nomadiladilo a tukulwa nawa pautendo).
- Exulifo tali ngongo osho a popya ile tali udanenke sha kombinga yoshipopiwa.
- Oshipopiwa nashi kale shi na oupulo ile omashendjo onhumba, opo ovapwilikini vaha kofe.
- Na shange edina laye, eshaino nefiku pedu loshipopiwa.
NB: Omutungilo woshipopiwa ou u li muShanga Nawa wo 2010 (NIED) oo ashike tau longifwa.

3. (a) The question was poorly answered by most of the candidates. They missed the correct format of presenting
the differences from passages, instead of drawing a table as it is prescribed by the NSSCO Syllabus, and
most of the candidates wrote paragraphs. Some candidates answered separately, e.g. all differences from
one passage first and differences from another passage thereafter. A few candidates made it even worse and
wrote whatever they could think of without indicating the passage they were referring to. Candidates failed
to match the differences correctly. Instead they copied without considering whether it corresponded to the
statement from another passage or not.
All these facts generally led to poor marks obtained for this section by most of the candidates.
(b) This question was difficult for most of the learners. They failed to summarise and link the ideas from both
passages as one statement. Candidates were expected to present what they had learned from the two
passages and what they had found interesting to apply in their lives.
4. The question was fairly answered, though a few learners wrote an official letter instead of a friendly letter. Some
serious mistakes were detected; punctuation used in the address, some candidates could not address their
friends by the correct salutation, instead of Kahewa Aune they wrote Kuye Aune. Some candidates did not use
paragraphs. In the closure they wrote the full names as if they were not known by their friends, e.g. Kahewa koye,
Aune Ashipala.
The correct format for the friendly letter consists of the following:
1 Single address WITHOUT punctuation and names of candidates are not supported as part of the address.
Capital letters are allowed in abbreviations such as P O instead of writing full words: “Postal Office”. In
Oshikwanyama “modern” month names like April should be written Aprili and not 04/04/13 or 04. 04. 2013.
2 The salutation was expected as Kaume Toivo or Kahewa Sara and not Kahewa Toivo because kahewa is a
feminine word and it cannot be used for boys. The salutation should not contain punctuation.
3 The body of the letter should be written in paragraphs.
4 The conclusion should be a statement indicating that the discussion is over and then the name, not name and
surname.
• Teachers should teach candidates the correct format of the question paper as it appears in the syllabus (assessment
part).
• Learners should be given more comprehensive tasks to teach them to read with understanding.
• Teachers should teach learners to extract the main ideas from different types of texts.
• Teachers should teach learners to recognise differences and similarities from the text.
• Teachers should teach learners to understand rubrics and explore the possible answers before attempting to answer
any question. This will help them avoid too long responses when not necessary.
• Teachers should teach learners when, where and how to apply idioms and proverbs in their written tasks.
• Teachers should teach learners the differences between written and the spoken language.
• Teachers should urge the learners not to change their writing styles on specific questions when writing examination.
• Spelling should be practised throughout the year. These were some of the commonly misspelled words:-
- kakongo lilifa = kakombo lilifa
- u lingaleke = u likaleke
- kondandalundu = kondadalunde
- efimbo okonyandi = fimba okonyandi
- shiha monafana eemhadi nomuti = shiha monafana omuti nomuti
- ngeenge omakipa e li kumwe nofingo = ngeenge omutwe ou li kumwe nofingo
- ouxapindi = ouxwapindi
- ofimaneka = omufimanekwa
- owakiwa = okwa tiwa
- mounghini = mounyuni
- ohatu kuluka = ohatu kulupa
- linduu = lidjuu

4105
Paper 2
General comment
The question paper was moderate, however the candidates did not interpret the questions and instructions correctly.
Overall candidates achieved above average marks. Proverb and idiomtic expressions were not correctly used by most
of the learners. Candidates need assistance in orthography – syntax, morphology and the use of punctuation marks.
Estimated 70% of candidates answered essay number 6, 7 and 8. Some candidates failed to use formal language. In
most essays some candidates did not write introductions and the few who wrote introductions did not relate them to
the topic, e.g. Outeku weeshi otau yambula po omaxupilo aNamibia. Etwalemo” Namibia osho oshilongo osho shi na
eedjo dihapu nosha fimana mounyuni aushe mokulandifa okawe nongopolo”. The introduction did not fit the content nor
the topic. Some candidates did not use the essay format, e.g. etwalemo, oshikalimo osho yo exulifo. Etwalemo limwe
olile unene sha pitilila, li na nande outendo vatatu. Some candidates did not write in paragraphs and some who wrote
paragraphs did not write an idea per paragraph.
1 A few candidates answered this question, however those who answered it did not really understand the topics. As
a result they focused on sea fish, factories for fish, the availability of the fish in the markets and reasons for eating
fish. Candidates were expected to focus on okuulika nghene hadi tekulwa, opo hadi tekulwa ngaashi momatale,
meendama. Nava kwatele mo ngaashi okulandifa, eemhito doilonga noshivelelwa.
2 Very few candidates answered this question, and they answered it correctly. They focused on advantages as it
was asked. Candidates were supposed to include oupopepi novakwashiwana, okufutilwa oinima yoye ya vakwa
po, ihai pula oimaliwa opo u popilwe, ovafyoona ihava findilwa kongudi.
3 Very few candidates answered this question, but had no clue or idea of the meaning of the idiomatic expressions
in the topic. Some just gave a definition of the proverb, which was wrong. Some wrote a story of a rich man who
became poor. Vamwe oshipalanyole ove shi lundulula ve shi ninga “Shi xutuka ohashi di peke.” Candidates were
expected to focus on ta ulike kutya omunhu keshe okwa pumbwa ekwafo, okupaafana omayele, nokukundafana
novanhu.
4 A few candidates answered this question. Some of them did it perfectly but some failed to focus on the one
side of the question, such as advantages and disadvantages of music awards although the question required
them to focus on only one side. Candidates were expected to focus on okutwa omukumo, ovashikingalo otava
shivika nawa, oshilongo otashi shivika molwavo, otava likola oimaliwa nomapapa, oyiimbo otai xumu komesho.
Nge eyandjo lomapapa itali ti sha: ohali eta outondwe, omalwoodi, omapapa ihaa yandjwa pauyuki, ohashi teya
omukumo kwaava inava mona sha, nokutandaveleka ondubo.
5 Very few candidates answered this question, and they did not understand or have any idea of anti- corruption
commission. Zero understanding made it impossible for them to give facts which are related to the topic, e.g.
vamwe otava ti eependjela nadi wedelwe, eefiye nadi tungilwe omaumbo, oshikukuta nashi topolekwe keshe
umwe. They did not focus on what they would have done if they were the head of the anti–corruption commission.
Candidate were expected to focus on okuudifa ko ovakwashiwana okulunga nokulitapula, okukonaakona oibofa
youlingilingi nelitulemo, okufutifa ava tava lungu tave litapula nokutwalwa kohofa, okwaamena yo ovalopoti.
6 The majority candidates answered this question correctly. They gave numbers of true and correct facts which
made wedding to become expensive, such as oinano yovalihomboli, oshihopaenenwa omumati Omukwanyama
ye kakadona Omukwaluudhi, eengobe, eetenda, oikunwa, omidjalo. Aishe oyo otai eta omunhu a ye mondjato
notashi eta nee ohango i kale i na ondilo.
7 The majority candidates answered this question. Some were personally touched and had personal experiences
with the topic. As a result the majority wrote about their parents’ deaths, relatives, grandmothers or someone close
to them. Some wrote stories which they remembered vividly about death in their family, and they used emotional
language.
8 The majority candidates answered this correctly and understood the care of old people e.g. okupewa ohole ya
wana, okukoshwa nokukoshelwa oikutu.

9 Very few candidates answered this question, and some mentioned and explained what they saw in the picture, such
as “eendongi, eendongi oinamwenyo yomeumbo, ohai pulula, ohai tulwa ketemba. Candidate were expected to
focus on okukonga oshipalanyole shefano sha yukila ko ngaashi: Oyeendifo yonale noyonena, Efimano lokatemba,
Oyeendifo, Oinamwenyo.
• Teachers are advised to prepare learners for the continuous writing paper. Preparation should include evaluation
of the topic in order to curb misinterpretation by learners. The relationship for a topic to the learners should be
considered so that learners will be aware of their knowledge to the topic prior to writing.
• Learners should be prepared to understand different types of essays such as narrative, descriptive and argumentative
and differentiate so that when they see the question paper, they can distinguish the topics and link them to types
of essays.
• It is also imperative to prepare learners to be able to write a correct format of essay which includes introduction,
body and conclusion.

4105
Paper 3
General comments
The overall performance of the leaners this year was more or less the same as in previous years.
Some learners misinterpreted the instructions, e.g. they answered both questions from the same section or they chose
all short -type questions or they answered all the essay-type questions.
Some learners did not number their answers correctly or did not number them at all.
It was evident that some learners did not pay much attention to language usage and punctuation marks, e.g. they
began sentences with lower case letters (small letters). They also found it difficult to write well constructed paragraphs,
instead they wrote in a point form, e.g.
• Veino a kongelwa okakadona .
• Oyoonda yaKristine
It was also evident that most of the learners lacked the necessary skills on how to answer literary essay type questions.
Some learners failed to weigh their answers against the questions, so they gave too short or too long answers.
Comments on specific questions
Section A Poetry
1 (a) This question was fairly was answered, however, some learners failed to motivate their answers.
(b) Some of the learners were too general and did not refer to the text. Most of the learners answered this
question fairly well.
(c) This question was poorly answered. Most learners either could not identify a figurative form of speech from a
poem or could not explain it correctly.
(d) This question was answered relatively well although a few candidates did not get Question (d) (ii) right. They
seemed to have mixed it up with ondjibololo, a place where clay pots are made, or oshimbweenga, sarcasm.
(e) This question was answered relatively well by most of the candidates if not all.
(f) Most of the candidates were able to name the asked point of view, but failed to give the example. Instead
they wrote the whole sentence without underlining the correct answer. E.g. Omupersona omutitatu, hava lile
pondje va fa oimuna, without underlining hava or va.
(g) Most of the candidates were able to identify the word that is politically not acceptable (kaafala), but failed to
support their argument,. e.g. okuula omunhu kaafala osha puka, shaashi otashi udifa omunhu nai /otashi
shundula oukwatya womunhu nst.
2 (a) This question was fairly answered. Most candidates understood the message of the poem by supporting their
answer with examples from the poem.
(b) This question was fairly answered, although some candidates concentrated on only one aspect of the
poem structure, e.g. language usage or punctuation instead of covering all the aspects: Hop.Oukwatya
womikweyovelishe, oileshifo, oenjambement, omudiminafano, elaka nst.

Section B Prose
1 (a) Most of the candidates understand the question fairly well, however it was evident that they lacked the necessary
skills on how to anwer literary essay-type guestions e.g. ova tofa ashike, ndele inava koleka ngaashi naana a
sha holoka mokambo nokulieta mo vo vene. Hop Oyoonda, meme Ndevakwanghele natate Haikova ova li va
twala oyoonda yaKristine kEndola. Alushe omumati opo a hombole, oku na okwoonda okakadona kaye tete.
(b) This question was poorly answered. Candidates failed to give the literary meaning of ekondjifafano (antonyms),
e.g. Oinima ivali tai kondjifafana. The right answer was okuhatwa kumwe, eenhamanana pokati kovanyandi
mehokololo.
Some also failed to give the correct reasons from the text.
E.g. Lavinia ta kondjifa a teye po ohombo yaVeino naKristine which is wrong. The expected answer: Lavinia
a hala a lombwelwe omikifi dovanaudu, ye Kristine ota ti inashi ufwa okupopya omikifi dovanaudu.
(c) This question was answered satisfactorily, although some candidates gave ovapotokononi vavali ponhele
yokuyandja umwe.
(d) This question was well answered.
4 The candidates failed to answer this question based on literary skills. They ended up summarising the text.
Section C Drama
5 (a) This question was poorly answered, candidates confused omushingo wehokololo nomutungilo wokatevo.
(b) This question was fairly answered, only a few candidates could not get this question right.
(c) This question was well answered by most of the candidates.
(d) The candidates were able to identify the scary incident, however, failed to substantiate their answers.
6 Most of the candidates seemed to have little knowledge of this question. They only listed the possession such as
ohauto, oimaliwa, eefitola without giving valid reasons from the text.

• Candidates should be taught to answer questions according to the layout of the question paper.
• Candidates should be encouraged to read all the prescribed literary texts.
• All centres should make sure that they have copies of all the literary texts.
• Teachers should train candidates how to answer questions, especially the essay-type questions, according to the
prescribed marking grid. oshihopaenenwa tofa, koleka naasho sha dja moshileshwa osho to pulwa nokuyandja
omaliudo.
• Ovahongwa nava deulilwe oitya yomukoo umwe younamambo, opo va kale tava dulu okuuda ko omapulo nawa.
Hop. Omufyuululwakalo = eenghedi dOshiwambo, eliko = omaxupilo, oshitukulwa shopageografi = omutungilodu,
opathosa = oinyamateki nst.
• Ovahongi otava tuwa omukumo opo va deulile ovahongwa oityapulo ngaashi: hokolola, tofa yelifa, yelakanifa nst.
• Candidates should be taught to give events in chronological order; what happened first, then what happened after
that until the end.
• The essay should have an introduction, a body in paragraphs and a conclusion. The body should include facts from
the text as well as the candidate’s own insights on the facts mentioned.

4105
Paper 4
General comments
The performance of candidates was similar compared to that of last year’s candidates. We thank the examiners who
were well prepared and conducted the interviews with confidence. It indicated that the examiners have mastered
the required skills. Some examiners were lenient towards candidates in the higher range of abilities. For example:
Okuyandja oitwa kovahongwa okudja unene pomuwoi fiyo opomulongo (9/10 – 10/10) shihe li pauyuuki opo enyamukulo
lomuhongwa inali yelifwa nawa nomuhongwa ite lieta mo nande-nande menyamukulo laye. Note that only candidates
who give reasonably extended responses in the conversation and who expand their knowledge and challenge the
examiners’ comments, should be placed in the mark band of 9 – 10 marks.
There were some examiners who were severe towards candidates in the lower range of abilities. For example:
Omuhongwa a nyamukula nawa, ta yelifa nawa ndee ota futwa ashike oitwa itatu ile ine.
Many Centres, examiners and candidates could be heard well. Thanks a lot for the recordings that were well done.
There were only a few centres where candidates could not be heard well. It is good to placed the voice recorder closer
to the candidates.
The range of samples
Some centres submitted a well-chosen range of samples which covered the whole spectrum. Keep it up. Examiners
who failed to submit a good range of the samples please read your individual reports thoroughly.
Warm up
A number of centres had good warm-up sessions. Thank you very much.
Administrative tasks
In many centres that administrative tasks were excellently done. It made the process of moderation so much easier.
Some mistakes were highlighted in a few centres.
• A couple of marks were transferred incorrectly from OASF to the MSI.
To avoid these mistakes, administration checking should be take place at the centre.
Where a candidate is absent, this should be indicated on the Oral Assessment Summary Form as well as on the MSI.
- It is advisable that before conducting the speaking test, examiners should thoroughly read the circular from DNEA
which gives guidelines for conducting Ordinary Level language school-based components for writing and
speaking.
- We thank the examiners for showing a positive and calm attitude in conducting the examination to the advantage
of the candidates.
Thank you very much.

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA
4106
Paper 1
General comment
There has been no improvements in the performance of candidates. The overall performance was below average, and
some candidates still found it difficult to use written language and language structure (orthography no.3). There is grave
concern that many candidates failed to read and understand the rubrics before attempting to answer them. Candidates
should be encouraged to read more different passages in order for them to be able to understand the main ideas, rather
than copying the whole passage when they answer explanatory and short questions.
1 (a)-(c) Most of the candidates answered these questions very well and they adhered to the instructions of writing
the number of the question and the letter with the correct statement, e.g. 1.B.
(d) Most of the candidates did not answer this question correctly. They did not know the meaning of the idioms
and proverbs. Questions were:
(i) “Okugwaya evi” = “okugandja ombili”. Most of the learners thought that it meant “okwi iyakela megumbo
opo omuntu ku monike” nenge “okuholama” nenge “okufundja”.
(ii) “Ongalamwithi yaShiteni” literally means “oshithima” or “oshimbombo”. Most of the candidates thought it
was the process of preparing porridge, food or fire.
(e) The question was poorly answered by most candidates. They did not know the meaning of the term “aanamake”
which means “okukwata nawa iinima yawo noku yi gongela yaa halakane po,” while the matching proverb
is “Kayi shi yamukwati ndele oyamugongeli.” Only a few candidates managed to get it right. Some of the
candidates gave a direct translation of “hard work” or “people who work hard”.
(f) The question was fairly answered while most candidates copied whole sentences and paragraphs instead
of extracting the relevant point from the passage. For instance, the answer is “otaa kala aayogoki”, but
candidates copied the whole sentence.
2 This part was better attempted but most candidates failed to come up with the correct format of the speech. Some
speeches were too short while some were too long and a lot of repetitions were frequently detected. The correct
format ought to be:
(a) Oshipalanyolo
(b) Efalamo lya mwenyekwa nawa li na omasimaneko gaahiywa kondandalunde, ya yooloka pamithika dhawo.
(c) Efalomo namu holoke edhina lyomupopi neithano lye naashoka ta ka popya (elalakano).
(d) Olutu (Lwa topolwa nawa muutendo wa landulathana nawa).

- Ehulitho(Ewanawa lya tsa omuthindo kwaashoka a popya).
- Na nyole edhina lye, eshaino nesiku pevi lyoshipopiwa.
NB: Omuthango woshipopiwa u li muShanga Nawa wo ̶ 2010 (NIED) owo awike tagu longithwa.
3 (a) The question was poorly answered by most of the candidates. They missed the correct format of presenting
the differences from passages, instead of drawing a table as it is prescribed by the NSSCO Syllabus, and
most of the candidates wrote paragraphs. Some candidates answered separately, e.g. all differences from
one passage first and differences from another passage thereafter. A few candidates made it even worse and
wrote whatever they could think of without indicating the passage they were referring to. Candidates failed
to match the differences correctly. Instead they copied without considering whether it corresponded to the
statement from another passage or not.

All these facts generally led to poor marks obtained for this section by most of the candidates.
(b) This question was difficult for most of the candidates. They failed to summarise and link the ideas from both
passages as one statement. Candidates were expected to present what they had learned from the two
passages and what they had found interesting to apply in their lives.
4 The question was fairly answered, though a few learners wrote an official letter instead of a friendly letter. Some
serious mistakes were detected; punctuation used in the address, some candidates could not address their friends
by the correct salutation, instead of Kahewa Aune they wrote Kuye Aune. Some candidates did not use paragraphs.
In the closure they wrote their full names as if they were not known by their friends, e.g. Kahewa koyeAune
Ashipala.
The correct format for the friendly letter consists of the following:
1 Single address WITHOUT punctuation and names of candidates are not supported as part of the address,
capital leters are allowed in abbreviations such as P O instead of writing full words: “Postal Office”. In
Oshindonga “modern” month names like April should be written Apilili and not 04/04/13 or 04. 04. 2013.
2 The salutation was expected as Kuume Toivo or Kahewa Sara and not Kahewa Toivo because kahewa is a
feminine word and Kuume is neutral in Oshindonga. It can go for either boys or girls. The salutation should
not contain punctuation.
3 The body of the letter should be written in paragraphs.
4 The conclusion should be a statement indicating that the discussion is over and then the name, not name and
surname.

• Teachers should teach candidates the correct format of the question paper as it appears in the syllabus (assessment
part).
• Learners should be given more comprehensive tasks to teach them to read with understanding.
• Teachers should teach learners to extract the main ideas from different types of texts.
• Teachers should teach learners to recognise differences and similarities from the text.
• Teachers should teach learners to understand rubrics and explore the possible answers before attempting to answer
any question. This will help them avoid too long responses when not necessary.
• Teachers should teach learners when, where and how to apply idioms and proverbs in their written tasks.
• Teachers should teach learners the differences between written and spoken language.
• Teachers should urge the learners not to change their writing styles on specific questions when writing examination.
• Spelling should be practised throughout the year. Below are some of the commonly misspelled words:
- omugunduka = omugundjuka
- tu ste = tu tse
- potsa = popya
- metsa = mepya
- meembo = megumbo
- odholongo = ondholongo
- epya ndjoka = epya ndyoka

4106
Paper 2
General comment
The question papers was moderate, however the candidates did not interpret the questions and instructions correctly.
Overall candidates achieved above average marks. Proverbs and idiomatic expressions were not correctly used by
most learners. Candidates need assistance in orthography – syntax, morphology and the use of punctuation marks.
Estimated 70% of candidates answered essays number 6, 7 and 8. Some candidates failed to use formal language.
In most essays some candidates did not write an introduction and the few who wrote introductions did not it relate to
the topic, e.g. uuteku woohi otawu yambula po omahupilo gaNamibia. Efalomo” Namibia osho oshilongo shoka shi na
oonzo odhindji nosha simana muuyuni auhe mokulanditha okawe nongopolo”. The introduction did not fit the content
nor the topic. Some candidates did not use the essay format, e.g. efalomo, oshikalimo osho wo ehulitho. Efalomo
limwe ele unene sha pitilila, li na nando uutendo utatu. Some candidates did not write in paragraphs and some who
wrote paragraphs did not keep to an idea per paragraph.
1 A few candidates answered this question, however, those who answered it did not really understand it. As a result
they focused on the sea fish, factories for fish, the availability of the fish in the markets and reasons for eating fish.
Candidates were expected to focus on: okuulika nkene hadhi tekulwa, mpoka hadhi tekulwa ngaashi momatale,
moondama. Na kwatele mo wo ngaashi okulanditha, oompito dhiilonga, nosheelelwa.
2 Very few candidates answered this question, and they answered it correctly. They focused on advantages as it was
asked. Candidates included oupopepi naakwashigwana, okufutilwa iinima yoye ya yakwa po, ihayi pula iimaliwa
opo wu popilwe, aathigona ihaya thindilwa kongudhi.
3 Very few candidates answered this question, and had no clue or idea of the meaning of the idiomatic expressions
in the topic. Some just give a definition of the proverbs, which was wrong. Some wrote a story of a rich man who
became poor. Yamwe oshipalanyole oye shi lundulula ye shi ningi “shihutuka ohashi zi peke”. Candidates were
expected to focus on taya ulike kutya omuntu kehe okwa pumbwa ekwatho, okupaathana omayele, nokukundathana
naantu.
4 A few candidates answered this question. Some of them did it perfectly and some failed to focus on the one side of
the question only. They wrote about both sides, such as advantages and disadvantages of music awards, although
the question required them to focus on the one side. Candidates were expected to focus on: okutsa omukumo,
aahikingalo otaya tseyika nawa. Ngele itaya popile egandjo lyomapapa: otaga eta omalugodhi, omapapa ihaga
gandjwa pauyuki, hashi teya omukumo mboka inaya mona sha, okutaandeleka ondumbo.
5 Very few candidates answered this question, and they did not understand or have any idea of the anti- corruption
commission. Zero understanding made it impossible for them to give facts related to the topic, e.g. yamwe otaya ti
oopenzela nadhi gwedhelwe , oothigwa nadhi tungilwe omagumbo, oshikukuta nashi topolelwe kehe gumwe. They
did not focus on what they would do if they were the head of the “anti–corruption commission”. Candidates were
expected to focus on okuuvitha ko oshigwana okulunga nokwiitapula, okukonakona iipotha yuulingilingi neitulomo,
okufutitha oonakulunga nokwiitapula, oonakulunga nokwiitapula naya falwe kompangu, okugamena aalopoti.
6 The majority of candidates answered this question correctly. They gave a number of true and correct facts
which made weddings to become expensive, such as iinano hokanathani, omumati Omundonga ye kakadhona
Omukwaluudhi, oongombe, ootenda, iikunwa, omizalo. Yo taya gwedha po wo kutya, yimwe tayi eta oondjo tadhi
vala oontamanana neteko lyoondjokana.
7 The majority of candidates answered this question. Some were personally touched and had personal experiences
with the topic. As a result the majority wrote about their parents’ deaths, relatives, grandmothers or someone close
to them. Some wrote stories which they remembered vividly about death in their family, and they used emotional
language.
8 The majority of candidates answered this question correctly and understood the care of old people, e.g. okupewa
ohole ya gwana, okuyogwa nokuyogelwa iikutu.

9 Very few candidates answered this question, however some mentioned and explained what they had seen on the
picture, such as “oondongi, oondongi iinamwenyo yomegumbo, ohayi pulula, ohayi tulwa ketemba. Candidates
were expected to focus on Iiyenditho yonale nongaashingeyi, Esimano lyokatemba, Iiyenditho, niinamwenyo.
• Teachers are advised to prepare learners for the continuous writing paper. Preparation should include evaluation
for topics in order to curb misinterpretation of topics by learners. The relationship for a topic to the learners should
be considered so that learners are aware of their knowledge of the topic prior to writing.
• Learners should be prepared to understand different types of essays such as narrative, descriptive and argumentative
and differentiate so that when they see the question paper, they can distinguish the topics and link them to types of
essays.
• It is also imperative to prepare learners to write a correct format of an essay which includes introduction, body and
conclusion.

4106
Paper 3
General comments
- The overall performance of the candidates this year was more or less the same as in the previous year.
- Some candidates misinterpreted the instructions, for example some candidates chose both questions from the
same section or they chose all the short essay-type questions.
- It was evident that some candidates did not pay much attention to the language usage and punctuation marks. For
example, candidates wrote sentences with lower case (small letters) at the beginning. Candidates also found it
difficult to construct well-structured paragraphs; instead they wrote in point form.
- Some candidates failed to weigh their answers according to the mark allocation. Some candidates gave too short
or too long answers.
- Most candidates lacked the necessary skills of answering literary essay-type questions.
SECTION A
POETRY
1 (a) This question was fairly answered, and some candidates failed to motivate their answers. Some candidates
were too general and failed to give their answers referring to the text.
(b) This question was answered relatively well, although a few learners did not get it right.
(c) This question was poorly answered. Most candidates could not identify figurative forms of speech from the
poem or could not explain it correctly.
(d) This question proved to be challenging for most candidates. They could not give the correct explanation of
idioms, for example:
A ye mela lyondjila yoosa noondigolo – a sa.
Nkugo yepongo = uudhigu womuthigona, oKalunga he wu kutha po.
(e) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question, although some candidates could not give the
answers based on the correct stanza.
(f) Most of the candidates were able to name the asked/required point of view, but they wrote the whole sentence
without underlining/indicating the correct answer for example “Omupersona gwotango”, “otand’ imbi eimbilo
lyandje,” without underlining “otandi” or “lyandje”.
(g) This question was poorly answered by most candidates.
2 (a) This question was fairly answered. Most candidates proved to understand the message of the poem by
supporting their answers with examples.
(b) This question was fairly answered although some candidates concentrated only on one aspect of the poem
structure, for example punctuation marks or language usage instead of covering all the aspects: oshiholelwa
“elaka”, “omiziminathano”, “enjambemente”, “uukwatya womikweyovelise” nosho tuu.

SECTION B
PROSE
3 (a) This question was poorly answered. Most of the candidates could not understand the meaning of the word
“oohendhi”. They ended up summarising the novel.
(b) The first part of this question was poorly answered. They failed to give a literary meaning of the word
“ekondjithathano”. They defined the word “ekondjithathano” as a fight between characters.
(c) This question was answered relatively well, although a few candidates did not get it right.
(d) This question was well answered.
4 This question was poorly answered. Most of the candidates could not follow the given instruction. Instead of
focusing on one character, they gave more than one character, Niiye, Fillemon, Martha Pinehas, etc.
SECTION C
DRAMA
5 (a) This question was poorly answered. Most of the candidates mixed up “omutungilo gwokatewo” “nomuhingo
gwehokololo”.
(b) This question was only partially answered as candidates failed to give support evidence/events in relation to
the drama.
(c) This question was well answered by most of the candidates.
(d) The majority of candidates were able to identify the scary incident; but they failed to substantiate their answers.
6 Most of the candidates seemed to have little knowledge of this question. They only listed the possessions such as
“oonzi”, “iimaliwa”, “oohauto, “omagumbo” nosho tuu without giving examples or reasons from the text.
Positive suggestions
• Candidates should be taught to answer questions according to the layout of the question paper.
• Candidates should be encouraged to read all the prescribed literature texts as it seemed as if not all candidates
had read them.
• All centres should make sure that they have copies of all the literary texts.
• Teachers should teach candidates how to answer questions, especially the essay-type questions, according to the
prescribed marking grid, oshiholelwa: totha, koleka naasho sha za moshitewo.
• The essay should have an introduction, body in paragraphs and conclusion. The body should include facts from
the text as well as the candidates’ own insights on the facts mentioned.
• Candidates should be taught to give events in chronological order, for example what happened first, next, until the
end. Aalongwa naa dheulilwe iitya yomutono gumwe yuunamambo, opo ya kale taa vulu okuuva ko nawa
omapulo, hol oohedhi-omuthigululwakalo
Eliko-uuhupilo nenge omahupilo
Geografi-omutungilovi

4106
Paper 4
General comments
The performance of candidates was more or less the same as last year. We thank the examiners who showed a positive
and calm attitude conducting the examination to the advantage of the candidates. We thank all the examiners who
were well prepared and conducted the interviews with confidence. Some examiners were lenient towards candidates
in the higher range of abilities. For example “Okugandja iitsa oyindji okuza pomugoyi sigo omulongo.” (9/10-10/10) lyo
eyamukulo yomulongwa kali li mondjila nenge inali yelithwa nawa.” The examiners are advised to read the moderator’s
report of the previous year, because the same mistakes occurred again. Some examiners asked the same questions
as they appeared in the August examination question paper. Examiners should prepare questions that are based on
selected questions from the August examination paper.
Comments on individual quesitons
At some centres the recordings were very clear without disturbance, even though there were a few centres where there
were background noises. It is also good if the recorder is placed in the middle so that the examiner and candidates can
be heard well.
The range of sample
Thank you for those centres who sent in a very good range of 3 good, 3 middling and 4 lowest achievements. Keep it
up.
Examination techniques
The warm-up sessions were very good. Thank you very much.
Administrative tasks
There were a couple of marks transferred incorrectly from the OASF to the MSI, also a few
calculation mistakes. Thank you to those who did the administration work at their centres correctly. Keep it up, because
it makes the process of moderation so much easier. Where a candidate is absent, it should be indicated on the Oral
Assessment form as well as on the MSI.
Positives suggestions to teachers

It is good that before conducting the speaking test, the examiners should thoroughly read the previous year’s examination
reports. We want to thank the examiners for their hard work, patience and effort in conducting the interviews.

FIRST LANGUAGE OTJIHERERO
4107
Paper 1
General comments
Again, there was a significant improvement this year particularly for the symbols A – C. This is good and centres are
applauded for their hard work. Unfortunately a number of candidates could also not be graded. Centres need to work
very hard to improve reading with understanding as there were clear signs that a number of candidates failed to read
with understanding and could henceforth not engage meaningfully with the passages.
Centres are alerted to the following aspects pertaining to Paper 1 – Reading and Directed Writing:
QUESTION REQUIRING COMPARISONS
Be short and to the point
If the question is about pinpointing the similarities between two aspects, then it must ONLY be that. The same applies
to when the question is about differences. Candidates are usually not asked to explain in detail, so writing in point form
will suffice here. It was quite evident that candidates who wrote long narrative pieces did not score good marks.
DIRECTED WRITING TASKS
Using given information in another form is the most important thing here. It was evident that centres give little or no
practice to candidates during the course of the year. Directed writing NEEDS TO BE TAUGHT AND PRACTISED
MORE REGULARLY. Centres should give candidates a passage and a question and then ask candidates to pick out
POINTS FROM THE PASSAGE which they can use to answer the question. It does not help to give a sermon on the
format of directed writing tasks and then expect that candidates will answer this types of question correctly.
Make it a point to discuss the examiner’s reports at subject or departmental meetings. Heads of departments must
make sure that they read the examiner’s reports and that the recommendations that are made are actually implemented
in the Otjiherero classrooms. They must inspect that regular exercises in reading and directed writing are given during
lessons or as homework and that teachers mark some of the candidates’ exercises. It appears that candidates encounter
directed writing tasks and questions that require them to make comparisons only in examinations. Teachers should use
the marking grid to mark the candidates’ exercises and not simply make meaningless ticks. It is good if candidates are
made aware of how the marking grid works.
ORUPA 1
1 In last year’s report it was suggested that “centres must teach candidates to answer these questions in a concise
manner and to desist from copying verbatim from the passage to answer questions”. Although a notable decline
in copying verbatim from the passage was observed, it still happened. Candidates who copied verbatim from the
passage did not score marks as the questions mainly tested them to make inferences or evaluate the author’s
attitude.
(a)(i)-(iii) These questions were well answered with the majority of candidates scoring three marks.
(i) Was about the statement that best summarises the passages. The best alternative was B as it best
summarised the whole story.
(ii) Was about giving a synonym for ‘rangaranga’ from the four words that were all used in the passage.
The best alternative was B as the meaning of the other three words were not closer to ‘rangaranga’,
particularly in the contexts in which they were used.
(iii) Was about the expression which softened the heart of Hijambetjiha. The best alternative was D, the
words spoken by Hijamakunde’s wife when her husband was speechless.

(b) This question was well answered by a significant number of candidates. “Hijamakunde aa munu kutja ovanatje
ovazandu ve kasuvera ovakazona mozonganda eye ke hi na maa zeri okuyenda okukavareka tjimuna indji
oya Hijambetjiha nao”.
(c) This question was not well-answered by many candidates as many candidates could not grasp the implicit
meaning of the phrase in the context it was used. Many tried to answer the question on a very superficial level,
e.g. “okuviruka mondjira … okuṱara … etc.” and lost marks. This phrase was meant to make Hijamakunde
jealous, e.g. “ma yekwa omukazendu i Hijambetjiha mena rokumutira”.
(d) This one was probably an easy question, and most candidates knew that the praise was for Kaondeka or
Ondundu ya Tjozondjupa.
(e) A significant number of candidates lost a mark or both here. For full marks it was expected of candidates to use
quotation marks which many did not do. Others who lost marks here did not quote one sentence (omuhewo
not omihewo). Many simply quoted ‘Kareye kozongoro nu ndji tezereye ku me i.’ This one was wrong as it did
not say anything about proximity (popezu). The correct sentences were: okukerihata momurungu wongwe
(popezu) kutja i sore okuvandurura omikova koviuru vyavo nawa (okuyambururwa)”.
2 This question was probably the most difficult question. It was not well answered by a significant number of candidates
with some candidates only scoring 2 marks of a possible 20. Candidates were asked to write a conversation
between Hijamakunde and his wife the evening after their turbulent journey to Hijambetjiha’s homestead in the
form of a dialogue. It was explicitly stated in the question that candidates must use aspects/things mentioned in
the passage.
Candidates who did not answer the question well were those who:
• did not present their answers in the form of a dialogue.
• copied the passage verbatim to answer the question.
• started the conversation at Hijamakunde’s homestead and ended it at Hijambetjiha’s homestead at
Ehuarongue. How did their conversation go that evening at their place? This was the key element of the
question.
As mentioned in previous reports, a significant number of candidates approach directed writing tasks as if they
were “free writing”. In directed writing it is expected of candidates to USE INFORMATION FROM THE PASSAGE,
bend it and present it in a coherent manner to fit a specific purpose.
It was also apparent that candidates are not given enough practice in directed writing during the course of the
two-year course. Teachers are encouraged to collect a number of passages which can be used to give candidates
enough practice in directed writing. Some of the candidates’ scripts must be marked by the teacher. Please do
not put meaningless ticks which are then counted to grade the work of candidates – use the appropriate marking
grid. When practising in class, ask candidates to use highlighters to highlight the information that comes from the
passage and bend it to fit the purpose (the question). Teachers should not stop at teaching the different formats of
shorter pieces of writing and then expect that candidates will do well in directed writing! Candidates need sufficient
practice. It is good to give them passages that they have not seen before instead of relying only on passages from
old question papers which are freely available and would henceforth not provide for a good test.
ORUPA 2
3 (a) This question was well answered by many candidates. The question was about the differences between the
homesteads (ozonganda) of Hijambetjiha and Hijauzuvira. Some candidates did not know the meaning of the
word ‘honini’ and could not derive its meaning from the passage. Consequently these candidates compared
the homestead of Hijambetjiha with that of honini Kambepera (which was scantly mentioned in the passage)
and lost marks. Candidates need to be BRIEF AND TO THE POINT when answering these questions. This is
not a narrative piece of writing and candidates need not write one side of a passage and a half. Half a passage
can easily score the maximum marks. A simple paragraph like: “Ponganda ya Hijambetjiha pa ri nondjuwo
ombutuputu yotjizeero nu otjunda tja tarere kongurova ngunda inḓa ozondjuwo zarwe aza kondorokere hi
otjunda. Onganda ya Hijauzuvira yotjunda tji tja tara kongurova kaya ri nondjuwo yotjizeero nu oyo ya ri
mosarama” could earn candidates a lot of marks. Candidates at this level should learn to critically read the
passages, interpret the questions and present mature answers. One would not expect them to copy passages
verbatim.

(b) This question was well answered by many candidates. The question was about the similarities between
the lite styles and attitudes of Hijamakunde and honini Kambepera. Compared to (a) above this question
was well answered by many candidates. Some candidates however, tried to look at the differences and
were not rewarded as the question was about similarities. Again, a number of candidates copied parts of
the passages verbatim and lost marks. In (a) candidates need to be brief and to the point when answering.
It was expected that the answers to this question revolve around the following aspects: ozombanda zavo
korutu; ovitoore mbyaave ungurisa; omuano mbwaave yakura omerizirira wavo. The first two aspects were
considered by many candidates and they scored around 8 marks of the possible 10. The third aspect was only
considered by a few candidates, e.g. Hijamakunde wa muna kutja omerizirira we okuyenda koya Hijambetjiha
nu momuano otjingawo honini Kambepera otja muna kutja u sokukaungura oviungura ovizere vyombazu
porukupo rwomuatje we womuangu we. Some candidates copied parts of the passages verbatim and lost
marks. This is a clear indication of poor reading.
4 This question was answered satisfactorily by many candidates. Candidates were required to write a letter to a
newspaper or a magazine in which they alert the readers on the statement given that: “Nangwari ombazu yetu mai
teyewa i ovahongwandu novasekame.” It was clearly stated in the instruction that candidates should limit their
answers to information contained in the passage. This instruction was ignored by a number of candidates who
wrote about omitanda vi zarera ozomburukweva kombanda yomatako; ovakazendu ve kuramena ovarumendu
nomake povimbase; ovanatje ovakazona ve zara ouvanda ousupi; omitijira nambano kavi zarwa. Certainly these
were not in the passage and candidates who wrote it lost a lot of marks. The following aspects were contained in
the passage, and candidates who used them scored marks.
• Okukakupirwa koyahonini ngu nokaruwo koutase, omukupwa okukahaamamo onḓengu onḓiṱi muhongwandu
omunatjihako otjinene.
• omaṋangero noukarata.
• Ozohipihurae moruveze rwomaravaerero.
• Omapundiro wovikaengaha moruveze rwoutjina nomihiva.
It is important to stress here that what was mentioned about Question 2 is also applicable to Question 4 as both
are directed writing tasks.
Conclusion
It was quite evident that candidates’ performance in Paper 1 was hampered by their inability to use the information that
is in the passages to answer the questions, particularly when it comes to directed writing (Questions 2 and 4). The
information needs to be bent to fit the specific purpose as directed by the question.
Ouzeu oukahuke uriri: ovahongwa kave hongwa okutjanga omatjangero omahungame kaparukaze nu kave ungura
omatjangero omahungame momatuwo wavo womahongero okurirora omiṱiri kutja i ve petere po. Ovahongwa ve uta
okuzira epuriro oritja - 2 noritja - 4 moviuru vyavo nokuhina ndjivisiro na imwe ndja zu mehungi opu ve kaungurira
oungundi. Ovahongwa mave hepa okupewa omahungi metuwo romahongero aruhe nepuriro nokupurwa kutja (1)
ovikwaye mbi mave nana mehungi ndo okuzira epuriro ndo (2) mave vi twa po vi kutja vi pwire epuriro ndo tji mave
hongwa okuzira omapuriro tjimuna indi oritja - 2 noritja - 4. Kuzambo otji mave pewa otjiungura tjokutjanga omaziriro
wavo nu ave tarasana. Ozomiṱiri ngaze tarere omaziriro wovahongwa kotjihohwa ave twa mo ouhako (√) ondundu
nokuvara ouhako mbwi tji mave yandja ozongombe. Ovahongwa opu ve kaṱira opo mbo.
OKUHEPA

4107
Paper 2
General comments
The overall performance of candidates was considerably satisfactory. On average, a considerable number of candidates
were above average, more or less half, I would suggest. The use of proverbs, phrases and idiomatic expressions,
remains a concern as these are still thrown around at will, without caution. It appears as if learners are strongly advised
that their work must contain these expressions. You would find a lengthy paragraph bombarded with these proverbs.
Creative, realistic and innovative, original ideas, rather than writing irrelevant and repetitive information, was
dishearteningly lacking. Correct interpretation of topics and independent thinking should be part of the training
strategies. Candidates are not allowed to restructure or change the given topics unless specifically instructed as such.
A large number of candidates disregarded this ruling, since the numbering of the questions was omitted in some cases.
A certain candidate even came up with an own pre-prepared topic.
More attention should be given to the introduction and/or entry of essays. (Vandu voJandambi yaHengua, mehiraKaripita,
rahiaUtjinaezorondu, rozondjandaozombiryona ovakuru vetu va ya kohurututu kongombe yaKatjiteo. Arikana inga
omautiro omatata navi tjinene.) Do not use them, they are used without any direction as they do not link up with the
rest of the essay.
Learners can still not identify the different types of essays, e.g. Oserekarere, ombusure, ombatanise, onamapu na
zarwe. They tended to convert all essays into narrative ones.
Common errors
When nouns and adjectives are constructed in class 9/10, a stem initial non-nasal consonant is substituted by its
homorganic pre-nasal, i.e. by the pre-nasal that, within the articulatory sound system, comes closest to its place of
articulation.
Stem initial Homorganic
Consonant pre-nasal Examples in the nasal class 9/10

p mb - pe “new” > ombe
t nd - twe “sharp” > ondwe
t nd - titi “small” > onditi
k ng - kaze “female” > ongaze
tj ndj - tjate “tasty” > ondjate
w mbw - wa “good” > ombwa
v mb - vanga “to like, want” > ombango “will”
r nd - ronda “to climb” > ondondo “step or stairs”
z nd - zepa “to kill” > ondepero ‘killing’
y ndj - yaha “to wound” > ondjahe ‘wounded person
or animal
It appears to be a prevalent complexity for learners or candidates to distinguish between the abovementioned stem
initial consonants and homorganic pre-nasals, hence the reoccurrence of the following errors for the past three to four
years in a row:
ng – k > ozokaku instead of ozongaku ‘shoes’
mb – p > opandje instead of ombandje ‘a jackal’
nd – t > otana instead of ondana ‘a calf’
The following are recurring mistakes:
Paragraphing: Some wrote freely without dividing into paragraphs, although a slight improvement was observed
in this regard.
Sentence structure: Candidates wrote in simple sentences, sometimes incomplete, repeating the same sentences
(omihewo omire omitata). Some could not even see the difference between sentences and
paragraphs as some paragraphs consisted of a solitary, lengthy sentence without punctuation.

Orthography and spelling: The grammatical concord was appalling in most candidates’ work.
Wrong Correct
Example: ahatu zembi - atu ha zembi
Turire pu twa tura - arire pu twa tura
Ondjeu - ondjou
Kaondeka yatjongwa - Kaondeka ya Tjombwa
Omize vyomehi - ovize vyomehi ‘minerals’
Ovina mbi visokutjeverwa - ovina mbi sokutjitwa
Ovandu mbu ve kara muno - ovandu mbe kara muno
Otjina ngunda katjarira otjivi - otjina ngunda atji hiya rira otjivi
Otjomundu nge hina eetjiwa - otjomundu ngwee ha tjiwa
The change of u into w and j into y, remains a serious concern, e.g. Omwatje instead of omuatje. The use of English words
in brackets in many essays hampered some essays. It was really an eyesore for the markers, e.g. ounongowondjivisiro
(technology).
1 This topic was attempted by quite a number of candidates. Some of them produced good essays while others
could not. A large group of candidates could not identify the mismanagement of state finances.
2 Most candidates who attempted this topic could not replicate the essence of purity being humane and the attributes
of kindheartedness. They rather randomly grabbed at unsubstantiated tales of their own experiences. Some
scored average marks, while the bulk of them did not score well.
3 Not many could produce quality work under this topic, as they just pondered around the rights of children without
proper elaboration. It appeared that most candidates could not distinguish between rights and democracy. They did
not know the laws of government and the laws of society. Learners need to be taught more about the constitution
of the Republic of Namibia.
4 ‘Kuta kongonda’ was was not well comprehended by most of the candidates who opted for this topic. A small
number of candidates attempted it and scored average marks, attributed to the aforementioned reason.
5 Most candidates scored good marks for this topic. They could support their arguments with well-illustrated, literal
pros and cons of technological advancements. Most of the candidates appeared to have first-hand information of
the latest technological gadgets, and this granted them a free flow of ideas to substantiate their topic.
6 One of the least opted for topics – however, the candidates went overboard with their contributions. They did not
respond pertinently to the topic in question. They lambasted the culprits of gender-based violence, rather than of
critically looking for the reasons why the abused are reluctant to relinquish these relationships.
7 This was rarely attempted. The few answers were not very good. Candidates could not pin-point the spirit of ubuntu
and the importance of belonging within a society. They rather narrated on a good deed they experienced. Not very
good marks were scored here.
8 This topic was attempted by a large number of candidates. Very interesting, creative and more mature responses
were observed and good marks were scored. Some candidates related this topic to personal experiences and
produced good essays.
9 A very small number of candidates attempted this topic. Some of them applied their knowledge in other subjects
to relate to the topic and scored well. On the other hand many lacked the imagination to deduce from the picture
and rather referred to what they saw in the picture.

• Teachers are urged to encourage candidates to always write neatly and legibly.
• More emphasis, once again, needs to be placed on structure, planning, punctuation, spelling, orthography,
paragraphing and the use of capital letters.
• Teachers could benefit tremendously if NIED arranged a workshop where all language teachers are taken through
the steps with regard to nationally standardised marking techniques. These teachers could in turn train their
colleagues in their respective clusters. All in all, the learners could become better examination contenders.
• Candidates should be taught that the overuse of idiomatic expressions and proverbs, dilute the essays.
• Learners should be taught to differentiate between the various types of essays and how to approach them.
• Encourage learners to refrain from using English expressions as if to explain to the teacher or marker.

4107
Paper 3
General comments
A slight improvement on last year’s overall performance was observed. A great number of candidates appeared to be
in possession of the appropriate prescribed books, but not in poetry as the prescribed poems were changed. However,
most candidates proved to have read the books although they had not studied them thoroughly. The trend of not
answering the questions posed or writing long pieces for a two-three or four-mark question is still wearisome. Teachers
are urged to discourage candidates to give a simple narrative account of the book when answering the question. It was
stated in previous reports but is still a problem.
Some candidates answered questions as if they were writing a composition without any reference to the literary work
in question. These candidates scored low marks for that. The extracts and poems given were reproduced verbatim by
some candidates. It is important that candidates learn to be critical.
SECTION A
(Poetry)
The poetry section was poorly answered compared to previous year. Although candidates understood the poems,
they didn’t respond according to the questions. Both questions were attempted but Question 2 was favoured by most
candidates.
1 (a) This question was poorly answered by many candidates. Instead of giving the message from the lines,
candidates elaborated on the lines and scored one mark. Some candidates didn’t concentrate on the given
lines, but used the whole stanza in general and lost marks.
(b) A great number of candidates didn’t know what alliteration is (omaposatjimwe) and they couldn’t answer this
Question. Those who managed to identify them from stanza 5 of the poem didn’t answer as was required and
scored two marks only.
(c) This question was well answered and most candidates scored the 4 marks that were allocated. Only a few
candidates who reproduced the poem verbatim and those who wrote a long paragraph without answering the
question did not score marks.
(d) A significant number of candidates understood the question and scored 6 marks, but not 8 as allocated,
because the second part of the question which was to link the content of the poem with the name or title of the
poem “Owina” was not answered by many candidates.
2 (a) This question was not well answered. Many candidates misunderstood the question. Instead of identifying
and comparing different styles used by poets to convey their message to the readers, candidates compared
the content of the poems and lost marks. (Omuimbo)
(b) Well answered. A great number of candidates scored high marks.
SECTION B
Both questions in this section were attempted. The majority of candidates preferred Question 3 and performed poorly
compared to those who attempted Question 4. It was quite clear that candidates selected questions according to the
interest they found in the book without considering the difficulty of the questions. The majority favoured “Oune ngwa
tura ondjo” to “Ombu ri omuze woundu”. The candidates who went for Question 4 scored high marks.
3 (a) Well answered by most candidates. Those who referred in their answer to Mbeimuna ‘kutja ondjo we i muna
kutja oyauṋe’ instead of Vejamua scored one mark.

(b) Well answered by a significant number of candidates and they scored all four the marks allocated. While those
who didn’t know the meaning of “okuivaiva” lost marks.
(c) This question was poorly answered. Candidates didn’t understand the question and gave the difficulties
Mbeimuna went through, while the question required them to state what they had learned from the bravery
(ouvanḓe) of Mbeimuna.
(d) This question was satisfactorily answered. Most candidates wrote what was expected of them and scored
good marks, although long pieces of writing which exceeded the required length were produced.
4 This question was attempted satisfactorily. The few candidates who attempted this question proved to have a
thorough knowledge of the novel and produced good answers. The question consisted of three parts in which
candidates had to predict the upcoming century in technology, religious and social behaviour and say how the author
was closer to the reality. Most candidates understood the question and produced quality answers. “Meyoviwondo
ndi mari ya ovanavimariva mave hupu otja konḓero, orondu porumwe tjeri otjirema nu ke nokuvanga ourema mbwi
ma yenene okukasuta orutu rwomundu warwe ngwa ṱu nouruvi we au rundururirwa morutu ndo.”
SECTION C
Most candidates selected Question 6 rather Question 5 in this section. Both questions were equally well answered.
Candidates obtained good marks at this section.
5 (a) Well answered by the majority.
(b) Not so well answered. Many candidates confused the title of the drama “Ami hi wanao” with the title of the
book “Ai piti onḓe mo12” and lost marks.
(c) Poorly answered. Many candidates could not produce tangible evidence from their knowledge of the drama
to answer the question. Candidates put the extract aside and wrote about the drama in general.
Many thought it was “an open question” where knowledge of the drama was not needed. It was expected of candidates to
focus on the theme “Ombuniko yomundu ka ndji ri ongaro nehupo re” which many candidates did not do. Consequently
they used their general knowledge. Those who referred to Joice and Inaambepo scored good marks.
6 This question was well answered by the great number of candidates who attempted it. Some candidates who ignored
the phrase “Zeuparisa omaheya nga…” treated it as “an open question” and produced expository compositions
without any reference to the drama. They lost a lot of marks. Some attempted a summary of the whole drama,
writing long pieces which exceeded the required length and lost a lot of marks.
Candidates who pinpointed how Hiakondjombo treated Tujendango, Mbiripipo and Vesoratjike before and after his
death especially at his last will, scored good marks.
Teachers should consider the following suggestions:

• Examiner’s reports should be studied and discussed at subject, department, cluster or regional subject meetings
during the first trimester.
• Schools should make sure that the correct prescribed books are ordered well in advance for each learner.
• Subject teachers should acquaint themselves with all the newly prescribed poems and books for the term 2013-
2015 and Heads of Departments should make sure that all these are available.
• Subject teachers should encourage learners to critically analyse the literary works through discussions, role-playing,
etc.
• Subject teachers are encouraged to give learners mastery tests during the course of the year and at least one
fresh (not recycled) mock examination. Discuss the strengths and weaknesses which you have picked up during
the mastery tests and mock examination with your learners and work on the weaknesses. Heads of Departments
should make sure that this happens.
• Subject teachers should discourage the learners from only to relying on a superficial narrative aspect “okuserekarera
omahungi uriri” when studying the books. Give learners alternatives for debates.
• Learners should be trained in examination answering techniques so that they do not write half a page to answer a
two-mark question, for example, or answer all the contextual questions or all the essay-type questions.
• Learners should at all times be encouraged to write legibly and neaty.

4107
Paper 4
General comments
There was a slight improvement in the performance of candidates compared to last year. The involvement of school
managers/heads of centres in the moderation of the speaking test this year deserves applause! Few errors were
detected in adding up the marks on the OASF and the transfer thereof on the OMR (mark sheet). This made the
moderation process much easier. Let us keep up the good work and make the discussion of the report an agenda point
at our departmental or subject meetings at schools/centres.
1 QUALITY OF RECORDINGS
The quality of recordings was good. Centres are applauded for this. However, it was observed that some centres
kept candidates who were waiting for the test in close proximity. These candidates become noisy if they are not
attended to. This should not happen. Again, it is emphasised that where the number of candidates is reasonably
low, the speaking test should take place after school when the noise levels have subsided. In so doing the teachers
will also be able to attend to the other classes and major disruptions can be avoided.
2 SAMPLING
A significant improvement was observed in drawing the sample. Most centres sent a sample that represented
the whole range of abilities. The scenario of excluding either the lowest or highest mark that was awarded was
minimal. There were however, some centres which excluded the lowest marks from the sample. Some centres
did not indicate the candidates who were in the sample with an asterisk (*) as required. A general trend that was
observed from many centres this year was the exclusion of poetry from the samples that were sent in. This is an
indication that less poetry was done. It is important that the sample represent the different genres: poetry, novel
and drama. The sample should also represent different approaches or angles of questioning as well as candidates’
points of view and interpretations.
3 EXAMINING TECHNIQUES
Warm-up
Most centres did not vary the warm-up sessions. Many centres tended to ask about the weather and future plans
for all candidates. The warm-ups should be individualised according to the specific needs of the candidates.
Asking too personal questions reared its ugly head again in a few centres. It is important to note that questions
that invite responses on personal issues such as family life, neighbourhood, ethnicity, etc. should be avoided at all
cost as the impact of these questions on candidates’ performance may be negative.
Mock examinations and assignments
Once again basing the speaking test on the August mock examination proved to compromise the quality thereof. A
significant number of centres repeated the questions on the examination question paper. Some centres expanded
this by asking general questions on the chosen literary work while some only stuck to these questions. As for the
part-time centres, it was evident that examiners did not prepare for each individual candidate and only waited to
see what the candidate had to say.Centres need to prepare for the speaking test well in advance. The questions
and prompts should be based on what the candidate has prepared and can therefore not be the same for different
candidates.
Questioning techniques
There was a significant improvement in examiners’ questioning techniques. This trend was observed as from last
year. Questions and prompts that invite long narrative responses are decreasing significantly. However, prompts
such as “wira ko … yata ko … serekarera … pa kaenda tjike …” could still be heard in some centres. These
prompts are more likely to invite narrative responses and should at best be avoided. Examiners tended to use
these prompts when either the examiner or the candidates were not well prepared.

Literature is first and foremost an expression of authors’ views of life and their personalities. It is against this
background that the reader forms a point of view when reading a piece of literature. Examiners should test
candidates’ interpretation and analysis of the authors’ craft and minimise on questions that have the potential to
invite responses outside the texts like “andakuzu ove wa ri … otjo tjita vi risenginina aayo ove wa ri …”
It is advised that candidates prepare for topics that will cover a substantial part of the poem, novel or drama for
example:
• How does the poet create sympathy for the speaker in the poem (omuimbe ma tjiti vi kutja omurese ma ṱire
omundu ngu ma hungire momuimbo mbwi ondjenda) Mba ri ami instead of several loose questions such as:
omuimbe ma heye tjike tji ma tja ozombanda zomukurundu ze neṱundo; ongwaye ozondjise zomukurundu tji
za rira outotitoti.
• How does the author use religion to create conflict and to resolve it (omutjange wa ungurisa vi ongamburiro
okuhohiza onḓurumbata nu e i ungurisa vi rukwao okuzengurura ndji onḓurumbata) in Ombu ri omuze
woundu instead of of several loose questions such as: tamuna ozongamburiro nḓa ungurisiwa i yomutjange
mereparahungi ndi; ongamburiro ya Hijanguvei ya ri iṋe; indji oya Kariamapia ya ri iṋe.
This will minimise the part of the examiner in the discussion he will only intervene occasionally to seek
clarification or curb a long narration that does not answer the question.
4 ASSESSMENT
There has been a constant improvement in the interpretation of the marking criteria since last year and centres
are commended for this. It is however unacceptable for centres to allocate marks as high as 8 for the category
“language use” when candidates continue to have errors such as “omunyande ngaa … okutja nii … omuatje nge
… omundu nge hi na aa … nge hi na kaa … ovandu mbuve hi na kaave … omundu nge mu kurisa“ particularly
in urban centres. Indi eraka ndi hi ya tonga nu omuriungurise kamaa sokumuna ozongombe ozengi nganda aze
kavaza hambondatu motjiṱo tjomaungurisiro weraka. It is equally unrealistic that all candidates scored between 21
and 30 in a few centres.
5 POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS
The speaking test needs a lot of preparation. Both examiners and candidates need to be thoroughly prepared for
it. Tji mo vanga kutja u ungure nondoṋeno momarorero UTA RUKURU nomerirongerisiro woye. Omuhongwa nga
kare nepu nda nongononwa nawa ku ma hungirire. Kara noruveze okupuratena ovahongwa voye AVEHE tji mave
hungirire komapu wavo ku na ove. Tjanga movitjangwa vyavo kutja: imba mo serekarere uriri kotoka kokukahurura
epu roye kutja ovo ve ise mo okunyomborora ngunda ave hi ya ya komarorero. Zemburuka kutja okuserekarera
uriri ku ku ha zire epuriro oku ku tjita kutja ovahongwa ve ungure oungundi mombapira oitjatatu! Me zeri kutja
matu yendayenda okapaze kokapaze nao nu harukuru atu vaza ku twa tanda. Otjiungura tjetu otjizeu, tji hepa
omeriyandjerero nokuungura oukukutu.
Okuhepa

FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI
4108
Paper 1
General comments
The question paper fitted the level it was intended to test. The learners who scored high marks showed competency
in reading and writing. The learners who scored lower marks, experienced difficulties in language usage, spelling,
punctuation, sentence structure and paragraphing. Learners should read their work again in order to correct unnecessary
mistakes. It was clear that teachers did their best to prepare the learners for the examination. Teachers are advised to
study the syllabus in order to work properly. They should also read the examiners’ reports of the previous years.
SECTION A
1 The majority of the learners did well in this, question, but some found it a bit difficult to give full answers.
2 Some learners had difficulty to write a proper report, many learners used a report in Grade 10 instead of a report
in Grade 12, e.g.
(a) Siparatjangwa
(b) Mugavi mbudi, evega, mazuva kwedi, mvhura
(c) Sihorokwa
(d) Mazuva, kwedi, mvhura
(e) Esaino
All the learners should know how to write a report.

The learners had difficulty with language usage, spelling, punctuation, repeating the same thing several times,
e.g. yimaliwa instead of yimaliva
- owu - ou
- nodja - nondya
- guwu - guu
- ngororo - ngorooro
- P.O Box - Nsakoposa/simbangupora
- Nga moomu - ngamoomu
SECTION B
3 (a) Many leaners answered the question with a clear understanding of differences and similarities in both
passages, but a few learners had it wrong due to misunderstanding.
(b) The leaners answered the question very well, but some had difficulty to write enough words and language
usage was a problem.
4 The question was very clear for all the learners, but it looked as if some did not know how to write formal and
informal letters. Teachers should pay attention to this.

Teachers did their job well I would like to encourage my fellow teachers to put more effort into preparing learners in
advance so that they can get better results at the end of the year.

4108
Paper 2
General comments
The general performance for 2013 was as expected. The answers were very clear, which indicated that teachers put in
much effort to train their learners in all of the aspects. Teachers taught learners to distinguish the types of essays, which
was very good, as this made some learners score higher marks. A few learners still started sentences with conjunctions,
e.g. “makura, nye morwa.”A few learners wrote essays without a topic or heading, e.g. Question 9.
1 The candidates who attempted the question mostly produced good essays. The question was about the
importance of agriculture in the world. Candidates expressed their knowledge on the topic. Candidates
came up with interesting ideas.
2 A few candidates selected the question and they performed well. They had to describe the advantages
and disadvantages of tarred roads. Candidates explained that accident happened everywhere with, evidence.
3 No candidate attempted this question.
4 A few candidates selected this question and they performed well. The topic was about belief. Candidates
had to express their different beliefs in their communities.
5 No candidates attempted this question.
6 Candidates who selected this question did not perform well. The question was about the idiom, “sotoka
saga sarerema samukweni”
The qualities of the essays were not up to standard for Grade 12 candidates expected to write how some people
neglect their family when they become rich.
7 No candidates attempted this question.
8 Candidates who chose this question performed very well. Candidates had to explainhow to take care of
people with HIV/Aids. The arguments were very good and quite interesting.
A few candidates chose this question and they performed well. Candidates had to come up with their own topic
according to the picture.
Positisve suggestions to teachers
Grammar and punctuation are very important when writing an essay. Teachers should encourage their candidates to
practise orthography when they write.

4108
Paper 3
General comments
Candidates should make full use of the time left to revise and check their work for errors. Misinterpretation of the
instructions was highly observed, for example, candidates answered contextual questions or essays type questions
only. This led to candidates losing marks. Some candidates wrote too short when answering essay types questions,
and this led to their scoring low marks.
Some candidates presented answers which were relevant answers and were communicated effectively, giving a true
reflection of their abilities.
Some candidates did not give answers matching the marks allocated to the questions (in the contextual question).
Candidates should compose each sentence carefully and pay special attention to the use of capital letters.
The question paper consisted of three sections based on the three genres; poetry, prose and drama.
SECTION A
Poetry
1 Some candidates chose the question but only few scored high marks. Those who scored low marks did not answer
Question (e) well.
2 Most of the candidates who chose this question gave good statements, backed up by their own life experiences.
SECTION C
Prose
3 A number of candidates chose the question. Those who scored low marks could not answer Question (a) and
Question (c) correctly.
4 Many candidates answered the question very well! Some candidates turned to giving advice in their talking.
SECTION C
Drama
5 Most candidates answered it well.
6 A few candidates chose this question and they performed well.
Teachers, please let us all cover the whole syllabus to allow candidates to gain enough knowledge. Teachers are
advised to prepare candidates based on the examination syllabus. Hints on how to answer the question paper should
be given to all candidates, full-time and part-time. Candidates should be encourages to read the instructions on the
question paper. We believe in positive changes.

4108
Paper 4
General comments
Most of the centres submitted clear recordings and the sound quality was very good.
Administrative matters were handled effectively, though there were some centres that did not take time to moderate
their OASF.
Some examiners transferred their marks incorrectly from the summary form to the MS1.
Part-time centres, heads of centres and examiners are advised to read the examination circulars to understand how the
examination for Paper 4 should be conducted, and what should be dispatched in the consignment.
Examiners are encouraged to assist candidates to take part in all three genres rather than focusing on one or two
genres for the whole school.
Examiners are advised to use the marking grid for Paper 4 when assessing oral.
The assessment was based on 3 genres.
1 Fewer candidates selected this genre. They performed well.
2 Most of the candidates who selected this genre showed a very wide knowledge of expression. They showed a
deeper understanding of the text, by relating information in the text with their real life situation. They went so far
as to disagree that nowadays people are being challenged with a high demand of life by sending their children to
school, rather than in past years when people worked for status.
3 A number of candidates selected this genre. They showed a very good understanding. They figured out why
country celebrates Heroes Day and even agreed that this book is good to be taught at school, because it will
educate youngsters on how people liberated the country through the struggle.
Examiners are encouraged to teach candidates on how to use grammatical expressions such as figures of speech.
Thank you for your neat and tidy work. It was a pleasure to moderate your work.
Examiners are congratulated with a job well done.

FIRST LANGUAGE RUMANYO
4109
Paper 1
General comments
The learners performance was good compared to that of last year, 2012. It showed that the teachers worked very hard
on the examiner’s report. However, learners who do not understand some of the questions are still increasing especially
Question two. Many learners did not understand the question, which made them give wrong answers. There is still a
big problem with orthography something on which teachers should concentrate the whole year during teaching.
Teachers use their syllabuses very well. It has been observed that cross-curriculum topics help learners during
examinations although some learners could not differentiate between leadership and management. Perhaps
Development Studies should be added to History and Geography.
1 Most of the learners scored high marks for this question except a few who did not read and understand the reading
passage.
The teacher should teach the learnesr the following as language use is based on grammar:
• antonyms, synonyms, sentence constructions, words with different meanings, etc.
2 Most of the learners answered this question well, but improvement is still needed on the format of the informal
report because they still put in subheading as if it is a formal report. They should know the difference between
formal and informal report. The teacher should give the learners more newspapers to read in order to familiarise
themselves with the format.
3 Most of the learners answered this question very well, however there were still a number of them who did not
answer it well.
The teacher should always concentrate on the following problems regarding this question.
(a) Comparing of reading passages or exchanging the information from the two reading passages.
(b) Laziness of learners for not giving full sentences, as a result repetition of words in each answer.
(c) To give the differences a learner should understand the two reading passage, and not say “There is hope and
not here”.
4 A number of learners answered this question well, but some still did not know the difference between the two
letters. Use this easy method to help them remember the formal letter with nine (9) and informal letter with seven
(7) important key points. Check your previous examiner’s report; it will help you.
There are a number of words which I think are very important for the learner to recognise. Although it appears in
each report, continue to train them.
- Ndjambi - maliva (income) misinterpretation
- ndjapo - (Award)
- Kutangwilita - kutangulita
Not But
Kuyoyera kutimwitira
Kumitantera kumutantera
Kushwenena kushuwenena
Honde yamampwina - honde yamampnogurume

Kuhamwa - kuhwama
Makanderero - ndapero
Kudeghemena - kudemenena
Palivega - palivango
Kupapara - kushana
Mara - enengoli
Sekeretari - kamutjangi
viruwana - virughana
Mpili - mpiri
Mbili - mbiri
Teachers are encouraged to prepare daily, especially for the content of Paper 1 which consists of four (4) compulsory
questions. Use the syllabus to teach all the shorter pieces written in the syllabus, grammar for Question 1.
Also use five (5) years back examiner’s reports to help you with the teaching or training.

4109
Paper 2
General comments
I was pleased to see an improvement in this year’s performance result compared to that of last year. Many of the
learners achieved above average marks and could also express themselves very well. Only a small number of learners
were below average, again the use of idiomatic expressions and proverbs remained a major problem for some learners.
It is suggested that teachers should still encourage their learners to use idiomatic expressions and proverbs correctly
in their writing and it should fit the specific topic chosen. This makes the learner’s work more interesting and attractive
for the readers. It was found that few candidates managed to use proverbs properly in their writing. Most learners met
the required length.
There are still shortcomings that need to be addressed:

• Punctuation marks were often left out, e.g. full stops, commas, question marks, capital letters and hyphenation (-).
• The use of capital letters at the start/beginning of a new sentence.
• Paragraphing should be encouraged.
• Words written like:
• Kuvhura not kuvura
• Vh- and v-
• Vy- and vh-
NB: Spelling errors and division of words appeared to be serious problems for most of the learners. The hyphens
should be used when the word ends at the line on vowels, e.g. a, e, i, o and u.
There was also a problem regarding legible handwriting and long sentences were still a problem for some
learners.
1 42 learners chose this topic. The overall performance was good.
2 Only a few learners opted for this topic, less than ten.
3 Half of the learners chose this topic and their overall performances was good.
4 Few learners chose this topic.
5 No leaners opted for this topic. Learners are not willing to expose themselves in technology.
6 The majority of learners chose this topic and most of them narrated or rewrote the drama in the book of “shatoka”,
which was not the idea. They were expected to come up with their own story concerning the idiomatic expression/
proverb “sha toka shoye, sha rerema shaunyoye”.
7 No learners opted for this topic.
8 Less than 50 learners chose this topic (on the stigma of HIV/Aids)
9 No more than five learners reacted to this picture. Many learners had difficulty in writing some of these words:
• dogoro not dokoro
• kehe not nkene
• kurungarara not kupiyagana
• ruvede munke not ruvede muntje
• livango notlivega
• kuvhetelitako not kutekelitako
• ntjene not nkene
• nampiri ndi not nampindi
Positive sugestions to teachers
• An introduction, body and conclusion should be part of the learner’s writing.
• Encourage learners to avoid starting sentences with conjunctions, e.g. yira, opo, makura, ano, ntjeneshi, ngoli,
mbyovyoshi, vyene – vyene, etc.
• Teachers should encourage learners to use paragraphing in their essays.
• Lastly, learners should always remember that in spoken language one can use contractions. However when
dealing with written language, words should always be written out in full (See page 23-33 in orthography 3 book).

4109
Paper 3
General comments
There has been no improvement of candidates this year compared to November 2012. Candidates should be cautioned
not to answer three essay questions or three contextual questions. Out of 315 candidates who sat for the examination,
4 candidates did not follow the instructions of answering one contextual and two essay-type questions or two contextual
and one essay-type question. Candidates should also be trained to weigh their answers against the marks allocated.
They should again be trained to answer contextual questions directly and not give unnecessary information.
Essay-type questions should be taught in line with the marking grid, so that candidates are taught and trained how to
answer this question correctly. Candidates are also expected to write as legibly as possible.
SECTION A
Poetry
1 Mbeli: Vagcririku
Out of 315 who sat for the examination, 145 answered this question. The questions were challenging for all the
candidates.
(a) Candidates did poorly in this question. They did not understand the question. Instead of writing what the
author meant with the lines taken from the poem, they rewrote the lines.
(b) A few candidates answered this question well. Most of them did not know what Munca and Litjimba meant.
(c) This question was problematic because candidates did not understand the word Ndiko in Rumanyo. The
response to this question was incorrect.
(d) Candidates answered this question well even though some did not answer what was required by the examiner.
(e) This question was of the same as (c). Candidates interpreted it incorrectly.
(e) This question was answered incorrectly by most of the candidates because some did not know what the word
shinemaghano meant . This led to a reproduction of the stanza.
2 Shiy: Sharondo Mpadi
Out of 315 candidates who sat for the examination 170 answered this question.
(a) Candidate who answered this question showed their understanding of the poem and managed to summarise
the meaning of the line “sha rondo mpadi shirongo kuna kughulita”, but paragraphing was faulty.
(b) This question was answered incorrectly, by most of the candidates, because some interpreted it wrongly.

SECTION B
Prose:
Mfudu Urodi
3 226 candidates opted for this question.
All sub-question, a, b, c, d and e were answered very well.
4 Sha rondo mpadi.
89 candidates opted for this question. A small number of candidates managed to answered it as required by the
examiner. Most of them did not answer it correctly, due to reproducing words form the prescribed book or text and
poor paragraphing.
- The mark scheme required that the candidates answer the question by finding the meaning of the statement
within the literary text, especially with regard to showing abilities to interpret the theme and by drawing
relevant evidence from the text to support their arguments.
SECTION C
Drama: Nkandaurama
- 92 candidates opted for this question. In general sub-questions (d) and (g) were poorly answered but sub-
questions (a), (b) (c), (e) and (f) were answered very well.
6 223 candidates opted for this question. They proved to have sound knowledge of the literary text. All in all
this question was attempted satisfactorily. All the candidates who answered this question achieved good marks
because they were able to give their views on how they would solve the problem if they were Livambankuru.

- Teachers should encourage candidates to use paragraphs in their essay-type of questions.
- An introduction, body and conclusion should be part of candidates’ writing.
- Teachers should always remind candidates that in spoken language one can use contractions. However, when
dealing with written language, words should always be written out in full.
- Candidates’ handwriting and poor spelling should be addressed seriously.
- Candidates should be taught to leave spaces between sub-questions e.g. between (a) and (b).
- Teachers are encouraged, when preparing the candidates for the written assignment, to warn them against
reproducing words from the prescribed book or text. This is not acceptable.
- Candidates still need assistance in orthography, word order and proper vocabulary.

4109
Paper 4
General comments
- Thanks for the neat and tidy work. The administrative tasks were excellently done by all the centres.
- Examiners asked challenging and stimulating questions which promoted critical thinking. There are centres that
need to put more effort on language usage.
- The recordings were of good quality compared to that of previous years.
- Candidates and examiners were heard clearly by the moderator. Thank you so much!

- The warm-ups were well done by some of the centres. However, there were still some centres that did not adhere
to the recommendations in the October/November 2012 reports.
Assessments
- Some of the centres used the assessment criteria correctly and the marks that they allocated reflected the
candidates’ performance. However, there were centres that did not use the assessment criteria at all.
- Some centres recorded more than the required sample while in some instances the highest marks allocated were
not included in the sample.
Administration tasks
- This is an area that has improved significantly in 2013.
- The administrative tasks were excellently done at all centres. Everything required was submitted. It made the
process of moderation so much easier. Thank you!

- It is advisable that before conducting the speaking test, the examiner should thoroughly read the previous years
examiner’s reports.
- Thank you for a friendly approach during the interviews/examination.

FIRST LANGUAGE SETSWANA
4110
Paper 1
General cooments
The performance of the candidates was average. The majority could score 32 marks or more. Some of the 702
candidates did not meet the requested length of their essays and made them too long or too short. Some candidates
wrote the words the way they speak them. Most of the candidates failed to sum up the two passages in context; instead
they copied both the passages and lost marks. The use of idiomatic expressions and proverbs needs to be practised
though out the two-year course and candidates should be encouraged to use them in their everyday communication.
1 80% of candidates obtained high marks, which showed that they read the passage between the lines.
(a)-(c) The majority got it right.
(d)-(e) 60% of the candidates got it right.
(f) It was a problem.
2 70% of the candidates wrote correct format for this question, e.g.
Letlha –
Lefelo –
Nako –
Kwadiso ya batla – pitsong
Maitato
Pulo ya kamogelo
Kitsiso ya pitso
Metsotso ya Pitso e e fetileng
Ditswa – metsotsong
Kgangkgolo ya pitso
Kakaretso
Tswalelo le tebogo.
Dintlhakgolo candidates were supposed to write how lies can destroy the community by killing each other, not
communicating in healthy manners and the punishment if you are found guilty.
Consequences: You will be on trial and charged two cows for your behaviour.
3 Some candidates could not quote the differences and similarities between the two passages. They confused them,
which affected some candidates’ marks. They copied the kgori’s passage in exactly the way it is in the passage
and Motsu.
4 Examiners should always encourage candidates to start their letter on a new page, as it causes confusion when
some of the candidates write the address where they ended with the other question. Candidates should write their
address in Setswana, not October, but. Diphalane. Ministry of Education – lefapha la Thuto. There should be
constructive reason that the candidate saw in the office of the principal that caused him/her to be suspended from
the school. Some candidates failed to put their facts straight.

Spelling mistakes, e.g. bidiwang - pitsiwang
Kobiwa - kopiwa
Sound problem, b – p.
Mabapi – mabape
Ntseye – ntsee
Dipampiri – dipapere
Ntaya – ntlhaya
Tshwanetse – tswanetse
Bohumanegi – bohumaneyge
Atametse – utumetse
Sebiwa – sebewa
Ntlha – ntata
Mogokgo – mokgokgo
Boammaruri – boamaruri
Incomplete words, e.g. ntshwenya - tshwnya

Jaanong - janong
Nkema - kema
Barutabana - barutaba
Positive suggestions teachers

- Grammar should be taught as such, as long as it is taught in a context to apply a full learners’ centred approach.
- It is very good for a examiner not to tolerate mixed languages. Especially when it comes to addresses. Let the
candidates write the month in Setswana. Teachers should transfer their good understanding of the syllabus to
candidates so that they are aware of what is expected of them from the beginning of the academic year.
- Candidates should be trained to write the essay-type question.
- Orthography should be shared with candidates during lessons.

4110
Paper 2
General comments
- Dipampiri tsa baithuti tsotlhe di ne di tsenye.

All the centres entered their papers.
- Mokwalo wa baithuti bokete o ne o itumedisa fela thata.

The handwriting of learners was very good.
- Barutabana ba gakololwa gore ba rotloetse baithuti ba bona go tlhopha ditlhogo tse ba di tlhaloganyang sentle.
Teachers are reminded to advise their candidates to choose topics wisely.
- Barutabana ba lebogelwa tiro e ntle e ba e dirang ka botswerere le bopelotel ele.

We thank the teachers for their patience and work well done.
- Go na le report ya ditlhamo e nngwe e e tsentshweng ka posho mo pampering ya dikarabo, ya ngwaga o o fetileng.

In the mark scheme of 2013 there was a report of last year’s Question paper 2. I assume that was put in by
mistake.
SECTION 1
1 None of the candidates chose this topic.

Go gona moithuti ope yo o tlhopileng nomore 1.
2 A few candidates chose Question two. Almost everyone agreed with the statement and presented reasons why
alcohol is not good for the youth.
Baituthi ba le mmalwa ba tlhopile potso e mme bokete ba lemogile fa nnotagi e sa siamela bašwa.
3 This was the most favoured topic. “Your life after completing Grade 12”. Most of the candidates did well in this
topic.
Baithuti bokete ba tlhopile setlhogo sa potso ya bararo. Baithuti ba kwadile sentle ka sone.
4 None of the candidates chose this topic. It was an essay about a given proverb.
Go gona moituthi ope yo o tlhopilweng setlhogo sa potso ya bone.
5 None of the candidates chose Question five.

Ga go ope yo tlhopileng potso ya botlhano.
6 A few candidates chose Question 6. This was a narrative essay. They story line was generally interesting and the
sequences of events was arranged coherently.
Baithuti ba bararo ba tlhopile setlhogo seo, mme ba se kwadile ka botswerere jo bo kgatlisang.
7 This was the least favoured topic as there was only one candidate who chose Question seven.
Setlhogo sa potso e se tlhopilwe fela ke moithuti a le mongwe.
8 A few candidates chose this topic, and almost everyone agreed with the statement that the behaviour of the youth
of today is not good at all, compared to the olden days.

9 Only one candidate chose Question 9, but he did well.
Moithuti a le mongwe o tlhopile potso eo, mme o arabile potso sentle ka a ne a tlhaloganya setlhogo.
Ela tlhoko: Mopeleto o o fosegileng

ibone - ipone
mokgogo - mogokgo
tlhotlewa - tlhokiwa
etse - itse
tsoki - kotsi
mbiletse - mpiletse
swala - swela
kgaoganyo le kopano ya mafoko

le – ngwe lengwe
tsedi tse di
Tiriso ya ditlhakakgolo
modimo Modimo
setswana Setswana
Dipolelo tse di sa tlhaloganyesegeng

boima jwa sekolo go ima mo sekolong
ga batlala - go batela
ga robela - go robala.
- Barutabana ba rotloetse baithuti go buisa ka bobone ka dinako tsotlhe go oketsa tlotlofoko ya bone. Ba reetse
padi, olebe thelebišhene
Teachers should emphasise the importance of continuously reading Setswana books to improve their general
knowledge. Candidates can improve their knowledge by watching world news and listening to the radio.
- Encourage the candidates to use punctuation marks correctly, and not to ignore them.
Ba rotloetse baithuti go dirisa matshwao a puiso sentle. Ba seka ba a tlhokomologa.
- Baithuti ba kwale kgaolo le nomore ya potso sentle.

Indicate the section and question number of topic to avoid confusion.
- Tiriso ya diane le maele e nne e siame thata.

The use of idiomatic expressions was very good.

4110
Paper 3
General comments
KAROLO A (Maboko)
- Baithuti ga ba bontsha bokgoni mo karolong e, thata leboko la ntlha, gongwe ga ba le buisa ka ba le itse. Potso 2.
Ditaelo ga di yo.
Candidates did poorly in this section, especially Question 1.
- It may be that they answered the questions without reading the poem, because they knew the poem.
Baithuti ba arabile dipotso kwa ntle ga go buisa leboko, ka ba itse leboko.
- dipotso di ne di le bonolo, ke bokoa jwa baithuti fela.
Padi le Terama
- Baswabile: Baithuti ba lo arabile sentle.

Bogosi Kupe: Lo arabilwe fela ke baithuti ba le babedi,mme ga ba bontsha bokgoni
Dintshontsho tsa lorato: Tiro ya baithuti ga ya itumedisa
Nko ya kgomo: Legare la baithuti ba dirile potso e, mme tiro ya bone ga e kgotsofatse.
KAROLO A
Potso 1
(a) 33,3% ya baithuti ba arabile potso mo go bontshang ba direle bokoa.

33,3% of the candidates answered this question. It shows that they did poorly in this question.
(b) 53,3% means half of the candidates answered this question and it was an easy one.
53,3% legare la baithuti ba arabile potso e, mme gape e ne e le bonolo.
(c) 53,3% Go itikile legare la baithuti.

Half of the candidates answered it correctly.
(d) 40,00% of the candidates answered this question. The question was not clear enough.
40,00% ya baithuti ba arabile potso e sentle. Potso e ne e sa tlhamalala.
(e) Baithuti botlhe ba paletswe ke go araba potso e sentle. Potso e ne e sa tlhamalala.

The candidates did not read the poem again.
Potso 2
Legare la baithuti ba arabile potso e, mme karolo ya ntlha ya potso bangwe ga ba e araba ka ditema. Ditlhamo tsa
bone ga di a itumedisa.
Half of the candidates answered this question, but the first part of the question was not answered in paragraph form.

Potso 3
Baswabile
(a) 73,3% ya baithuti ba arabile potso e sentle.

73,3% of the candidates answered this question correctly.
(b) 73,3% ya baithuti ba arabile potso e sentle.

Ba ba tlhophileng potso e, ba dirile ka natla.
Those who chose this question did their best.
Potso 4
Ke baithuti ba le babedi fela ba ba tlhophileng potso e, mme ga ba dira ka natla.

Only two candidates chose this question, but did not do well.
Potso 5
Dintshontsho tsa Lorato
(a) 33,3% ya bauthuti ba arabile potso, mme ga ba dira ka natla.

33,3% of the candidates answered this question correctly, but did not perform well.
(b) 40,0% ya baithuti ba arabile potso sentle, ba bangwe ba paletswe.

(c) 26,7% ba arabile potso e, seo se bontsha fa e arabile bokoa.

26,7% answered this question and they performed poorly.
(d) 26,6% ba arabile potso e, mo go sa itumedisang.

26,6% answered this question poorly.
Potso 6
Nko ya Kgomo
Legare la baithuti ba arabile potso e, mme ba paletswe ke go bona maduo a a kwa godimo
Ga ba akaretsa badiragatsi ba ba bantsi,ba kwadile fela ka ba le ba bedi, mme bofelong ba tlhaelelwa ke tshedimosetso.
Half of the candidates answered this question, but could not score high marks, because they wrote only about 2
characters, where should have written about more than 2 characters. The two they chose did not give them enough
information to write the length they were asked to write.
Potso e bua ka modiragatsi mo boemong jwa badiragatsi, gore baithuti ba kgone go kwala ka ba le mmalwa.
Ditshitshinyo go barutabana
Maboko
Barutabana ba neye baithuti maboko otlhe a ba tshwanetseng go a itse. Gore baithuti ba kgone go a boeletsa, bogolo
a a dirilweng mo mophatongo wa 11.
Rotloetsa baithuti go sekaseka maboko ka bo bone.

Poems
Give a list of poems which the candidates are supposed to know, so that they can revise on their own, especially those
poems done in Grade. 11.
Padi/Terama
Barutabana ba leke go gatelela tshekatsheko ya dikwalo batla ba tshwantshana ditiragalo tsa lokwalo le se ba tshelang
le sone kgotsa se se diragalang mo setšhabeng. Baithuti ba boeletse dikwalo fa go kgonagala.
Novel/Drama
Teachers should try to analyse the books according to the literary aspects, and also compare what happens in the books
with what happens in our daily lives or what happens in the community.

4110
Paper 4
General comments
There was a good range as the strongest and weakest candidates were recorded. It was also good to hear the variety
of literary genres selected by candidates. The examiners were helpful and friendly during the interviews. Usage of
language like “A go nega” instead of “A go nna”. Mosi a tletse mo ntlung” instead of Mosi o tletse motlung. Examiners
must always try to shade the marks darker and lozenges in full on the MSI. When filling in the OASF, write your initials
in the block of teaching group/set not the asterisk*. Examiners have to mark the literature papers for the August mock
examination and hand them back to the candidates before the school closes to enable them to prepare for the oral test.
While marking these papers the teachers should compile a set of questions on the text which each individual candidate
has chosen. At the beginning of the third term candidates hand their answer scripts back to the teacher.
Candidates’ scripts did not show any control of the examiners on it either by signing or corrections on the work of the
candidates. It was quite clear that examiners need training on how to assess candidates on the speaking test. Thank
you for friendly approach during interview.
Quality of recordings:
Recordings were very clear. The examiner and candidates could be heard well. Unfortunately background noise such
as learners who were in close proximity to the venues and school sirens were experienced at some centres.
Sampling
Centres sent a sample that represented the whole range of abilities. It was also good to hear the varieties of literacy genres
selected by candidates. Improvement could also be observed in the variety of literary genres that were ncluded in the
sample. An aspect that still needs to be ironed out is the questions of different approaches or angles of questioning.
Some centres did not do warm-ups with the candidates, which is very important for the candidates to calm down. Try by all
means not to ask personal questions during the warm-ups. Some questions may be embarrassing to the candidates
and may affect their performance in the actual tests, while others may stir up emotional issues which may impact on
their performance as well.
Questioning techniques
It was pleasing to note that questions that invited long narrative responses decreased during the examination. Examiners
and candidates need to be thoroughly prepared if the quality of the speaking test is to be improved.
Always make sure as the examiner that the candidates are confident with the literary genres that they selected to allow
the flow during the speaking test session. Examiners must use all means to control candidates’ work. Thank you for
your friendly and helpful attitude towards candidates during the interviews.

FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI
4111
Paper 1
General comments
The overall performance of the candidates was average. Some candidates did not meet the requested length of their
pieces, they made them either too long or too short, and only few centres proved to know the orthography rules.
Some candidates still found it difficult to use the revised orthography, language and formation of words to some extent.
Teachers should put more effort into teaching candidates the format of answering end of year questions as stipulated
in the subject syllabus. The use of idiomatic expressions and proverbs needs to be practised throughout the two-year
course and candidates should be encouraged to use them in their everyday communication. In some cases candidates
failed to follow instructions and could not answer in the format expected.
The question paper was set according to the syllabus and conformed to the requirements specified. All the questions
were clearly phrased and cases where learners misinterpreted a question can be a scribed to a lack of knowledge and
understanding.
1 (a-c) The multiple-choice section was answered well, although some candidates lacked thevocabulary skills
to be able to successfully pick out the correct answer from the choices given.
(d) The question was well answered by all centres, and most candidates scored high marks for it. A few candidates
interpreted the question wrongly.
(e) The question was well answered by all centres, and most candidates scored almost full marks.
2 The question was not well answered by all centres, as most candidates wrote the story instead of answering
by showing their problem-solving skills. Some candidates wrote the address, even though the question did not
instruct them to do so.
3 (a) It was poorly answered as some candidates would indicated a only (tala likande la pili) and tala some words
(tala mwalikandenyana labubeli). Few centres managed to score full marks for the question.
(b) Most centres answered the question poorly as they picked or indicated answers which were not in the story.
4 It was well answered by most centres and by all candidates and most of them scored full marks. Some centres
failed to indicate punctuation marks and keep to the required length of the dialogue. Some candidates had a very
short dialogue.

- Regular classroom practice in writing shorter pieces will help to determine how much one should write to reach the
required length.
- To avoid mistakes candidates should be assisted in the lessons on how to improve their orthography.
- Great emphasis should be placed on the use of punctuation marks.
- Grammar should be taught, as long as it is taught in a context to apply a full learner centred approach.
- It is good for a teacher not to tolerate mixed languages.
- Candidates should be encouraged to improve their vocabulary through reading a variety of books.

4111
Paper 2
General comments
The question paper was set according to the basic competencies of the syllabus. The question paper was moderate
for candidates who followed the instructions on the paper correctly by choosing one topic from the nine (9) questions
as stated on the front cover. The overall performance of the candidates, compared to that of the previous year, was the
same. The orthography should be emphasised as indicated in previous report. Some candidates wrote neatly when
answering each question, but some need to improve their handwriting.
Punctuation, spelling, paragraphing, capital letters, tenses, word order planning, format and idiomatic expressions were
some of the major shortcomings in some candidates’ work or essays.
Some candidates misinterpreted the topic, which caused a loss of marks.
However, 90% of the candidates coped very well with the question paper.
Most candidates scored high marks. They really showed commitment; they also opted to read and put more effort into
giving views. Some of them did not do well and really scored low marks.
1 The majority of the candidates approached this question and obtained high marks. Some of them created a variety
of good answers related to the topic.
A varied of vocabulary to fit the purpose was observed.
2 Many candidates answered this question correctly and gave correct examples of the programmes on NBC TV.
3 Only a few candidates answered this question, which they answered well, e.g. “Litabula liapesize naha kamukana
ki pono kwabunde”.
4 The response to this question was mainly correct throughout and was attempted by many candidates.
5 A good number of learners chose this topic and the majority obtained high marks.
6 Only a handful of learners chose this topic. Candidates misinterpreted the topic.
7 Well answered by most of the candidates. Those who opted for it, scored good marks, because they knew a lot
about Namibia’s independence.
8 This question was reasonably well answered. A large number of candidates chose the topic and produced essays
of good standard. This was the most popular one. The majority answered it correctly.
9 Well answered by most of the candidates. They had a good understanding about the picture. The picture was full
of facts and easy to write about. According to their ideas and thinking, candidates could have collected more marks
if they had studied the topic carefully.
Positive suggestion to teachers

Teachers did their work well. I would like to encourage fellow teachers to put more effort into preparing candidates in
advance, so that they can get better results at the end of the year.

4111
Paper 3
General comments
Overall the performance of candidates in this component of the examination was satisfactory. Teachers deserve to be
complimented on their effort. As reported in the previous reports, there is room for further improvement with regard
to adherence to examination instructions, orthography and logical presentation of ideas and facts. There were still a
number of candidates who did not follow instructions. The examination instruction required that of the three answers
at least one must be an essay-type or contextual answer, some candidates opted to answer three contextual or three
essay questions.
Some candidates had not studied their texts carefully and tended to give wrong information. Often such candidates
mentioned facts or events which were not reflected in the prescribed text.
1 Candidates answered this question very well.
2 (a) This question was well answered by candidates.
(b) Candidates did not do well in this question because they did not understand it well. They were expected to
select sentences from the text that showed the bad characters of in-laws.
3 The question was reasonably well answered.
4 Most candidates who opted for this question did not do well. Most of them answered the question by telling the
story while they were required to express how they felt about the misfortune of okonkwo’s second wife.
5 Most candidates who opted for this question did well. They were able to write a very good essay as they explained
what happened in the story.
6 Most candidates did well in this question, they even provided examples of a high standard.
Teachers should take note that marks for essay type questions are allocated for understanding the text, understanding
the task, giving supporting evidence from the text, personal responses and appreciation of the literary devices.
- Paragraphing of the essay type questions needs improvement.
- Special attention should be given to idiomatic expressions during the interactions between teachers and candidates
in the classroom situation.
Thanks for the job well done by teachers.

4111
Paper 4
General comments
Very clear recordings, the examiners and candidates could be heard very well. It would be helpful if examiners recorded
candidates in numerical order on the CD sample.
Range of sample
The range of samples was well chosen, covering the whole spectrum. Thank you to all the examiners who managed to
send the marked answer scripts of their candidates. Those who forgot to send them, should do so next year.
Comments on examining techniques
Some examiners conducted the interviews with confidence. The questions put forward to candidates were well
prepared and stimulating but some examiners failed to carry on a conversation with candidates, which resulted in long
monologues. When interviewing candidates it is important to ask questions that can make candidates compare the
content of the literature texts to real life experiences and situations.
Other comments
Thank you for the neat and tidy work. Your administrative tasks were excellently done. It made the process of moderation
so much easier. Keep up the good work.
Poetry
1 Candidates who chose the book “Sibabule Simwalikubo” had a good conversation with the examiners and were
able to compare what they have read with what they knew in life.
2 A few candidates who chose the book “Libalala Mulatiwa” were able to explain what “Imayala” was all about and
had a good conversation with their examiners.
Prose
3 A few candidates who chose the book “Lika liwa nyambwanaleka” were able to carry on their conversation with their
examiners very well.
4 Most candidates who chose the book “Bupilo Kaswalala” had an enjoyable conversation with their examiners.
They were able to explain the novel and relate the content to real life situations. Figurative language like proverbs
and idioms should not be treated in isolation, e.g. waciwana ucilye cakubolomoka walinyaza. Candidates should
be asked to explain the relevance of the proverb in relation to the content of the text.
Drama
5 Only a few candidates chose the book “Simkatana” but the conversations with their examiners were worth listening
to. They were able to make good comments on the events happening in the book.
6 Candidates who chose the book “Situhusiipa Mata” were able to explain the content of the book very well. This led
to good conversations with their examiners.

- Although examiners conducted the interviews with confidence, they should also ask questions that are stimulating
enough to elicit answers.
- Examiners should try to give candidates more open-ended questions that will allow them to answer in full sentences.
- Avoid asking questions that encourage the reproduction of the content of the text.

FIRST LANGUAGE THIMBUKUSHU
4112
Paper 1
General comments
The majority of the scripts marked showed an improvement in terms of understanding of how to answer the examination
paper, especially with reference to specific questions. The handwriting of most learners was very pleasing as the
majority of answer scripts were clearly legible and without too many scratches on them. Apart from a very few learners,
most of them utilised time wisely as they were able to answer all questions, including the last question. The numbering
and sequencing of all answered questions were done correctly, making it easier for the marker to mark each question in
the paper. Overall, most learners in all centres performed very well in this paper as instructions on each question were
clearly followed.
The areas that need improvement are: (i) the use of standard Thimbukushu orthography, (ii) spelling and (iii) the
use of correct grammar. Centres are requested to make use of the prescribed Thimbukushu Orthography booklet to
practise the correct use of conjunctive and disjunctive writing of words. Centres should also inculcate in learners the
use of correct and acceptable spelling and grammar. Once these aspects are mastered by all learners, there will be no
confusion in the meaning of what exactly a learner has tried to write about in an essay-type answer like a summary, a
report or an official letter.
SECTION A
1 This question was well understood and well answered by most learners. Since it consisted of multiple-choice
questions (Question 1 (a) – 1 (c)) and contextual questions (Question 1 (d) – (f)), learners who thoroughly read
Passage 1 managed to score more marks. However, some learners did not do well in Question 1 (d) as learners
were required to extract the correct answer from the passage and not merely giving their own answer in the manner
they understood it.
2 This question required from learners to write a report based on the information gathered in Passage 1 and
transforming such information into a real-life situation that the individual learner imaginatively would have witnessed.
This question was well understood by most learners. Most learners answered this question very well as it was
related to their own knowledge and experiences within their own environment/village/region/country. Most learners
managed to adhere to the required length of the report, e.g. the number of words which were 200-250 words.
However, some learners’ answers were obviously short or too short and therefore they lost some marks for not
complying with the minimum length of the report. Centres are requested to ensure that learners write reports that
meet the required length.
The following areas need improvement: (i) the use of standard Thimbukushu Orthography, (ii) spelling and (iii) the
use of correct grammar. Centres are requested to make use of the prescribed Thimbukushu Orthography booklet
to practise the correct use of conjunctive and disjunctive writing of words. Centres should also inculcate in learners
the use of correct and acceptable spelling and grammar.
SECTION B
3 This question required learners to thoroughly read Passage 1 and Passage 2 in order to find similarities and
differences in the two passages. This is a question with a total mark of 20, sub-divided into 10 marks for similarities
and 10 marks for differences. Since the question is both contextual and directed, learners were required to provide
answers coming from both Passages 1 and 2.
It was clear that learners who thoroughly read the two passages answered this question with ease and scored
higher marks. It was also noted that some learners provided “guess-work” answers and they were penalised for
not giving similarities and differences coming out of the two given passages.
Learners are encouraged to read the question and two passages thoroughly before answering the question. Just as
in the previous questions, the following areas need improvement: i) the use of standard Thimbukushu Orthorgraphy,
(ii) spelling and (iii) the use of correct grammar. Centres are requested to make use of the prescribed Thimbukushu
Orthography booklet to practise the correct use of conjunctive and disjunctive writing of words. Centres should also
inculcate in learners the use of correct and acceptable spelling and grammar.
4 This question required learners to write an official letter, applying for a job as a Thimbukushu translator advertised
by a company/an agency dealing with HIV/AIDS-related work. Learners were required to market themselves by
indicating in the letter (a covering letter) all the necessary knowledge and skills possessed in this area of translating
in order to qualify for such a job. All required details were supposed to be provided to make the official letter look
real. All aspects of the official letter were supposed to be adhered to.
Most learners were able to answer this question correctly and did very well by using their knowledge and
understanding of an official letter that is aimed at applying for a specific job at any given company. Most learners
managed to adhere to the required length of the letter (200-250 words). Some learners’ answers were short or too
short and therefore they lost some marks for not complying with the minimum length of an official letter. It was also
noted that a very few learners could not answer this question due to time constraints as they had used up all their
time in answering the first three questions. They therefore lost all the marks allocated to this question.
Centres are requested to ensure that learners write official letters that meet the required length. Learners are also
encouraged to answer all the questions within the given timeframe. They should practise to read fast and write
fast but also legibly. Just as the previous questions, the following areas need improvement: (i) the use of standard
Thimbukushu Orthography, (ii) spelling and (iii) the use of correct grammar. Centres are requested to make use of
the prescribed Thimbukushu Orthography booklet to practise the correct use of conjunctive and disjunctive writing
of words. Centres should also inculcate in learners the use of correct and acceptable spelling and grammar.
Centres are requested to expose learners to the different types of official letters early in the course in order to
enhance their knowledge and skills of how to write such letters. It would thus be very beneficial when they have to
answer this specific question in during the examination.
Centres are encouraged to assist their learners with mastering the skills of answering this paper on Reading and
Directed Writing. Of importance is to teach learners to read with understanding and to ensure that directed questions
are answered based on the passages provided. Centres should ensure that learners read a lot of passages so that
they can get used to reading with understanding. In this way, they will be able to enhance their skills of reading fast with
understanding. They will also be encouraged to read passages and answer related questions within the given time.
Once such skills are mastered, learners will not struggle with time management during examinations.
As indicated above, centres should encourage their learners to answer all questions within the given timeframe. They
should also ensure that learners practise to read fast and write fast but legibly. The following areas need improvements:
(i) the use of standard Thimbukushu Orthography, (ii) spelling and (iii) the use of correct grammar.
Below are some common mistakes made in answering Paper 1 that centres should note and share with learners during
teaching and learning processes:

Orthography Spelling Grammar
Wrong Correct Wrong Correct Wrong Correct
Thingi dhohanu Thingi thohanu ndambi Ngambi Ko nga ha ka Nga ha ka
tjwathanitha eshi… tjwathanitha eshi…
Ngcara dhodikumi Ngcara dhodikumi no- Kuruwana / Kurughana / Na manithire shure Na manithire mwaka
noghuwadi ghuwadi yiruwana / yirughana mumwaka ghuya nga ghuya. / Mwakomwa
ghiruwana ghu piti. nga ni manitha
shure.
Aghu yoyihe vene Yoyiheya (vene) ne … Ha royera… Ha roghera … Mupiterithi wa kona Mupiterithi gha kona
ne … … …
Myaka dikumi Myaka dikumi no- Kushuvughura Kushuvurura Kutwara mughuta Kukuma mughuta
nomwaka dhine dhine ghurukwe ghurukwe wakora wakora
Kurante / kurandi Korambudhi Dhimuragho Miragho Ngeshi keho muna Ngeshi muna ni
/ kakorambudhi no toworora, … torora, … / Ngeshi
/ dikurandi yame muna torora
dyokakorambudhi ne … / Ngeshi ha
mu ni torora me
ne … / Ngeshi
kunitorora me ne …
Kunyandiwa / pa Ya nyanda / pa Mwaka dhine Myaka dhine Mwanuke Mushengeteya
nyandiwa nyanda ghomushengeteya (ngambi mwanuke)
kupumbiwa Kupumbwa / ya Pana randa keho Po Ghana randa Kavango mudima Kavango
pumbwa thimbi … ko keho thimbi … ghomuheya
Mudhimihingo Pamihingo Kumayimbo Kumaghumbo Ghuna nyanda Wa nyanda
kughayara thiwana (roghera) kughayara
thiwana
dikotondo Thitondo thotheko (tho Kana Yoyishi Yoyihe kwendi ne Yoyiheya kukwendi
kuthekera) ghuherere ye ne yiherere
Mayovi mawadi Myaka mayovi mawadi Kuwana dighango Kuwana dyanogo Mbudhi nga dhi Mbudhi nga dhi
nodithere dyofotji no-dikumi no-dhihatu dyokutango dyokutanga yuveka mukarukwata yuveka (pitera)
nomyaka dikumi (2013) mumarumbathano mumutangu maywi / mukateya muradiyo)
nodhihatu / Mayovi matwi / muthiteya
dyofotji nomwaka matwi
makumi nodhihatu
(2013)
Mamyaka makwoko Mayaka kwoko Yinyenya Yinyeghenya Ňañanyi dhi dipo … Ňanani dhi di po …
Na rughana nohanu Na rughana pofotji Marwanambo Marwanamvo Ng aka ghuritha Ng aka huritha
ho kukutjaka-tjaka nohanu ho kukutjaka- nomañando… nomañando…
pofotji. tjaka.
hampiterithi Hapitererithi Ñathi-ñathi Ñwatgu-ñwathi Kayuya Kayuywa
Hamighundju / Mughundju / kutjongetha Kutjokedha Mumoghe Mumoye
mirereya hamuregheya
Wingi wahanu Thingi thohanu Kutwikera Kutwara kughutho Yashemwa Yaghushemwa /
yoshemwa
mvarerwa Mbapira dhoñoghatji Kumukukutupera Kumukukutera Mukundatowerero Mukundatowero
/ dhokakoghatji / / kumukarera
dhomushamurukero ghukukutu
Ngatu ka shimbe … Ňanyi tu ka shimbe … Kuhafa Kushamberera / Kutoya mena ghagho Kutoya mena ghawo
kunyanyuka ngenyu ngenyu
podiyo Podigho Kuponga/ dipongero Kukongana / Mbadiko yo kutjira … Mbadiko yo
/ mbongagharo dikonga thigongi / kuyapa…
Ngaka ghuritha Ng aka huritha Muhati Muhaterimo Maghano owanu Maghano ghawanu
nomañando nomañando
Kwaghendhendi Kwawayendhendi Kuhamena Kuhatera Posa oyu nga Yirughana eyi nga
shwagha … ha tjingitha
Centres are requested to make use of the prescribed Thimbukushu Orthography booklet to practise the correct use of
conjunctive and disjunctive writing of words. Centres should also inculcate in learners the use of correct and acceptable
spelling and grammar. Both centres and learners are encouraged to look at past question papers in order to see how
this paper is asked and how it should be answered correctly.

Conclusion
It was a pleasure marking Paper 1: Reading and Directed Writing. As mentioned earlier, most learners did very well in
this paper. However, both centres and learners are encouraged to do more in order to pass with higher marks. Both
centres and learners should look at past question papers in order to see how this paper is asked and how it should be
answered correctly.
Finally, this report, together with previous examiner’s reports, should be used by centres as guidelines when preparing
learners throughout the course for Reading and Directed Writing.

4112
Paper 2
General comments
The examination seem to be up to standard when looking at what learners had written.
Learners managed to select or opt for topics of their choice and they knew what they had done. Length of essays was
carried out according to instructions given. Only one question or topic was not chosen by learners.
Other learners misunderstood the topics because they could not interpret the proverbs put forth in the topics.
Generally, the examination was up to standard compared to the one of last year. In 2013 only 111 sat for the examination.
The number dropped with 46 learners compared to 2012 when 157 candidates sat for the final examination. Similarly,
in 2012 as well as in 2013, in Thimbukushu Paper 2 one question/topic was not attempted.
1 Quite a number of learners opted for this topic. The topic was writing and learners wrote a lot about it. Only 30
learners selected the topic.
2 Only one candidate opted for this topic. Learners seemed to have little interest in such a topic.
3 24 learners opted for this topic. They seemed to have written enough in class, because their introductions were
eye-catching. Both negative and positive aspects were mentioned with some factual examples of statistics.
4 Nine learners opted for this topic. The topic was quite interesting as well. Learners displayed their experiences
based on this.
5 None of the learners opted for this topic. They seemed not to have a broad knowledge the topic, e.g. the introduction
part of it.
6 Twenty learners opted for the topic, though a few were unable to interpret the proverbs.
7 Only four learners chose this topic and it was broadly described or explained by learners. Learners seemed to
have knowledge of the secretive issues in places.
8 Fifteen learners selected or opted for this topic. Learners seemed to remember their own experiences and also the
day-to-day happenings in their homes or at their neighbours.
9 Eight learners opted for this. Learners seemed to have exposure when it comes to criminal activities. This is one
of the social activities they could express because it was written about themselves.
SUGGESTIONS AND POSSIBLE SOLUTIONS
• Learners write long sentences. This practice needs to be discouraged.

• Orthography is one of the burdens so teachers must spend time on orthography as well.
• Punctuation marks were ignored. So it is suggested that punctuation marks (grammar usage) should be tackled
as a matter of urgency.
• Learners seemed to have problems with introductions of various essays (narrative, descriptive, etc.). Learners
must be encouraged to express themselves in terms of introductions of essays.
• Question 5 was not chosen by a single learner, so such topics need to be discussed and practised by learners in
order for them to get used to them.

Of course the majority or most of the topics were taught, that is why learners opted for them.The issue of paragraphing
was visible and it needs to be strengthened at all times. The use of proverbs was visible and it needs to be strengthened
so that it becomes part of our habit. The emphasis on structure must not be stopped. It must be stressed as well.

4112
Paper 3
General Comments
The October national examination for 2013 went well. From the segment of learners who participated 111 were learners
who wrote Thimbukushu Paper 3. Only five centres (5) enrolled for the NSSC ordinary examination papers.
Paper 3 is a literature component, based on literature texts that consist of three (3) parts, covering poetry, prose and
drama. Each of the parts consists of two questions of which one is contextual and the other one an essay-type question
of 20 marks each. Learners are expected to choose one question from each part in order to answer three questions
in total. It is compulsory that learners answer at least one contextual and one essay-type question with a total of three
questions that they can choose. Learners followed the instructions correctly on selecting the questions, compared to
last year’s examiner’s report according to which learners (some) were penalised for selecting all contextual all or essay-
type questions.
1 Many learners chose this question and they answered it well. Learners who chose this question scored high marks
in all the sub-sections. However, some of the learners did not get the correct answers for sub-section (b) (i) and (ii).
They were unable to give the meaning of the words mucindwa and Makaka as used in the poem. Some learners
answered that they are animals and they lost marks. However, a few learners gave answers such as (i) dongi
ghomurume and (ii) mbi ghomurune, which were the correct answers. Sub-section (f) was also not answered well,
only very few learners got the correct answers.
2 Very few learners chose this question. The few who answered the questions did not do well in sub-section (a) and
(b). It seemsed, as it there was a misunderstanding of both questions by the learners. Learners lacked syllabus
content of sub-section (b) looking at the way they answered it. Learners were expected to give the structure of the
poem as it was written by the poet, instead they gave the message portrayed in the poem. This is how they missed
marks here.
Some learners managed to give the structure of the poem and they got marks for that.
Some learners did not pay attention to the fact that these were essay-type questions. It is very important for
learners to adhere to the instruction to avoid delivering work that is too short or too long for the marks shown.
3 Many learners opted for this question and all the sub-sections were answered well. Learners did not have a
problem answering these questions; even sub-section (e) which seemed a bit challenging was also answered well.
Learners described different characters, but they supported their ideas very well.
4 Very few learners opted for this question. The length of the learners’ work was in line with the syllabus instruction,
which was good! Most of the learners who opted for this question answered it correctly, because they gave the
advantages and disadvantages of the leader’s visits to the village.
5 Many learners opted for this question and they obtained high marks in all the sub-sections. However, there were
some learners who did not get marks for sub-section (b), (c) and (d). For sub-section (b), learners were expected
to give the author’s intentions towards the killing of Shathighambero by the chief.
They only gave their own feelings towards the death of Shathighambero and this is how they lost marks. For sub-
section (c), learners were expected to give the main settings and the main events, but they only gave main settings
without giving the details of the events. For sub-section (d), learners did not give the milieu of the story as they
were requested but instead gave the time (afternoon), which was not the correct answer.
6 This question was also chosen by many learners and they answered it correctly. Learners were able to give
Shakadya’s feelings after the conflicts. Learners demonstrated an understanding of essay writing. Paragraphing
was observed in learners’ work. Only a few learners did not use punctuation in their work.

• Teachers seemed to focus their teaching on orthography, because learners showed great improvement in
orthography. Teachers should keep up the good work!
• Teachers covered most of the topics in the syllabus. Although this was observed in the learners’ work, some topics
still remain challenging to the learners. It is therefore important for teachers to cover all the topics in the syllabus to
avoid learners losing marks in the future.
• Paragraphing was observed in learners’ works (essays), except for a few learners.
• Some learners used idiomatic expressions, which was good.
• Learners knew the different parts of an essay (introduction, body and conclusion).
• Teachers should encourage learners to set aside five minutes to re-read their work and correct words that they
misspelt, as this is one of the contributing factors to learners losing marks in essay-type questions. Below are the
words which learners misspelt.
1 Kupaya instead of Kupagha
2 Shikadi instead of Thika kenge edi
3 Shankendengere instead of Shakendengere
4 Dimbo instead of Dighumbo
5 Nyeke instead of Ňeke
6 Kunyenya instead of Kunyeghenya
7 dyaro instead of Dyarero
8 Ghukorokotji instead of Ghukarakathi
9 Kuherufuna instead of Kurughana
10 Kuherufuna instead of Kughamwena
11 Haswara instead of Hanyekedti

4112
Paper 4
General comments
The examiners at all the centres submitted all the items needed for the moderation.
Thank you very much!
A variety of the different genres studied were included in the samples.
The administrative tasks were excellently done by most examiners.
The recordings were very clear at all the centres. The examiners and candidates could be heard well.
Range of samples
- All examiners followed the instructions of submitting samples very well.

- Where applicable, a good range within the samples were submitted.
Examiners at all the centres conducted the interviews with confidence. Most of the questions posed by the examiners
were thought-provoking and most of the candidates responded well.
The assessment at some centres was accurate while at some others it was severe towards some candidates in all the
ranges of abilities.
- It is obvious that the examiners put a lot of effort into conducting the interviews. Thank you!
- However, you should please read the moderator’s comments to avoid repetition of previous mistakes.
- Avoid difficult questions during the warm-up sessions. The warm-ups are meant to create a pleasant atmosphere
and to put the candidate at ease.
- The examiners should read the instructions on the duration of the interviews carefully. The assessment should be
accurate.
- Internal moderation of OASF and MSI must be done to avoid calculations and transferring mistakes.
- Your hard work and patience are appreciated.

FOREIGN LANGUAGE GERMAN
4121
Paper 1
General comments
We thank the teachers who try to teach German as Foreign Language under often difficult circumstances and still
manage to produce candidates with an admirable command of the language. We are also grateful that most teachers
have made an effort to improve many aspects in the correct answering of the questions.
Neat and legible work makes marking so much easier. It was noticed, however, that candidates interested in finishing
the examination on a Friday afternoon, do not take the necessary time to read the questions properly nor take care
to check that their spelling and answers are correct. We are thankful that, after repeated requests to the Ministry of
Education over the past years that German Foreign Language should not be written at the end of the examination
when learners have had no contact with the language for 4 to 6 weeks, the examination was scheduled nearer to the
beginning of the examination time table in 2013. This benefited the learners especially in the Listening Examination as
candidates still felt more comfortable with the German.
It is, however, also of alarming concern that more candidates than in the previous year failed to understand the questions
because of a lack of basic vocabulary, and the drop in the candidates’ achievement is worrying. The answers to the
questions are always marked as fairly as possible on the basis of comprehension.
Erster Teil Fragen 1 - 8
1 D
2 C
3 B
4 A
5 C
6 A
7 D
8 B [8]
Question 3, many candidates regarded the NICHT as the answer.
Question 8 The weaker candidates ticked, C because it said “Ich träume von einer kühlen Fanta, aber am allermeisten
freue ich mich auf einen kalte Dusche”. A fanta is not served in a beer mug!
Zweite Aufgabe Fragen 9 -16
9 verschiedenen
10 frische
11 Welt
12 Birnen
13 Zeitungen
14 ersten
15 Autos/Babyraum
16 Besuch [8]
2 Verscheidenen/ferschiednen was tolerated
3 Früsche was accepted/Fresh NOT
4 welt/Wält accepted/World and wereld NOT
5 Börnen, birnen, Birnän was accepted

6 Zaitungen also gained a mark.
7 Ärsten was accepted
15 besuch/basuch/besoch gained a mark
Zweiter Teil
Erste Aufgabe Fragen 17 – 24
17 Ja
18 Ja
19 Nein
20 Ja
21 Nein
22 Ja
23 Ja
24 Ja [8]
This exercise caused some headaches to the weaker learners, because there were a few “calculations“ to be done.
17 All candidates gained this mark, because it was not clearly said, that “Herr Mahler hört um 4 Uhr auf”.
18 “Um 6 Uhr“ could not be related to 14:00 Uhr.
21 “Verheiratet” was unfamiliar.
23 The term “Vorschläge” was mostly not known.
Zweite Aufgabe Fragen 25 – 30
25 war sofort/begeistert/er gab ihm einen Plattenvertrag. [1]
26 sie ist hübsch [1]
27 arbeitet mit Youtube, Twitter, Facebook [1]
28 kreischende Mädchen/Mädchen, die ausflippen [1]
29 spielt Musikinstrumente/macht viel Sport/geht zum Bowlen/geht mit Mädchen ins Kino/ [2]
30 er mag alles an ihnen/die Augen/das Lächeln/wenn sie lustig sind/wenn sie eine tolle Persönlichkeit haben/
wenn sie entspannt sind/ [2]
[8]
Learners had a very clear picture in their head when answering this exercise, since Biber and Beyonce are wellknown
persons.
Learners had great difficulty to change the person from direct speech (I) to indirect speech (he/she).
Very alarming is also the spelling of “Mädchen” since this is a word already used in Grade 8.
26 Hubsch/ hüpsch/hübsh gained a mark.
28 Wrong spelling of Menschen was NOT tolerated.
Dritter Teil
Erste Aufgabe Fragen 31 – 38
31 D
32 D
33 D
34 C

35 D
36 A
37 A
38 C [8]
This was a demanding question and the severe lack of vocabulary made it impossible for the weaker candidates to gain
marks. Only the very strong candidates managed well.
36 “Bekommt man keine” wurde von den candidates übersehen.
Zweite Aufgabe Fragen 39 – 46
39 das erspart Ärger und Stress [1]
40 Für Kinder aus finanziell schlechter (gestellten)/armen Familien [1]
41 weil sie einfache Kleidung tragen [1]
42 Sie haben einen Nebenjob [1]
43 Markenterror/Gruppenzwang/Stylingkult [2]
44 Der Große kann dem Kleinen die Schultracht nicht weitergeben. [1]
45 man muss sich akademisch beweisen/man muss menschliche Werte zeigen/Einheitslook/macht alle
Schüler gleich/Sie werden alle gleich behandelt/sie können ihre Individualität nicht entfalten/ [2]
46 Sie ist damit zufrieden/fühlt sich darin wohl. [1]
It is obvious that many candidates just wrote down something, so that the answer paper would not be empty.
Some wrote the same answer for all the questions or just noted some or other irrelevant German word.
A few candidates wrote down their own idea of the school uniform in English. This makes a bad impression.
39 The verb “spart” gained a mark when in combination with the “Ärger und Stress “.
40 Some weird German spelling of “finanziell” was tolerated if the rest of the answer was correct.
42 Candidates who wrote ”weil sie nach der Schule arbeiten und Geld verdienen” gained this mark. However
“Lebenjob” not.
46 “Zufreiden” gained a mark, if “Sie ist” was part of the answer.
It cannot be emphasized often enough that the listening exercise should be practised at least once a trimester
in Grade 11 and Grade 12. It is a good idea to start with the first and second sections in Grade 11 and practise
Section 2 and Section 3 repeatedly in Grade 12. It is to the benefit of the candidates to listen to the same exercise
again some months later.
One gets the strong impression that in some centres the candidates hear the exercise for the first time during the
Grade 12 examination. This is of course to the detriment of the learners.

4121
Paper 2
General comments
The NSSC German Foreign Language Ordinary Level Paper 2 was written for the seventh time in 2013.
The Foreign Language paper was written in the second week of the examination. This meant that learners probably
had German lessons not longer than three weeks before the examinations. It was very obvious that this had a positive
impact on the quality of the language and the paper written.
We thank the teachers who took previous suggestions to heart and practised many aspects of this paper with their
learners. It was encouraging to see that most pupils mastered the Grade 8 and 9 vocabulary as was evident in the
answering of the questions in Section 1(1,2). The bullet essay (Question 37) was correctly and well executed and
candidates scored in these questions, which was reflected in the end result.
The answer papers were neat although it is still a concern that in general the pupils DO NOT re-read and check their
essays to make sure that words are copied correctly and for person and verb concord. Teachers are urged to teach
their learners this habit. Very few centres instil the need of organized thought by planning and writing in paragraphs and
giving a word count. (They should use the blank pages.)
Please practise the picture questions by learning and writing the answers to all icons. This expands the vocabulary
greatly. Teachers are also reminded to teach the vocabulary of the Defined Content.
Erster Teil (This is absolute core vocabulary – Grade 8 and 9)
Erste Aufgabe Fragen 1-10

1 A
2 C
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 D
9 D
10 C
This question, as it should, was generally well answered by all.
5 Feuerwehrauto answer B, quite a few chose A (AUTO, the correct word would be Lastwagen) or combining
Geburtstag with present and took D Geschenk.
7 A links B rauf/hoch C rechts D runter/nach unten
8 Wassersport A surfen B bootfahren/rudern C schwimmen NICHT D Skilaufen
Zweite Aufgabe Fragen 11-16

11 E
12 A
13 B
14 D
15 F (sometimes confused with C ̶ no tests and exams)
16 G (sometimes confused with H – good teachers are those who do not give homework, instead of “who does not like
OLD teachers)

Dritte Aufgabe Fragen 17-27
17 Nein (17-jährige)
18 Nein (Busfahrer)
19 Nein (Hauptschulabschluss (in Namibia something similar to JSC).

(Note: in Germany a “Hauptschule” is a school that stops with Grade 10;
“Gymnasium” is a high school including Grade 12 and Abitur with all subjects on higher level.)
20 Ja
21 Ja
22 (i) Er mag den Umgang mit Menschen
(ii) Busfahren ist für ihn ein wunderbares Gefühl

Er liebt es Bus zu lenken
Er will als Busfahrer Geld verdienen was accepted
23 Sie wurden in einem Doppeldecker (von ihm) (durch die Stadt) gefahren. Many had this answer wrong, because
they just copied the sentence from the text: “ohne Führerschein in einem Doppeldecker chauffieren”. Some even
said: Der Führerschein chauffiert den Bus.
24 ab 21 Jahren
25 Heimatstadt
26 Menschen/Schulkameraden
27 Studium (NOT StAdium)
25-27 was generally NOT answered or answered incorrectly. This shows that learners are NOT taught similes.
Vierte Aufgabe Fragen 28
This stimuli-essay was indeed a great disappointment! Very few learners responded to the PICTURES as given.
Learners MUST say what is SHOWN in the picture and MAY NOT only answer the questions and give their own version!
Teachers are urged to practise this question as 7 valuable marks can easily be gained.
This is a note written to the boss. All forms of letters/notes/emails have the person who is addressed and the person
(so the pupil) who writes it.
It was good to see that generally pupils understood that with “SIE” they were addressed in the polite/formal form and
they themselves were meant.
Bild 1: The clock shows a time: 7 Uhr /11:35/25 vor 12 was allowed. NO OTHER time! Past tense
Bild 2: Wie viel Geld mitgenommen (past tense) means how much money did YOU take along.
(It does not mean: you brought the money/NOR the tourist had to bring the money!)
Bild 3: (We apologise for the poor picture quality). But this is the official icon for MUSEUM. (Shocking how many
spelling versions of MUSEUM we were given.)
Accepted were: Theater/Regierungsgebäude/alte (große/deutsche) Gebäude/das Gericht/das Haus vom Präsident.
NOT Stadthaus/Statehouse/Kirche
Was werden Sie sich ansehen? What are you going to see/look at – present/future tense.
Bild 4: Was gibt es zu Mittag? Shown is a chicken:

Correct answers: Huhn (Hun) Hühnchen, Hähnchen, Huhnfleisch, Geflügel, Truthahn, Pute
– NOTHING else was accepted: No hoenderfleisch/vleis, Hunder, Nandos, KFC, chicken- – present/future
Bild 5: – present/future. Shown is a (tour)bus:
Correct answers: Bus, Touristenbus, Doppeldecker(bus) ̶ wir machen eine Bustour, eine Stadttour.
NOT accepted: gehen shoppen, einkaufen, schwimmen, nach Hause, in die Etoscha
Criteria for marking:
5 Communication/Content marks were allocated as follows: One mark for each of the 5 pictures as shown.
Correct word usage/idiom was necessary for the various activities, no English/Afrikaans terms were tolerated.
Communication (content) should be clear and unambiguous.
2 marks for language (see grid)
2 past tense for the first 2 pictures – only present or future tense for 3 last pictures. Good language use with
minor spelling and grammar mistakes.
1 poor language but content understandable. Verbs not in appropriate tense.
0 if no communication marks were allocated.
N.B. Only 40 words were allowed, any words above that number were ignored, even if some facts/content points
were described. This is because the instructions are very clear, namely to write down SHORTLY what you should
do (Schreiben Sie eine KURZE Notiz).
ZWEITER TEIL
Erste Aufgabe: Fragen 29-36
(Note: grammar mistake in 2nd line of 2nd paragraph: Es ist mir von einen Nachbarn geschenkt geworden,…)
It was very pleasing to see that learners understood the question words and even the weaker pupils managed to get
the answers. The spacing given for the answers indicates how long the answer should be. Generally sentences copied
word by word from the text are not accepted, because it does not show that the learner has actually understood the
question.
29 (fast) 50/fünfzig (funfzig) NOT fumfzig, funfzing (COPY CORRECTLY!)
30 (i) ist mit Menschen (völlig) vertraut – NOT deshalb (just copied, it shows some reasoning before)
(language was marked down)
(ii) hört auf seinen Namen
31 Sie hat keine Zeit mehr (für ihr Studium – not necessary to repeat question)/
Sie wurde Vogeltrainerin/es folgten andere Projekte.
32 (i) von Fernsehsendern
(ii) von Filmgesellschaften (CORRECT spelling necessary)
33 Sie braucht mehr Platz für WEITERE Tiere (die sie anschaffen möchte)/Sie möchte mehr/weitere Tiere anschaffen.
34 seit Kind an/schon als Kind/seit ihr Vater sie mit in den Vogelpark genommen hat/sobald sie laufen konnte
35 es muss immer ein Spiel bleiben (NOT “sie muss ein Spiel bleiben/Vögel müssen ein Spiel bleiben/es ist ein
Spiel”)/Liebe und Geduld (müssen dabei sein)
Questions that expect a certain amount of logic or deduction caused some headaches (33, 34, 35). This question
is of level 2 difficulty and expects some interpretation and manipulation of the language ( 5 marks are allocated for
language for this purpose).
Language marks are awarded as follows:
5 Verbs, when required by the question, are mostly correctly formed and used in the appropriate tense; use of
prepositions and case-endings is substantially correct; vocabulary is used appropriately and is correctly spelled.

4 Some incidence of error in the use of verbs, but candidates clearly have a good understanding of usage.
Some incidence of error in the usage of prepositions and case-endings, but candidates clearly have a good
understanding of usage.
Mainly appropriate use of vocabulary including accurate spelling.
3 More than half of verbs used show errors, but there is some correct usage.
More than half of prepositions and case-endings used show errors but there is some correct usage.
Vocabulary shows some error in choice of words and spelling.
2 Considerable number of errors in use of verbs and tenses.
Considerable number of errors in use of prepositions and case-endings.
Poor choice of vocabulary and faulty spelling.
1 All aspects of the criteria show considerable errors.
0 No feeling for the German language at all.

Marks are allocated PRO RATA if only a few communication marks were gained.
Zweite Aufgabe: Fragen 37

Communication = 10 marks (two aspects per question)
Language = 5 marks for the quality of the written language and register/sense of audience. See marking grid attached.
The theme of this essay did not cause any major problems for even the weaker learners. It was evident that learners
were quite comfortable with the format, e.g. two questions per bullet. If not clearly asked, then it is assumed that two
facts should be given to gain maximum marks. It was pleasing to see that most candidates kept to the limit of 80 to 100
words. A word count of more than 100/105 is not marked and sometimes valuable facts, that could gain marks have
to be ignored. Some centres still do not adhere to this rule and candidates lose unnecessary marks. NO address is
needed and a long-winded introduction “Wie geht es dir? Hier ist es….” does not earn any communication mark and
uses up the word limit for necessary facts.
This was a real jackpot-question for candidates as they gained full marks for communication by responding to EVERY
question. It was encouraging that more candidates wrote in paragraph form.
As mentioned before, this is a letter and a person needs to be addressed:

Liebe Anna, Lieber Peter. A letter is completed with your name. Here too make sure you use the appropriate ending
deine Sarah/ dein Johan.
Many candidates confused the following words:

Ich besuche (verb) einen Zoo. Mein Besuch (my visit) beim Zoo…
Wir besichtigen (look at)…
Ich berichte (report, verb )über meinen Besuch beim Zoo. Mein Bericht (my report)…
The report of the visit to the zoo had to be in the PAST TENSE!
It was quite shocking to see that in some centres hardly any of the learners had the words GEGANGEN (NOT gegehen)
or GEGESSEN (NOT ge-essen) correct.
• Wann und mit wem waren Sie im Zoo? Very well answered
Unfortunately a few candidates missed the theme because they wrote that they went to the Etosha National Park
(a nature park and NOT a zoo).
• Welches Tier hat Ihnen besonders gefallen und warum? Many different animals were named although most of
the weaker candidates could not spell them correctly. If the spelling for the animal was incorrect (NOT accepted
English/Afrikaans spelling - Leo, leu, liuwe, Apfe!!) the candidate did not gain a mark. If a reason for Warum hat er
Ihnen gefallen? was given, the candidate gained a mark.
Elefant, LӦWE, AFFE, Krokodil, Schlange, Giraffe, Nilpferd/ Hippo, Nashorn, Antilopen, Papagei (NOT accepted

HUND /KATZE (Haustier). MOST learners struggled with the expression: …. hat MIR gefallen.
(NOT Der Löwe hat besonders gefallen)
This was considered negatively in the language mark.
Warum? Es ist interessant/es ist mein Lieblingstier/es hat schöne Farben/der Papagei kann sprechen, etc.
• Welches Tier war langweilig und warum?

Some learners did not make it clear that they knew what “langweilig” was. If it wasn’t clear no mark was
rewarded.
Warum? Es hat nichts gemacht/Es hat nur geschlafen.
NOT “es ist groß, klein” etc.
• Was haben Sie während der Mittagszeit gemacht?

Accepted: gegessen, ausgeruht, noch Tiere angesehen, schwimmen gegangen, auf den Spielplatz gegangen IM
Zoo.
At the beginning it says that you spent your WHOLE day in the zoo (Sie haben den GANZEN TAG dort verbracht).
Candidates lost marks, therefore, if they left the zoo, went shopping, to the movies or a restaurant outside the zoo, etc.
This was NOT accepted.
• Welches Problem hatten Sie und wie haben Sie es gelöst?

It was pleasing to see that most candidates answered correctly by mentioning a problem and how it was solved
(gelöst).
Examples: Der Affe hat meine Tasche genommen. Ein Arbeiter hat die Tasche geholt.
Ich hab nicht genug Geld gehabt, aber meine Freundin hat das essen bezahlt.
If the person experienced a problem outside the zoo and solved it – no mark was awarded.
DRITTER TEIL
Section three is the more demanding section, as the language has to be applied correctly. A good amount of vocabulary
and grammar (verb formation and sentence structure) is needed to communicate the message. This section represents
35% of the paper, and it is wise to practise written pieces often, already in the lower grades, as the basic vocabulary
needed is often that of Grade 8 to 10.
Erste Aufgabe: Fragen 38

Communication = 5 marks
Language = 10 marks for the quality of the written language and register/sense of audience.
See marking grid attached.
In this question the text (a report about the sport day at the school) is ONLY the stimulus and MAY NOT be copied, which
is usually done by the weaker candidates. OWN Gedanken (thoughts), Vorschläge (suggestions), Ideen (ideas) und
Gründe(reasons) have to be given.
Again please point out to the candidates that they are addressed in the polite “Sie”-form, so they themselves are asked
to DO something, not the school principal or another person that the candidate addresses in the letter (The addressee
is already given and he/she only needs to carry on with the letter.)
In this question the pupil is asked to make suggestions (Vorschläge) on how to motivate the other learners to participate
in the sport day.
Suggestions could be: tolle/mehr Preise (Geschenke, Geld)

Einen freien Schultag als Preis
(freies) Essen und Trinken/Essen soll billig sein
Lehrer müssen auch mitmachen
Musik und Tanz und Singen
Freunde von anderen Schulen, Eltern als Zuschauer
Pokal/Zertifikat/Belohnung bekommen
In Gruppen gegen einander spielen
Bunte/ schöne Sportkleidung
Berühmte Sportmann/-frau einladen zum Motivieren
Schülern erklären, wie wichtig Sport ist

Andere/mehrere Sportarten anbieten
FIVE DIFFERENT suggestions had to be given.

Candidates received no marks for communication (therefore also no marks for language) if they copied from the text
without giving ANY or their OWN suggestions.
It is a good idea to “brainstorm” in class with the learners and to collect the relevant vocabulary for different themes (look
at previous examination papers). They can then write several of these essays.
Zweite Aufgabe: Frage 39

Communication = 5 marks
Language = 15 marks for the quality of the written language and register/sense of audience.
See marking grid attached.
Most candidates stayed within the 120 to 140 word limit. A word count helps to ensure that you have said all you can
say. Very few candidates used the blank pages to plan their essays. Unfortunately checking of grammar/spelling was
mostly not done. Candidates should be taught to give a heading to any essay in this category.
(a) Das waren super Ferien. By far the majority chose this topic.
Most scored full marks for communication (content), but it was sad to see that many thought a super holiday
consisted of nothing else but eating, drinking, going to the disco, shopping, playing computer games and
watching television. Some candidates were a little more creative by going on a grand tour through Europe
or through Namibia. Congratulations. Past Tense was needed.
Listing of normal activities – during the day/week/or only a weekend was not rewarded with any marks.
(f) Ich war den ganzen Tag am Damm … very few candidates chose this topic.
(g) Die Wichtigkeit der Familie (the importance of THE family). Very few learners chose this theme.
Unfortunately many who did missed the theme by writing about MY family, showing again that they
DID NOT READ the topic CAREFULLY, and they lost ALL the marks. Pupils should be warned about
these “philosophical/argumentative” themes.
As suggested for Question 38, it is important to “brainstorm” with the learners in class and to collect the
relevant vocabulary for different themes as given in previous examination papers. Learners should practise
writing essays so they learn to watch out for the following grammar pitfalls (please study the marking grid
attached for this):
(i) Verbs (movement verbs in perfect take SEIN not haben – very weakly executed)The correct form of
the perfect participle (gegangen, gemacht, passiert) must be drilled.
(ii) Person and verb ending have to match
(iii) Nouns have to be written with a CAPITAL letter
(iv) Sentences should have varied beginnings, so that different sentence structures are used, e.g. no starting
each sentence with “ich” (makes for pedestrian and simple sentences, language marks are lost).
(v) VARIED vocabulary should be used, e.g.for gehen, use laufen, rennen, fahren
(vi) Fixed expressions used correctly always impress: “das glaub ich nicht!”, “das gibt es doch nicht!”.
“Donnerwetter!” “das gefällt mir”, “er nervt”, “ich war sauer” and a variety of interesting adjective/adverbs:
nervös, hübsch, aggressiv, wütend, fröhlich, glücklich.
(vii) Draw attention to words that sound the same in the mother tongue but have a different meaning (putzen
does NOT mean to put)

Please revisit the suggestions for teachers concerning confusing words in the Report of 2011.
Words that need special attention:
Mädchen/Menschen
berichten/besuchen/besichtigen
Ferien/Feiern/Verein/
die Ferien sind/waren (pl) , die Eltern sind/waren (pl) BUT
der Urlaub ist/war (sing), das Wochenende ist/war, die Familie ist/war (sing), Vorschläge/Vorteile/Nachteile/
Gründe
auf/aus/an/auch/also
letzte (NOT laste) nächste (NOT nexte, nechste)
mein ERSTES MAL am Meer (NOT meine erste Zeit)
waren: ich war, er war, wir waren (NOT was)
see: Addendum D Marking grid for written work, page 14
http://www.nied.edu.na/publications/syllabusses/NSSC%20%20Folder/Ordinary%20%20Folder/Syllabus%20
Folder/NSSCO%20German%20Foreign%20Language%20Syllabus.pdf page 24
see: Topic list Addendum A, page 17

4121
Paper 3
General comments
The majority of the CDs were of top quality. However, of the 24 centres the recordings of 5 were of such poor quality,
that it was impossible to evaluate them. This made moderation severely cumbersome and time consuming.
Recommendation: Recordings should be listened to in order to test the quality of the recording before sending in the
CDs.
Examiners are reminded to familiarise themselves with the examiner’s notes before conducting the oral sessions, and
to apply the information when they conduct the sessions.
This procedure should be practised throughout the Senior Secondary phase. At times the moderators had the impression
that many orals were staged and rehearsed.
Examiners tended to repeat questions, not giving the candidates time to answer them before it was repeated in a
simpler format.
In order to evaluate a candidate, questions requiring a more elaborate response should be asked.
Examiners and/or learners should not read the instructions aloud, as the instructions should be used to prepare the
picture stimulus and the conversation thereof.
When preparing for the picture stimulus no dictionaries/cellphones/defined contents or friends may be consulted.
Teachers should NOT write the prepared orals for the learners.
Examiners should not write notes while candidates are doing their orals.
Range of sample
All five oral cards should be used if five or more candidates are tested; five different samples have to be sent in. Topics
should NOT be given to the candidates beforehand, neither the vocabulary thereof. The examiners have to spread the
topics evenly across the number of candidates tested.
The moderators remind the examiners to keep the warm-up sessions between one and two minutes, not more and not
less.
Recording of candidates preferably has to be numerically as entered on the OASF.
The recorded orals should be indicated on the OASF form with an asterisk (*).
For proper examination and moderation to be conducted, the orals have to last 15 minutes, with a warm-up session
of 2 minutes included. The time is of importance. Shorter orals will disadvantage candidates. In some cases the
preparation for the picture stimuli was read.
The introduction to the centre has to be done in a separate folder, NOT with every candidate.
Task 1: Picture stimulus
Examiners tended to answer the questions for the candidates by giving an example or commenting on the question.
The candidates should be given an opportunity to answer the questions without any interruption, thereafter questions
may be asked on the topic by the examiner to develop a conversation, applying the issues of the theme to his/her own
circumstances. This is very important in order to evaluate the candidate on his/her impression and responsive mark.
Card A

Vocabulary to the topic was sufficiently, although sentence structures seemed to be difficult. Adjektivdeklination should
be practised more often.
Card B
The majority of candidates answered the questions to this picture stimulus very well.
Card C
Some examiners explained the meaning of the question to the candidates while conducting the orals. Candidates were
penalised.
Card D
The topic was received and interpreted well.
Card E
Some students had difficulty identifying the different sport codes.

The word “Profisport” was misinterpreted or not understood on a regular basis.
Task 2: Topic conversation
Please avoid topics like “My school day”, “My sport”, Religion”, “My family”, ”My pet” “My home life” etc. Oral skills of the
candidates can only be tested if they introduce their topics, speak about them for a minute or two and are then guided by
the questions of the teachers to develop the topic. Examiners should be careful not to ask too many questions and they
should not repeat the questions. Repeating a question indicates that the candidate does not understand the question
at first and therefore lacks vocabulary.
As questions were asked the candidates were not able to address them on the same level as during the prepared part
of the oral.
It is of vital importance that the candidates do NOT read their orals or know them by heart. It should be a natural
conversational atmosphere, where the candidate leads the topic. Examiners have to refrain from taking over the
conversation and stating their own opinions on the topic.

FOREIGN LANGUAGE FRENCH
0520
Paper 1
Key messages
• The performance on this paper was very similar to that seen in 2012. Candidates showed good levels of both
specific and general understanding, performing well on the first two sections of the paper. Although the last section
was, as intended, found to be more challenging, a good number of candidates managed a strong performance on
this section.
• New Centres should remind candidates to write clearly in blue or black pen. Candidates should not write first
in pencil and then overwrite answers in pen as this can be very difficult to read. Candidates must cross out any
material they do not wish the Examiner to consider.
• Full sentences are not required in responses and candidates should be aware that if answers are long, there is a
danger that extra distorting details will be included which may invalidate an otherwise correct answer.
• Answers were marked on the basis of communication and comprehension.
General comments
The demand of this year’s paper was found to be very similar to that of the 2012 paper. Overall, the candidature
performed well, with even weaker candidates able to achieve marks on a few questions in the final section. The
candidature was familiar with the demands and structure of the paper, and rubrics were understood. The exercises
discriminated appropriately across the gradient of difficulty in the paper. It was also evident that the examined topics
were accessible to candidates.
As last year, the French extracts heard by candidates gradually increased in terms of length and density and featured
both monologues and conversations. The emphasis of the questions moved from targeting the candidates’ ability to
pick out information contained in short factual pieces, to testing their ability to understand specific factual information, as
well as opinions and explanations, in longer narrated accounts and conversations. Longer extracts featured a variety of
register and references to both past and future events. Vocabulary which is tested in the first two sections of the test is
drawn from the vocabulary as set out in the defined content.
It is clear that candidates in many Centres appreciate the need to write as briefly and clearly as possible and understand
that they are not required to write their answers in full sentences. Brief answers are preferable in order to reduce the risk
that the candidate will include extra, distorting material which may invalidate an otherwise correct answer. Candidates
should be reminded not to answer or infer from general knowledge.
The listening paper tests comprehension. Accuracy in written responses in French is not an issue provided that the
message is clear. If the answer sounds and reads like French, it will be accepted provided that the message is
unambiguous. Any material which candidates do not wish the Examiner to consider should be clearly crossed out.
Candidates need to use the pauses on the recordings to read the questions carefully. Centres are reminded that
reading time for each exercise is included in the pauses throughout the paper and there is not extra reading time before
the examination starts. It is important to give candidates practice on past papers so as to ensure that they are familiar
with the rubrics and the position of the pauses. It also helps to remind candidates that they will hear all recordings twice.
Section 1
Exercise 1 Questions 1-8
This first exercise tested the understanding of eight short conversations/monologues through multiple choice questions
with visual options. Candidates usually performed well in this opening exercise, which is intended to give candidates a
confident start to the paper. The extracts were straightforward and short and tested vocabulary areas such as numbers,
time, leisure activities, food and places. Nearly all candidates answered Question 1 correctly. Questions 2, 3, 4 and 5
were also answered well. On Question 6, candidates did not always understand par terre. The final two questions were
answered well.

Candidates heard a longer extract which featured a conversation between a tourist and an employee in a tourist office
on the subject of renting holiday accommodation in the town of St. Remy. Questions required the identification of key
vocabulary such as dates, house details, domestic animals and leisure activities mostly through visual multiple choice
questions. Questions 9 and 10 were well done. On Question 11, the word baignoire was not well known, with many
opting instead for garage. It is worth remembering that at this level in the test, the questions only test vocabulary which
can be clearly heard on the recording. Candidates heard il y a deux salles de bains avec douche... mais il n’y a pas
de baignoire. On Question 12, while many were able to identify chat, some incorrectly opted for chien. Question 13
was done well by candidates. For Question 14, many candidates were not familiar with the word colline. Laverie was
usually recognised by candidates on Question 15. Although, the majority managed to give a correct number on the
last question, some wrote 4.60 instead of 460. It is worth reminding candidates that numbers can be written in figures.
Section 2
Exercise 1 Question 17
Candidates heard four young people talk about their life at school in Martinique. Good numbers of candidates achieved
at least 4 marks. Examiners reported no clear pattern of incorrect answers.
Performance over the years has improved on this exercise as candidates have become more accustomed to the
requirements. Examiners did, however, report that there is still the occasional case of a candidate ticking too few or
too many boxes. Teachers should advise candidates to indicate the six true statements with either a tick or a cross.
Some candidates used a system of both ticks and crosses to indicate both true and false statements which often proved
confusing for them and for Examiners.
In this exercise, candidates heard interviews with Olivier and Camille about their life in New Zealand. In the first part
of the exercise, on the extract featuring Olivier, candidates were required to correct an incorrect detail in each of five
statements, a question type with which they were clearly familiar. The vocabulary items tested were lexically frequent
words (all to be found in the Core vocabulary of the defined content) that would be met by candidates at an early stage
of their learning. Marks were generally good.
For Question 18, there were a few unacceptable renderings of vacances such as vacannes. On Question 19, many
were easily able to identify parc(s) and on Question 20, candidates were fairly successful in identifying voile. For
Question 21, good numbers correctly gave either rugby or stade. Occasionally, candidates invalidated their answers by
adding jouer to the concept of rugby which distorted the answer. The most difficult question of this exercise was found
to be Question 22, but there were still good numbers able to render circulation correctly.
In the second part of this exercise, candidates heard an interview with Camille, who also talked about her life in New
Zealand. Candidates were required to give short answers in French. All questions could be answered with as little as
one or two words in French. Performance was, again generally good on this part of the exercise.
On Question 23, most were able to give the answer chef or the equally acceptable alternative idea of working in a
restaurant. Good numbers understood that Camille felt sad and were able to render the word triste on Question 24.
For Question 25, candidates needed to be able to convey the idea of marche. Marche (another word in French with a
different meaning) was only acceptable if accompanied by the idea of francais, the addition of which which was judged
to reduce ambiguity. Question 26 was the hardest on the exercise with candidates being required to identify the idea
of solitude or being alone. There were, however, some good attempts at this question and answers such as solitude or
seul gained the mark. On Question 27, there were again good attempts with many scoring the mark for the idea of New
Zealanders being relaxed/not in a hurry. Again, some invalidated their answers by adding extra material of a distorting
nature such as pas stresses, which reflected an incorrect hearing of pas presses. It is worth remembering that at this
level, the exam does not aim to test inferential skills and that candidates should be guided by what is on the recording.

Section 3
Candidates heard an interview with a film star in which he talked about his interest in ecology, how this had started and
how this interest affected his family life and work. The question type used was multiple choice with written options.
Questions tested specific factual information as well as the ability to identify attitudes and emotions, and required
candidates to follow the sequence of events in a longer extract.
The first question was not well answered. C was the commonly given incorrect answer in response to why Lionel was in
Paris, indicating that many had not understood the interviewer when she said vous venez de faire un documentaire and
consequently chose, too hastily, Pour faire un documentaire, rather than the correct Pour aller a une reunion. Questions
29 and 30 were answered very well, but only the strongest candidates were able to answer Question 31 correctly.
Candidates needed to identify what Lionel said his family could do better in terms of recycling rather than identify what
they already did. He stated that he and his family recycled glass and paper and then went on to state what they could do
better. On this exercise candidates need to listen carefully before coming to a conclusion. Candidates fared better on
the next question but found the last question slightly harder. Some opted for the idea of young people being optimistic,
which was what Lionel said about himself, not what he said about young people. Even so, many candidates were
successful on this last question and correctly chose option D.
This final exercise was intended to be the most demanding on the paper and included questions that were suitably
challenging for the more able candidates. Some very accessible questions were also included to help maintain
concentration and motivation and these were successfully answered by a good proportion of the candidates. The
performance on this exercise was, again, very much in line with the standard of work seen last year. As last year, this
was found to be a suitably demanding and challenging exercise at this stage of the paper.
Candidates heard an interview with Candice who talked about her holiday job, picking fruit. Questions had been
phrased in such a way as to encourage candidates to answer briefly, rather than to write at length. Full sentences were
not required, but some answers did need to include a verb in order to convey the complete concept.
On Question 34, good numbers understood the concept of repeating the year. The verb redoubler was known by some,
but most scored the mark with an acceptable rendering of repeter l’annee scolaire Question 35 was not well answered.
Many did not appreciate the negative that qualified the idea of faches, or included invalidations such as surpris or
positifs. Question 36 was answered more successfuly with a fair number being able to use an appropriate verb such
as chercher/regarder/surfer plus Internet. Many incorrect responses merely stated travailler a la ferme which reflected
only partial understanding of what had been heard. Question 37 was the least well answered question on the paper.
For (a), the word debout was understood by only a few. Attempts such as de bout or debut, though frequently seen,
could not score the mark, as the required answer had been incorrectly split or had been rendered as a word with another
meaning in French. Although (b) was answered slightly more successfully, few could render mal au dos acceptably. On
Question 38, candidates needed to be able to give the comparative plus ages to score the mark. Candidates were often
able to correctly identify and produce accent in answer to Question 39. The required answer to Question 40, lentement,
was often rendered as long temps or longtemps. On Question 41, an acceptable rendering of monter dans les arbres
was rewarded. Rester dans les arbres did not gain the mark. Examiners accepted spellings such as arbe(s)/abre(s)
provided that the concept was correct.
Question 42 also proved to be fairly challenging. The brief answer moins paresseuse was enough to score the mark.
Many could give paresseuse, but did not hear the qualifier alongside this concept. Some also invalidated their answer
by writing mois.

0520
Paper 2
Key messages
To maximise their chances of success on this paper, candidates should:

• read all instructions, questions and texts very carefully.
• answer comprehension questions with brief but focused answers.
• make sure that they have answered every part of every question, including multiple choice.
• make any alterations to answers clear.
• allow themselves time to check their work.
General comments
In general, candidates found this paper very accessible. They appeared well prepared and accustomed to the type of
exercises found on the paper.
Candidates are not expected to write answers longer than the line spaces provided on the paper, and it is often an
advantage to keep answers short and focused.
There were no signs that candidates had not had sufficient time to complete the paper. Any time left after they have
finished may profitably be spent checking that they have answered all the questions, that where they have been able to
use material directly from the text it has been copied correctly, and that where they have changed their mind about the
answer to a question, their final answer is clear.
Section 1
This exercise was very well answered, with most candidates scoring the maximum 5 marks.
Most candidates scored at least 4 of the available marks. Question 6 (Je veux faire le plein d’essence) was often
answered with B (Jardin zoologique) and occasionally with A (when candidates did not connect ...être en forme... with
...Centre de sport).
This exercise was well done, and many candidates achieved full marks.
This task asked candidates to write a preliminary e-mail to a new French pen friend, giving 3 items of information, based
on the pictures provided:
(a) their age (15)

(b) what they like at school (picture of a globe)
(c) how they travel to school (by car)
For (a), candidates were expected to write J’ai quinze/15 ans – and a variety of spellings for quinze were accepted. For
(b), answers needed to supply J’aime... plus some reference to geography, study of the world, or different cultures. For
the last element, candidates needed to communicate that they travelled to school by car, eg by writing Je vais à l’école
en voiture/auto or acceptable alternatives such as en taxi and ma mère me conduit. Minor spelling errors were tolerated.

In this question, marks are awarded separately for communication and for language, with 1 mark each for communicating
the 3 elements and 2 marks for appropriate use of language. Most candidates were able to score at least 2 of the
communication marks, though some failed to score because, instead of writing what the pictures represented, they gave
their actual age (16/17), and means of transport to school (on foot or by bus).
In order to score the 2 marks for language, candidates must use 2 verbs correctly, and in appropriate tenses. For
example, those who used être to express their age as 15 were awarded the communication mark, but no mark for
language, and similarly with Je aime... or Je adore… – one mark for communication, but 0 for appropriate language.
A number of candidates expanded on the required 3 elements; there is no need to add any extra material and there is
no additional credit available for this, since marks are only awarded for rendering the stipulated elements.
Section 2
For this exercise, candidates are asked to read a longer text, an e-mail from Sylvie to her new pen friend, talking about
her family and home. The questions on the text are in French, to be answered in French. All that is required is to be
able to locate the information needed, which can usually be rendered in just one or two words, rather than complete
sentences. For example, Question 17 could be answered with ...cinq/5... and Question 19(i) with...l’aînée... Additional
material from the text is ignored by Examiners, as long as it does not contradict the correct answer, but answers do not
need to exceed the single line space allowed.
The majority of candidates found this text very accessible, and many scored the maximum marks. The last three
questions of the exercise sometimes presented problems. For Question 23 a number of answers relied on the lift of
Mon père insiste pour que toute la famille mange ensemble le soir... whereas the answer actually appeared in the next
sentence. For Question 24, some missed that the parents had bought a dishwasher, and for Question 25, the answer
offered was sometimes incomplete, since it mentioned e-mail, but not what was to be sent – photographs.
For this longer piece of writing, candidates were given the topic of school life. The three tasks given were:
(a) a description of the school day they prefer.
(b) the teacher they like best and their reason(s) for admiring this particular person.
(c) what career they would like in the future, and why.
10 marks are available for the communication of relevant points, spread flexibly across the tasks. There were many
maximum scores for communication, though some candidates did not give enough details to score full marks and some
candidates never really got to grips with the task in part (a) – they talked readily about their school and how they get
there, but the question asked them to identify and describe their favourite day, and a number of candidates did not do
this.
Part (b) was generally done very well, with candidates at ease talking about their favourite teacher(s) and why they liked
them. For part (c) many confused métier with matières and talked about the school subjects they wanted to study rather
than their future career – credit was allowed for this, as well as for more long term future plans.
For accuracy, 5 marks are available, using a banded mark scheme. Many candidates also scored the maximum here.
They used straightforward vocabulary and structures and were able to use a range of verbs with some success, writing
reasonably accurately and coherently. Candidates would be well advised to keep their answers close to the suggested
word limit, allowing them to spend any spare time checking through their work for spelling, genders and adjective
agreements, and subject and verb accord.
Section 3
In this section, candidates are asked to read two longer texts and answer questions appropriately. In Section 2 in order
to score the mark it is sufficient to locate the required answer in the text, but here, in Section 3, candidates need to be
more selective in their choice of answer, excluding irrelevant details and possibly manipulating language from the text to
show that they have really understood what is required. Extra details copied from the text, where candidates are trying
to make sure they have covered every possibility, sometimes make an answer ambiguous and prevent the mark from
being awarded.

The text here concerns Stéphane, and his project to help young people. The rubric gives the information that 2 of the
statements are true, and 4 are false, and candidates can score 6 of the 10 marks by correctly ticking the true/false
boxes. The other 4 marks are scored by correcting the 4 false statements.
Many candidates were able to identify the true/false statements, but the corrections were not always so successful. For
Question 27, a number of candidates talked about Paul leaving school, rather than the simple answer that it was Paul
who went to work in the factory. In answer to Question 28, many candidates thought it was Stéphane’s uncle who had
encouraged him, rather than his brother, so did not score. Corrections for Questions 30 and 32 were more successful.
For the final exercise of the paper, candidates were given a text about Gustave Eiffel. Candidates need to make sure
that they read each question with care, and that their answer is focused on what the question actually asks.
Question 33 proved unexpectedly challenging to many candidates who tried to answer by lifting a long sentence from
the text – the simplest answer of all was the single word Paris. For Question 34, many candidates confused the verb
élever with the noun élève and ended up suggesting that the grandmother was Gustave’s teacher, rather than that
she had brought up him and his brothers. The remaining questions were answered more successfully, particularly
Questions 37 and 40. For Question 41, candidates needed to make it clear that Jacqueline dit / insiste / assure qu’elle
est plus belle en réalité. Direct speech was not accepted for the answer.

0520
Paper 3
Key messages
• Candidates who performed well in the Role plays were as concise as possible and kept to the tasks as stated on
the Role play cards. Good Examiners did not create or change cues and tasks.
• Timings were usually correctly observed. In some Centres, the conversation sections were too short or too long. In
a few cases a conversation section was missed out, restricting the marks the candidate could be awarded.
• Most Centres remembered to include questions in both conversation sections to elicit past and future tenses from
candidates. Such tense usage is essential if candidates are to score more than 6 marks for Linguistic content.
• As in 2012, the best performances at all levels of ability were in Centres where there had not been over preparation
of work and where spontaneous and natural conversations were allowed to develop. In such Centres, candidates
were given the opportunity to respond not just to straightforward questions, but also to unexpected ones, enabling
them to develop their answers and include ideas and opinions.
• While the breadth of topic coverage was good in most Centres, a few Centres needed to cover a wider range of
topics. In some Centres, there was a tendency to cover far more than the suggested two or three topics with each
candidate in the General conversation, which greatly restricted the opportunities for candidates to develop their
answers.
• The quality of recordings continues to improve.
• Centres using more than one Examiner were not always aware of the correct procedure for internal moderation.
Feedback to such Centres was provided by the Moderator and should be acted upon in future sessions.
General comments
This paper was common to all candidates, whether they had followed a Core Curriculum or an Extended Curriculum
course.
The standard of work heard was good and similar to that heard in previous years. Most Examiners had familiarised
themselves with the format of the test and conducted the examination efficiently. In the Role plays, Examiners were
usually careful to adhere to the given cues, prompting where necessary and encouraging candidates to work for marks.
It should be noted that Examiners who changed the tasks, added to them, or who had not prepared their roles fully,
added to the difficulty of this section of the test for their candidates. The majority of Examiners understood the need
to give candidates the opportunity to show what they knew and could do in the conversation tests. Candidates were
generally aware of the demands of the test and had done the necessary preparation.
Centres are reminded that while Examiners should be granted access to the confidential test materials (Teachers’ notes
booklet/Role play cards) in the four working days before the first Speaking test is conducted, so that they can prepare
the Role plays, it is the Centre’s responsibility to ensure that the contents of these materials remain confidential and
are not shared with candidates. The Teachers’ notes booklet and Role play cards must be returned to the Centre’s
secure storage facility whenever preparation is not taking place and after each session of examining. Once the last
Speaking test has been conducted, the materials must remain in secure storage until the end of the Speaking test
period. Centres are also reminded that candidates must not be permitted to do any writing during their preparation time
or in the examination and must therefore not be allowed to bring any pens/pencils etc with them into the preparation
area. There must be no whispering between the Examiner and candidate in the examination: communication between
the Examiner and the candidate must be clearly audible on the recording. Candidates must not bring mobile phones
into the preparation/examination area and Examiners’ phones must remain switched off.
Examiners need to understand the requirements of the mark scheme in order that they ask the right sort of questions
which will stretch candidates and give them the opportunity to fulfil the descriptors in the higher mark bands. For
example, Examiners who included unexpected questions and went beyond straightforward ‘closed’ questions gave
candidates the possibility of scoring in the Good band or above on scale (a), Comprehension/responsiveness. It is also
essential to include questions which will elicit past and future tenses in both conversation sections as candidates need
to show they can use both of these tenses accurately for a mark of more than 6 to be awarded on scale (b), Linguistic
content.
The full requirements of the test are clearly laid out in the Teachers’ notes booklet and all Centres are strongly advised
to read through a past paper well in advance of the test so that they have plenty of time to clarify any uncertainties. A
French language version of these requirements also exists and is available on the Cambridge website.

• Clerical checks
In most Centres, the clerical work had been completed efficiently and Centres are thanked for this. Moderators reported
fewer clerical errors than last year, but there are still cases of large errors. In some cases, the addition of marks was
incorrect and in others, although the marks had been added up correctly on the working mark sheet, an incorrect total
was then transferred to the MS1 mark sheet/computer. It is essential that all clerical work is checked with great care to
ensure that all candidates receive the correct mark. On the working marking sheet, the addition of the individual marks
for each candidate must be checked to ensure that the total mark is correct. Then, for each candidate, the transfer
of the marks from the working mark sheet to the MS1 mark sheet (or the electronic marks file) must also be checked.
Please note that Centres must include the Moderator copy of the MS1 mark sheet or a print-out of the marks file with
the sample for external moderation.
• Cover sheet for moderation sample
This form is intended to serve as a checklist for those in the Centre responsible for preparing the sample for external
moderation and despatching it to Cambridge. Completion of this form allows Centres to check that their moderation
sample is correct before they despatch it to Cambridge, and the completed form must be submitted to Cambridge with
the sample. If there is more than one Examiner per Centre, the relevant section on the form must be completed.
• Sample size
Nearly all Centres submitted a correct and representative sample. Please remember that if a Centre has 16 or more
candidates, the sample must include the recordings of 16 candidates. Centres with more than one Examiner had clearly
gone to some trouble to ensure a good range of marks and Examiners were represented on the sample. New Centres
are reminded to check the instructions on sample size carefully and to ask for advice from Cambridge if they are unsure
how to proceed.
• Recording quality and presentation of sample
Moderators commented that a high proportion of the recordings received were of a very good quality and Centres are
thanked for this. Most Centres submitted digital recordings which were clear and easy to access. If cassettes are used,
sound levels should be checked prior to recording in order to avoid the problem of muffled recordings. Centres are
reminded that whatever the method chosen for recording, if an external microphone is used, this should be positioned
to favour the candidate.
In some cases, it was difficult or impossible to access the recorded sample provided by the Centre:
• Several Centres sent blank CDs or CDs of recordings that were barely audible: Centres must check the CD to
ensure that their recorded sample is clearly audible before despatching it to Cambridge. This check should be
carried out on a different machine to the one on which the recordings were made. If there is a problem, the
Centre should get in touch with Cambridge immediately. Centres are reminded of the need to check all recording
equipment prior to the live exams.
• Some recordings had not been saved as .mp3 files and could not be accessed by the moderator: it is essential that
files are saved as .mp3. If new Centres are considering ways to record, it is worth obtaining a digital voice recorder
(IC recorder). These are easy to use and the sound quality is excellent. Because the device is small, it helps make
the experience less intimidating for candidates.
• Some Centres sent their recordings on a USB/memory stick. Only CDs/cassettes are accepted by Cambridge.
• Some CDs were damaged when they arrived at Cambridge: CDs/cassettes must be carefully wrapped in some form
of protective packaging before they are placed in the envelope with the moderation paperwork. The appropriate
label (which includes the Centre name and a bar-code) should then be placed on the envelope. The envelope
containing the recordings and paperwork should then be packaged in another parcel/envelope and one of the return
labels with the Cambridge address should be attached before it is returned to Cambridge.

• In some cases, poor labelling made it difficult for the moderator to establish which recordings had been sent as part
of the sample and/or to find the particular recordings required. Please note:
- The cassette/CD must always be accompanied by a list of the featured recordings (candidate name and
number). For cassettes these must be presented in order of play.
- On CDs, it is essential that each recording be saved as a separate file. The recording for each candidate must
be saved individually and named as follows, Centre number_candidate number_syllabus number_component
number.
- Each CD/cassette must include a recorded introduction by the Examiner, listing the cassette/CD number, Centre
number, examination number, examination name, name of Examiner and date. (For CDs, this introduction can
be saved as a separate file (named ‘recorded introduction’.)
- Whether Centres are submitting samples on cassette or CD, the Examiner must introduce each candidate on
the recorded sample by name and number, and also state the Role play card number. This announcement
must not be made by the candidate.
In addition to the above, Centres are reminded to avoid sticking labels on CDs and to only write on the surface of the
CD with a CD-friendly pen.
• Internal moderation in Centres
The standard of internal moderation in those large Centres which had been given permission to use more than one
Examiner was generally good and was sometimes extremely good. In such cases, great care had been taken to ensure
the consistent application of the mark scheme across different examining groups and a clear explanation of how this
consistency had been achieved was enclosed, in line with requirements.
Moderators did, however, comment that there were more cases this year of incomplete or unclear internal moderation
procedures in Centres which used more than one Examiner. All Centres wishing to use more than one Examiner to
conduct the Speaking tests for their candidates are reminded of the need to apply to Cambridge for permission well
before the start of each Speaking test period. Permission is normally granted, on the understanding that internal
standardisation/moderation takes place at the Centre before a sample is chosen for external moderation by Cambridge.
In order to assist Centres that have been given permission to use more than one Examiner, Cambridge has produced
guidelines for internal standardisation/moderation.
Where more than one Examiner is used, Moderators need to be able to check that all Examiners in the Centre have
adopted a uniform approach to the conduct of the test and have applied the mark scheme consistently. Please note, if
internal moderation procedures find only minor differences between the marking of an Examiner and the agreed Centre
standard, the marks of candidates in that particular Examiner’s group should not be changed in the Centre, but should
be submitted as they are. In other words, if no adjustment to an Examiner’s marks as a whole is necessary, the marks of
the specific candidates sampled must not be changed in isolation. However, if after checking the sample for a particular
Examiner the decision is taken to adjust that Examiner’s marks, that adjustment must then be applied to the marks of
all the candidates who were examined by that Examiner, and not just to the work of those candidates who were part of
the internal check. Likewise, if an Examiner is judged to be out of line over part of the mark range, the marks of all the
other candidates s/he examined with a mark in that range should be adjusted. Where a particular Examiner is judged
to be out of line, it is good practice to select some more of that Examiner’s candidates for a further check.
Where internal moderation is carried out in a Centre it is doubly crucial that the addition of marks is checked for clerical
errors before the process begins. This is to avoid the situation where an Examiner’s marks are adjusted by the internal
moderator on the basis of mark differences created by errors in the adding up.
• Duration of tests / missing elements
Most Centres adhered to the timings stipulated in the syllabus and the Teachers’ notes booklet, but some Centres
persist in going under or over the five minutes prescribed for the Topic presentation/conversation and/or the General
conversation test. Each of these sections must last for approximately five minutes. Where conversations are short or
missing, candidates will be disadvantaged.
• Application of the mark scheme
Examiners were often consistent and fair in the way they applied the mark scheme and in such cases no adjustments
were made to marks. In some cases, large adjustments were required to the marks awarded in Centres. Some Centres
had adjustments made just to part of the mark range.
In the Role plays, some Examiners did not realise that a short response (in some cases, just one word), if appropriate,
can earn a mark of 3. If there are two parts to a task, then Examiners are free to split the task, but should only one part
of a task be completed by the candidate, the maximum mark which can be awarded is 1. If a candidate chooses to use
a verb to complete a task and makes an error of tense or conjugation, a mark of 2 and not 3 is appropriate. Examiners
are reminded that poor pronunciation can be queried if it prevents clear communication of a task.
In the Conversation sections, marking tended to be generous in some Centres, as marks were awarded in the higher
bands when there was no evidence that candidates could respond in a spontaneous way to unexpected questions or
that they could communicate consistently and accurately in past and future tenses. Impression marks were usually
awarded fairly in Centres.
Role plays
This section of the test was conducted most successfully when Examiners followed the script provided in the Teachers’
notes booklet. Examiners are reminded not to change their cues as the level of difficulty of the Role play situations
should remain the same for all candidates. Examiners generally prompted candidates when this was necessary, but
there are still cases of Examiners not prompting when candidates miss out tasks – candidates should be encouraged
to attempt all parts of each task. If only one part of a two-part task is completed, only 1 mark can be awarded. As last
year, two part tasks were split into (i) and (ii) on the candidate Role play cards. This is intended to help candidates to
remember to attempt both parts of the tasks where applicable. Examiners should introduce the Role plays in French
and initiate each conversation section. English must not be used to introduce the Role plays.
In preparation for this section of the test, candidates should be reminded that marks are only awarded for completion
of the set tasks and encouraged to keep their utterances short and to the point. Where candidates respond at length
to the Examiner cues and add material extra to the set task, this additional material may distort meaning and detract
from an otherwise correct answer. Candidates should also be reminded to listen carefully to the Examiner, as on all
the Role play A situations there is a task which requires them to listen and choose from two options offered by the
Examiner. Likewise, on all the Role play B situations there is always one task which requires candidates to respond to
an unexpected question.
A Role plays
The A Role plays were found to be of equal difficulty, very similar in difficulty to those of 2012, and a fair test at this level.
They are designed to be easier than the B Role plays and are set using vocabulary from Topic Areas A, B and C of the
Defined Content. All of the A Role play situations featured a task which required a question to be asked and a task which
required candidates to choose an option from two provided by the Examiner. (These options should be offered exactly
as they appear in the Teachers’ notes booklet and should not be changed by the Examiner.) Candidates generally found
the tasks to be accessible and even the weakest candidates were able to score at least 1 mark on each task. Centres
had trained candidates well to include a greeting and thanks where required. Centres are reminded that often a short
response (perhaps one word) will be appropriate and in such cases a mark of 3 can be awarded.
If it can be done naturally and sympathetically, Examiners should feel free to query pronunciation in the Role plays in
cases where mispronunciation renders the message unclear.
In a pizzeria
Candidates performed well on this Role play. All were able to greet and state either that they wanted a table or that
they wanted to buy or eat a pizza. All these approaches were acceptable. Many types of pizza were requested and
any understandable variety was accepted. Candidates and Examiners appreciated the need to choose one of the two
offered options and most candidates had no trouble choosing between frites and salade. Most could ask for a drink
and many were successful in asking a question. For the latter task, many scored 2 marks rather than 3 because they
asked Où est les toilettes?
At the railway station
Again, this situation proved to be well within the experience of candidates. All could ask for a ticket, but pronunciation
of billet was often poor and accentuated the final ‘t’. Most were able to communicate a date and a time, but were not
as successful when choosing which class of ticket they required. Many chose to ask if there was Internet on the train.
Prepositions were often incorrect for this task, but this was seen to be a minor error and good marks were often scored,
provided that candidates used a correct question form.

Buying cinema tickets
This was clearly a familiar context for many candidates and all could request a ticket. Again, the pronunciation of ticket/
billet was not always accurate. Alternatively, the use of places was acceptable. Examiners should feel able to query
unclear pronunciation as it is acceptable for candidates to correct themselves in order to make their message clear.
The second task was well done with nearly all candidates able to make a choice from the two options. The third task,
however, proved difficult for some in terms of pronunciation and there was at times confusion between the pronunciation
of deux/douze. Most were able to communicate an appropriate age even if they gave Je suis instead of J’ai. The last
task, which required a question, was done well.
B Role plays
The B Role plays were deliberately more demanding in that they required the ability to use different tenses, to explain,
give an opinion, apologise or express displeasure. The level of challenge was balanced across the Role plays. As last
year, they differentiated well, but even the weakest candidates could usually score marks on most tasks. It is important
that Examiners know their own role and stick to the set tasks. Candidates should be reminded that there will always
be one task in which they have to listen to the Examiner and reply to an unprepared question. They should be advised
to consider likely questions in the 15 minutes preparation time, immediately prior to the Speaking test, and to listen
carefully in the examination room.
Asking permission to go out with friends
Candidates were comfortable with the context of the Role play and usually managed to state that they wanted to go out
with friends without too much difficulty. The unexpected question was answered well by candidates, but not all were as
confident on the third task which required them to state how they would get back and with whom. The fourth task was
found to be the most challenging. Candidates needed to be able to give an apology and then say why they had got in
late the night before. Centres should note that the cue used to give an apology (Faites vos excuses) is a standard one
and that candidates need to be able to cope with the notion of apologising. Most made a good attempt at the last task
where there were several ways of asking to be allowed to come home at a later time.
Phoning a friend to say you are ill
Candidates were usually able to convey the idea that they were ill, but J’ai malade was often heard. Candidates
sometimes only gave one symptom instead of two and in such cases were not always prompted by Examiners to give a
second symptom and thus to work for the full 3 marks available on the task. The third task, which required a response to
an unexpected question, caused difficulties for some who were perhaps not familiar with the expression tomber malade.
The minimalist response hier was sufficient to gain the 3 marks available. Again, as on the previous B Role play, some
were not able to apologise, but most could gain a mark for suggesting a sporting activity of some sort for the following
Saturday. There was some confusion on the last task: weaker candidates said they would make the reservation rather
than asking that their friend do it. Candidates should be reminded that there is always a task which requires them to
ask a question.
Phoning a taxi company
The first task required a greeting and a simple rephrasing of the rubric with something such as Mon taxi est en retard.
Candidates who said they wanted to reserve a taxi did not fulfil the task. The second task was usually well done. All
could identify themselves and were usually able to give a destination. The answer to the unexpected question was not
always successful, with some not hearing the Quand?. On task four, some were not able to express their displeasure
and, even though suggestions were provided, candidates were not always able to give a reason for their trip. The last
task was usually successfully completed despite some mispronunciations of crédit.
Topic presentation and conversation
The standard of work heard in this section covered the full range of performance. The whole section (Topic presentation
plus Topic conversation) should last for about five minutes. As last year, the timings were generally good. The
instructions state that the presentation by the candidate should last between one and two minutes, and candidates must
not be allowed to present their prepared material for longer than this. The remainder of the five minutes allocated to
this section of the test should be spent on the follow-up conversation. Most Centres were accurate in their timings but
there were cases of overlong presentations (which then cut short the time available for the follow-up questions) and
there were also cases of very short presentations. In both of these scenarios, candidates are likely to be disadvantaged.
Examiners should not ask questions too early during the presentation time, but must start asking questions if the
candidate has spoken on their chosen topic for two minutes.

While it is expected that teachers will have prepared candidates for the follow-up conversation, if candidates are to
score highly, this must not consist of a series of pre-learnt questions and answers in which both Examiner and candidate
know what is coming and in which order. It is also important that the questions do not encourage the candidate merely
to repeat information which has already been given in the presentation. Questions should instead arise spontaneously
as the conversation develops in a natural way. While Examiners were usually aware of the need to elicit both past and
future tenses, in a few Centres, questions to test different tenses were not asked in the Topic conversation, limiting the
mark for Linguistic content to 6.
Centres are clearly warning candidates not to choose ‘Myself’ as their topic. New Centres should note that this is not
a suitable topic for this section of the exam as it can become too much like the General conversation and leave little
material to explore in the final section of the examination. It should also be noted that it is not in the spirit of the syllabus
that all candidates in a Centre/teaching group prepare the same topic.
Candidates had usually prepared themselves for this part of the test and were enthusiastic about their chosen
topic. Many talked about famous people, including sportsmen and women, musicians and film stars. Topics on the
environment and healthy living continue to grow in popularity. Mes vacances, mes projets d’avenir, mon école, le
sport, mes ambitions and mes loisirs continue to be popular and many candidates did themselves justice on these
topics. This year there were also interesting topics on fashion, traditions and festivals and, by coincidence, Nelson
Mandela. Given the very international nature of this candidature, there continue to be fascinating accounts about life
in other countries. Many candidates chose to speak about mon pays and this often proved to be a very interesting and
appropriate topic. Examiners are, however, reminded that with such topics they need to avoid asking questions which
require the candidate to provide precise geographical or statistical knowledge. Instead, questioning could focus on what
the candidates find interesting/like/dislike etc about their country and why.
The best performances came from candidates who had worked hard to equip themselves with the vocabulary and
structures they needed to present their topic, and who could then maintain the level they achieved in the presentation in
the follow-up conversation. Such performances were possible where the Examiner allowed a genuine conversation to
develop, listening carefully to what the candidate had to say and asking both straightforward and unexpected questions,
which arose naturally from the presentation and allowed the candidate to express not just factual information, but also
give their opinions and feelings about the topic. Candidates should be reminded that their delivery of the presentation
can affect the quality of their performance – if their delivery is too fast, or there are a lot of mispronunciations, the
message may become unclear.
General conversation
Most Centres understood that this section of the test should consist of five minutes of discussion and that questions
should focus on two or three of the examination topics listed in the syllabus and should encourage better candidates to
develop their answers and introduce more complex structures. There was still a tendency in some Centres to ask each
candidate a series of questions on a large number of topics with no attempt to connect these questions to each other in
a logical fashion. With weaker candidates who can only answer ‘closed’, superficial questions, it may be necessary to
cover more than two or three topics, but care must still be taken to link questions and clearly signal any change of topic
so as not cause confusion.
Different topics should be covered with different candidates in order to ensure good syllabus coverage for the Centre as
a whole. It is not acceptable to habitually cover the same two or three topics with each candidate. In a small number of
Centres, while a variety of topics were covered across the candidature, on each occasion that a topic was covered, the
same questions were asked: this approach must also be avoided. While it is common practice to make use of banks
of questions in the classroom, reliance on such banks in the live Speaking test will result in stilted conversations which
do not flow naturally and where the candidate seems to be delivering a series of pre-learnt mini presentations. The
descriptors in the Mark scheme refer to a hierarchy of questions, moving from straightforward to unexpected questions,
in both conversation sections. In order to access marks in the higher bands, candidates need to do more than answer
a series of straightforward, predictable questions. They should also be able to answer unexpected questions, requiring
opinions and justifications and the use of more complex language and structures. It was noted by Moderators that there
seemed to be a greater awareness in Centres this year of the need to systematically include questions to test past and
future tenses. Wherever possible, Examiners should try to ensure that relevant questions to test for past and future
tenses are asked on each topic discussed with the candidate so as to ensure that plenty of opportunities to use tenses
are given.
As always, a wide range of performance was heard by Moderators. Good numbers showed that they could communicate
effectively across a range of topics and, in many instances, candidates not only communicated their message clearly, but
could do so in accurate language which showed control of structure and lexis and accurate use of tenses. Candidates
who could go beyond straightforward responses, who could respond naturally to unexpected questions, and who could
develop their answers to include opinions and justifications, scored high marks for Comprehension/responsiveness.
Finally, it was clear from the work heard in many Centres that oral work has become central to foreign language learning
activities in IGCSE classrooms and many of the candidates heard by Moderators were enthusiastic about speaking
French.

0520
Paper 4
Key messages
The more successful candidates’ work was characterised by the following features:
• The demands of the rubric were observed throughout.
• The length of each answer was between 130 and 140 words as directed.
• The answers were well structured and showed signs of thoughtful planning.
• The candidate balanced ambition with the need for linguistic accuracy.
• Presentation was good.
General comments
The entry for the November series continues to grow and the quality of large numbers of scripts remains high. The best
candidates rose to the challenge and produced responses which did them great credit. The majority made the best use
of their knowledge and ability and presented answers which addressed the tasks in the proper manner, showing good
control of the language at their disposal. A number of candidates did not make the most of their opportunity and it is to
this group that the following advice is addressed.
Candidates are reminded that specific marks are given for conveying the information required by each task in the rubric.
When a task is omitted, the candidate automatically limits the number of marks s/he can access. It is important to
observe the tense employed in the stimulus and to use the same tense in the response. In Question 1, candidates are
required to use three different time-frames, present, past and future. In Question 2, the narrative should be expressed
in past tenses, as indicated. In Question 2, three marks for communication are given for recounting events and two for
the candidate’s reactions to these events. If these reactions are omitted, the candidate limits their maximum mark for
communication to three.
More successful candidates planned their answers with care and prepared a plan under certain headings or paragraphs.
To an extent, in Questions 1(a) and 1(b) such a framework is provided by the tasks. In Question 2 candidates must
devise their own anecdote, and a number did not give enough thought to planning their answer. The result was that
some answers ran to much more than 140 words, and communication points fell outside the word count and could not
be credited. Others concluded their answer in about 100 words and either presented a short answer, which restricted
access to the full number of language marks, or resorted to verbiage to pad out the story to the required 130-140 words,
thus impairing the general impression.
The better candidates composed each sentence carefully and paid particular attention to verb forms. Correct spelling
and genders are necessary to gain language marks, and a faulty noun may invalidate verbs, adjectives or prepositions.
Verbs must be in the correct tense and person to qualify for marks. Better candidates did not put too much reliance on
certain phrases or possessives. They employed a variety of structures which enhanced their work. Examples of good
practice were the use of object pronouns, negatives and a range of infinitive constructions. Those of a more modest
capacity should try to stay within their limitations and not to be over ambitious. In free or guided composition it is a wise
maxim to say what one knows to be correct and to avoid what one does not know or is unsure of. For instance, if one
cannot remember courir, one should say marcher vite. When they have finished an answer, candidates should make full
use of the time left to check their work for basic errors. They should look at the spelling and gender of common nouns in
particular, and ensure that the gender of the writer is consistent. Accents should be clear and unambiguous.
Presentation is very important. Examiners are not able to reward French they cannot read. In some cases, the handwriting
was so difficult to read that the message was obscured.
Question 1(a) A birthday present
This question was the more popular option as candidates took the opportunity to write on a familiar topic, a letter to a
friend about a birthday. Understanding of the tasks was generally good and there was scant incidence of irrelevance.
Most had little difficulty in reaching the recommended length of 140 words – in fact some wrote significantly more and
forfeited a communication mark if a task fell outside the word count.

Nearly all were familiar with the format of an informal letter. They began with Cher/Chère and a name and closed
with Amicalement or À bientôt or something similar. A brief enquiry as to the friend’s well-being was acceptable but
this should not take up too much of the letter. As the recipient was a friend it was normal to address him/her as tu but
Examiners rewarded the use of the formal vous provided that it was employed consistently.
The first two communication points concerned an extraordinary present from the writer’s family. Communication marks
were obtained for identifying or describing the gift and for giving an opinion of it. Two separate statements were required
and most candidates were able to supply them as in: J’ai reçu un vélo de ma famille/mes parents or Mes parents m’ont
donné/offert un vélo followed by Je pense qu’il est magnifique. A number put Mes parents ont donné moi un vélo: this
linguistic error was deemed not to impair communication. A minority thought that cadeau meant parcel, but most made
it clear what the present was and said what they thought of it. Many lucky candidates received a car, which enabled
them to write about the advantages of being able to travel without their parents and to impress their friends when they
arrived at school in their own personal vehicle. Some imagined they received a Ferrari while the less fortunate had to
be content with a Mini Cooper! Other ‘dream presents’ included new computers, sophisticated phones and pet dogs.
Several received extravagant holidays or even a house. Large sums of money were also welcome.
The third task, how the candidate celebrated his/her birthday, was usually well understood and most attempted answers
in past tenses as was required by the rubric. Many began: Pour célébrer mon anniversaire je suis allé(e)… or nous
sommes allés… with a suitable destination and a favourite activity. Touchingly, some of those who had received a
sports car enjoyed their birthday playing games with friends and eating sweets and cake, so perhaps they were not as
grown up as they implied. Many described a boum or a teenage party. Others invited all the family and many friends
to the house. They danced and sang, played video games and football. Mother baked a cake and everyone sang Bon
anniversaire. Some even managed to say J’ai soufflé mes bougies. Others celebrated by dining at a restaurant with
family or friends. The ‘dream menu’ often consisted of a pizza and a coke. Others enjoyed a variety of treats. These
included visits to the cinema or a parc d’attractions, shopping outings and trips to sporting events or discos. Candidates
found plenty to say.
The final task was to say how they would spend their birthday next year. Clearly a future context was necessary and
many candidates achieved this by saying: Je voudrais… with an infinitive. This was the natural and the easiest way to
respond to ce que vous voudriez faire but credit was also given for the simple future as in: J’irai au bord de la mer avec
mes amis. The choice of activity often reflected the pleasures enjoyed at yesterday’s celebration but some were more
ambitious and imagined a more exciting event.
A further mark for communication was awarded for extra detail on either task (iii) or task (iv).
Question 1(b) A proposed holiday at a flat in the mountains
Although less popular than the birthday question, this topic inspired some very good answers. Most candidates
understood the requirements of the exercise, namely to reply to an invitation to spend holidays at a shared flat with
friends. Again, the letter format was generally well handled, but the same difficulties over tu/vous occurred as in 1(a).
The first task consisted of two elements, the first being to accept the invitation. A mark was awarded for the straightforward
statement J’accepte ton invitation (avec plaisir) or for the expression of a wish or an availability to undertake the trip as
in Je peux/Je veux bien passer des vacances avec toi dans un appartement. Alternatively, candidates could obtain the
mark for stating suitable dates, using an appropriate verb. This could be expressed by Je suis/serai libre or Je peux
venir/passer les vacances… and a specified period of time such as entre le 10 et le 25 mai, du 10 au 25 mai or pour 15
jours à partir du 10 mai. Some over complicated their explanation of the dates and the message was confused.
The advantages of a flat were not always obvious. The better answers made reference to economy (C’est moins cher
qu’un hôtel) and to convenience (C’est pratique/Ce n’est pas trop grand). Others referred to comfort as in: Il ne fait pas
froid comme dans une tente. Some wrote of the freedom a shared flat would offer: On pourra sortir et rentrer quand on
veut/Les parents ne seront pas là. Sharing costs was occasionally mentioned but not usually well expressed. Examiners
were tolerant when candidates wrote about the advantages of a specific flat and said how it was close to the beach or
the town centre.
Most candidates recognized the need to use past tenses to write about a previous holiday. They often began with Nous
sommes allés/Je suis allé(e) à… with a destination and went on to relate activities in perfect tenses (Nous avons fait de
la natation/On a fait du ski etc). Language marks were obtained for regular or common verbs, but reflexives and être
verbs were not always well handled. Expressions such as Nous nous sommes bien amusés were seldom free of error.
Plans for the coming holiday were generally well expressed, as most candidates took the cue from the rubric and put
Je voudrais… with an infinitive such as faire des randonnées à pied, aller à la pêche and visiter des musées. A minority
were confused by the tense variation between tasks (iii) and (iv).

An additional communication mark was awarded for extra detail on one of the above tasks.
Question 2 Helping an elderly neighbour who has fallen ill
The demands of the main task (how I helped an ill person) were almost universally understood. Past tenses were
necessary to obtain the three communication marks for saying how the narrator helped and what happened and two
marks were given for the narrator’s reactions.
Some candidates did not recognise the word voisine. Others overlooked âgée and wrote about a school mate. Examiners
were tolerant of such misunderstandings or omissions as long as the basic task, to care for another person, was
engaged with. Examiners were also tolerant when candidates were confused by tomber malade and wrongly deduced
that the neighbour had a fall. A small minority overlooked the gender of the victim and wrote about a man. Provided the
gender remained consistent, no loss of marks resulted.
Some began by copying the rubric Le week-end etc verbatim. No credit was given for this and this introduction was not
included in the word count. Most began their answers correctly at the moment of the phone call as directed by the rubric.
It is important to make it clear to candidates that their narrative should start at the point indicated by the question and
that communication marks are not available for events leading up to that point.
The more able began with reported speech as in Elle a dit qu’elle était tombée malade or Elle a dit qu’elle était malade.
Some used direct speech as in Elle a dit ‘je suis malade’. Candidates met with difficulties when they attempted to
describe symptoms. Many had trouble saying Elle avait mal à la gorge and some used être with avoir soif/faim and
avoir chaud/froid. Elle était fatiguée was often rendered as Elle avait fatigué or fatigant. More able candidates produced
appropriate lexical items such as douleur and avoir de la fièvre. Those who thought the neighbour had had an accident
often attempted Elle s’était cassé le bras but few were successful. If in doubt, it is best to abide by the maxim ‘use only
the French you know’.
How the narrator helped was generally handled well. Some phoned their parents or the doctor, although only a minority
used téléphoner à correctly. Others sent for an ambulance. The doctor came and gave the neighbour some tablets.
Instead of Il lui a donné des comprimés, some put Il s’a donné des comprimés. Those who assumed it was an emergency
said how the neighbour was taken to hospital. Many mistakenly used prendre for emmener or transporter. Candidates
were on safer ground when they kept to minor ailments and concentrated on how they helped with household tasks. An
impressive number could say J’ai fait la cuisine/le repassage/la lessive/la vaisselle/le jardinage. Others kept to simple
tasks such as making tea, preparing sandwiches, visiting regularly and generally being a good neighbour. They watched
television with the sick person. They played games. They read books and went on walks. They did the shopping and
fetched medicine from the pharmacy. There was some confusion over médecine, médicaments and médecin. The
neighbour was happy to have the company and usually made a good recovery, although this proved to be difficult
to express. Only the best knew Elle allait bien or Elle allait mieux. The good Samaritan was relieved or joyful, which
enabled the candidate to score a communication mark for a réaction. In a small number of cases the elderly neighbour
died, which made the narrator sad. When she recovered it filled the narrator with pride. Some very thoughtful work was
produced as candidates told a ‘real life’ story with a degree of sympathy and even occasional humour.
Reactions were usually well expressed and candidates were usually aware of the need to supply at least two reactions
to maximise their marks for communication. However, some omitted them altogether, in spite of the rubric and forfeited
the chance to gain two marks. Others left their reactions until the very end and sometimes these could not score as they
fell outside the word count of 140 words. Marks for reactions may be secured at any point in the narrative.
The best scripts displayed an impressive range of vocabulary and structures which did them great credit. On the
other hand, some candidates let themselves down with basic errors which might have been avoided with more care
and attention to detail. Typical examples were the failure to make adjectives and past participles agree, spelling and
gender errors with common nouns, wrong verb forms and failure to make elision in parce que il… Everyday words were
confused as when joli was used for heureux, pleuvoir for pleurer, écouter for entendre, regarder for voir and even devoir
for dire. Acute accents on past participles were frequently omitted and negatives misplaced as in Elle était ne contente
pas. These errors and others could have been corrected if a thorough check at the end had taken place.

GEOGRAPHY
4332
Paper 1
General comments
Standard of learners’ work compared to that of previous years: Slight decrease.
Learners do not know basic concepts,: e.g. global warming, greenhouse effect, etc.
Question 2 (a)(ii) Most of the learners could not answer the question. In (c)(ii) they could not explain why factors
influence temperature.
General Impressions: Fewer rubric errors were made this year.
Misinterpretations regarding instructions: Question 2 (b)(i): Most learners could not score three marks because they
described the strength of the earthquake.
Quesitons 2 (b)(iv): Most learners did not use comparative terms, therefore could not score full marks.
Question 4 (b): Learners did not know the meaning of the word “sustainable”; most learners gave negative and positive
impacts of tourism on Namibia.
Learners still do not give examples when required, as well as neglect to read the whole question before they commit to
an answer. They therefore could not attain marks as their answer had no reference to the required answers.
LEARNERS COULD READ GRAPHS BETTER THAN PREVIOUS YEARS
1 (a) (i) Well answered. Learners could even give examples of materials.
Answer
Material that is disturbed by the river and is, in time, transported downstream [1]
(ii) Well answered. Learners followed the instructions.
Answer
A Suspension/solution
B Saltation
C Traction [3]
(iii) Fairly answered. A: Learners could mention erosion processes, but they could not name the changes
taking place from the source to the mouth. B: Confused erosion with deposition.
Answer
A Traction/saltation/suspension/solution (reserve 1)
B More load will be carried when flow is faster/less load when flow is slower
Heavier /larger boulders (can be moved)
Erosion takes place
Load will become smaller
Load becomes smoother/rounder
Hydraulic action
Abrasion/corrosion } 2 max (can stand alone)
Attrition
Corrosion/solution [5]

(iv) Fairly answered. Learners had the knowledge but could not score marks because they did not use
comparative terms.
Answer
speed of flow/velocity reduces
friction increases
load carried is too heavy for river/ the load is increased
river enters still water/lake/ocean
reduced volume of water/reduced discharge
shallower water/wider valley/larger wetted perimeter
reduced gradient/gentler slope
river overflows its banks/flooding [5]
(b) Fairly answered. Most learners could score three of the five marks.
Answer
Waterfalls form where the river bed has a layer of harder rock overlying the softer rocks
As water falls the softer rock is eroded much more quickly than the harder rock
Therefore undercutting the harder rock
This steepening effect also accelerates erosion as the influence of gravity on the water increases
the water’s speed
The hard, overhanging rock eventually collapses
The collapsed rocks fall into the plunge pool, causing more erosion of the soft rocks and deepens
the plunge pool
This goes on continuously, causing the waterfall to retreat upstream
The waterfall leaves a steep-sided gorge as it retreats [5]
More resistant and less resistant layers
Cracks/openings in the rock layer
Erosion takes place/enlarges the crack
Hydraulic action/abrasion/corrosion
Continuous erosion leads to vertical/downward erosion until waterfall is formed
As water reaches brink/edge of overlying water – increase in velocity
Plunge pool forms
Plunge pool is enlarged as water swirls/eddies/abrading
(c) Well answered. Learners could not give examples of deltas. Even though they got marks, they did not follow
the correct sequence of occurrence.
Answer
Nile River/Ganges/Brahmaputra/Niger River/Rhine/Ebro/Volga/Indus/the Mississippi,
(Reserve 1)
River flows into ocean/lake/slower moving water
Deposition of sediment by river
as speed of flow slows down/lower velocity/less energy
river cannot carry load
especially if river is heavily laden with silt/shallower channel/built up of sediment (silt)
absence of major tidal flows/currents/ocean cannot remove deposited material fast enough
continuous deposition/blocks river from entering ocean
distributaries form (as the river splits) [6]
[25]
2 (a) (i) Well answered. Learners knew the definitions and the difference between erosion and physical weathering
but because they did not use the word “movement” they could not score marks. Could not differentiate
between in situ/movement.
Answer
Physical weathering does not involve chemical change in situ/involves rocks breaking down into
smaller particles/disintegration in situ.
Erosion is the breaking down into smaller particles by movement, e.g. rivers, ocean, wind [2]

(ii) Lowest scored question: Learners did not know the different types of weathering, they did not use
“increasing”; did not distinguish between tropical and temperate; and did not use comparative terms.
Answer
Large amounts (high rainfall) of rainfall increase chemical weathering
Large amounts of vegetation increase biological weathering
They are nearer to the equator, so there are high temperatures and faster rates of chemical reaction
Some areas – (high areas – frost shattering increases/desert areas – freeze – thaw) increase, have
higher diurnal temperature ranges.
More decaying plants (humic acid formed/chelation) – increases chemical weathering due to decaying
plants, increasing chemical weathering
More carbon dioxide (solution) due to decaying plants, increasing chemical weathering [3]
(b) (i) Most of the learners could score one mark for yes / no. But they could not score any other marks,
because they mentioned “strength of earthquake” instead of “number of strong earthquakes”.
Answer
accept any two supporting statements for either no or yes, e.g.
no relationship because
1970 – 1979/years without (very) strong earthquakes had 5000 deaths
1960 – 1969/one (very) strong earthquake had only 70 deaths
2000 – 2004/4 strong earthquakes had as many as 228 120 deaths/the highest number of deaths
2004 – 2009/9 strong earthquakes only resulted in 12 100 deaths
also accept yes because e.g.
there were no deaths when there were no (very) strong earthquakes
there were many deaths / 228 120 when there were 4 (very) strong earthquakes [3]
Could not interpret data correctly from source.
(ii) Well answered. Learners knew the different types of a plate boundaries.
Answer
plates are moving together / colliding/converge (not meet – indicate movement)
Indo-Australian against Eurasian / Philippine/Continental and Oceanic plates
subduction / oceanic plate beneath continental plate
movement is not constant
causes friction
stress / pressure builds up/pressure increases
until rocks fracture / break / fault / pressure is released
pressure is released [3]
(iii) Fairly answered. They focused more on general problems and not on the problems of rescue services.
They could mention some, e.g. communication lines / water pipes disrupted, but could not score full
marks.
Answer
transport disrupted / roads / railways/ports/airports damaged / blocked/traffic jams/
bridges destroyed
telephone lines down / difficult to communicate
fires
water pipes fractured / difficult to find water to put fires out
need to / difficult to get heavy lifting equipment
shortage of fuel [4]

(iv) Poorly answered. Learners had knowledge but could not score full marks because they did not make
definite comparisons. If comparisons were made, it was vague and not worthy of any marks, e.g. “One
country was educated and the other not”.
Answer
Better prepared/monitoring/warning/evacuation (Before earthquake happens)
Earthquake drills
Better fire fighting services/better rescue services
Better medical supplies/better medical facilities (e.g. hospitals)
Infrastructure is better, e.g. roads / bridges
Better earthquake-resistant buildings
Temporary houses / food / shelter
More capital available
Better equipment (after the earthquake happened) [4]
(c) (i) Poorly answered. Learners did not know the differences between latitude and altitude. They also
answered about local Geography which was not part of the question.
Answer
Latitude
How?
Places in the tropics/near equator are much warmer than places furthest away, near the poles/the
further you go from the equator, the cooler it gets (reserve 1)
(ii) Poorly answered. Learners did not know the content of the topic.
Answer
Why?
Nearer to equator Nearer to poles

Rays are perpendicular to earth Rays are at an oblique angle
Heat is concentrated/smaller area Heat is spread out/larger area
Smaller thickness of atmosphere Greater thickness of atmosphere
Less scattering, absorption, reflection More scattering, absorption, reflection
(iii) Elevation/altitude/height (Reserve 1)

How?
Temperature decreases with increase in altitude
Why?
B Temperatures decreases by 1 degree Celsius for every 100 metres increase in altitude
With increase in altitude – moving away from surface of earth, away from source of heat
Some places near Equator, e.g. the Andes in Ecuador, can be covered in snow all year [6]
[25]
3 (a) (i) Fairly answered. Learners did not refer to specific technologies in their answers and could only give
information about the sonar and the drift nets.
Answer
Satellites provide boats with weather data
Drift nets catch many unwanted fish
Specialised radar finds fish (feeding) near surface
Sonar locates( shoals and identifies size and species) [3]

(ii) Well answered. Learners could give strategies for sustainable harvesting.
Answer
Controlling net (mesh) types/sizes
Setting quotas/Total Allowable Catch/TAC
Making / upholding conservation laws
Territorial controls (both national and international)/EEZ/international waters
Regulate minimum size of fish to be caught
Fishing seasons/closed season or areas/breeding seasons
Licences/permits
Conservation / resource management policy
sea patrols / air patrols / shore patrols / fisheries inspectors
On-land monitoring [5]
(iii) Poorly answered. Most learners only gave information on net size, quotas and licences. Many did not
understand what the question required as answers.
Answer
Economic reasons/need to make a living/earn income from sales
Export to make a profit/profit motive
Capital tied up in boats/equipment
Tradition / culture ‒ continuation of long-established activities
Making and sticking to international agreements
Cheating on net sizes/quotas/permits (net sizes must be smaller)
Control not strictly enforced
Corruption [2]
(iv) Well answered. Could correctly give description and example.
Answer
1 Fish living near bottom of ocean/seabed/feeds on bottom-living organisms
2 Trawl nets [2]
(v) Poorly answered. Most learners only listed factors and did not describe the factors.
Answer
good road links to markets
adjacent port/harbour to market
government grants due
large areas of flat land adjacent to waterside/away from residential areas
large unemployed workforce in urban area which has high unemployment rate/unskilled and semi-
skilled labour
water supply (to use in processing)
energy supply to use in processing from Nampower
capital or money to buy machinery / pay workers / set up of infrastructure (e.g. buildings)
raw material from ocean/fish as raw material – (from ocean)
components ‒ machinery for vessels are imported / fuel is expensive
markets include Europe/Far East/Southern Africa/export markets [5]
(b) (i) Poorly answered. Learners could not give the ways to improve water quality.
Answer
Control pollution/decrease pollution
Improve sanitation
Efficient distribution of water
Desalination [2]

(ii) Poorly answered. Most learners could only score two marks on how to save water domestically (in the
house).
Answer
Irrigation Projects/ use irrigation systems to redistribute water/more efficient forms of irrigation like drip
irrigation can also be used.
Reduced Leakage - Domestic
Dam Construction
Water Metering: Charging people per unit of water used
Construction of Wells/accessing groundwater supplies/boreholes
International Cooperation/Share water/import water
(Sewage Treatment of water) recycle
Virtual Water:
Specialise in producing products that need less water to produce, while countries with an excess of
water should produce products that need a lot of water to produce. The products could then be traded
between each other, so instead of water being traded, products with large amounts of water used in their
production are traded. This is virtual water.
Desalination
Conservation and education: Residents and water users can be educated about half-flush toilets/
showering instead of bathing/watering the garden after sunset/recycling grey water (shower water, etc.)
to use in the garden (maximum 2) [6]
[25]
4 (a) (i) Well answered. Learners could read the graphs.
Answer
1 – Oil
2 – Hydro-electricity [2]
(ii) Fairly answered. Most learners could score one of the three marks. Learners compared energy resources
rather than changes that took place.
Answer
(Overall) increasing trend from 6500 to 8900 million tonnes
Slight decrease from 1980 to 1982
Increase 1983 to 2000
Exceptions stable 1990 to 1993
Stable 1996 to 1999 [3]
(iii) Poorly answered. Most learners could not give advantages of HEP specifically, but rather gave alternative
energy sources. Many learners also focused their answers on the negative influence of fossil fuels
without mentioning HEP.
Answer
It is finite/renewable source of energy
It is a clean form of energy/produces no or small amounts of greenhouse gases/no or small amounts
of pollution
Hydro-electricity retards global warming
The built dam can also prevent flooding
The reservoir behind the dam can be a store of water
The water can be used for water supply/domestic use
The water can be used for irrigation/agricultural production
Storing water protects water tables against depletion
Storing water reduces vulnerability to droughts
Hydro-electricity does not generate toxic by-products
Encourages tourism/recreation [5]

(iv) Fairly answered. Most learners knew only Ruacana, but they mentioned waterfall, did not refer to HEP-
schemes.
Answer
Katse Dam/Lesotho Highlands Water Project/Kapichira
Hydro-electric Power Station/Nkhula B Hydro-electric Power Station/
Cahora Bassa Dam/Massingir Dam/Kafue Gorge Dam/Kariba Dam/
Victoria Falls power station/Zengamina/Hale Dam/Kidatu Dam/Kihansi Dam/
Mtera Dam/Nyumba ya Mungu Dam/Pangani Falls Dam/Imboulou Dam/
Vanderkloof Dam/Gariep Dam/Drakensberg Scheme/Driekloof Dam/Kouga Dam/
Palmiet scheme/Steenbras Dam/Sterkfontein Dam/Woodstock Dam/Ruacana [1]
(v) Poorly answered. Learners also mentioned economic and human factors and not only physical factors
as required by the question.
Answer
A narrow valley
Deep valley
Strong, stable impermeable bedrock/impervious bedrock
Constant water supply/Heavy/reliable rainfall
Well-distributed rainfall throughout year
Fast-flowing water
Large drainage basin/large catchment area
Seismically stable/no risk of earthquakes/stable crust [5]
(iv) Poorly answered. Learners could only mention greenhouse gases; learners’ answers reflected on ozone
depletion and acid rain rather than on greenhouse effect.
Answer
Ideas such as:
Release of carbon dioxide which is a greenhouse gas/which accumulates in atmosphere
Sun’s rays penetrate layer of gases
Bounce off earth’s surface (from sun’s energy)
Cannot escape through blanket of gases/Heat is trapped
Temperature (atmosphere) increases [4]
(b) Poorly answered. Learners did not mention the sustainability of tourism, they rather gave ways of how to
develop tourism industries. They overlooked sustainable development and focused on the growth of tourism
in the country.
Answer
Ideas such as:
Restricting tourist numbers in areas
Dealing with a limited number of tourist firms
Ensuring wildlife is conserved
Ensuring vegetation/habitat is not cleared for tourist development
Encouragement of ecotourism
Setting up National Parks/conservation areas/conservancies
Education of tourists regarding environmental issues
Employing people to clear up regularly in sensitive areas
Restricting access to sensitive areas
Banning tourists from hunting activities/permits and quotas for trophy hunters
Using local labour
Using local produce [5]
[25]

5 (a) Poorly answered. Most learners just lifted the statements from the flow diagram.
Answer
(Poverty will arise from unemployment / lack of economic growth in the flow graph)
Migration of poor people from rural areas leads to cities full of poor people
If they do not have work they cannot afford housing so they have to look after themselves
City authorities do not have the money to build houses that the poor can afford. [2]
(b) (i) Fairly answered. Learners made use of descriptions from previous years’ question papers to diagrams
given instead of relating the data given in the specific photograph. They therefore used terminology such
as “overcrowded”; “nucleated”; “clustered”, which were not applicable to this photograph.
Answer
Tin sheet roofs/corrugated iron/flat roof
Sides/fronts of wood/planks
But also mixed materials like cardboard/cloth/iron/plastic/mixed material
Cloth cover extends on to street
Small windows/windows without glass
Houses closely/densely packed together/limited open space
In a line (at the front but) less organised elsewhere
Not planned
No streets
No services/electricity/water [5]
(ii) Poorly answered. Most answers were based on how they will improve the informal settlement as a
physical entity, instead of how their own lives / own families / socio-economic standards will change.
Answer
Ideas such as:
Can get a job /start a business
So they can earn more money/so they can afford to educate children/feed family / To get out of poverty/
break cycle of poverty (more money to …)
Better able to care for their families/be aware of better nutrition/health care
Improve skills/qualifications
Country will become wealthier/contribute to GDP/higher GDP
Reduce spread of HIV/AIDS
Snowball effect – more likely to educate their own children
Population growth rates/birth rates are lower when women are educated/as they are more likely to
practise family planning
Women will have gender equality/there will be less discrimination
Women will have the option to contribute to political affairs/decision making
Later marriages
Emancipation of women [5]
(c) Well answered. The learners gave reasons for high birth rates in LEDCs.
Answer
Tradition/cultural pressure
Religious pressure
Insufficient education on family planning
Insufficient birth control/insufficient provision/use of contraceptives, etc.
Early marriages
Need children to work on farms/fields
Children look after parents in old age
High infant mortality rate [3]

(d) Best answered. Most learners could mention almost all the necessary ways to reduce HIV/AIDS infection.
Answer
Ideas such as:
Theatre groups/road shows to educate on the dangers of unprotected sex
Poster campaigns/TV advertisements/awareness campaigns
Issuing of condoms/use condoms
Free syringe exchange for drug addicts/use clean needles/new needles
Careful screening of blood transfusions/avoid contact with blood
Limit number of migrant workers/legislation/limit number of immigrants
Better health treatment to reduce early deaths from diseases to which AIDS victims are less resistant
Cut price of drugs being developed to slow the growth of the AIDS virus/invent a cure/drug/ARVs
Education about dangers/safe sex/signs to look for (HIV/AIDS)/education at schools
Regular health checks/screening/testing
New Start Centres – counselling, etc. [5]
(e) Fairly answered. Most of the learners could not score marks because they did not use comparative terminology,
e.g. higher / most / more. Failed to mention how the natural environment can be negatively affected.
Answer
Ideas such as:
People do not have enough resources/fewer examples of resources
Limited work opportunities
Inadequate food supplies/no balanced diets
Poor access to education
Poor access to health care
Overcrowded housing/crowded housing/need for houses
Traffic congestion
Atmospheric pollution/water pollution/pollution
Shortage/Inadequate water supply
Inadequate sanitation
Overuse of agricultural land/overgrazing/overcultivation
Deforestation (clearance of natural vegetation – not just clear land)
Loss of natural vegetation/habitats destroyed/desertification [5]
[25]
6 (a) (i) Well answered. Many could identify P correctly.
Answer
P/D [1]
(ii) Fairly well answered. Some learners could not identify land use zone as CBD. Some did not use the
correct key from the map in their answers.
Answer
CBD (reserve 1 mark)
The market/Shopping area, theatre, etc
Department stores
Pedestrian lanes/pedestrian precinct
4000 isoline
Roundabout/many roads converge (meet) in that area [3]

(iii) Fairly answered. They could give answers such as pollution types / traffic congestion, etc.
Answer
Traffic congestion
Insufficient parking
High pedestrian density/overcrowding
Narrow streets
Insufficient open spaces
Depopulation at night may lead to increased crime
Decaying buildings
Air pollution
Noise pollution [6]
(b) (i) Fairly answered. Scored only one mark if they compared three different modes of transport. Could
not make the comparison between the 3 types of transport effectively. Many learners lifted (copied)
information as it occurred in the text.
Answer
Ideas such as:
Timing of rush hour journeys into city centre (using car/bus/cycle)
Cyclists take less time to complete journey (than buses)
Especially from north, east and west/exception of south
Buses are particularly slow/take twice as long as cycles
High percentage of commuters travel by car [3]
(ii) Poorly answered. Learners answered on the effect of traffic congestion on people, rather than why it is
a problem.
Answer
Large numbers of people own cars
Not prepared to use public transport to work
Lack of investment in public transport in many cities
Road network/infrastructure not designed for the present volume of traffic
Narrow roads in city centres
Presence of many traffic signals/intersections, etc.
Much freight still using roads/delivery to businesses in urban areas,
Physical separation between place of work and place of residence leads to commuting
Intensive land use
Concentration of tall buildings
Routes focus/roads meet/roads converge [5]
(iii) Poorly answered. Learners could only give answers on “public transport, extension of roads”, etc.
Learners did not give an example of an urban area. They referred to general ideas and therefore could
not score more than half of the total marks.
Answer
Any relevant named example (reserve 1)
Build bypasses to improve traffic flow
One-way streets
Widen roads/multi-lanes
Synchronised traffic lights
Increase charges for parking
Toll roads /road pricing /charging car drivers when they enter the city centre
Closing off streets to private traffic
Encourage use of electronic mail / Online shopping
Discourage motorists from bringing cars into town centres
Encourage public transport
Improve traffic management, e.g. traffic circles
Pedestrianised streets (e.g. Renfield Street in Glasgow)
Park and Ride (you park your car on the edge of the built-up area and then take a bus or train into the
CBD)
Multi-storey car parks

Banning cars from the CBD, centre of Milan (Italy) on Sundays
Greater priority for buses to reduce journey time, e.g. [Bus Lanes],
Traffic reporting radio/GPS
Decentralise shopping areas/decentralise services [7]
[25]
Learners were better prepared for the examinations in terms of content, however, although they knew some of the
content, they neglected to ̶
• use comparative terms
• choose questions they could obtain the highest scores in
• comply wiyh the command words, e.g. describe, explain, etc.
• read questions in full before they answered them.
Prepare the learners by focussing more on case studies.
Make better use of examiner’s reports – the same mistakes are repeated every year.
NB: Language use and spelling deteriorates every year – only allow the use of English in class to limit these problems.
Teachers are advised to follow these guidelines in order to guide the learners away from the abovementioned
practices so that they can achieve the marks/scores they are capable of.

4332
Paper 2
General comments
The paper as a whole was found very challenging by the learners, especially the last six questions following the question
on map work skills. This was evident from the significant decrease in the number of marks above 45 and not a single
candidate being able to score more than 50 marks, similar to previous years. However, it must be mentioned that the
map work question was, in contrast with other years, quite well answered and most of the candidates could score at
least 10/11 of the available 20 marks. This is evidence of the hard work that teachers and candidates alike have put in.
It is also clear that teachers must have acted upon the tips and advice given in previous reports and this has benefited
the candidates. But, sadly, the second part of the question paper was not handled equally well by all the candidates.
Again a reminder must be sent to new teachers as well as the experienced teachers to take note that experience brings
improvement and they are urged to continue to study previous examiner’s reports in order to obtain valuable advice
which should be invested in candidates as that will help candidates to continue to improve their Geography results.
1 (a) (i) This question was poorly answered. Teachers must not assume their learners know compass directions
but make sure by teaching them this skill.
The correct answer: West/west-north-west (WNW) [1]
(ii) This question was not well answered. Many candidates used the wrong calculation but still produced the
correct answer which was very strange. The correct answer:
Distance on map = 7.6 cm (Accepted distances 7.4 cm to 7.8 cm)

Distance on map = 7,6 cm (7,4 cm – 7.8 cm)
Scale of map = 1:50 000
1
7,6 x = 3,8 km or 7,6 ÷ 1 x 50 000 ÷ 100 000 = or 7.6 x 500 m = 3800 m.
2
= 3800 metres. (Accept 3700 m to 3900 m) [3]
(b) Not well answered. Most candidates did not know road patterns. This could mean that settlement geography
did not receive proper attention and this disadvantaged the candidates.
Answer
Newcastle has a grid/ block/square pattern. [2]
Fern Wood has a crescent/irregular/rectangular pattern
(c) (i) Very well answered. Acceptable responses were the following:
Mining/mine dump/stoneworks/diggings
Buildings
Built-up area (low density)
Cultivation (do not accept orchard and vineyard)
Power line
Golf course (do not accept golf alone)
Recreational grounds/ recreational facilities
Perennial water/perennial river/dam/reservoir
Irrigation/furrows
Rows of trees/shelter belts
Woodlands
Sewage works
Railway [5]

(ii) This was a very well-answered question. However, some candidates’ answers included cellphone and
type of vehicles. Teachers must take note that communication in this case referred to links between
places and not general communication.
Answer
Railways.
Tracks/hiking trails
Secondary roads/main road
Landing strip [3]
(d) Well answered.
Answer
Mining (open cast) [1]
(e) A fairly well-answered question. It must be said that many candidates could not find evidence on the map of
fossil fuel mining.
Answer
Natal Coal Exploration
Kilbarchan Coal Mine [1]
(f) This was another well-answered question. Still a large number of learners just wrote all the descriptors in the
key. Again teachers are advised to teach their learners to refrain from this practice as it only disadvantages
them.
Acceptable ideas were the following:
Religion
School
Store
Post office
Station
Recreation ground
Police station
Grave (yard) [4]
Total = [20]
2 Learners still found this question challenging, although it is a topic being covered from Grade 8 onwards.
(a) (i) Not well answered.
Answer
Maximum and Minimum Thermometer/Six’s Thermometer [1]
(ii) Well answered. However, many of the candidates switched the names of the liquids. The correct answers
were as follows:
A – Mercury
B – Alcohol [1]
(iii) C – Metal Index/pin/pointer [1]
(b) This question was poorly answered. Candidates failed to take the correct reading from the instrument. This
is an indication of a skill not well taught. This can be improved by introducing real thermometers into the
classroom to improve this specific skill as it is also needed in other papers. The calculation was not done
properly. Some candidates worked out the average and not the range.
Correct answer
32°C – 7°C
= 32°C + –7 °C = 39°C [2]

(b) Not very well answered as many of the candidates described the general characteristics of the Stevenson
screen. Many of the candidates wrote about the damaging of the instrument instead of to avoid the direct rays
of the sun.
Answer
To avoid the direct rays of the sun on the instrument
To measure the shaded temperature
To prevent heat from the ground to influence the reading on the instrument
To measure (atmospheric) conditions [2]
Total = [7]
3 (a) This was not well answered, as a large number of the students gave 45% as the answer. This meant that
these candidates included the tertiary section in their answer to get to this wrong answer. More skill work must
be done concerning the reading and interpretation of this type of graph.
Answer
15% [1]
(b) Poorly answered as a large number of candidates explained the differences instead of calculating the difference
in percentage of people employed in primary industries between the two countries.
Answer
Country B – primary industry = 55%
Country A – primary industry = 10%
Difference: 55 – 10 = 45% [1]
(c) A fairly answered question. Many candidates could give the correct country but failed to give a reason.
Answer
Country A:
Reasons. It has the biggest percentage of people employed in the tertiary and secondary industries and the
lowest percentage in primary industry. [2]
Total = [4]
4 (a)(i)-(ii) Poorly answered as many candidates used the wrong key in shading and often shaded beyond the
required area which obviously disadvantaged them. Teachers are advised to spend time on interpolation
skills. [2]
(b) This was very poorly answered. Candidates really found this particular question very challenging. Many could
not interpret the source material. Most of the candidates could not apply the information of Fig. 3A to Fig. 3B.
The following were acceptable ideas.
The figure shows higher rainfall to the south-western part of the country and lower rainfall towards the north-
eastern part of the map.
The prevailing winds from the south-east between the months of May to October bring heavy rainfall to the
south-west.
The areas on the south-western side are also on the windward side of the highland and therefore receive
higher rainfall.
Winds from the north-east bring lighter rainfall to the north-eastern area.
This is also the wind shadow side of the highland therefore receives lighter rainfall.
Lower latitudes e.g. 6° receive high rainfall while the higher latitudes e.g. 8°N receive lighter rainfall. [3]

(c) Fairly answered. Many candidates just used previous factual knowledge of the equatorial climate rather than
information directly gained from the resource to answer the question. This proved to be a disadvantage for
them.
Acceptable ideas
Rainfall throughout the year.
Temperature high and constant throughout the year.
Annual rainfall above 2000 mm very high.
Total annual rainfall is 2371 mm.
Very small annual range of temperature.
6° to 8° north of the Equator still in Equatorial forest region. [3]
Total = [8]
5 (a) (i) A fairly answered question. A large number of candidates could only score a mark for contour ploughing,
although there were answers like contour method/ contour farming and contour lines. The candidates
had a general idea, but they needed to be specific.
Answer
W – contour ploughing. Horizontal ploughing was also accepted.
X – shelter belts/ blocking trees [2]
(ii) This was poorly answered, as many candidates could not explain how these methods help to reduce
erosion.
Answer
Contour ploughing slows down the rate of flow of water (speed) and therefore less top-soil is removed
and at the same time more water seeps into the soil.
Shelter belts – the trees break the force of the wind and protect the strip of land between the two
shelter belts from being blown (eroded) away. [2]
(b) Many of the candidates could identify the sprinkler system but not the furrow or flooding system.
Answer
Y – sprinkler irrigation
Z – furrow/ flood irrigation [2]
Total = [6]
6 (a) (i) Well answered. Most candidates could score at least one mark.
Answer
Semujuk is overall bigger in size than Lanchang.
Semujuk has more houses than Lanchang.
Semujuk has more unused land than Lanchang.
While,
Lanchang has bigger plantations of old rubber trees than Semujuk.
Lanchang also has a bigger rubber estate than Semujuk. [2]
(ii) A poorly answered question. Both services had to be named in the comparison to score the mark.
Answer
Semujuk has a school and a clinic, while Lanchang has a school and a prayer house. [1]

(b) This question was fairly well answered. The candidates could identify the change in settlement and land use,
but they still assigned it to the two villages, not noticing that it has become one settlement.
Answer
The two villages of Lanchang and Semujuk disappeared.
Semujuk village has become a town centre.
The rubber estates has increased in size.
Large plantation for replanted land/ most of the area is now used for oil palm and cocoa plantation.
Coconut plantation has increased.
More gravel road.
Services have increased/could be named individually. (only 1 mark)
Also new areas which are reserved for future town growth.
Also a forest reserve now.
Old rubber trees have disappeared.
Orchards have disappeared. [4]
Total = [7]
7 (a) Questions (i), (ii) and (iii) were well answered.
(i) The population pyramid was very well completed on the insert. This was skill exhibition.
Marks were awarded for 3 correct bars = 2 marks
2 correct bars = 1 mark
Less than 2 correct bars = 0 marks. [2]
(ii) Acceptable range of answer:

5.9%-6.1% – 6.3% (6.1% was established as the correct answer, but a tolerance level is always
allowed) [1]
(iii) Country A [1]
(iv) This question was about comparing two settlements. As it has so often happened in past examinations
with this type of question, it was again poorly answered. A particular problem occurs when a question is
set which requires a comparison to be written, as many lose marks by not doing so. Candidates should
be taught to use words ending in –er, or the word “whereas” or “while” in such answers in order to achieve
a comparison.
Acceptable comparison for this answer:
Country A has a broader/wider base than country B.
Country A has more/higher percentages in the 0-4 age group than Country B. [1]
(b) This was another poorly answered comparative question. The same advice as for the previous question must
be adhered to if we want candidates to score better marks in this type of question.
Answer
Country B has more old people than country A/Country A has less old people than B/
Country B has a bigger top than country A.
Country A has a broader base than country B/B has a thinner base than A.
Country A has more/higher percentages of young people than country B.
Country B has a more rectangular shape while country A has a more pyramid-like/triangular shape/tapers
rapidly upwards
Country B has more/higher percentages of working population (adults) than country A or Country A has
lower/fewer percentages of working population (adults) than country B. [3]
Total = [8]

4332
Paper 3
General comments
• The general impression gained from the marking session was that the performance of candidates was better than
that of 2012.
• Candidates seemed to perform better in Question 2, Population Geography, than in Question 1, Physical Geography.
• Fewer marks were allocated to the handling of data in graphic form in Question 2 than in Question 1. Candidates
failed to do well in handling information e.g. Question 1 (f)(ii).
• Some candidates committed rubric offences by using different shading in Question 2 (d)(i), from what was instructed
in the question paper.
• Candidates had difficulty describing patterns from data, e.g. Changes in depth, Question 1 (b)(ii), Describe the
pattern shown by the data, Question 2 (d)(ii).
• Candidates used poor language and vague terminology and phrases.
• Too much unnecessary information was given on one topic instead of answering the question.
• Candidates could have scored better marks had they been more careful to use their comparative skills appropriately,
e.g. “higher”, “better”, “increased” instead of “high”, “low”, etc.
• Judgement and decision-making questions proved to be too difficult for the majority of students.
• Students lacked basic general knowledge.
1 (a) Candidates who made drawings scored more marks than the ones that only described it. They repeated
information given in the question paper instead of describing the method.
Rope stretched across stream/Plant poles on each bank
Ropes marked at 1 m intervals/measured 1 m intervals and placed a pole at each location
Measuring stick placed into water vertically/touched the bed/depth measured at every pole/ at 1 m
intervals [3]
(b) (i) The majority of the learners scored one mark but lost the other mark for wrong plotting.
2 marks for correct plotting of 590, 490 and 0 with line joining all points.
2 correct –1 mark
2 Incorrect – 0 marks [2]
(ii) The change of the depth was not discussed; only facts such as: “A is deep and B is shallow”, were given.
General pattern
shallow at A and gradually becoming deeper (√)
depth increases (√) then decreases (√) from A to B;
Specific pattern or data (√)
Deepest area at 4 m/ steeper gradient before B/no uniform change/irregular change;
0 – 1 m gradual increase/ 1 – 2 m steep increase/ 2 – 3 m gradual increase/ 5 – 6 m steep increase/
6 – 8 m steep increase [2]
(c) (i) Well answered.

for a more reliable / more representative / more accurate / average result / more correct [1]
(ii) Most of the candidates repeated the question.

River channel in general higher in the centre and lower at the banks/ river channel in general deeper
at the centre and shallower at the banks/ in a straight stream.
Difference in the depth/speed between the banks and the centre [1]
(iii) 10 m divided by average time (sec)/ 10 m (e.g. distance) divided by average time (sec).

(iv) The majority of the candidates scored one mark for the correct height (horizontal lines), but lost the mark
for the vertical line.
Complete graph at 2.70 and 2.30 m/sec;
tolerance of 2 mm
1 2 marks for correct height of bars
2 1 mark for correct width with division at 5.5 [3]
(d) (i) The description was well answered, but the explanation was poorly answered.
Description: First 3 metres shallower with lower velocity (√)
central areas the deepest with the fastest flow (√) (res 1)
Explanation: E.g. friction of the river bed slows down the water/Deeper water can overcome the
frictional drag, so faster flow of water (√) (res 1) [4]
(ii) The majority of the learners scored at least one mark. The most common answer was “wind”.
object is restricted from free flow by water plants/rocks/branches/ materials/obstacles/ (NOT: load)
problems with equipment
student error in (timing)
effects of wind [2]
(e) Poorly answered

worked with depth but only surface water velocity measured
could use more sites
different river
other times of the (year)
more velocity measurements/repeat
use of flow meter
routes taken by floats are unpredictable
winds or vegetation [2]
(f) (i) Well answered

put flow meter on the bed of river/into river
must be held vertically
stand downstream or to the side of the flow meter
propeller must be facing upstream
propeller spins/moves turns/rotates
record digital readings/display shows velocity
take several readings and calculate average
NOT: take different measurements at different points in river. [2]
(ii) Candidates lost marks because they touched other lines or dots. They did not put the number (30/60) of
the velocity on top. Candidates must not be afraid to go through the numbers but must not touch the dots
of these numbers.
30 m/sec and 60 m/sec on cross-section (2 marks each)
Indication of lines: 30 √
60 √ [4]
(iii) Most of the candidates were able to do the correct shading of 50 m/sec and above [1]
(iv) It was poorly answered. Candidates did not use comparative statements from Figure 1
meander shows asymmetrical cross-section
depth/speed greater on outside of bend/meander/right bank
erosion on outside of bend/meander but deposition on inside of bend
flow meter was used
different friction/velocity due to different cross-section shape [3]
Max 2 if no comparison with Fig. 1

(g) (i) Learners got confused with the velocity of the surface water (Fig.1) and the velocity of the deeper
water. (Fig.3)
According to them the hypothesis was not correct, because the deeper the stream the more the velocity
(Fig.1)
Hypothesis correct/true
comments to support the decision, e.g. deeper water in centre has highest velocity/ depth has slower
speed; 2.70 m/sec compared to 2.10 m/sec.
the outer bend (deeper) higher velocity than inside bend (shallower)
inside bend shallower than centre, therefore lower velocity than centre
1 mark for hypothesis
Max 3 if no depth/velocity data given
Res 1 for data [4]
[34]
2 (a) Most of the candidates could not express themselves in their own words, but just repeated information from
the question paper. Candidates had to apply knowledge but showed a lack of it.
lower summer / day temperatures
warm winter / night temperatures
small temperature range
no excessive amounts of rainfall
on warmer days cool wind /breeze from ocean
low humidity
temperature during winter is higher
Lifting: cool summers / warm winters / small temperature changes / very little rainfall / precipitation
mainly in the form of fog. Max: 2 [3]
(b) The majority of the candidates gave the pull and push factors instead of reasons that attracted them to
Swakopmund.
ocean
dunes
Sightseeing activities: historical buildings museum/jetty/aquarium
Active night life/holiday experiences: disco / clubs / cinema / gambling
Miss Palm Beach / 4x4 vasbyt
Activities on dunes: quad bikes / dune boarding / paragliding / sundowner
Activities on / in ocean: fishing / angling / boat cruising / wind surfing / cray fish / wave surfing /
jet skiing / swimming / snorkelling [3]
If only physical activities mentioned: max 2
(c) (i) Fairly answered.

to find out if the person was a migrant [1]
(ii) Candidates gave more general advantages and disadvantages than to refer it to the parents.
Advantages: easily available/accessible to the students; reliable; (res. 1)
Disadvantages: selective/biased sample
limited range of answer
illiterate/dyslexic/can’t read/language/not educated
privacy issues/personal questions (res.1) [3]
(d) (i) Graph was well answered but candidates had difficulties with the title of the graph.
Appropriate title for graph ̶ should refer to 2 aspects of graph
e.g. number/length of residency/where born
correct black shading of those bars, e.g. use of key
correct plotting of 19; 33 and 11 (res 2) [5]

(ii) Many candidates referred to the ages of people instead of the number of years people lived in Swakopmund
Comments of description such as:
3 1
68%/about 2/23/ born locally and 32% 1/3/ migrated or most born locally (max 1)
4 4
local people had all been there 20 years and more
most common length was 40 – 49 years
most of the migrants had moved in during the last 20 years
no-one questioned migrated longer than 39 years ago
no migrant stays in Swakopmund longer than 50 years [3]
(iii) Candidates were confused with pull and the push factors.
Northern regions have a higher temperature range
warmer summers/hot
warm winters
larger temperature range
higher humidity
higher rainfall
flooding in some areas/droughts
mosquitoes/malaria/other diseases
job opportunities [3]
(e) (i) Well answered but data were omitted.

Hypothesis: Yes/correct
allow correct or incorrect if supported with data or information.
Reasons: From the 32 people migrated, 15/the majority, moved because of the climate [2]
(ii) Fairly answered

Improvements: ask more people
ask people other than parents
increase the questions asked
other groups/other schools
different places/locations [2]
[25]

• Encourage candidates to read and carry out the instructions carefully.
• The numbering of answers should correspond with the numbering in the question paper, otherwise they risk losing
marks.
• Teach skills like how to describe, explain and compare differences and similarities, patterns more adequately.
• While working out past examination questions is recommended as revision for an examination, teachers should not
rely on this practice alone. Teachers should redesign their teaching strategy to become more investigation-oriented.
• Fieldwork theory should be taught from the beginning of the Grade 11 year. It should be integrated into the other
themes of the syllabus like Geomorphology.
• The use of sms language should be avoided at all times.
• Teachers must teach the learners to follow the trend of the examiner when doing inserts.
• Teachers should find time to share the content of examiner’s reports with Grade 11 and 12 learners. Discuss
common mistakes and give examples of good answers.

HISTORY
4333
Paper 1
General comments
The standard of the question paper was fair. Topics that were covered were familiar except for Question 8 that was
based on Contemporary History linked to Nelson Mandela. But despite that most of the candidates did quite well.
The history markers are still very much concerned with the level on which most candidates answer their questions.
Most still tell stories of events instead of answering the question, e.g. giving explanations. Some others did not adhere
to the instructions, they answered all eight questions instead of only four, and some others answered two questions on
Namibian History and failed to answer any questions on South Africa, or vice versa.
The candidates still take it for granted that Namibian History is the same as that of South Africa, to the extent that they
confused the leaders and information of the two countries. At Grade 12 level it is expected that candidates should be
able to distinguish between the two countries, even though the history is linked.
An observation was made during this marking session that most teachers neglect to teach the history of Botswana and
Zambia on the pretext that it is not part of the syllabus. This is noted with great concern.
A friendly request to all the history teachers: let us teach learners how to answer questions by explanations, so that
they can move away from identifications in order for them to score better marks. With regard to the (a) question, let
us teach them to do away with listing and the use of the telegram style as opposed to paragraph writing. In this way
candidates lose marks.
The history markers also experienced some major problems with the part-time candidates. The History Paper 1, has
eight main questions, each with three sub-questions (a), (b) and (c). The candidate is expected to answer any four
questions each with its sub-questions. What the majority did was to choose sub-questions from the main questions, e.g.
Question 1 (a), 2 (b), 6 (c). By doing this, candidates performed very poorly and this had a negative influence on their
final marks. This practice should be discouraged by all means.
SECTION A
1 (a) This question was poorly answered. The majority of the candidates gave the aims of the “Big Three” instead
of those of Lloyd George. Others confused the aims of Lloyd George with the aims of Clemenceau, and then
you had the minority that gave the terms of the Treaty of Versailles for the aims of Lloyd George. Candidates
discussed what the British public wanted as opposed to the aims of Lloyd George, and because of this
candidates performed poorly in this question.
Answer
Lloyd George was determined to preserve Britain’s interest as the greatest naval power. His aims
were to end the German threat to the British navy and Empire. Lloyd George was determined to
prevent Germany from becoming so weak that a revival of European industry and trade was hindered.
He also wanted to prevent Germans from becoming so poor that they would turn to Communism.
Lloyd George wanted to help secure France against Germany but at the same time ensure France
did not become too powerful. He wanted to avoid humiliating Germans so they would not want
revenge. [1-5]
NB: Consider: Reparation, colonies and wanted to appease France and USA

(b) This question was very poorly answered. The majority of the candidates failed to explain why Woodrow
Wilson was dissatisfied with the Treaty. They diverted to the aims of the “Big Three”, the terms of the Treaty
of Versailles and also the Fourteen Points. Some others focused on how Germany was punished without
referring to the reasons why he was dissatisfied. Others again referred to Wilson’s aims rather than his
dissatisfaction. The majority of the candidates performed below average.
Answer
Level 1: General answer
It was unfair. [1]
Level 2: Identify reasons
E.g. He had hoped for his fourteen points. Germany was punished harshly.
Self-determination was not achieved. [2-4]
Level 3: Explain reasons
E.g. Wilson was dissatisfied with Treaty of Versailles because he had hoped for the peace
treaty to be based on his fourteen points and that it would not punish Germany too harshly.
He thought that if Germany was punished harshly she would want revenge and this would
make it harder to keep international peace. But Germany was very harshly punished and
he was unhappy about it.
He was also disappointed that self-determination was not achieved anywhere. He

wanted different nationalities to be able to govern themselves but the new countries like
Czechoslovakia and Yugoslavia had lots of different nationalities within their boundaries,
including Germans. This mean they did not have self-determination. [4-7]
NB: Storytelling/description: Max L2-3
(c) This question was partially answered. The majority of the candidates failed to explain or even to identify why
the Treaty was hated by the Germans. Most if not all the candidates failed to understand the terms “diktat” and
as a result were unable to explain or identify the other side. Some other candidates were only able to identify
the terms of the Treaty of Versailles.
Answer
Yes, the treaty was unfair. [1]
Level 2: Identify the “diktat” or others
The Treaty was imposed on them.
The Germans were not invited.
They were not part.
They were forced to sign the terms. [2-3]
Level 3: Identify the “diktat” and others
Level 2 + The reparation was too high.
The Germans lost territories.
They could not defend themselves. [4]
Level 4: Explain the “diktat” OR others
The Germans hated the Treaty of Versailles because it had caused pain and anger as the
“Peace Settlement” was imposed on them as a “diktat”. They had not been allowed to take
part in the talks, they had just been told to sign it or less, the war was to continue. [5-6]
Level 5: Explain the “diktat” and others
Level 4 +, The German army was their national pride before the war, and they could take
pride in defending their country and nation. But with the military restriction imposed on them
by the Treaty of Versailles they were left helpless or defend less against other countries. [7-8]
NB: All other terms allowed – Explained.

2 (a) This question was partially answered. The majority of the candidates failed to differentiate between the
structure of the League of Nations and the special agency. They confused the UN Charter, the aims of the
League of Nations, the Covenant of the League of Nations and the successes of the League of Nations as
opposed to the work of the ILO. Some other candidates took the work of the slavery commission for the ILO.
The majority did not know what the ILO does, they answered just in general.
Answer
The International Labour Organisation (ILO) was founded in 1919 together with the League of Nations. And it
is a specialized agency of the League of Nations.
The ILO is responsible to develop international standards and guidelines to help countries improve their
labour administration as well as the quality and reliability of their labour statistics, and to improve international
comparability of statistical data.
Each member nation sent two government ministers, one employer and one worker. [1-5]
It was to improve the working and living conditions of the workers.
It tried to persuade member countries to adopt its suggestions.
(b) This question was fairly answered. The majority of the candidates were able to identify why the USSR and
USA did not join the League of Nations. Some other candidates generalised why major countries did not join
the League, whereas some others wrote about the weaknesses of the League rather than the reasons for the
major countries not to be part of the League.
Answer
They did not want/They were not allowed. [1]
Level 2: Identify the reasons
E.g. The USA wanted to stay out of European affairs. Germany was not allowed to join the
League. The USSR became communist. [2-4]
Level 3: Explain the reasons
E.g. The USA. Many Americans wanted to stay out of European affairs. They thought
Europe would involve them in wars and Americans would be killed. They also thought that
America would end up paying for much of the work of the League. So America never joined
the League.
Germany was not allowed to join the League. Many countries still did not trust Germany
and would only be allowed in once it had proved itself to be a responsible, democratic and
peaceful country.
The USSR Russia became communist in 1917. The Russians regarded the League as a
club of capitalist countries who were the enemies of communism. The other great powers
were also suspicious of Russia and afraid of communism. [4-7]
(c) This question was fairly answered. The majority of the candidates were able to identify other factors that
contributed to the failure of the League as an effective peace keeping body. However, they failed to identify or
explain how the Abyssinian crisis destroyed the League of Nations as an effective peace-keeping body. Some
candidates got confused with Abyssinia and Manchuria, and this affected their marks.
Answer
Yes, it destroyed/did not destroy the League of Nations. [1]
Level 2: Identify Abyssinia or others
Britain and France were weak.
Violence and aggression paid.
Abyssinia was left weak. [2-3]

Level 3: Identify Abyssinia and others
Level 2 +. Britain and France appeased Hitler.
The Great Depression increased tension and conflict. [4]
Level 4: Explain Abyssinia or others
The weakness of Britain and France in dealing with the Abyssinian crisis mirrored the
weakness of the League itself.
The failure of the League over Abyssinia destroyed the idea of Collective Security by
demonstrating that League members would not act together firmly to face aggression.
The failure of the League over Abyssinia left weak nations defenseless against aggression
by powerful neignbours. Abyssinia was occupied by foreign powers and abandoned by
the league, which resulted in other nations to realize that they could no longer look to the
League for security. [5-6]
Level 5: Explain Abyssinia and others
Level 4 +. Britain and France were so afraid of another was that they allowed Germany
to break international agreements without punishment. By appeasing Hitler, Britain and
France missed good opportunities to resist him.
The Great Depression had harmful political effects, which impacted on the work of the
League. Because it did much to destroy the good will on which the League had depended
on. It brought increasing tension and conflict, which resulted in nations struggling to cope
with the effects of the crash. [7-8]
NB: Consider the following factors:
* The weaknesses of the League

* The Treaty of Versailles
* The invasion of Manchuria
* Superpowers not being members of the League
3 (a) This question was poorly answered. The majority of the candidates gave reasons why the leaders signed
the agreement rather then the terms of the agreement. Some other candidates confused the Nazi-Soviet
Pact with Hitler’s foreign policy, whereas others brought in the concepts of capitalism and communism. The
minority candidates were confused by the use of the term “Non-Aggression Pact” as opposed to “Nazi-Soviet
Pact”.
Answer
The Non-Aggression Pact was signed between the Soviet Union and Germany on 23 August 1939. The pact
was an agreement between the two not to fight each other. Secretly; they had also decided to split up Poland
between them.
The pact was to last for 10 years with automatic extension for another 5 years.
The two parties should be in consultation with each other.
All differences should be resolved through negotiation or arbitration.
The two parties would not join any group of powers directly or indirectly threatening one of the two
parties. [1-5]
(b) This question was fairly answered. The majority of the candidates only described Hitler’s foreign policy, rather
than giving reasons why he demilitarised the Rhineland, and again others wrote about the terms of the Treaty
of Versailles and the “Appeasement Policy”. Generally candidates focused on the loss of land by the Germans
rather than the Rhineland.
Answer
It was demilitarised. [1]

To enable Germany to defend itself.
The economic problems at home.
Hitler’s need for foreign policy triumph. [2-4]
The ratification by the French National Assembly of the Franco-Soviet Pact of 1935 allowed
Hitler to present his coup at home and abroad as a defensive move against Franco-Soviet,
the expectation that France would be better armed in 1937.
Economic problems at home required the need for a foreign policy success to restore the
regime’s popularity as the Italy-Ethiopian war had broken up the Stresa front and also
because Hitler did not feel like waiting an extra year.
The remilitarization of the Rhineland stimulated the production of coal, steel, ammunition,
armaments and other heavy industry. It also returned the control which gave them their
“stolen territorial land” and the need for a foreign policy triumph to distract public attention
from the major economic crisis which gripped Germany in 1935-36. [4-7]
NB: Consider the foreign policy of Hitler.
(c) This question was partially answered. The majority of the candidates were able to identify Hitler’s foreign policy,
but they failed to explain how his policy caused the outbreak of the Second World War. Some candidates were
also able to identify other factors which led to the outbreak of the Second World War.
Answer
Yes, it was responsible/no it was not. [1]
Level 2: Identify the foreign policy or others
The expansion of Germany territories.
The creation of more “living spaces”
The destruction of the Treaty of Versailles. [2-3]
Level 3: Identify foreign policy And Others
Level 2+. Any act of appeasement stood little chance of satisfying Hitler.
The League failed to defend weaker nations.
Depression destroy the goodwill of the nations. [4]
Level 4: Explain foreign policy or others
Hitler had an aggressive foreign policy which included expanding Germany territory to create
more “living space” for overcrowded Germans and overturning the Treaty of Versailles, taking
back lost of land by force. He created an Anschluss with Austria which made Germany
stronger and corresponded to the policy “Greater Germany”, took over the Sudentenland
area of Czechoslovakia, took over the rest of Czechoslovakia and also invaded Poland.
The invading of Poland finally triggered aid from Britain and France who declared war on
Germany just 2 days later. [5-6]
Level 5: Explain foreign policy and others
Level 4 +. The appeasement policy was used against Hitler whose immediate goals
included domination of Europe. Any act of appeasement stood little chance of satisfying
him. He would always want more. And this led him into thinking that Britain and France
were pushovers. E.g. the remilitarising of the Rhineland, which made him more confident
and cocky.
NB: Others to be considered are:

The failures of the League of Nations.
The Great depression.
The Treaty of Versailles.
Disarmament Conference. [7-8]

4 (a) Very few candidates attempted this question, and the ones that did so, had no clue of the Cuban Revolution.
They described the Cuban Missile Crisis, the relationship between Cuba and USA and also the incident of the
Bay of Pigs. One can say that it was partially answered.
Answer
E.g. They are not the same. [1]
Level 2: Describe the main differences
Cuba was occupied by American troops, but the USA allowed Cuba to draw up a constitution,
with the American that had every right to oversee the Cuban economy, internal affairs and
voting any international agreements. The Cuban economy was by then highly dependent
on the sale of sugar and tobacco from the USA. Cuba was run by right-wing military dictator,
Batista who was supported by the USA. During his rule, there was increasing American
control of both economy and internal politics. Many opposed him and a small group of
revolutionaries led by Castro overthrow Batista in 1959. [1-5]
OR
Many middle-class Cubans fled to the USA, with the help of the USA’s CIA, they planned an
invasion of Cuba to overthrow Castro’s government. A group of exiled Cubans landed at the
Bay of Pigs. They intended to invade, but were easily defeated by the well equipped Cuban
army of 20 000 men. This was disastrous for the Americans. After this failed invasion
Castro declared himself to be a Communist. [1-5]
(b) This question was very poorly answered. The majority of the candidates referred to the Bay of Pigs incident,
the Cuban Missile Crisis and the general relationship between communism and capitalism. Others again
wrote on how Castro overthrew Batista. This was more story telling than giving reasons for the Bay of Pigs
invasion.
Answer
They were very worried.
Their relation was strained. [1]
Cuba was only about 150 km away from its Southern coast.
Cuba became a Communist State.
The effects on trade relation.
Anti Communist/Castro not satisfied with Castro’s government [2-4]
Level 3: Explains reasons
The USA was extremely concerned to see an Island that was only about 150 km away from
its Southern Coast adopting what looked like Communist policies and establishing such
friendly relations with Soviet Union.
The American Companies invested heavily in Cuban industry. They had large stakes in
most Cuban companies, particularly in mining and agriculture. The signing trade agreement
with the Soviet Union in which Cuban Sugar would be swapped for machinery, oil and
economic aid posed threat to the Americans. [4-7]
(c) This question was answered very poorly. The majority of the candidates were confused between the two
leaders as they failed to identify or explain which leader achieved which goals or who handled the missile crisis
better than the other. The majority of the candidates referred to the incident of the Bay of Pigs, as they lacked
ideas and information on how clearly the two leaders handled the Cuban Missile Crisis.
Answer
E.g. Yes, it was handled better by the Soviet Union/USA. [1]

Level 2: Identify handled better by the Soviet Union OR USA.
Kennedy ordered the American ships and aircraft to set up a blockade. He ordered 156
long-range missiles aimed at the Soviet Union ready to fire.
Kennedy gained popularity and prestige by avoiding nuclear confrontation with the USSR.
Kennedy successfully removed the nuclear weapons in Turkey at the end of missile crisis.
He gained more prestige and trust as president and global recognition for his efforts in
preserving world peace. [2-3]
Level 3: Identify handled better by the Soviet Union AND USA.
Level 2 +, publicly Khrushchev was seen as responsible peacemaker by compromising
through writing letters and withdrawing missiles.
He kept Cuba safe from the Americans as a valuable ally and support system for communists.
He exposed the USA to criticism about the USA being unreasonable in having missiles in Turkey.
Khrushchev managed to force Kennedy into concessions.
USSR was able to gain a better bargaining position over Berlin and other areas of conflict.
He managed to get the Americans dismantling their missile base in Turkey. [4]
Level 4: Explain better handled by the Soviet Union OR the USA
Kennedy handled the Cuban missile better than the Soviet Union, because he managed to
gain popularity and prestige by achieving the removal of missiles from Cuba and avoiding
a direct nuclear confrontation with USSR. His careful handling of the crisis and flexible
response earned him much popularity and credibility and compensated for the humiliation
suffered after Bay of Pigs. As a result, Kennedy managed to retain control of both houses
of Congress in the next term elections. And the removal of the Jupiters in Turkey was done
in private, made unknown to the American public.
Kennedy handled the Cuban missile better than the Soviet Union, because he managed to
secure US’s national security by successfully negotiating with the USSR for the removal of
missiles from Cuba. The Soviet missiles in Cuba was less than 150 km from US cities and
could fire into US with a range of 1 000 miles, giving USSR the capacity to strike cities deep
within the US. And this had posed a threat the US’s security. In order to protect USA from
any potential nuclear threat from the USSR, Kennedy needed the removal of these nuclear
missiles in Cuba. [5-6]
Level 5: Explain handled better by the Soviet Union AND the USA
Level 4 + for Khrushchev, it was better handled than by the USA, because he managed to
force Kennedy into making concessions for the removal of the Jupiters from Turkey which
were of a threat and the promise to not invade Cuba. Khrushchev’s installation of missiles in
Cuba was a success in forcing Kennedy into making these concessions he would not have
otherwise made. He had managed to avoid direction confrontation with the USA by claiming
that the Cuban missiles served as deterrence to US invasion, which was in fact a bluff, as
the power balance between USA and the USSR tilted towards the favour of the USSR. [7-8]
SECTION B
NAMIBIAN HISTORY
5 (a) This question was well answered. The majority of the candidates did quite well in this question through the
application of their knowledge of the apartheid in the South African historical context. Some other candidates
focused on how Germany took control over Namibia, rather than on the relationship between Namibia and
Germany. There were others who indicated good relations and described the negative aspects.
Answer
Many Germans came to Namibia for various reasons. Hunters and traders were interested in making
money, while missionaries wanted to covert people to Christianity.
A trade relation develop between the Namibian Societies and the Germans, as the local people
realized that they could buy useful household goods such as buckets and tools also sell cattle,
food and other produced goods to the traders. Some people became wealthier. Various Namibian
Societies lost land, which led to wars in the country between the Germans and various different
groups. Protection treaties were signed, the treaty did have the effect of stabilizing the situation but
pockets of the rebellion persisted and real peace was never achieved. [1-5]
* Contract Labour System
* Police zone
* Rinder pest

(b) It was partially answered. The majority of the candidates explained why the Germans were interested in
colonising Namibia, rather then giving reasons why more troops were sent. On the other hand hand we had
those who referred to the confiscation of land, cattle and mineral resources.
Answer
They needed protection. [1]
SWA was declared a crown colony.
Herero and Nama distrust the Germans
More hostilities were to be expected.
In major conflict Germany would dispatch the necessary troops. [2-4]
The Imperial German government decided that Namibia was a land suitable for white
settlement, the passion of land became an important part of German colonial policy and
therefore, more troops were sent to protect their territorial claim and interests over Namibia.
There were many further local uprising against the German rule as the Germans tried to
control by seizing the local property by artificially imposing European legal views of property
ownership which led to the largest of the rebellions known as the Herero wars of 1904.
The two groups of the Namas and Ovaherero had been in conflict with each other, which
resulted into a physical war, which turned to be a matter of concern to the German
missionaries as they felt very much unsafe and unprotected, which prompted them to
request for more troops to be send. [4-7]
(c) Very few candidates chosen this sub-question, and those who chose it answered only fairly. The majority of
the candidates were able to identify the one side of the development, e.g. the construction of roads, railways,
etc., but they failed to identify the non-developmental stage in the country. The majority of the candidates who
attempted this question focused on land, cattle confiscation and the general colonial operation in Namibia,
rather than on how the natural resources were used to develop Namibia or Germany.
Answer
Yes, they developed Namibia/no, they did not. [1]
Level 2: Identify Namibia development or others
The German administration promoted agricultural development
The Germans discovered some Namibia’s mineral wealth e.g. copper and diamonds.
The German administration build railways. [2-3]
Level 3: Identify Namibia development and others
Level 2 +. The Germans settled on land previously owned by local people.
Namibia had good markets for goods produced in Germany.
Namibia had mineral wealth to exploit. [4]
Level 4: Explain Namibia development or others
The copper mine at Tsumeb started operating in 1906, and diamonds were found near Lüderitz.
Settlers and traders flooded to these areas and resulted in the constructions of houses,
business to support the mines, the supply of foods and other goods. Road and railways
were also build and these contributed to the development of the country’s infrastructure.
The Settler farms and the mines were a long way from the towns and the ports. In order for
the farms and mines to operate, they needed good transport system to transport more and
more goods over a long distances and greater quantities, that’s how railways were build. [5-6]

Level 5: Explain Namibia development and others
Level 4 +. The Germans realized that Namibia had the potential to become an excellent
source of riches. They also realized that the people of Namibia were keen to buy goods
made in Germany. They exported all the Namibian resources in the raw form and imported
the finished product and sold at a very high price to make profit and expand their business
markets. [7-8]
6 (a) This was the most popular question, and it was well answered, generally speaking. However the majority
of the candidates listed the apartheid laws and their effects on the Namibian people. Candidates failed to
describe how it was applied, and ended up in story telling, which dominated this question.
Answer
South Africa took over the administration of Namibia under the terms of the League of Nations
mandate on 17 December 1920.
South Africa ruled Namibia as if it was part of South Africa. Rather than giving people land, the South
Africans took more land from Namibia Communities. It made similar laws in Namibia to the laws it had
made back home in South Africa. The laws were designed to keep black and white people separate
and to make sure that white people controlled the government and the economy. [1-5]
NB: * Apartheid Laws

* Contract Labour
* Odendaal Plan
* Homeland
(b) This question was answered very poorly. The majority of the candidates failed to show how the Namibian
people reacted towards the introduction of apartheid. They misinterpreted the question and focused on the
effects of the apartheid laws on the Namibian people.
Answer
They hated it/they loved it. [1]
Level 2: Identify the reaction
Local chiefs and political organisations realised that South Africa was continuing the same
kind of oppression as by the Germans.
The dog tax made them angry.
The Basters complained to the League of Nations and South Africa prime minister. [2-4]
Level 3: Explain the reaction
Chief Hosea Kutako founded the Herero Chief’s Council and was headed by the traditional
leaders and their aim was to protect the interests of the Herero people. After several talks
with the South African Administration, Kutako initiated contact with the UN in New York, after
which he drew up a petition to the UN.
Toivo Ya Toivo, who was working as a contract worker in South Africa, made his countrymen
aware of injustices in the labour system and of their political rights. He tape-recorded a
message to the UN, informing the UN about the terrible working and living conditions of
Namibians in South Africa. His activities brought an end to the contract labour system in
Namibia.
The Namibian people formed several internal political parties e.g. SWANU, NUDO, CANU,
SWAPO etc. with the aim of unity all Namibians in the struggle for freedom and independence.
Under these umbrella political parties, they were able to organize demonstrations,
boycotts, strikes, etc. against the South African government which eventually brought the
independence of Namibian in 1990. [4-7]
NB: Also consider the following reaction:
(i) Windhoek Massacre
(ii) Swapo’s armed struggle
(iii) The role of the Churches
(iv) Role of the workers etc.
(v) The role of Sam Nujoma
(vi) Namibians in exile

(c) This question was answered moderately. The majority of the candidates were able to identify the negative
and the positive sides of apartheid. However, the question focused on the negative and positive effects of
apartheid on the Namibian nation and not on the negative and positive development of Namibia with regard to
apartheid. The majority of the candidates failed to explain.
Answer
It negatively affected the people/it affected them positively. [1]
Level 2: Identify negative effects or positive
The country became isolated internationally.
People were restricted to move
Separate development was encouraged.
They introduced the homelands system. [2-3]
Level 3: Identify negative effects and positive
Level 2 +. The construction of the hydro electric scheme.
The introduction of the Bantu Investment Corporation.
The improvement of the education system. [4]
Level 4: Explain negative effects or positive
The South African government under the National party introduced the policy of apartheid
in Namibia.
Under this policy; people in the country were divided according to the various ethnic groups
and reduced contract among the Namibian people and also encourage racial inequality,
which resulted in Namibia to become internationally isolated.
The South African government under the Odendaal Plan, introduced the homeland policy
in Namibia.
This policy encouraged separate tribal development of the Namibians, which restricted
the movement, the contact and equality. This resulted in some tribes having advance
development while others were living in worse poverty. [5-6]
Level 5: Explain negative effects and positive
Level 4 +. The construction of the Kunene hydro electric scheme in Namibia was a way to
contribute to the economic development of the country by supplying power to the nations
and providing employment to the various community so that they can support their own
families in return.
The South Africa government established the Bantu Investment Corporation. This was
done in order to assist small business and farmers in communal areas with finances, which
contributed to the social well-being of the various communities. [7-8]
SOUTHERN AFRICAN HISTORY
7 (a) This question was attempted by very few candidates who quoted the information from the extract. The majority
of the candidates did not know the history of Botswana, neither the role played by Seretse Khama. One can
conclude that the question was poorly answered.
Answer
Seretse Khama was a stateman from Botswana and born into one of the more powerful of the royal families.
He founded the Botswana Democratic party in 1962, whose main goal was to call for the reform to a non-racial
independent republic and this won the BDP overwhelming support from local chiefs and traditional Botswana.
This promoted the transfer of the capital into the country drafted a new non-racial constitution and set up a
countdown to independence to allow a peaceful transfer of power.
The pressed Britain seeking independence and this was granted in 1964 paving way for the first political
elections in 1965. Khama is being referred to as the father of democracy in Botswana and Africa.

(b) This question was not popular, only a few learners attempted it. Those who attempted the question only copied
the given extract. Some other candidates who attempted this question did not know what was expected of
them.
Answer
They hated it. [1]
Level 2: Identify reasons for refusal
E.g. They were unhappy with the Native Advisory Council. They wanted full political rights
and independence. They wanted to improve the living standard of the Tswanas. [2-4]
Level 3: Explains reasons for refusal
E.g. The nationalist movements wanted full political rights and independence and were
unhappy with the Native Advisory Council, which had very little power. Chiefs like Khama III
did not accept indirect rule as it only gave the chiefs a limited amount of power. Botswana’s
nationalist movement demanded to rule themselves.
The Tswanas also rejected indirect rule, as the real power remained in the hands of the
residents. Tsekedi Khama who succeeded Khama III wanted the political rights of the
Tswanas to be respected and acknowledged, and argued that indirect rule would only make
the chiefs paid officials of Britain. He wanted to secure a higher standard of living for the
Tswanas. [4-7]
(c) Very few candidates attempted this question. The few who did, did not have an idea of what the situation
in Botswana was before independence, they just generalised about with the African historical background
information. Candidates failed to explain how minimum violence was demonstrated in achieving independence
in Botswana.
Answer
Yes, violence was necessary/No, it was not. [1]
Level 2: Identify minimum violence or others
The independence of Botswana was pushed by colonial authorities.
There was no use of violence towards the colonial subjects. [2-3]
Level 3: Identify minimum violence and others
Level 2 +. Nationalist movements pushed for their independence.
The use of violence to pacify the colonial subjects and to maintain order.
Level 4: Explain minimum violence or others
Nationalism in Botswana was mild and did not induce popular mobilization for rapid
independence as the British colonial rule did not interfere with the tribal affairs, but rather
only regulated the European population and was therefore, not viewed as a threat.
Botswana at independence in 1966, the Constitution established a non-racial, meaning

there was no specific institution tasked with overall responsibility which could led to domestic
violence. But instead drew support from local chiefs and traditional Botswana. [5-6]
Level 5: Explain minimum violence and others
Level 4 +. The development of nationalism in most of the African states, was as the results
of the colonial rule that regulated and managed both the European and tribal affairs with so
overwhelming interference from the colonial masters.
This normally induced popular mobilization and rapid demand for independence by
nationalist leaders and often led to bloody violence on the continent.
Decolonization is a political process, frequently involving violence. In most of the African

states there are various ethnic groups unlike in Botswana, and colonial masters often turned
these groups against each other by the way they governed them, which resulted in power-
struggle and bloody killing for positions in the government. [7-8]

8 (a) This question was answered by most of the candidates, and it was fairly answered. The majority of the
candidates confused the role of Nelson Mandela with that of Winnie Mandela. Some others generalised the
role played by Nelson Mandela and Winnie Mandela.
Answer
Winnie Mandela was a wife of Nelson Mandela, the most prominent leader of the ANC.
Winnie played a symbolic role of motherhood in the “Black parents Association”. She was able to
establish a powerful moral and political leadership role. The parental roles became politicized in the
wake of police action against children.
Winnie also recruited students into the ANC and helped them to leave the country. But her activities
were cut short by arrest and detention.
During the Soweto uprising, she courageously picked up the bodies of wounded children in the streets
and loaded them into her tiny VW Beetle. [1-5]
(b) It was partially answered. The majority of the candidates were able to identify reasons why women were
against the Pass Laws with regard to their freedom. Some other candidates only focused on the effects of the
Pass Laws on the people instead of explaining why women were against it.
Answer
They hatred the pass laws. [1]
The residential areas were segregated.
Women were forced to stay in rural areas.
It was difficult for women to acquire pass to move into urban areas. [2-4]
Level 3: Explain the reasons
The pass laws separated family members form one another as men usually worked in urban
centres while women were forced to stay in rural areas and not allowed to joined their
husbands which was viewed as against their freedom and justice.
Women were predominantly employed in low-paying, unskilled jobs. Because of their

nature of their employment – largely in the domestic services and informal sectors they were
vulnerable to removal from the urban areas. Legal constraints made it far more difficult for
women than men to acquire pass to move into urban areas which resulted in women to be
confined to the rural areas. [4-7]
(c) This question was fairly answered. The majority of the candidates were able to identify the role played by
women in ending apartheid as well as other factors. However, they failed to explain the role played by women.
Answer
They hated apartheid. [1]
Level 2: Identify women’s role or others
Women founded the federation of South African women.
They marched on the union building in Pretoria.
They demanded the independence of their country. [2-3]
Level 3: Identify women’s role and others
Level 2 +, De Klerk lifted the ban on the ANC.
Desmond Tutu united a number of apartheid groups.
School children in Soweto demonstrated against Bantu Education. [4]
Level 4: Explain women’s role or others
Women greatly participated in the anti-apartheid and liberation movement that task hold
of South Africa. They demanded the independence of their country and their people, by
demonstrations and guerrilla movements.

They organised bus boycotts and campaigns against restrictive passes in Pretoria and
Sharpeville in 1960.
A federation of South African women was founded. And through this federation, women
were made to understand their rights and call for equal rights too.
It is through this movement that women in South Africa also started to fight against gender
discrimination and called for access to education for all. [5-6]
Level 5: Explain Women’s role and others
Level 4 +, with increasing internal pressure for total reform De Klerk was left with no choice,
than to lift the ban on the ANC and the South African Communist Party. This also brought
the release of Nelson Mandela and other political prisoners and some others that were in
exile to participate in negotiations for democracy.
Desmond Tutu spoke out against sanctions, and he saw no alternative to sanctions as it will
still hurt most people who are already living in great poverty with few rights.
Tutu also united a number of anti-apartheid groups in a peaceful forum in which they could
work towards bringing justice and equality to all South Africans. [7-8]
NB: Also consider the following:
Churches, trade unions, Steve Biko, Soweto uprising, international communities, ANC,
Mandela etc.

4333
Paper 2
General comments
During the October/November 2013 History NSSCO examinations, different candidates reacted differently to various
levels of knowledge and skills for this source-based paper.
Depth Study A, (Germany) is the most popular, though there were a number of candidates who opted for Depth Study
B (USA) and Depth Study C (Western Imperialism). There was an overall improvement in answering the F questions
among others. Candidates still struggled with the evaluation of sources, e.g. usefulness, reliability, etc. Candidates
also struggled to answer questions which required comparison. Most of them could not identify and/or explain the
agreements/similarities and disagreements/differences of two sources. A number of candidates copied from the
sources without explaining them or they paraphrased the sources. Candidates lost marks for not making choices
when answering questions, e.g. by saying the source is useful, less useful, reliable or not reliable or the sources agree/
disagree. English literacy skills and vocabulary are still lacking and therefore most candidates failed to understand
words or understand the requirements of the questions.
Candidates, who opted for Depth Study B and C, were in the minority, but their performance was poor. Teachers are
therefore advised to prepare their learners for Depth Study A because of availability of the resources.
Depth Study A was better answered compared to previous years. Some candidates still answered all three Depth
Studies, which indicated that candidates were either not properly informed for the examinations or instructions were
not properly read. Teachers should drill students with source-based questions, because this paper requires learners to
make use of source-based skills in interpreting and evaluating sources.
Numbering of questions should be done as given on the question paper.
Depth Study A: Germany
(a) Most candidates answered this question fairly well and managed to score at level 3. However, most candidates
could not give the support from the source, and some used the introduction to support their answers. Even though
the candidates did well, they still lacked the contextual knowledge of the topic and failed to do cross-reference with
other sources efficiently.
Answer
Level 1: Copying of source, no valid inference made, misinterpretation, general answer [1]
Level 2: Unsupported inference(s) (valid inference, BUT no support from source A) [2-3]
1 VI = L2/2 2 or More VI = L2/3
OR
1 VI + C/K = L2/3
Level 3: Valid inference(s) plus support from the source [4-5]

1VI + 1 Support from Source A = L3/4
2 or more VI + 2 more Support from Source A = L3/5
Level 4: Level 3 plus valid contextual knowledge OR cross reference = L4/6 [6]

VALID INFERENCES
Positive Negative
• Women were seen as caring/loving towards her • Men were seen more superior than women/more
family respected/more important than women
• Women were respected in Germany • Women were seen as the traditional stereotype by
• The Nazis had a positive attitude towards women the Nazis/Hitler
in Germany • Women were not allowed to work except men/to
be involved in any political activity
• Nazi attitudes: women were bad/inferior/
useless/ negative/less respected/ less important/
powerless/ weak
• Women not to take part in any political/economical
activities
NB: Contextual knowledge should be explained in detail.
(b) This was the most demanding question. Candidates still struggle to answer questions where two sources are
used. Many candidates failed to make a choice. They failed to identify valid inferences of similarities and/or
differences. Some identified valid inferences of “one source” only or supported the valid inference with one source
only. Support from both sources should be used to infer on similarities/differences in order to score high marks.
Answer
Level 1: Copying of source(s)/No valid inference/No choice made/ misinterpretation/general answer [1]
Level 2: Valid inference(s) based on simple provenance OR valid inference but use one (1) source only/
No valid comparison = L2/2 [2-3]
1 Valid inference from one (1) source only = L2/2 OR valid inference based on simple provenance = L2/2
OR
1 Valid inference But one source only AND Valid inference based on simple provenance = L2/3
Level 3: Valid inference based on similarities OR Differences, not supported from the sources [3-4]
1 Valid inference of Similarities OR Differences not supported from both sources = L3/3
2 Valid inferences of Similarities OR Differences not supported from both sources = L3/4
OR
Only Testing of Reliability of one Source = L3/4
Level 4: Valid inference based on Similarities OR Differences, plus support from both sources [4-5]
1Valid inference of Similarities AND Differences plus support from both sources = L4/4
2 or more Valid inference(s) of Similarities AND Differences plus support from both sources = L4/5
OR
Only Testing of Reliability of both sources = L4/5
Level 5: Valid inference based on Similarities AND Differences, not supported from sources [6-7]
1 Valid inference of Similarities AND Differences not supported from both sources = L5/6
2 Valid inferences of Similarities AND Differences not supported from both sources = L5/7
Level 6: Valid inference based on Similaritie(s) and Difference(s) plus support from sources [7-8]
1 Valid inference of Similarities AND Differences plus support from both sources = L6/7
2 Valid inferences of Similarities AND Differences plus support from both sources = L6/8
OR
1 Valid inference of Similarity AND Difference plus support from both sources plus Testing of
Reliability of one source = L6/8

Similarities Differences
• Both sources shows the determination of the • In source B, Hitler shows respectful/descent
Nazis to uphold a pure German race for the next behavior towards Nazi women while in source
generation C Nazis shows disrespectful attitude/behavior
towards women
• Both sources show women’s role outside the
home/ household environment was not allowed/ • In source B, Hitler used brainwashing/propaganda
acceptable tactics to justify his actions/ behavior while in source
• Both sources agree on the negativity of women C the Nazis blatantly/rudely/with no remorse/no
Source B shows brainwashing of the Nazi women regret shows their bad attitude/treatment towards
while Source C show how Nazi women were not women
allowed to work outside the home environment • Source B shows more about Nazis expectation
• Both sources agree that Nazi women had not real of the traditional stereotype of women, their
will of their own (powerless)/no freedom/no equal appearance and their behavior while source C
rights, thus, the Nazi government controlled them explains the negative attitude Nazis had towards
women outside the family environment
• In source B the Nazis is pleasing/praising women
while in source C Nazi policies are enforced on
women
• Source B shows the greatness of Nazi women/the
appreciation of Nazi women while source C show
how less important Nazi women were
• Source B makes a woman feel valued/deserved
to be a mother or to be in charge of the family
while source C makes women feel unappreciated/
inferior/unworthy
• NB: In source B, women were allowed in politics
while in source C women were not allowed to be
involved/take part/contribute in any political activity
1. VI VALID INFERENCE
2. VA VALID ASSERTION
3. MI MISINTERPRETATION
4. C CHOICE
5. NC NO CHOICE
6. SUP SUPPORT FROM SOURCE(S)
7. CK CONTEXTUAL KNOWLEDGE
8. CR CROSS-REFERENCE
9. P PURPOSE
10. U USEFUL
11. MU MORE USEFUL
12. TR TESTING OF RELIABILITY
13. R RELIABLE
14. NR NOT RELIABLE
15. S SURPRISE
16. NS NOT SURPRISE
17. SM SMALL MESSAGE
18. BM BIG MESSAGE
19. SIM SIMILARITY(IES)
20. DIFF DIFFERENCE(S)
21. TRUE REF TRUE REFLECTION
22. N TRUE REF NOT TRUE REFLECTION
23. T TRUST
24. NT NOT TRUST
25. Y SUPPORTIVE
26. NY NOT SUPPORTIVE
27. H HAPPY
28. NH NOT HAPPY
29. L LYING
30. NL NOT LYING
31. +1 1 BONUS MARK
32. +2 2 BONUS MARKS (Maximum)
33. FV FACE VALUE

(c) This question was answered satisfactorily, but candidates need to prepare better by using valid support from the
source. Some candidates described the cartoon on face value. Even though candidates did well, they still failed
to use relevant contextual knowledge and cross-reference efficiently.
Answer
Level 1: Describes surface detail from the source/no valid inference/ misinterpretation [1]
Level 2: Identify sub-message(s), not supported from source [2-3]

• 1 Sub-message + support from source = L2/2
• 2 Sub-messages + support from source = L2/3
OR
• 1 Sub-message + Valid Contextual knowledge – C/K = L2/3
Level 3: Identify Sub message(s) PLUS support from the source [4-5]
• 1 Sub-message + support from source = L3/4
• 2 Sub-messages + support from source = L3/5
Level 4: Identify Main message(s), not supported from source [5-6]
• 1 Big message = L4/5 or TR of source = L4/5
• 2 Sub-messages = L4/6
Level 5: Identify Main message(s) PLUS support from source [6-7]
• 1 Big message + support from source = L5/6
• 2 Big messages + support from source = L5/7
OR
• 1 Big message + support from source + TR or C/K or C/R = L5/7
Big messages/Main messages Sub-messages/Small messages

• To show German women were judged by their ability • It was published to encourage Nazi-policies of
to bear children and take care of their families and the role of the traditional stereotype of woman in
not by the ability to gain political/economic power Germany.
in the country. • It was published to promote/ encourage Nazism in
• To show how German women were respected or Czechoslovakia.
rewarded whose loyalty lies with Nazi-ideologies in • It was published to encourage German women to
producing a pure Aryan race. increase the birth rate.
• For propaganda purposes. To encourage/convince/ • To show how women were rewarded if they
persuade Nazi people in Czechoslovakia to buy increase the family size.
into Nazism of the traditional stereo-type of woman
• To show the women respected Nazi-ideologies/to
in order to produce a pure Aryan race/increase the
show loyalty to Nazism.
population to train more boys to become future
loyal Nazi soldiers. • To remind/teach Nazi women about their
responsibilities/duties as housewife’s/of a
• To show the world how determined the Nazis were
traditional stereotype of women.
to increase the population rate in order to develop
their army/pure Aryan race • To show how much the German women were
respected/how proud the Nazi women were/
• To show the determination of the Nazis to control
how happy/ loyal Nazi women were with Nazi-
every aspect of life in Germany, even, if they have
ideologies towards women.
to violate the rights of women or discriminate
against woman, just to stay in power/maintain/ • To show the Nazis was in control of every aspect,
safeguard their policies of Nazi-ideology. including the women.
• Published by an anti-Nazi cartoonist, who is making • To show how the rights of women in Germany were
a mockery of the Nazi-ideologies towards women, violated/show how women were discriminated
in order to badmouth/tarnish the Nazi reputation. against/to show how disrespectful the Nazis were
towards women.
• Published by an anti-Nazi cartoonist, who is making
a mockery of the Nazi-ideologies towards women, • To criticise Nazi-ideologies towards women/to
in order to bad-mouth/tarnish the Nazi reputation. show women were unhappy to bear many children/
to show it was unhealthy for women to bear many
children.
• To show what the Nazis expected from the ideal
Nazi woman.

(d) Many candidates failed to make a choice. The testing of reliability which is actually the required skill for this
question was not addressed. Cross-reference with other sources was not known to most candidates. Candidates
failed to identify the purpose of “useful for what”.
Answer
Level 1: General answer/misinterpretation/copying of sources/surface detail/no choice made/choice

made without valid assertions [1]
Level 2: Usefulness based on simple provenance/describe limitations of information in sources/valid

assertions unsupported. [2-3]
• Evaluation of usefulness based on simple provenance – (U/LU) one sided = L2/2
• Evaluation of usefulness based on simple provenance – (U + LU) one sided = L2/3
OR
• Describe limitation(s) of information in one source = L2/2
• Describe limitation(s) of information in both sources = L2/3
OR
• 1 Valid assertion (1VA) not supported from source = L2/2
• 2 Valid assertion (2VA) not supported from sources = L2/3
OR
• 1 Limitation of one source + 1 VA = L2/3
Level 3: Valid assertion(s) of usefulness, supported from one source. [3-4]

• 1 VA + support from the source on usefulness = L3/3
• 2 VA + support from the sources on usefulness = L3/4
Level 4: Evaluate usefulness based on purpose: Useful for what? Not supported from the sources [5-6]
• Usefulness on one source = L4/5
• Usefulness on both sources = L4/6
Level 5: Evaluate usefulness based on purpose: Plus support from sources [6-7]
Useful for what? (Purpose) P
• Usefulness on one source + support = L5/6
• Usefulness on both sources + support = L5/7
Level 6: Evaluation based on Testing of reliability. [6-8]

• TR of one source only – E or F = L6/6
• TR of both sources – E and F = L6/7
OR
• TR of one source (E or F) + CK / CR = L6/7
• TR of both sources (E and F) + CK / CR = L6/8
Source E Source F
Valid Assertions Valid Assertions
• Describe Nazi rule/duties/ responsibilities about • To show how a devoted mother should be to her
women in Nazi Germany family
• Show how the Nazi party wanted woman to • It shows how much women were respected/
present/conduct/behave themselves importance of women
• Women were prescribed; they did not have the • Show how protective/safe the Nazi women were
right to do what they wanted under Nazi ideologies/ happy with Nazi ideologies
• Women were respected/seen as important • To show the character o the traditional stereotype
• Women should maintain morals/ decency as of women which the Nazis enforced/ implemented
married women/good Nazi women upon German/Nazi women
• Less useful: Only shows the rules how women • To show the poster was used for propaganda
should behave purposes
• To show women did not have any important job,
apart from being the family care taker
• Women taught children about Nazism/loyalty
• To show the importance of the increase in
population size

Useful: Purpose Useful: Purpose
• To show it is a guideline (official document)/ • To show how happy women were as child bearers.
condition of the Nazi party itself on how women It portrays what is expected from obedient loyal
should present/conduct/behave themselves in Nazi women, bearing pure Nazi children.
order to be respected by the Nazis. • To show German women were encouraged to live
• To show the youth (German maidens) are educated up to the standards of Nazi ideologies, in order to
at an early stage about the laws/restrictions of Nazi be happy/be worthy/feel deserved in Germany.
women, in order to prepare them (maidens) for • To show women were convinced/persuaded/
Nazi motherhood/adult life. promised they will be safe and protected by the
• To instill/educate/indoctrinate women about Nazi Nazis if they obey Nazi rules.
ideologies of the traditional stereotype of woman • To show it was Nazi propaganda, to convince the
for the successful future development of the Nazis outside world Nazi ideologies towards women
(Aryan or pure race/soldiers) OR to prepare women were good, while it was not good at all, thus, they
to get healthier babies when giving birth, in order to just wanted people to believe it was good (Nazis
have a healthy increased population (Aryan race)/ pretending their ideologies towards women were
healthy future soldiers. good, while it was not good).
• To prepare the young woman to become loyal
Nazi citizens who will obey Nazi ideologies or rules
imposed/enforced upon them.
• To show the Nazis control every aspect of life,
including the women, to spread or maintain Nazism.
• LESS USEFUL: It only show Nazi rules how women • LESS USEFUL: It only shows a poster of the “NAZI
should conduct/ present/behave themselves and PARTY”. It is a poster published in Germany in the
not the result of the implementation of these rules, 1930’s, the time of the elections. On the poster is
such as German women attitudes/response of a big eagle spreading her wings over the family,
German women towards these rules. stating that the eagle is Hitler and that he has a
protective hand over the people of Germany. He
wanted to brainwash the people to vote for him.
He wanted to mislead the people, if they would see
this poster or how caring and loyal he (Hitler) is to
his nation, they would want to vote for him for the
“safety and security” that he can offer, while it is not
the truth.
(e) This question was not well answered. Most candidates made a choice, but failed to give valid assertions. Very few
learners identified the purpose. Testing of reliability was not attempted by many candidates. Even though some
candidates attempted to evaluate the sources, they gave valid assertions which were contrary to their choices.
They still lacked contextual knowledge and failed to do cross-reference with other sources efficiently.
Answer
Level 1: No choice made/General answer [1]
Level 2: Undeveloped provenance/unsupported insertions (s) [2-3]
Level 3: Evaluates on the basis of amount of information to test reliability (one or both sources) [4-5]
Level 4: Evaluates one source on basis of provenance or cross-reference/own knowledge [6-7]
Level 5: Evaluates both sources on basis of provenance or cross-reference/own knowledge [8-9]

(f) There was an indication that most teachers trained their learners well on this question, because there was a drastic
improvement in answering it; however, teachers should still train learners to balance their answers by means of
rejecting and supporting the statement. Some candidates supported or rejected their choices by using only one
or two words from the source as support, thus they could not score marks. One or two words used as support are
just not sufficient. There were still candidates who grouped the sources, and such candidates scored very low
marks. Candidates should be taught to use valid support from each source, which should be a full statement from
the source, but not copying the whole source.
Answer
Level 1: No valid sources used/copying of sources/General answer [1-3]
Level 2: Use source (s) to agree OR disagree with the statement [4-6]
Level 3: Use source (s) to agree and disagree with the statement [7-10]
Note: Up to 2 bonus marks may be awarded for evaluation of the reliability of sources (no more than
1 mark per source) + 2 [12]
Depth Study B: USA: 1919-1941
Few candidates attempted this depth study. Generally, candidates who chose it did not do well. They generalised the
answers and copied from the sources instead. They lacked the knowledge for this content. It seemed as if they were
not prepared for this depth study, or they chose it because they thought they could do better in it than Depth Study A,
which was a wrong perception.
(a) Candidates answered this question satisfactorily. However, they failed to identify valid support from the source to
support inferences made.
Answer
Level 1: Copying of sources/No valid inference made [1]
Level 2: Valid inference made, not supported [2-3]
Level 3: Valid inference plus supported [4-5]
Level 4: Level 3 plus contextual knowledge OR cross-reference [6]
(b) Many candidates failed to make a choice. Evaluation of a source to explain usefulness and testing reliability was
poorly answered. Candidates thus scored low marks.
Answer
Level 1: No choice made/copying of sources [1]
Level 2: Evaluate usefulness based on provenance [2-3]
Level 3: Evaluate usefulness based on amount of information (one sided) [4-5]
Level 4: Evaluate usefulness based on amount of information (both sides) [6-7]
Level 5: Level 4 plus contextual knowledge or cross-reference. [8]
(c) Candidates could not identify the purpose why the photograph was published in 1933. Candidates who identified
valid inferences failed to find support from the source. Candidates failed to make valid cross-references with other
sources, but, a few managed to explain the purpose why the photograph was published in 1933.
Answer
Level 1: General answer/misinterpretation [1]
Level 2: Valid message identified or explained [2-3]
Level 3: Identify the purpose [4-5]
Level 4: Explains purpose in context of 1933 [6-7]

(d) Many candidates failed to make a choice. Identifying the agreements and disagreements was a problem in
this question. Even though candidates answered this question satisfactorily, they found it difficult to relate valid
contextual knowledge and cross-reference.
Answer
Level 1: No comparison made/misinterpretation/General answer [1]
Level 2: Simple comparisons made [2-3]
Level 3: Comparisons made to agree/disagree [4-5]
Level 4: Comparisons made to agree and disagree [6-7]
Level 5: Level 4 plus valid cross-reference/contextual knowledge. [8]
(e) Many candidates failed to make choice. Candidates seemed to lack understanding of the word “surprised”,
therefore failed to evaluate the text based on testing of reliability.
Answer
Level 1: No choice made/General answer/misinterpretation [1]
Level 2: Only identifies what is surprising or not surprising, not explained [2-3]
Level 3: L2 plus support from source [4-5]
Level 4: Explain surprised or not surprised (addressing why/give reason) [6-7]
Level 5: Explain why surprised AND not surprised (give reason(s) [8-9]
(f) There was a general improvement in the answering of this question; however, teachers should teach learners to
balance their answers by rejecting and supporting the statement. The majority of candidates managed to use the
source to support or reject the statement, but most candidates failed to give both sides.
Answer
Level 1: No valid sources used/copying of sources/General answer [1-3]
Level 2: Use source (s) to agree OR disagree with the statement [4-6]
Level 3: Use source (s) to agree AND disagree with the statement [7-10]
Note: Up to 2 bonus marks may be awarded for evaluation of the reliability of sources (no more than
1 mark per source) [12]
Depth Study C: Africa and Western Imperialism
Very few candidates opted for this question, and performed poorly.
(a) Candidates found it difficult to infer and support it from the source. Candidates answered the question poorly and
thus scored low marks.
Answer
Level 1 Surface use of the source - no inferences [1-2]
Level 2 Valid inferences - not supported [2-3]
Level 3 Valid inferences - supported from the source [4-5]
Level 4 Level 3 plus some contextual explanation of inferences [6]

(b) Many candidates failed to make a choice. Even though the candidates performed satisfactorily, they still failed to
identify or explain similarities and/or differences in order to make relevant comparisons.
Answer
Level 1 Surface use of sources, no comparison made [1]
Level 2 Compares the provenance of the sources - not developed or identifies information in one source
that is not in the other [2-3]
Level 3 Compares details in the sources [4-5]
Level 4 Compares points of view - agreement or disagreement [6-7]
Level 5 Compares the points of view - agreement and disagreement [8]
(c) Many candidates failed to make a choice. Even though candidates performed better, they still failed to compare
the two cartoons in order to explain or identify the agreements. Candidates failed to efficiently use the source as
cross-references with other sources.
Answer
Level 1 Describes the cartoons - no comparison [1]
Level 2 Compares surface features of cartoons or provenance [2-3]

e.g. date [2-3]
Level 3 Interprets one or both cartoons but no comparison [4-5]
Level 4 Compares sub-messages [6-7]

i.e. Both sources suggest the sanctions will fail.
Level 5 Compares for disagreement in big message [8]

i.e. They both suggest they will fail but for different reasons, D says sanctions are too weak but
Source E says they will hurt the Africans more than the Rhodesian government.
(d) Many candidates failed to make a choice. Candidates failed to make evaluations based on the usefulness of the
source. Evaluation to test reliability was poorly addressed, thus candidates scored very low marks.
Answer
Level 1 Asserts it is not useful because is propaganda – no explanation [1-2]
Level 2 Claims it is useful because of the information within the source - uncritical surface use of source [3-4]
Level 3 Explain how the source is not useful because it is propaganda [5-6]
Level 4 Explains how the source is useful because it is propaganda [7-8]

E.g. it shows how worried the Rhodesian government was about the situation in Rhodesia.
(e) Candidates identified why the source was published in 1978 satisfactorily, but failed to explain why the source was
published in 1978. Contextual knowledge based on 1978 was not well addressed by most candidates.
Answer
Level 1 Description of source [1]
Level 2 Purpose given as conveying information in source [2-3]
Level 3 Context of 1978 explained but source not interpreted [4]
Level 4 Message of source explained [5-6]
Level 5 Purpose of source explained [7]
Level 6 Purpose explained in context of 1978 [8]

(f) Fairly answered, however, the majority of candidates managed to use the sources to either support or reject the
statement. Most candidates failed to give both sides to support and reject the statement.
Answer
Level 1 No valid source use [1-3]
Level 2 Uses sources to support or reject the statement [4-6]
Level 3 Uses sources to support and reject the statement [7-10]

Up to 2 bonus marks can be awarded for any valid evaluation of sources (no more than 1 per source).
Source use must have reference to a source letter, provenance or direct quotation. There must be use of the
source content.

HOME ECONOMICS
4343
Paper 1
General comments
• Answer scripts ranged between a large number of candidates with a few that performed well and a few that
performed poorly.
• Describing of answers still remains a huge problem for the majority of learners.
• Candidates do not understand the meaning of “distinguish” at all.
• Learners find it very difficult to apply or “link” practical knowledge to a theoretical question.
• Some questions were not read properly and led to misinterpretation of questions.
• Some parts of the syllabus were poorly answered by most centres. Give more attention to Theme A 3.1 Recipe
interpretation; 4.3 Dairy and on-dairy products; 4.4 Eggs; 4.5 Sauces. Theme B, C and D were well answered
except Theme (d) 13.3 Labels.
• No misinterpretation regarding instructions appeared.
• When compiling a memorandum for the examination, include all possible answers.
• During a practical, link the theory to the dish the candidates are preparing.
• Teachers must teach the candidates the correct format of Section C. Candidates must write down the question
number and start each question on a clean page. The conclusion of the essay must be linked to the discussion of
the topic. The body of the essay should be in paragraphs and not bulleted.
• Teach candidates to consider the mark allocation as to know what is expected of them.
• Spend time on terminology so that the candidates will know to which depth the question should be answered.
SECTION A
Food and Nutrition (48 marks)
1-3 Nearly all the candidates were able to answer these questions accurately.
The answers were
1 (a) health [1]

(b) balanced diet [1]
(c) nutrition [1]
(d) 2 [1]
(e) 4 [1]
(f) 125 m ̶ 250 ml [1]
(g) 200 ml [1]
2 (a) (i) anaemia [1]

(ii) scurvy [1]
(iii) rickets [1]
(b) Whole-grain cereals/whole-wheat products/raw vegetables and fruit/oats products/pulses/oranges/

apples/brown rice/seeds and pods/dried fruit/legumes (any) [3]

3 (a) Butter ̶ Saturated
(b) Sunflower oil ̶ Unsaturated
(c) Lard ̶ Saturated [3]
Many candidates did not do well in this question. Most candidates did not deal with the topic “recipe” terms. The
correct answers were:
4 (a) Bain-marie [1]

(b) Simmer/stewing [1]
(c) Caramalise [1]
(d) Scald [1]
Many candidates did well in this question. The correct answers were:
5 (a) scraper/metal spoon/spatula [1]

(b) measuring cup for liquid/measuring jar [1]
(c) spatula/egg lifter [1]
The majority of candidates were unable to answer this question. Additives were not familiar to candidates. This
aspect of the syllabus needs more attention. Theme D ̶ Consumer Education ̶ 13.3 Labels. The correct answers
were:
6 (a) emulsifiers/stabilisers [1]

(b) preservatives [1]
(c) antioxidants [1]
The majority of the candidates were unable to answer this question. Candidates were not familiar with sauces.
Only a few were able to give examples of sauces served with dishes. The correct answers were:
7 (a) cheese sauce/tomato puree sauce/white sauce [1]

(b) mayonnaise/cooked salad dressing [1]
(c) custard sauce/chocolate sauce/fruit puree/fruit sauce, e.g. berry sauce [1]
Many candidates did well in this question. There were, however, some centres where the candidates did not deal
with the Namibian grading system for beef. The question required candidates to indicate age. The correct answers
were:
8 AAA – no permanent teeth / very young [1]

BBB – 3 ̶ 6 teeth/ not so young [1]
CCC – Full mouth/old/mature animal [1]
9-11 Many candidates did well in these questions. The correct answers were:
9 Snoek, galjoen, Cape salmon, pilchard, mackerel, hottentot, sardines [2]
10 Iodine, fluorine [2]
11 (a) Black-eyed butter beans, haricot, red kidney sugar beans, soya beans, lentils, peas (any) [2]
(b) iron, phosphorus, zinc, calcium, protein, fat, carbohydrates, fibre, starch (any) [2]
Candidates answered the question about mixing techniques for the preparation of flour mixtures poorly ̶ Theme
A4.11. The correct answers were:

12 (a) (i) scones/cookies/pastry/rusks/doughnuts [1]
(ii) butter cake and variation/madeira cake [1]
(iii) ginger bread/ginger biscuits [1]
(b) cream puffs/éclairs/profiteroles [1]
13 (a)-(d) were misunderstood by the majority of candidates. Candidates got confused between ways to incorporate
raising agents and different types of raising agents. The questions required candidates to state ways to incorporate
raising agents. The correct answers were:
13 (a) steam ̶ water in mixture turns to steam during heating [1]
(b) air ̶ sifting/beating/rubbing-in/rolling and folding [1]
(c) baking powder ̶ sift together with flour/dry ingredients [1]
(d) baking soda ̶ sift together with flour or dry ingredients OR dissolve in liquid [1]
[48]
Family Life Education (8 marks)
14-15: Candidates did well in these questions. Candidates were able to identify stages in the family life cycle and
understand socialisation. The correct answers were:
14 (a) extended family [1]
(b) blended family [1]
15 (a) this is the process through which a person learns the skills, attitudes, values, beliefs and behaviour of
a group (all correct for) [2]
(b) to teach
knowledge
mental, communication and physical skills
meaning (values, attitudes, etc.)
behaviour (any) [2]
(c) by observation
by direct instruction
by sanctioning
by the way others treat you
conscious or unconscious (any) [2]
[8]
Management and Housing (16 marks)
Question 16 – 17: Candidates did well in these questions. Question 17 (a) referred to different types of housing.
Candidates only received marks if they indicated “density”, not for low, medium and high.
16 (a) physical aspect [1]

(b) mental/intellectual aspect [1]
(c) emotional aspect [1]
17 (a) low density

medium density
high density [3]

(b) renting
building [2]
(c) - get security and independence/property belongs to you

- own a worthwhile asset
- property values may increase rapidly
- can change (rebuild) to your taste/house can be adapted to suit owner’s needs
- owners feel proud of their possessions (any) [3]
(d) - initial costs are high

- responsible for maintenance
- a large portion of your income is used to repay the bond
- not easy to move (any) [2]
(e) - transfer fees/conveyancing fees

- bond registration
- building society fees
- interim rates
- property rates
- occupational interest
- miscellaneous expenses (electricity, deposit, curtaining, furniture removal)
- owner’s insurance policy [3]
[16]
Clothing and Consumer Education
Question 18 ̶ 19: Candidates did well in these questions. Most candidates were able to identify the correct figure types,
as well as interpret the information on the food label. The correct answers were:
18 (a) pear shape [1]

(b) hour glass shape [1]
(c) rectangle [1]
(d) apple shape [1]
19 A production name [1]

B mass/weight [1]
C nutrition information [1]
D bar code [1]
[8]
SECTION B
Food and Nutrition
This question was answered correctly by some candidates.
20 (a) Marks were only allocated for kJ or kilojoules and not for joules.
Answer
kJ [1]
(b) Was poorly answered ̶ candidates could not distinguish between food with high and low energy value and give
examples of food sources.
The correct answers were as follows:

- food with high energy value is food which is high in fat and sugar and normally with a low water content.
- low energy food has high water content and is low in sugar and fat.
(example only ̶ not correct) [2]

(c) Most candidates explained general nutrition needs and not only energy needs of individuals as the question
stated.
(i) Age ̶ young children require more energy for their size than adults. (growing reactive) [1]
(ii) Gender ̶ men tend to be larger overall in body size than women ̶ higher metabolic rate and use
more energy. [1]
(iii) Occupation and physical activity ̶ active work (miners, builders, etc.)
Need more energy than less active work (office workers, drivers, etc.) [1]
(iv) Health/state of body

Pregnancy (growth of baby), Lactation (production of milk),
Illness (metabolism raised) require more energy (if illness reduces activity, less energy is needed) [1]
This question was fairly well answered. Make sure candidates understand the principles for the frozen storage of food.
21 (a) moisture loss or absorption/action of enzymes/high temperature (any) [1]
(b) bacteria, moulds, yeast [3]
(c) (i) Temperature ̶ need room temperature to grow (30°C ̶ 40°C)

Higher temperature (100°C) ̶ kill; Low temperature
(-0°C) ̶ stop growing ̶ Temperature between 10°C and 60°C
(Reference Grade 10 Home Economics for A) [1]
(ii) Moisture ̶ need moisture to grow ̶ without moisture no growing;

food with 20% ̶ 30% moisture, e.g. meat, vegetables [1]
(iii) Food ̶ need to grow – on (feeding on dead material) ̶ most prefer a slightly acid to neutral medium [1]
(iv) Oxygen ̶ most need oxygen to grow (aerobic organisms).

Some can grow without oxygen (anaerobic) [1]
(d) - Should be frozen as quick as possible to preserve quality, taste, texture and nutrients
- Frozen food must be kept frozen. Don’t thaw and refreeze.
- Frozen food must be covered properly to prevent freeze burn.
- Freezer should not be packed to more than 2/3 of its capacity to allow for air ventilation
- Do not freeze for a long period
- Freezer must be clean (any) [2]
The question concerning cereals was well answered. 22 (c) The effect of the type of flour on the thickening property of
starch needs more attention. Candidates did not know the thickening property of starch. The correct answers were as
follows:
22 (a) - main sources of energy (starch) rich in carbohydrate/fibre

- unrefined cereals are good sources of dietary fibre
- provide protein of low BV
- provide minerals, iron, calcium, phosphorus
- provide vitamins, vitamin B, complex, thiamine (any) [3]
(b) - the changes that occur in starch when cooked by dry heat is called dextrination
- colour changes to brown
- taste becomes slightly sweet
- thickening powder is reduced
- starch become more soluble (any) [4]

(c) - maize products (corn flour) ̶ have double the thickening power of wheat products like cake flour
or
- less corn flour than cake flour is used to thicken the same amount of liquid [2]
(d) - tender but still firm/el dente [1]
Question 23 (a) was poorly answered. Candidates were not able to distinguish between the fat content of dairy and
non-dairy products. 23 (b) Principles of the handling and storing of fresh milk were answered well. The correct answers
were:
23 (a) - dairy products fat 4% ̶ 5%

- full cream can be reduced to 2% or skimmed milk
- non-dairy supplies 25% or more lipids than dairy/varying amounts of fat [3]
(b) - Keep in coldest part of refrigerator/under bed in a calabash

- keep in clean covered container
- never mix old milk with cold milk
- never leave outside (any) [3]
Question 24 (a) was poorly answered. The question specified ways to prevent contamination of poultry during cooking.
Most candidates referred to contamination during preparation and therefore received no marks. 24 (b) and (c) were well
answered. The correct answers were as follows:
24 (a) - cook to well-done stage to prevent bacterial growth

- stuffed chicken should be cooked until the stuffing reaches a temperature of at least 74°C
- when cooked in oven, temperature always be more than 160°C
- serve cooked chicken immediately or cool in refrigerator if it is to be served cold
- apply high temperature [2]
(b) - speeds up the change from collagen to gelatine

- shortens cooking time
- gives fish a firmer flesh/improves texture
- whitens the fish/improves appearance
- enhances flavour/taste (any) [3]
(c) (i) white fish ̶ steam, bake, fry, grill, poach/moist heat method
(ii) oily fish ̶ bake, grill, fry/dry heat methods [2]
Question 25: This question was fairly well answered. Please emphasise that “taste and flavour” is the same thing and
only 1 mark was allocated.
25 (c) This part of the question “Explain the physical changes in baked products due to the action of the raising agents”
was very poorly answered. The correct answers were:
25 (a) - inhibits gluten ̶ formation to form a soft texture

- can incorporate air (creaming method)
- contributes to flavour/taste
- helps to hold moisture in cake batters
- add to brown colour that develops during baking (any) [3]
(b) - gives a soft texture

- helps to incorporate air ̶ creaming method
- contributes to flavour
- contributes to the keeping quality
- give a glossy, shiny appearance (any) [2]

(c) - Gas required for raising/gas develops in various ways/ carbon dioxide
- Gas is trapped in raw mixture by the gluten network
- During heating gas bubbles expand ̶ causing dough to increase volume/rise
- Gluten stretches ̶ sets in risen form when protein coagulates (any) [3]
[48]
Family Life Education (8 marks)
This question about stress was well answered by most of the candidates.
26 (a) back, neck pain/muscle tension/loss of sleep/sleep more/loss of appetite/diarrhoea and constipation/
headaches/fatigue (tiredness)/stomachaches/racing heart/nausea/weakness (any) [2]
(b) anger/anxiety and fear/constant worry/feelings of unhappiness, helplessness, demotivated/

depression/uncertainty/unable to make decisions ̶ feeling powerless (any) [2]
(c) - Recognise stress and deal with it ̶ seek help if necessary

- Develop a positive attitude ̶ don’t panic, don’t always expect the worst ̶ don’t lose control
- Develop a healthy lifestyle ̶ eat balanced meals/exercise regularly/don’t overload with work and
responsibilities
- Get a support system
- Develop a calm outlook on life ̶ don’t set too high standards
- Look after yourself ̶ be good to yourself/learn to relax – do gardening, reading, cycling, walking,
eat healthy, treat yourself, exercise (any) [4]
[8]
Management and Housing (16 marks)
This question was well answered. Some candidates did not know the term “senior citizens”. The correct answers were
as follows:
27 (a) - small kitchen with adequate storage and counter space so that everything is within reach
- small house to conserve energy
- plenty of sun and warmth
- safety devices, e.g. burglar bars, security doors
- single storey house without steps
- cheaper accommodation
- close to friends, family, doctors, church, shopping centres
- space for visiting children
- space for valued possessions, etc. (any) [8]
(b) - monthly expenses for accommodation may be lower than that of ownership
- people have greater mobility
- not responsible for maintenance
- do not pay taxes on the property
- not gaining equity, but not losing it either (any) [4]
28 (a) - gross income is money before deductions

- net income is money after deductions like P.A.Y.E., pension fund, etc. [2]
(b) - obtaining goods and services immediately and paying for them in the future [2]
[16]

Clothing and Consumer Education (8 marks)
Most candidates were able to answer the question about factors that influence wardrobe planning. Make sure to give
at least two factors for two marks. The correct answers were as follows:
29 (a) Money ̶ should not be more than 10% of income. Clothing budget should be planned in advance.
Buy needs first ̶ look for quality (any) [2]
(b) Activities/needs ̶ depends on the lifestyle of a person, things one likes to do. For example (sports,
cultural, social activities) (any) [2]
(c) Fashion ̶ high fashion clothes are manufactured in small quantities and sold at high prices ̶ Mass
fashion consists of styles accepted by the majority. Sold at low prices ̶ Use fashion to suit figure type,
personal colouring, personality ̶ never become a slave to fashion. (any) [2]
(d) Availability of clothes ̶ due to available transport, clothes are available in most areas of the country
in stores/markets.
Existing clothes ̶ one should build on the clothes that are already part of the wardrobe. [2]
SECTION C
30 Not many candidates did well in this question. Candidates did not understand the properties of eggs and their use
in food preparation. The candidates did not know the definitions of coagulation, foaming and emulsifying. Structure
of Section C question should improve in most centres. The correct answer was:
Properties of eggs
N̶1
I̶1
P̶1
C̶1
4 + 16 = [20]
Coagulation:
Ovalbumien in egg white starts to coagulate at 60°C until the whole white is solid. Protein in egg yolk starts to
coagulate at 70°C until yolk is dry and hard. If overcooked the protein becomes tough and creates difficulty in
digestion. If eggs are heated too quickly the proteins will coagulate and shrink rapidly, causing the liquid that the
egg contains to be squeezed out, and the protein to become tough. This is called syncresis.
- Hard boiled eggs as food or as decoration (garnish)
- Eggs as thickener in custard/quiche
- To bind cooked starch mixtures
- Scrambled eggs and fried as dish
- Protective layer when coating and frying
Emulsification:
- Egg yolk contains emulsifying agent lecithin that makes egg yolk an effective emulsifier. The properties of
an emulsifier are that it can bind with both water and oil at the same time. This enables oil and water to be
mixed without separating. The lecithin therefore stabilises the mixture and forms stable emulsion
- Uses based on emulsification are: preparing foods like making mayonnaise/choux/shortened cakes/
Hollandaise sauce
Foaming properties:
- Foam traps air
- A foam is created when globules of gas are loaded and trapped in a liquid. Whisking and whipping
incorporate air and cause the products they are used in to be light in texture.
- Air is a physical raising agent
- Whole eggs’ foam used in sponge cakes
- Yolk foam beaten over heat basis for cold soufflés and sponges
- Egg white foam in different stages:
Foam stage: to clarify stock as thickening agent

Soft peak: soft meringues
soufflés
makes batters light
Stiff peak: meringues

soufflé omelettes
sponge cakes
Question 31: This question was answered fairly well. The question about economic factors that influence consumers
to buy was interpreted correctly.
The correct answer was as follows:

N̶1
I̶1
P̶1
C̶1
4 + 16 = [20]
Packaging policy
Packaging has three functions:

- Protects the contents
- Makes the products attractive
- Provides information
Different methods of packaging are used to attract consumer attention:

- Special packaging characteristics as in, for example, aerosols, self-applicators or reusable containers will influence
the consumer to buy
- Unique and tempting packages can be so attractive that a consumer will be willing to pay for them
- Multiple packaging, where related products are packed together for example, soap, shampoo
- Kaleidoscope packaging is a strategy in which part of the packaging is used from time to time for collectors pieces,
as for example, when super heroes appear on the back of breakfast cereal boxes
Price strategy
- Some consumers are attracted by high prices because they believe the more expensive product to be of superior
quality. Others always try to buy the cheapest product.
- The wise consumer knows how to select quality to suit the purpose.
- Includes sales, specials.
Shop Layout
The layout of shops is specifically planned to tempt customers and to stimulate impulse buying. Examples are
- Necessities like bread are placed at a the back of the shop.
- More expensive and less essential items are placed at eye level
- Shelves are often rearranged
- Small items like sweets, magazines, razor blades and batteries are placed conveniently at the check-out tills
- Special offers are usually placed in prominent positions
- An atmosphere conducive to spending is created by pleasant music
Advertisements
- Advertising serves a valuable purpose because it informs consumers regarding what there is to buy
- An advertiser not only informs consumers about his product, he also encourages them to buy the product
- Always remember that the primary function of advertisements is to sell, serving the consumer is its secondary
purpose
Reasons for advertisements

- All advertisements have a specific purpose to introduce a new product
- Increase sales
- Create a need for a new product
- Create brand awareness

- Advertisements are aimed at a specific target group because specific groups use certain products
- A message is conveyed to the consumer
Using advertisements to your advantage

- Learn to distinguish facts from fantasies
- Expect a product to perform its primary function, not miracles
- Become hard to persuade
- Use advertising for the information you need, e.g. where the product can be obtained, what the prices are and what
the product will do
- Question claims to “best”, “the only solution” or “a must”. Not all products can be the best or the only solution and
neither must you have everything.
[20]
[40]

4343
Paper 2
General comments
There was an improvement compared to 2012, especially in the quality of the dishes prepared.
Candidates’ performance
Overall, the standard of work provided by candidates was better than that produced last year. All centres made use of
old practical question papers to make sure that recipes and assignments given were on Grade 12 standard.
General problems
• Make sure candidates’ numbers, names and assignments chosen appear at the top of each preparation page.
• If a certain ingredient is not available in your region or town, replace it with something similar. Just indicate the
replacement on the marking sheet.
• Some teachers still do not give comments on the marking sheets ̶ it is compulsory to motivate the given marks
through supportive comments.
• Some centres still compile the practical exercise during the Grade 12 examination sessions. Practical exercises are
supposed to be conducted as follows: one at the end of the Grade 11 year and one before the final examination.
Please consult the syllabus, page 19. Candidates are required to carry out two (2) coursework practical exercises.
It is compulsory. One should be completed by the end of Grade 11 and the second by the end of the 2nd term of
Grade 12.
For the coursework teachers must provide learners with two assignments from which they must choose one. If you
provide the recipes, provide at least 9 (nine) recipes from which they can choose. These practical exercises must be
the unaided work of the learners and must be carried out under examination conditions. During the coursework practical
exercise there should be proper supervision.
• For each practical exercise teachers must provide the two assignments, recipe booklet as well as the memo – to
send through for moderation at the end of Grade 12.
• Do not order water.
• Most centres improved on the time plans. Take baking/cooking time of last dish into consideration for proper
planning. All dishes must be done (completed) in 2 hours. If late no marks can be allocated for this specific dish.
If examiners did not penalise the candidate on dishes that were not ready on time, the moderators cancelled the
marks given to the third dish.
• Some teachers still allocated high marks for a low standard of evaluation. Words like “food is nice good, attractive,
tasty” cannot receive a mark. Descriptive words must be used, e.g.”the crust is golden brown, or burnt, well raised
with a soft, moist, coarse texture, enough salt and you can taste the ginger”. Please encourage your learners to
evaluate each dish separately according appearance, taste and texture.
• Marks allocated to reason of choice: the reason must refer back to the assignment. “I chose the recipe because
all three demonstrate the different properties of eggs, coagulation, foaming and emulsifying.”
• Most centres sent in only two photos. Please send in 1 (one) close-up photo of the food. If possible, cut out a slice
and display it in such a way that the texture is visible on the photo. Add a second photo where the candidate sits
behind his/her laid table – include table decoration. The third photo must be a group photo. Let the the candidates
sit at their tables and take a photo. There is no need for candidates to hold dishes in their hands. The whole group
of candidates are supposed to be finished at the same time.
• Some centres still sent in coursework without the given assignment, recipe booklet and memorandum. Please send
in all three (3) pieces with the coursework – it is compulsory.
• Some centres still sent in loose papers. Please staple together preparation sheet of candidate, with mark sheet
of teacher on top and then add the two photos. Group photos can be in an extra small envelope. Make sure the
correct photographs appear on candidates’ work. Photos should reflect or correspond with dishes chosen and time
plan of candidates.
• It is the responsibility of the teachers to make sure that they follow up money matters with their Regional Office, to
make sure that the money budgeted for Home Economics is allocated on time.

Improvement:
All centres should take note of the following:

• Standard and neatness of preparation sheets.
• Time plans were better. Remember that only temperature and cooking times are allowed in the column for special
points.
• All photos were visible and close-up.
• Standard of dishes was on Grade 12 level.
• Standard of marking scripts – be careful of unrealistically high marks for results.
• Display dishes.
• Thank you for work well done.

4343
Paper 3
General comments
The moderators would like to thank all the examiners who sent in good and well cared for work. All examiners use the
mark schemes to mark the practical test of their candidates.
Appropriateness of assignments
There was an improvement in the appropriateness of the dishes chosen for the assignment. The best dishes for
Assignment 1 (one) were as follows.
Light meals
Dishes set table for a light meal Cooking method Main ingredient
A - Cheese soufflé Baking Egg
- Vegetable ham cougere Baking and boiling Chicken
B - Puffed omelette with Mexican filling Shallow frying Egg/vegetables
- Potato frittata Shallow frying Vegetables
C - Paella Boiling Chicken/rice
Spaghetti bolognaise Boiling Red meat/spaghetti
The highest marks went to candidates who chose one recipe from A, B and C, illustrating different cooking methods and
a variety of dishes. Any other dish chosen did not suit the assignment of light meals and therefore they were penalised
for choice, and results were marked out of 5 instead of 10.
The correct choice for Assignment 2 was as follows:
Properties of eggs and different cooking methods.
Suitable dishes Main property Plain cooking method

(a) Cinnamon dumplings Coagulation and foaming Boiling
Old-fashioned blancmange Coagulation Boiling
(b) Sago pudding Coagulation and foaming Baking and boiling
Cheese soufflé Foaming Baking
(c) Puffed omelette with Mexican filling Foaming Shallow frying
Potato filling Coagulation Shallow frying
(d) Vegetable ham Emulsifying Baking and boiling
cougere
The highest marks were awarded to the candidates who chose (d) vegetable ham cougere and 1 from A, B or C. Any
other dishes chosen did not suit the assignment of properties of eggs and therefore they were penalised for choice, and
results were marked out of 5 instead of 10.
Most candidates chose Assignment 1. The practical test was overall of a high standard.
GENERAL PROBLEMS EXPERIENCED WITH THE PRACTICAL TEST
1 The standard of photographs was of a high quality – please include the following:
(a) 1 x close-up photo of the food – cut out a piece of the dish and display it in such a way that the inside of the
dish is visible.
(b) 1 photo with the candidate and her/his dishes at a set (laid) table – that shows the total picture, which includes
the table decoration.
(c) 1 x group photo – let all six candidate sit at their tables with the dishes on it and take a group photo. Candidates
do not need to hold dishes in their hands. It should not be a problem, the group is supposed to be finished at
the same time.
2 The order of the summary forms still differs from the order of the MSI in some centres – that issue needs more
attention.
3 Some centres still send in loose papers in a plastic bag. Please staple the candidates’ preparation, mark sheets
of teachers, and photos together, with the mark sheet and photos on top. Make sure that the assignment number
appears on mark sheet plus the preparation sheets of candidates.
4 Replacement of an ingredient is allowed if they have the same function. Inform the moderators in a letter added to
the paper.
5 Consult DNEA in case of serious problems, for example, misprint of photos – practicals cannot be repeated.
6 Do not wait until near the examination to make arrangements for the budget. This must be done in advance –
money is needed throughout the year for practices.
7 Do not remove a dish like soufflé from the oven-dish, as it spoils the appearance. A photo of this type of dishes
that shrinks as soon as they cool off could be taken immediately after the candidate has removed it from the oven
– send in as proof of appearance.
8 All candidates need to use their own individual table decorations and not borrow something from his/her friend. The
same décor can’t be on all the tables.
PROBLEMS EXPERIENCED WITH
9 Work plan.
(a) Make sure of correct choices form the received memo – use memo as reference for marking.
(b) List of ingredients - Encourage candidates to order garnish

- Do not subtract marks for including techniques (workshop February 2013).
(c) Shopping list

- Do not order water
- Salt is a condiment and spice.
Time plan
- Include washing up in between
- Make sure that the last recipe has enough cooking time (The recipes with the longest cooking time,
must be prepared first)
(d) Evaluation
- Reason for choice – Refer back to assignment, for example preparation of eggs: “I chose the three
dishes because they include all preparations, of eggs coagulation, foaming and emulsifying.”
- Please encourage your learners to do a complete evaluation of one dish according to appearance, taste
and texture as a whole before they move to dishes 2 and 3.
IMPROVEMENTS ON PRACTICAL EXAMINATION

1 Standard of photos
2 Standard of preparation sheet of candidates – it was neat and well planned.
3 Standard of marking.
4 Standard of quality of dishes.
5 Standard of overall presentation.

MATHEMATICS
4324
Paper 1
General comments
Overall, the standard of the question paper was similar to that of last year.
The following aspects proved to be challenging to the learners, which resulted the loss of marks.
• The use of decimal point. Learners should be taught not to write a comma for thousand separators. If the number
is a decimal number, learners should use a point.
• Learners should be encouraged to read and understand the requirements of the question before answering. Many
transcription errors were made, especially in Question 4.
• Encourage the learners to show their workings on the spaces provided below the question and write only the final
answer on the answer space.
• Encourage the learners to write down their full calculator display before they attempt to round off any answer.
• Encourage the learners to write with pen because some learners showed the workings with pencil and erased the
working.
1 This question was very well answered, although some learners rounded their answer to one decimal place.
Learners should be encouraged not to round off exact answers.
1 23.55 B1 Accept 23.6 (0) 1
2 This question was fairly answered. The concept of HCF and LCM needs to be emphasised more to the learners.
2 7 B1 c.a.o. 1
3 This question was poorly answered. The majority of learners misinterpreted the first scale on diagram A. Some
learners wrote the mass of the fish as –1.3 kg which was impossible. The common wrong answer was 1.4 kg.
3 1.3 M1A1 M1 for 1.4 −0.1 2
4 This question was fairly answered. Teachers should teach the learners how to differentiate between dividing a
quantity in a given ratio and given a ratio with one outcome.
2
The common wrong method was x 1 040
3
M1 for 3/5 x 1040 or 0.6 x 1040 2

4 624 M1A1 M1 for 1 040 − 416 or
M1 for 208 x 3
5 This question was well answered. Learners showed the knowledge of writing numbers in standard form.
5 1.6 x 103 B1 c.a.o. 1

6 This question was moderately answered. Many learners multiplied out the expression correctly, but spoilt their
answers with further attempts to simplify the expression.
6a2 – 12ab B1 for 6a 2

6 B2
B1 for – 12ab 2
7 Calculator skills proved to be a challenge to many learners. Many learners seemed to ignore the fact that the
calculator is programmed with the BODMAS rule. Given a fraction, there is a need for using the brackets or
simplifing the numerator and denominator.
For Part (a), the common wrong answer was 3.526829268. For Part (b), most answer were spoiled by adding the
zeros. Writing 2.00 means 3 significant figures, not 1 significant figure.
7 (a) 1.56097561 B1 c.a.o.
(b) 2 B1 F.T from their (a) 2
8 This question was moderately answered. Most of the learners worked out the product of 15 and 70 g but failed to
write the answer in kilograms. Teachers need to display the information of conversions in their classroom.
M1 for 15 x 70 seen or 1050 seen 2

8 1.05 M1A1
M1 for 15 x 0.07
9 Many learners did not earn full marks because they factorised the expression partially. Some learners knews how
to determine the correct factors but they wrote one factor on the expression and one on the answer space, which
in losing the mark.
9 4x (x + 3y) B1B1 B1 for 4x

B1 for (x + 3y)
Sc1 for 4(x2 + 3xy)
Sc1 for x(4x + 12y) 2
Sc1 for 2x(2x + 6y)
Sc1 for 2(2x2 + 6xy)
10 This question was poorly answered since many learners failed to convert 4 hours 18 min to hours.
350
A common wrong method was with a common wrong answer 83.7 km/hr.
4hrs 18min
M1 for 18 ÷ 60 or 0.3 seen or 4.3 seen
10 81.4 M1A1 M1 for 350 ÷ 4.3 seen 2
M1 for 350 ÷ 258 seen
1
11 Part (a) of this question was very well answered. In Part (b), many learners could not write ℓ to mℓ.
2
Conversion seemed to be a difficult topic to most of the learners. The common wrong answers were 274.75 or
2.5.
11 (a) Y B1 c.a.o. 1
1 1
(b) (±) 25 mℓ B1 Accept (±) 0.025l or (±)
40

12 This question was poorly answered. Most of the learners subtracted 1:05 p.m. from 9.30 a.m. Teachers should
concentrate more on time calculations and mostly on the difference between the 24 hours and 12 hours clocks.
12 3 h 35 min B1 c.a.o. 1
13 This question was well answered although some learners wrote the upper bound in the place of lower bound.
B1 for each answer

13 5850 ≤ h < 5950 B2
Sc1 for 5950 ≤ h < 5850 2
14 This question was moderately answered. Learners listed many numbers while there was only one correct answer.
The majority of the learners could not identify the non-real number. For Part (d), some learners gave 1 as a prime
number.
14 (a) –8 B1 c.a.o
(b) π B1 c.a.o
(c) –3 B1 c.a.o
(d) 2 B1 c.a.o
15 This question was extremely well answered although there were a few learners who could not differentiate between
< (less than) and > ( greater than) signs.
15 (a) < B1 c.a.o

(b) > B1 c.a.o
(c) = B1 c.a.o
(d) > B1 c.a.o
16 Simultaneous equations are a challenge to most learners. Some learners did not show their workings. Teachers
should teach this topic with care, especiallly the method of substitution. The majority of learners had a problem with
the subject of the formula. For 2x – y = 6, learners wrote y = 6 – 2x instead of y = 2x – 6.
x=4 M1 for 5x = 20 seen or

16 y=2 M2A1 M1 for –5y = –10 seen 3
M1 for correct substitution
17 This question was moderately answered. A common wrong answer was 324°.
17 216 B1 c.a.o. 1
18 Part (a) of this question was extremely well answered. In Part (b), learners failed to multiply out the equation
correctly. For 20 = 2(8 + b), learners wrongly multiplied out as 20 = 16 + b.
A common wrong answer was 4.
18 (a) 16 B1 c.a.o.
(b) 2 M1A1 M1 for 20 = 16 + 2b o.e. seen 3

M1 for 10 = 8 + b

19 Part (a) of this question was fairly answered. In Part (b)(i), a fraction that can be simplified is a common fraction or
vulgar fraction, mixed fraction but not a decimal fraction. In Part (b)(iii), learners lost marks because of rounding.
If the accuracy is not specified, answers should be written to 3 or more significant figures.
19 (a) Belgian B1 c.a.o.

(b) 1 B1 c.a.o.
6
(c) 16.7% B1 1 3
accept 16 , 16.66(66667)
2
F.T their (b) x100%
20 Vectors seemed to be a challenging topic for most learners. In Part (a) and (c), some learners spoilt their answers
by writing them as a fraction. In Part (b), many learners drew a correct line without direction.
20 (a) 2 B1 c.a.o.
−3
(b) Correctly drawn L1 Correct vector drawn with direction
(c) 10 B1 c.a.o. 3
8
21 Part (a) was moderately answered although the spelling of pentagon was a problem. Part (b) was poorly answered
since learners calculated the exterior angle of a pentagon or the interior angle of an octagon.
21 (a) Correctly drawn P2 P1 for each correct vertex from L1
(b) Pentagon B1 c.a.o.
(c) 45 M1A1 M1 for 360 ÷ 8 or 180 – 135 5
22 This question was well answered since many learners has an idea of Pythagoras’ theorem. The common wrong
answer were 5 and 1025 .
22 15 M1A1 2
M1 for 252 – 202 or 225 seen or
M1 for 252 – 202 seen or
M1 for 625 – 400 or
M1 for 225 seen
23 This question was moderately answered although some learners were unaware of circle geometry. In Part (b), the
spelling of isosceles triangle was a problem.
23 (a) (i) 90 B1 c.a.o
(a) (ii) 60 B1 F.T. for 180 – 30 – their (a)(i)
(a) (iii) 45 B1 c.a.o.
(b) Isosceles or right angle B1 c.a.o. 4

24 This question was moderately answered. Most learners identified the correct trigonometry ratio to use but lost
marks on rounding.
24 5.36 (2891167) M1A1 M1 for tan 50 = TS ÷ 4.5 o.e. seen 2

M1 for tan 40 = 4.5 ÷ TS o.e. seen
25 Part (a) and (b) were extremely well answered. Part (c) was poorly answered, the learners struggled to determine
the scale used on each axis on the graph.
25 (a) 50 B1 c.a.o.
(b) 65 B1 c.a.o.
4
(c )(i) Range 31 – 34 B1 c.a.o.
(c) (ii) Range 211 – 214 B1 c.a.o.

4324
Paper 2
General comments
The paper was of a similar standard to as last year’s paper.
The overall performance of the learners was good. Marks ranged from 0 to 75. There was still evidence of learners
who were entered on the wrong level, resulting in very poor marks. Assist learners to register at the right level. Some
learners cannot cope with the demands of extended and should be advised to take mathematics at core level.
Questions that the learners found really difficult in the question paper, were Questions 10, 13(c), 14, 16 and 20.
Learners should be taught to show complete methods, as this allows them to gain marks for correct methods even
though their answers are wrong. Working must be shown in the spaces provided on the question paper. If a question
states, show that the answer is, the learners must be taught to show all their working and not to leave out some steps
as the answer is provided.
Many unnecessary marks were lost due to rounding, especially in Question 17(b). In Question 5, learners were not
allowed to round, as the question dealt with boundaries.
1 (a) Fairly answered and it was clear that candidates showed a lack of calculator skills. A common wrong answer
was 0.384900179. Learners also failed to give the whole calculator display, and rounded their answers.
(b) Moderately answered. Some learners still added extra zeros, which counted as significant figures and lost
unnecessary marks.
Mark Scheme
2
1 (a) 0.15713484(03) or B1
9
(b) 0.1571 B1 (F.T.)
2 (a) Poorly answered. Learners doid not know how to convert different units in area.
(b) Well answered.
Mark Scheme
2 (a) 62 000 000 B1

6.2 x 107 B1 (F.T)
(b) Moderately answered. Some learners failed to give a final answer and left it not simplified as –23 –1 or 1 – – 3.
Mark Scheme
3 (a) 1°C B1
(b) 24 / –24 B1

4 Fairly answered, but learners did not know how to write time. Some learners gave the answer as 20 hours 55
minutes and should be taught the difference between the duration of time and a specific time.
Mark Scheme
4 20 : 55 B1 8.55 p.m.
5 Poorly answered. Learners did not realise that this question dealt with limits of accuracy. A common wrong
answer was 32.5. It must also be emphasised that learners may not round their answers when they deal with limits
(boundaries).
Mark Scheme
5 6.5 – 0.05
= 6.45 M1
6.45 x 5 32.5 M 0
= 32.25 A1 Exact, should not be rounded
6 Well answered, although some learners did not know the meaning of the comma, which indicates a space on their
calculator and changes their value to 541.200.
Mark Scheme
6 33 x 8.20 x 2000 M1
= N$541 200 A1
7 Moderately answered. Learners could simplify the perfect square, and learners who were able to simplify the
bracket, were not able to deal with the minus sign in front of the bracket.
A common wrong answer was 3x2 – 15x + 10.
Mark Scheme
7 3(x2 – 4x + 4) – (3x – 2) M1 any one correct

= 3x2 – 12x + 12 – 3x + 2 M1 allow one slip
= 3x2 – 15x + 14 A1
8 (a) Very well answered, although not all the learners saw the difference in colours. In the mark scheme, provision
was made for a line symmetry of 1.
(b) Well answered.
Mark Scheme
8 (a) 0 B1 Allow 1
(b) 2 B1

(b) Moderately answered. Learners did not know the meaning of more than 30 email messages and gave the
answer as inequalities or 38 or 30 messages. (They did not add 38 and 30.)
Mark Scheme
(15 x 9) + (25 x 23) + (35 x 38) + (50 x 30) (3 or more mdp values seen
9 (a) M1 x with no. of days)
100
3 540
= M1
100
= 35.4 A1
(b) 68 B1
10 (a) Poorly answered. Learners failed to solve the quadratic equation and gave answers as expressions with the
unknown a.
(b) Poorly answered. Most learners did not know the term undefined.
Mark Scheme
10 (a) –2 B1
1 B1
2
(b) 3 B1
11 Poorly done. Learners had a poor understanding of the laws of indices and more attention should be given to this
topic in the syllabus. Some learners only wrote an answer. Learners must be taught if a question is stated, show
all your working because the examiners want to see the working.
Mark Scheme
11 24 M1 o.e 42
2 3 3 3
(x ) = (2 )
3 2 4 2
M1 o.e. (42) 2
x = 26
x = 64 A1
12 Poorly answered. Learners lacked the knowledge of terminology like congruent and did not know the properties of
quadrilaterals. Some learners did not answer false and true, but used the words “yes” and “no”.
Mark Scheme
12 (a) False B1
(b) True B1
(c) False B1

13 (a) Well answered. Most learners knew how to find the gradient, although some candidates put the x-change on
the y-change.
(b) Poorly answered.
(c) Extremely poorly answered. The topic on coordinate geometry definitely needs more attention.
Mark Scheme
13 (a) 16 – 4 M1
M=
11 – 2
12
9
4
o.e A1
3
(b) 3 B1 (F.T) Opposite signs reciprocal
– B1 (F.T.)
4
3 –3
(c) = o.e M1 Setting up a correct equation
x – 11 4
12 = – 3(x – 11) A1 c.a.o.

12 = –3x + 33
3x = 21
x=7
14 This whole question was extremely poorly answered. Learners did not know that probability is a value between 0
and 1. They did not know how to handle the words “or” and “and” in the question. Some answers were given as
ratios, which are not allowed in a probability question.
Mark Scheme
14 (a) 4 M1
16
A1
1
(b) o.e. M1
4
8 A1
(c) 16
M1
1
o.e.
2 A1
(d) 8 8
+ B1
16 16
=1
0

15 Moderately answered. Most learners were able to identify the transformation, but the description of the transformation
was poorly done. There were still learners who used the word translocation, instead of translation. The line which
was printed darker in the question paper was taken into consideration in the marking, which led to some confusion
amomg some learners.
Mark Scheme
15 (a) Reflection in the line B1

x=3 B1
(b) Translation with vector B1

−4 B1 SC1 if both correct but swopped
−1 B1
(c) Rotation about B1

90° anticlockwise / +90° / 270 clockwise / −270 B1
Centre (0; −2) B1
16 (a) Well answered. Most learners got the answer by keep on dividing the height instead of realising that they were
dealing with a geometrical progression.
(b) Poorly done. Learners tried to write an equation instead of an algebraic expression.
(c) Fairly answered. Most learners got the answer by repeating their division, the formulas were very seldom
seen.
Mark Scheme
16 (a) 1
2:1:
2
a=2
1
r= SC1 for answer 0.125 o.e. seen
2
Tn = ar n − 1
1 5
T6 = 2 M1
or 2
1 A1
= 0.0625 or
16
1
1st bounce 4 x
2
1 1
2nd bounce 4 x x M1
2 2
1 6
(b) 6th bounce 4 x A1
2
= 0,0625 m B1B1B1
1 n−1
or 2
2
= 21 . 2−n + 1
= 22 - n
B1B1B1
1 n
(c) 4
2
= 22 . 2−n
= 22 − n
1 M1(F.T.) SC1 for
22 − n = M1
512 1 1
= 4(0.5) 2
22 − n = 2−9 512
2 – n = –9 dep on eq in (b)
A1c.a.o.
n = 11 M2 implied if 12 bounces seen

17 (a) Well answered, although some learners omitted some working which led to a loss in marks.
(b) Poorly done. Learners handled the triangle as a right-angled triangle and use their trigonometry ratios sin, cos
and tan to find the angle of depression.
Mark Scheme
17 (a) DF 2 = 312 + 202 – 2(31)(20) COS 82 M1 M1 M1 for use of Cos-formula, but

DF = 1188.425355 one slip
E1
DF = 34.5
Sin CDF Sin 82 M1 M1 180- (62.84+82)

(b)
20 34.5
20 Sin 82
M1
34.5
Sin CDF =
∠CDF = 35.0
∠CDF = 90 – 35.0 A1 Allow 54.8
= 55.0° (54.8° – 55.0°) correct to 1 dp
(b) Well answered. Most learners scored one mark for the correct arc length, but forgot to add the 13 cm.
Mark Scheme
18 (a) 30 π(6.5)2
x
360 1
30 132.73229 M1
= x
360 1
= 11.061024 A1 a.r.t. 11,1
30 2π(6.5)
(b) x + 2 x 6.5
360 1
30 40.840704 M1
= x + 13
360 1
= 16.40339204 A1 a.r.t. 16.40
(b) Moderately answered. Most learners got the answer in (a) correct, but failed to give the correct reason. Co-
interior angles instead of corresponding angles were a common wrong answer.
(c) Fairly answered, although some learners tried to use trigonometry ratios instead of similarity properties to find
the sides.

(d) Moderately answered, although some learners still forgot to square the ratio of the figures.
Mark Scheme
19 (a) 56° B1
Corresponding angles BE//CD B1
(b) Similar B1
8 AB
(c) = M1
12 15
12AB = 120
120
AB = 2
12
= 10 cm M1
8 2 12 2
(d) 36 cm2 x (1.5)2 2 / o.e.
= 81 cm2 12 8
20 Poorly answered. Most learners managed to score 2 marks for the area under the graph, but they were not able
to form an equation for the maximum speed for Ricardo. A common wrong answer was 9.6 m/s.
Mark Scheme
20 1 1
A= (3 x 12) + (9 x 12) + (3 x 12) M1 Area under the graph (at least 2
2 2
correct seen)
1 1 or
= (36) + 108 + (36)
2 2
1
= 144 A1 (12)(15 + 9)
2
1 M1 Equation
x 15 x V = 144
2
144
1
V = (15) M1(dep) V the subject
2
= 19.2 m.s−1 A1

4324
Paper 3
General comments
Compared to the previous year, the standard of work did not change. Most learners finished within the given time. The
marks scored were in the range from 0 to 88.
The instructions on the front of the question paper stated that answers should be given to three significant figures only
when they are not exact. Some learners still rounded exact answers to three significant figures.
Learners should be made aware that when stated NOT TO SCALE in a diagram, it means that sides and angles in that
diagram are not exact. Some learners measured the angles and sides in the given diagrams.
Specific syllabus components that learners struggled with included estimation, compound interest, algebra, probability
and mensuration.
The inappropriate use of the comma and decimal point still remains a challenge. Learners should be extra careful when
using the decimal point, because it changes the meaning/value of a given number.
1 (a) (i) Fairly well answered, although some learners gave the wrong answer of 0.336.
(ii) Well answered.
(iii) Well answered.
(b) Well answered.
(c) Mostly well answered, but some just gave the answer as 4.
(d) Very poorly answered. Many learners had no idea how to estimate.
1 (a) (i) 0.35 B1 c.a.o

(ii) 30 B1
(iii) 8/25 B1
(b) (i) 51 B1
(ii) 49 B1
(iii) 57 B1 c.a.o
(c) –4 B1
(d) 120 – 130 B1 8
2 (a) Well answered, although a few learners swopped the number of goats and sheep.
(b) Fairly well answered. Some learners divided instead of multiply. It should be noted that an indication of cross-
multiplication is not enough to score the method mark.
(c) (i) Many learners calculated 2/9 of 450 correctly, but then did not complete the calculation by subtracting
their answer from 450. Very few learners directly calculated 7/9 of 450.
(ii) Many learners struggled to find the male livestock and worked with 450:270 and then simplified it to 5:3.

(d) Frequently some learners who found the difference of 60, did not divide it by 510 but by 450. The rounding of
the final answer was also a problem. Many just wrote 12. This is a case where it was important to correctly
round to three significant figures.
2 (a) (i) 189 M1A1 M1 for 0.42 × 450

(ii) 261 B1f.t f.t for 450 – their (a)(i)
(b) 517.39 M1A1 M1 for 11900/23

Accept 517 and 517.4
(c) (i) 350 M1A1 M1 for 7/9 x 450 or M1 for 450 – 2/9 x 450
(ii) 2: 3 M1A1 M1 for 180: 270 SC1 for 3: 2
(d) 11.8 M1A1 M1 for (60/510) x 100 or M1 100 – (450/510 x 100) 11
3 (a) Fairly well answered, but there were some learners who divided by 1.12 instead of multiply.
(b) This question was fairly well answered. It was clear that most of the learners were familiar with the formula to
calculate compound interest. Many of those who got the correct answer with the formula, then went on and
added the 20 000 to their answer, not realising that the formula gives the final amount (which includes the
interest).
(c) Very few learnersrealised that this calculation could be done directly by calculating 85% of 135 000. A common
mistake was to calculate 15% of 135 000 and then forget to subtract the answer from 135 000. Some learners
misread the number 135 000 as 135 and then gave 114.75 as their answer
3 (a) 5096 M1A1 M1 for 4550 x 1.12
(b) 22050 M2A1 M2 for 20000(1.05)2

M1 for 20000(1.05)
or M1 for 1000 and M1 for 1050
(c) 114750 M1A1 M1 for 0.85 x 135000

Or M1 for 135000 – (0.15 x 135000) 7
4 (a) Very poorly answered. Many learners did not even attempt to answer this question. Some of those who did
answer it, only showed a dot and a circle without a line connecting them.
(b) Moderately answered. Attempts at substitution were rarely seen. Many learners got only one of the two
inequalities correct.
4 (a) line, circle at –2, dot at 3 B1B1 SC1 for correct circle, dot and no line
(b) (i) < B1
(iii) > B1 4
5 (a) (i) Surprisingly many learners could not write down an equation in n. Some just rewrote the numbers and
gave the wrong answer of n, n + 1 and n + 2.
(ii) This was an easy equation to solve, but learners who could not write the correct equation in (i) struggled
with the solution. Many just substituted numbers into n and came up with the correct answer of 11. Some
who got the answer 11, struggled to give the three numbers correctly.
(b) This quadratic equation was better answered than in previous years, but many learners still had no idea how
to do it. Some even multiplied the brackets out and then tried to solve the equation. It should be noted that
Core level candidates are only expected to solve quadratic equations which are already in factor form.
5 (a) (i) 3n + 3 = 36 B1
3n = 33 M1
n = 11 A1
(ii) 11, 12, 13 B1 c.a.o
(b) 2,–5 B1B1 6

(ii) Well answered.
(iii) Not very well answered. Some of the learners correctly calculated the total of number x frequency,
however they divided it by numbers other than 60. A common mistake was to divide by 6.
(b) Many different answers were given because of inaccurate reading from the bar chart. Learners should have
used rulers to make sure the readings were accurate.
(c) This question was fairly well answered. There were however, a few learners who gave the probabilities
in vector or ratio form and this was not accepted. Learners must note that when probabilities are given in
decimals, and if it is not an exact answer, it should be given to three significant figures.
6 (a) (i) 14 8 12 B1B1B1

(ii) 2 B1 M2 for 212/60 (M1 implied for 35.5)
(iii) 3.53 M2A1 M1 for 1 x 9 + 2 x 14 + 3 x 7 + 4 x 8 +…
M1 dep for (their total) ÷ 60
(b) (i) 50 M1A1 M1 for 6 + 10 + 5 + 7 + 16 + 6
(ii) 7 B1
(iii) 3 B1
(c) (i) 1/6 or 0.167 or 16.7% B1

(ii) ½ or 3/6 or 0.5 or 50% B1
(iii) 5/6 or 0.833 or 83.3% B1 14
7 Although a few learners measured the angles on the diagram, this question was fairly well answered. If it says:
NOT TO SCALE on the diagram, it means angles and lines are not accurate. The two angles 78˚ and 32˚ were
sometimes wrongly indicated as answers in the answer space.
7 a =70 B1
b =148 B1
c =32 B1 3
8 (a) Well answered, but there were some learners who failed to correctly continue the pattern given.
(b) Very well answered.
(c) Well answered
(d) This question seemed to be challenging for the learners. Some of those who knew the formula, failed to do
the correct substitution. The wrong answer n + 3 frequently occurred.
8 (a) 2 correct diagrams B1B1

(b) 13 16 B1B1
(c) 37 B1
(d) 3n + 1 B1B1 SC1 for 4 + 3(n – 1) 7
9 (a) Learners used many different formulae to answer this question. Some did not find the radius of the circle
before finding the volume of the cylinder. Rounding to three significant figures was a big problem.
(b) (i) The correct answer to this question was rarely seen. Most of those who attempted this, wrongly divided
the volume of the box by the volume of the cylinder. The answer should have been found by dividing
the length of a side of the box by the diameter of the cylinder e.g. 48/4 = 12 and 24/4 = 6. The number of
cylinders that fit into the box is then given by 12 x 6 = 72.
(ii) This was well answered
(iii) Very poorly answered.

(c) Poorly answered. Some learners tried to use a formula but got confused between area and perimeter. It is
suggested that learners should learn about nets and from there on do the surface area.
9 (a) 125.6 – 126 M1A1 M1 for π(2)2 x 10
(b) (i) 72 M1A1 M1 for 12 and 6

(ii) 11520 M1A1 M1 for 48 x 24 x 10
(ii) 2448 – 2472 M1A1f.t M1 for their (b)(ii) – (b)(i) x their (a)
(c) 3744 M1A1 M1 for 2(48 x 10) + 2(24 x 10) + 2(48 x 24) 10
10 (a) Many different words were used to describe this transformation. Learners seldom found the correct vector for
the translation.
(b) This was done fairly well, but some learners tried to reflect the shape in other lines.
(c) This was poorly done. Enlargements were found all over the page. Learners did not use the correct centre
for the enlargement.
10 (a) translation B1 4
B1 SC1 for
−2
−2 B1
(b) vector correct figure B1 Correct reflection
4 B1 Correct position
SC1 for reflection in other line
(c) D1(-6,2) E1(-2,2)F1(-6,6) B1 Correct enlargement
B1 Correct position
SC1 for enlargement with s.f. – 2 7
11 The whole of this question was very poorly answered. Learners had difficulty in reading from given graphs.
11 (a) F B1
(b) y = –2 B1
(c) G B1
(d) (0 , 4) B1B1 SC1 for (4 , 0)
(e) 2 B1 6
12 (a) It seemed as if some learners did not have the necessary instruments for this question. Some also struggled
with the given scale. For constructions, accuracy is very important.
(b) Some of the learners who correctly measured the length in centimetres struggled to convert it to kilometres.
(c) Many of those who measured angle BAC correctly could not write it down in three-figure bearing form.
12 (a) AB = 6 cm ±0.1 B1
BC = 4.8 cm ±0.1 B1
angle B = 90° ±1° B1
(b) (i) 7.7 (±0.1) B1f.t

(ii) 1540 B1f.t their (b)(i) x 200
(c) 038 – 040 M1A1f.t M1 for their measured angle 7

4324
Paper 4
General comments
The paper was of a similar standard as last year. The marks ranged between 0 and 113, with many of the candidates
scoring between 35 and 87. It was still noticed that candidates entered fo Extended Level should rather have entered
for Core Level.
Overall the presentation of the papers was of a very high standard this year. It is advisable that candidates do not
start a question near to the bottom of a page. All working should be with the question. No working should be done on
separate sheets of paper. Candidates should be taught to NEVER write in double columns. Although it was not seen
very often this year, it was still seen that whole centres did it. They should also be taught to leave lines open between
subsections.
Most candidates could deal correctly with the rounding instructions. Candidates should be taught only to round their
final answer. This prevents the loss of accuracy caused by premature rounding. It is advisable that all answers should
be given as fractions. If answers are given as decimals, care should be taken that the answers are rounded correct to
3 significant figures.
Most candidates took care to show their working, which allowed them to gain marks for correct methods even when their
answers were wrong. However, candidates should be encouraged to show complete methods, especially when they
are asked to prove a quoted answer.
Candidates should realise that questions are structured in an attempt to help them. The earlier parts of a question are
often used in subsequent parts.
Most candidates did not finish the paper. Candidates should be encouraged to abandon questions that they cannot
complete with ease. They should rather leave space for such questions and come back to them after they have
attempted the answering of the whole paper. The question paper MUST be answered in NUMERICAL order. If
candidates prefer to do questions on their stronger topics first, they must allow ± a page per question.
Candidates should be taught to answer their questions completely, but must be discouraged from doing unnecessary
calculations, e.g. do not attempt to answer the same question in two different ways. Candidates should also take care
not to go beyond the correct solution and in the process spoil their correct answer.
Some candidates tended to write the same solution in different forms. This should not be encouraged, as wrong
working could spoil perfectly correct methods and answers.
1
If an answer of 5.3 h is changed to 5 hours, it spoils the accuracy of the answer and will be penalised.
4
Marks are only awarded for substitution into a correct formula, not for writing down a formula.
1 (a) Extremely well answered.
(b) Moderately answered. As the solution to this question was stated, the candidates had to start with a statement
and conclude that the answer was N$200 000. The N$200 000 may not be part of their working.
(c) Poorly answered. The minority of the candidates realised that they had to add the deposit to the monthly
instalments.
(d) Moderately answered. The wrong solution to Part (b) cost candidates the accuracy mark in this question.

1.5 18
(e) Well answered. A common mistake candidates made was to use instead of .
12 12
1 (a) N$30 000 www 2 2

M1: x 75 000
15 5
(b) x x = N$30 000 M1
100 M1
30 000 x 100 E1
x=
1.5 M1: his (a) +
= 200 000 www 3 M1: 4 550 x 54
www 2 75 700
(c) N$275 700 M1: x 100
www 2
200 000
(d) 37.9%
5.5 18
(e) M1: 45 000 x x o.e.
N$3 712.50 100 12
2 This whole question was answered extremely poorly. The majority of the candidates could not distinguish between
surface area and volume. Another common mistake was that candidates did not realise that the given formula was
for a sphere and not for a hemisphere.
2 (a) 4 710 m2 a.r.t. Accept 1500 π www 3 M 1: 2π x 15 x 35

M 1: ½ x 4 x π x 152
(b) (i) 23 900 000 ℓ a.r.t. www 3 M 1: (π x 152 x 35) + (½ x 4/3 π x 153)
M 1: ¾ x 31 808 625.62
(ii) 6.63 hrs www 2 M 1: (b)(i) ÷ 1 000 ÷ 60 ÷ 60
(c) 25.2 m www 3 M 1: ½ (20 + 15)h x 72
M 1: 31 808.6 ÷ 1 260 F.T. from b(i)
3 (a) Moderately answered. The most common mistake was that candidates could not deal with –2(x – 1). Some
candidates also wrongly omitted the denominator in their final answer. It was not necessary to multiply the
denominator out. Mistakes in the expanding led to the loss of their final mark.
(b) (i) Well answered. Some candidates lots the second mark, because they solved the brackets, hence wrongly
creating an equation instead of an expression.
(ii) Well answered.
(c) Well answered. Occasionally candidates had problems to rearrange the equation to equal to zero. It is not
recommended that candidates use completing of the square if the question does not require it. Very few
candidates can do completing of the square without making algebraic mistakes.
3 (a) 4x – 1 4x – 1 www 3 3(2x – 1) –2(x – 1)

or M1:
(x + 3)(x – 2) 2x – 3x + 1
2
(x – 1)(2x + 1)
(b) (i) (x + 3)(x – 2) 6x – 3 – 2x + 2
B2 M1:
x+3 (–1)(2x – 1)
(ii) www 3
x–3
SC 1: (x + b)(x + a) where ab = - 6 or a + b = 1
(c) 122 – 4(7)(–11) B1 B 2: (x – 3)(x – 2)
–12 + 21.26 –12 – 21.26 B1 SC 1: (x + b)(x + a) where ab = 6 or a + b = – 5
or
14 14 B1B1
12² – 4(7)( – 11)
0.66 –2.38 Substitution into correct formula
OR
2 11
x2 – x = B1
7 7
2 113 B1
x2 – =±
7 49
0.66 − 2.38 B1B1

4 (a) (i) Extremely well answered.
(ii) Moderately answered. Many candidates did not get the pattern of the sequence and wrongly proceeded
with the alphabet.
(b) (i) Extremely well answered.
(ii) Extremely well answered.
(c) Poorly answered. Many candidates wrongly tried to use the formula for an arithmetic sequence.
18 29
4 (a) (i) B1B1
29 47
a+b a+b
(ii) B1B1
a + 2b , a + 2b
4 5
(b) (i) B1B1
a+3;a+4 B2 B1: Either numerator or denominator correct.
1
50 www 3 M2: a = 10 – 4.5
(ii) 2
a + 49 10 1
M1: =
(iii) a = 11 a+9 2
5 (a) Moderately answered. Many of the candidates did not follow the instructions on how to do their scales.
Another common mistake was that candidates used inconsistent scales.
(b) Well answered. The question requested that answers must be correct to 1 decimal place. Many candidates
did not follow this instruction.
(c) Poorly answered. Many candidates gave 4 or 5 different answers, which was an indication that they did not
understand the question.
(d) Extremely poorly answered. Only a minority of the candidates realised that the graph had rotational symmetry.
(e) (i) Moderately answered. Many wrong lines were seen. Other candidates drew cords or the lines missed the
point (–1, 3).
(ii) Extremely poorly answered. The candidates did not understand the question.
5 (a) Scale x-axis S1 2 cm for 1 unit (–2 to 4)

Scale y-axis S1 2 cm for 5 units (–16 to 8)
Plotted points P2 10 – 12 plots correct P1
Curve C1 <10 plots correct P0
(b) x = –1.3; 2; 3.2 B1B1B1 (± 0.1)
(c) k = –1 B2 – 0.1 to – 1.3
(d) Rotational symmetry B1

Order 2 B1
C.o.r. (1.5, 2.5) B1 Correct position
(e) (i) Tangent L1 13 – 3
m = 10 (8 ≤ x ≤ 12) B2 M1: m =
0 – (–1)
(ii) (3.6, 3) ± 0.2, ± 1.5 B1 Any 2 correct coordinates from their graph

6 (a) Well answered. A common mistake was that candidates worked out the length of AC and not the length of OA.
(b) Well answered. Again some of the candidates wrongly worked out the gradient of AC and not of OA.
(c) Moderately answered. Common mistakes candidates made was to work out the gradient of a perpendicular
line and/or to substitute the point (5,5) instead of (12,0).
(d) Moderately answered. Many candidates tried to work out a midpoint and did not know how to proceed from
there. The candidates who were taught to use vector-movements had the most success in this question. They
5
used , hence B(12 + 5, 0 + 5) = (17, 5).
5
6 (a) 5 2 or 7.07 or 50 www 2 M1: OC = 52 + 52

5–0
(b) m=1 B2 M1: m =
5–0
(c) y = x – 12 B3
M1: Use of gradient of 1
M1: Use (12,0) in correct formula
(d) B (17, 5) www 4 M3: x = 5 + 12

M2: 5 = x – 12
M1: y = 5
7 (a) (i) Extremely well answered.
(ii) Well answered.
(iii) Poorly answered.
(b) Extremely poorly answered. The minority of the candidates showed some understanding of vectors and the
direction of vectors.
(c) (i) Well answered. The correct substitution was mostly seen, but some candidates failed to do the
manipulation correctly.
(ii) Moderately answered. Many candidates did not add p + q first, but wrongly added the magnitude of p to
the magnitude of q. Another common mistake was to add the two vectors correctly, but then they failed
to calculate the magnitude.
7 (a) (i) 1 1 B1
b= b 1 mark per term
2 2
1 1
(ii) b – a = ( b – a) B2
2 2
3
(iii) (b – a) B1
(b) 5
(c) (i) 1 3
(ii) – b + a + (b – a) M1
2 5 o.e. method
2 1
a b M1
5 10
4 1 −1 −2 1
a+ b E1 M1: 3 − +2
10 10 3 −2 3
1 −3 +2 2
= (4a + b) B2 + +
9 +2 6
10
1 −1 −2 −3
M1: + =
17 3 −2 +1
M1: (−3)2 + (1)2
50 or 3.16 B3 Their p + q

8 In this question many transcription errors were seen. A possible cause for this was that the question was towards
the end of the paper and candidates rushed to finish.
(a) Moderately answered. Most candidates had a basic understanding of the logarithmic laws, but the execution
of the laws was poor.
(b) Moderately answered. Candidates who uses the trial and error method must have an accuracy of at least 3
significant figures to gain any marks. This method is not recommended. Many of the candidates who used
logarithms correctly gave their final answer to less than 3 significant figures.
(c) Well answered. It was occasionally seen that candidates who used synthetic division could not interpret their
correct work.
pq2 M2: log p x q2 – log r3

8 (a) log www 3 M1: log p + log q2 – log r3
r3
(b) x = 3.18 B3 M2: (x – 1) log 3 = log 11
M1: log3x - 1 = log 11
(c) Q = 2x2 = 3x + 4 B4 M2:

R = -31 –4 2 5 –8 –15
–8 12 –16
2 –3 4 –31
M 1: 2 terms correct
Any equivalent method

18 + 3
(ii) Well answered. A common mistake was not to order the values first, resulting in . Other candidates
ordered the values, but failed to find the median. 2
It was also seen that 16.5 was wrongly rounded to 17.
(iii) Poorly answered. The majority of the candidates referred to 3 and 6, the lowest scores. They did not
realise that they had to work with the mean and the median.
(b) (i) Well answered.
(ii) Moderately answered. Many of the candidates did not label their axes at all. The word CUMULATIVE
was very often not seen. As the candidates were not instructed what scale to use, some wrongly used
inconsistent scales to make plotting easier for them.
(iii) Extremely poorly answered. Only a minority of the candidates realised that they had to do their reading
at a cumulative frequency of 34.
(iv) Moderately answered. A common mistake was to think the interquartile range is 30 – 10 = 20. Many
candidates who tried to do their readings from their graphs misinterpreted the scale of the graph.
9 (a) (i) 16 B2 Sum of scores 192

M1: = =
12 12
(ii) 16.5 B2 M1: Ordering seen
(iii) Mean B1 F.T. B2: 4 correct
(b) (i) Table: 4, 13, 28, 38, 40 B3 B1: 2 or 3 correct
(ii) Labels L2 Cumulative Freq, Distance
Points plotted P1
Curve C1
(iii) 72 m ± 2 m B1
(iv) 29 B2 M1: 61 (± 3) or 32 (± 3)

10 (a) Extremely well answered.
(b) Moderately answered. The majority of the candidates had the first branch of the probability tree correct. It
was clear that probability trees were not taught at quite a few centres. The candidates drew normal trees and
referred to watering and taking care of them.
(c) (i) Poorly answered. They could not interpret their probability tree.
(ii) Poorly answered. Many of the candidates who attempted this question only worked with only one branch
of the probability tree instead of 2.
10 (a) 6 B1 c.a.o.
o.e.
12
3 r
11 2
r 11
6
p B2 for 1st branch Accept unsimplified fractions
1
11
w B1:2 of the first branch correct.
3
4 r
1 11 1
(b) 6 p 11
6
p B1 for each 2nd branch
1
11
w
2
4 r
11 2
w 11
5
p
11
w
1
(c) (i)
66 B1
4 4 6 6 4
(ii) B2 M1: x + x
11 12 11 12 11

OFFICE ADMINISTRATION AND KEYBOARDING APPLICATIONS
4348
Paper 1
SPEED AND ACCURACY
1 WE ARE GOING BACKWARDS EVERY YEAR! Fewer candidates than in 2012 reached the minimum speed of 30
w.p.m. Many candidates still did not reach the minimum speed of 30 w.p.m. Candidates must TYPE ACCURATELY
and FAST to be able to reach the REQUIRED SPEED of 30 W.P.M. It seems as if certain teachers did not practise
accuracy tests with the learners at all. THIS IS NOT ACCEPTABLE. There are centres where all the candidates
achieved a ZERO mark for Paper 1. Accuracy tests should be practised AT LEAST ONCE A WEEK.
2 Line spacing for the accuracy test should be 1.5 LINE SPACES (DO NOT USE 1.15 LINES SPACING! ! ! ! !) with
THREE LINES SPACES between two different paragraphs.
3 TWO SPACES after a full stop at the end of a sentence, a colon and a semi-colon.
4 ACCURACY will improve if candidates know TOUCH TYPING, i.e. read one letter at a time in your mind and
type that letter.
5 If candidates cannot type 30 w.p.m. they will not be able to complete Paper 4.
6 The footer must be inserted in COURIER NEW.

Mark
Scheme
4348/1
OCT./NOV. 2013
MAXIMUM
MARK
348
349
350
4348
Paper 3
General comments
1 Most of the learners DID NOT STUDY and questions were NOT ANSWERED SATISFACTORILY.
2 Learners should READ THE QUESTIONS PROPERLY. Candidates did not read the questions. They saw a
keyword and answered anything that came into their minds.
3 DO NOT WRITE IN TELEGRAM STYLE. WRITE IN FULL SENTENCES.
4 To obtain a mark a FULL FACT must be mentioned.
5 Teachers should adhere to the syllabus and not only rely on available notes and previous question papers.
6 CERTAIN TEACHERS DID NOT PAY ATTENTION AT ALL TO OFFICE ADMINISTRATION – they only paid
attention to the typing part of the syllabus. It is impossible that all learners in a class can fail this part hopelessly!
7 PLEASE NOTE: New notes for Paper 3 (Teacher’s Guide for NSSC Office Administration) are available from:
Mrs W. Wannberg (Tel.: 062-509000, Fax: 062-509004) or www.nied.edu.na
8 RECOMMENDATION: LEARNERS MUST WRITE AS MANY TESTS AS POSSIBLE. IT APPEARS AS IF THIS

IS NOT DONE ON A REGULAR BASIS.
1 (a) It was proved once again that most teachers rely on previous years’ examination papers. All work must be
studied. Poorly answered.
(b) Unsatisfactorily answered. Please note that you must `Name and Describe´. Learners only named.
(c) Unsatisfactorily answered. The answers were not factual. These questions appeared in many previous
examination papers and still learners could not answer them.
2 (a) Satisfactorily answered.
(b) Unsatisfactorily answered. Please note that you must `State and Describe´. Learners only named. Learners
should not get confused with the different methods of communication.
(c) Satisfactorily answered.
3 (a) Unsatisfactorily answered. A question where learners should have obtained full marks. Pay more
attention to Module 3.
(b) Poorly answered. Candidates could not identify the different parts in an e-mail address. (See page 25 in
notes.)
(c) Satisfactorily answered. Remember that “Accessibility” and “Simplicity” are the same facts.
(d) Only a few candidates could identify the different index systems.
4 (a) Candidates answered it satisfactorily.

(b) Candidates only read the question halfway. They only read “Mail” and assumed that it must be “incoming
mail”. Please read the complete question.
(c) This proves the point. Meeting terminology appeared in many previous examination papers. Poorly answered.
(See page 48 in Office Administration Notes.)
5 (a) (i) Satisfactorily answered. Candidates must be able to distinguish between the different duties and
responsibilities of the secretary ̶ “attending the meeting”. (See page 46 in Officer Administration Notes.)
(ii) Satisfactorily answered. Candidates must be able to distinguish between the different duties and
responsibilities of the secretary ̶ “acting as an observer”. (See page 46.)
(iii) Satisfactorily answered. (See page 46 in Office Administration Notes.)
(b) Disastrous. Many teachers did not teach the candidates to complete a petty cash book and therefore the
marks obtained were poor. Candidates should be able to complete (fill in) any form that is part of the syllabus.
Obtain a Grade 8 Accounting Book if exercises are needed.

Mark
Scheme
4348/3
OCT./NOV. 2013
MAXIMUM
MARK
353
354
355
356
357
358
359
360
361
362
363
4348
Paper 4
TEXT LAYOUT (COMPUTER)
General comments
1 OVERALL THE CANDIDATES PERFORMED POORLY IN PAPER 4. Candidates should remember that
ACCURACY carries more weight than layout and serious attention should be paid to the mastering of the keyboard
to enable candidates to obtain a better mark.
2 THE GENERAL TYPING RULES IN THE NEW KEYBOARD DIRECTIVES SHOULD BE STUDIED. LAYOUT OF
QUESTIONS WAS IN MOST CASES UNSATISFACTORY.
3 There was an improvement in the interpretation and application of manuscript signs. The manuscript sign that
needs more attention is #. (Leave a letter space between two different words.)
4 Learners must pay attention to the fact that WORDS WERE EITHER OMITTED OR ADDED TO THE TEXT.
Teachers should alert learners in this respect. Do touch typing, i.e., say one letter and type that letter.
5 This is hopefully the last time that we need to explain that the pages of each question need to be stapled together.
DO NOT STAPLE ALL THE QUESTIONS TOGETHER.
DO NOT STAPLE THE QUESTIONS TO THE COVER SHEETS.
Learners should staple the answers QUESTION FOR QUESTION and place it in the cover sheet.
Sort questions according to number and place in the cover sheet.
1 CORRESPONDENCE (BUSINESS LETTER)
1.1 Candidates should be taught how to apply given information. Display rules in the “Directives” should be studied.
1.2 If a letterhead must be created by a candidate, instructions must be followed carefully. Candidates should read
instructions carefully and they must know how to apply WordArt.
1.3 The date must be typed in Courier New, font size 12, single line spacing after the address of the sender because
the letterhead was not retrieved but created by the candidate.
1.4 Candidates typed the layout of the letterhead incorrectly. Manuscript signs instructed them to do it in Arial. (Refer
to page 21 of Directives.)
1.5 Line spacing after “Ref. No:” should be DOUBLE LINE SPACING.
1.6 Please take note that learners must print the form letter (letter with the fields inserted in it).
1.7 THE SUBJECT HEADING SHOULD BE TYPED AFTER THE SALUTATION, e.g.
Dear

POLICY PROTECTION OFFERED
NOTE: THE SUBJECT HEADING IS NOT THE LETTERHEAD.
1.8 Candidates should not retype the instructions as part of the letter, e.g.
˝The following letter was drawn . . . to type the letter˝.
Candidates forfeited 37 marks for typing the abovementioned part.
1.9 Two spaces after a semicolon, e.g. 667 5786; in paragraph 5.
1.10 No space between the currency and the amount, e.g. N$812,00.
1.11 Pay much more attention to the conclusion of letters, especially line spacing and case, e.g.
Sincerely yours (Do copy type, do not type “Yours sincerely”.)
4 lines spaces before designation
Patrick Hambala
VICE PRESIDENT OF CUSTOMER RELATIONS
Enclosure 1
PH/jh
Grade 12 candidates should be able to determine if and how many enclosures there should be.
The “Mr” before Patrick Hambala MUST NOT BE TYPED.
1.12 Note that database must be typed in landscape and columns should be auto-fitted to the contents.
2. AGENDA
2.1 Display of letterhead needs much attention. “Namibian Building Society” should be centred in uppercase. The
address of the sender should be typed right aligned like instructed:
29 Nelson Mandela Avenue

WINDHOEK
11 August 2013
2.2 Attention must be paid to typing an action column. Note where the vertical line of the action column should end.
(See page 52 in Directives.)
2.3 The content of the first column should not be nearer than 2 spaces from the vertical line. Do setting at “Table
Properties, table, options, 0.2 spaces right for first column”.
2.4 Hanging indentation at paragraphs should be applied correctly.
2.5 NOTE THAT THE DAY IN THE DATE CANNOT STAND ALONE ON A LINE. Type either
1 November
2012

OR
1 November 2012
2.6 The closure should have been typed as follows:
By order of the Board
R.C. Smith
GENERAL MANAGER
3 LEASE
3.1 This was a straightforward question, but some candidates did not follow instructions and applied the display rules
incorrectly.
3.2 The conclusion must only appear on the last page and not on the first page.
3.3 Note: the first two words should not be typed in capital letters.
3.4 The display of the closure should be studied. Note that the display on page 72 in the Directives is wrong and must
look like this:
AS WITNESSES
1. ………………………………… ……………………………………………
LESSOR
2. …………………………………
By the LESSOR at WINDHOEK on the SEVENTEENTH day of MAY 2011.
AS WITNESSES
1. ………………………………… ……………………………………………
LESSEE
2. ………………………………
3.5 Only type the addresses in bold if a manuscript instruction is given.
3.6 It is a typing rule that “Lessor” and “Lessee” should be typed in uppercase throughout the lease contract.
3.7 NOTE: Type the following paragraph as displayed below:

1. The LESSOR lets to the LESSEE who hires the following property (̏the
property˝):
32 Mutorwa Street
KHOMASDAL
WINDHOEK
including therein
a dwelling plot.
4. TABULAR STATEMENT
4.1 The correct method of typing tabular statements should be studied.
4.2 Rules for tabular statements should be applied, single line spacing before all horizontal lines, double line spacing
after horizontal lines.
4.3 Candidates did not set the two spaces before and after the longest word(s) or number(s).
4.4 The vertical headings must be blocked in line with the numbers in the columns below. That indicates that the
numbers are two letter spaces from the vertical lines and the vertical headings are double lines spacing from the
line.
4.5 In amounts the units should be kept in the line with units, e.g.
-
313
or
1 194
210
4.6 The manuscript sign “trs” means that only the encircled figures must be transposed.
4.7 Do not divide the table itself into two parts on two different pages, i.e. the complete table should be printed on one
page. Only footnotes may appear on a second page, if a catchword is used.
4.8 Footnotes should be superscripted (†), except for the asterisk (*). The asterisk is already given in a superscripted
form.
4.8 The instruction was that only the years should be in chronological order.
5 PROOFREAD
5.1 Spell checker and grammar function must be correctly applied. Remember that the SPELL CHECKER WILL NOT
IDENTIFY ALL ERRORS.
5.2 UNDERLINE THE WHOLE WORD(S) WHERE THE CORRECTION WAS DONE, ALSO AT 061-289956.
5.3 Candidates must be taught that all the corrections in the proofreading questions must be underlined. It was clear
that candidates in certain schools were not taught to underline the corrections.
6 SPREADSHEET

6.1 All editing functions must be applied. Marks are allocated for each editing instruction as indicated in Question 6.
6.2 Some candidates used the R instead of the $ sign. To insert currency means you must use the function: Format →
Cell → Number → Currency → select the requested currency → OK. (MS Word 2003). Do the following to insert
the $-sign: Select the cells where you want to insert the $-sign. Right click, Format cells, Number, Currency and
select the $-sign, OK. (MS Word 2007).
6.3 Note that borders should be applied INCLUDING THE TITLE AND THE COLUMN HEADINGS. (INSTRUCTION
17). Note that borders and gridlines are two different things.
6.4 The instruction to autofit the contents must be adhered to, i.e. the column must be wide enough so that the longest
word(s) fit into the column and that the column is not wider than the longest word(s). The function ̏Autofit the
column width˝ must be applied to the spreadsheet that shows the formulas too.
6.5 The spreadsheet must be vertically centred: Page Layout, Margins, centre page, click on vertically.
6.6 Candidates must adhere to the instruction to insert a header and footer (instruction no. 10). This instruction was
poorly executed.

369
370
371
372
373
374
375
376
377
378
379
380
381
382
383
384
385
PHYSICAL SCIENCE
4323
Paper 1
General comments
On average candidates seemed to have performed better this year compared to previous years. However, many
candidates seemed to do better in the chemistry questions than the physics questions; most especially in questions
that involve calculation and questions in tables. Candidates should take very good care when answering Paper 1 and
not guess. They should take advantage of this paper since it’s the more objective type of assessment where they can
score very good marks.
No. Key No. Key No. Key No. Key

1 A 11 B 21 A 31 C
2 C 12 C 22 C 32 D
3 B 13 C 23 D 33 C
4 D 14 B 24 A 34 D
5 A 15 C 25 C 35 C
6 C 16 C 26 A 36 C
7 B 17 A 27 B 37 B
8 C 18 D 28 C 38 B
9 B 19 C 29 A 39 C
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 B
Chemistry
Question 1 to 20. All the chemistry questions were generally well answered except for Questions 8 and 13.
Q. no. Comment
1 The question on separation of mixtures appeared to be very easy for most candidates; about 89% of all candidates
chose the correct answer.
2 More than 50% of candidates selected the correct answer. The presentation of answers in the table form posed
a challenge for many learners.
3-10 Fairly well answered with 3, 4, 5 and 6 appearing to be much easier than the rest.
11 A question on energetics of reaction which appeared be been difficult whose key was B-burning ethanol in
sufficient air is exothermic.
12-13 Also appeared to be difficult. Rate of reaction and redox reaction. Again Question 13 was laid out in a table
form.
14 Fairly well answered with more than 50% of candidates choosing the correct answer B, although it was expected
to have been better performed seeing that the rest of the options were compounds of non-metals which all make
acidic solutions.
15 Surprisingly poorly answered seeing that separation of mixtures is one basic experiment that every learner
should have been exposed to should clearly understand.
16 Less than 50% of the candidates choose the correct answer
17 The performance of candidates in this question was expectedly good with more that 70% of candidates choosing
the correct answer.
18 Well answered with about 70% of candidates getting the right answer.
19-20 Questions on organic chemistry. Candidates performed much better in Question 19 than in Question 20.

Physics questions
This year was slightly different from other years. The performance of candidates on Physics questions was much better
than in other years. Teachers are encouraged to pay attention to all topics in the syllabus since there is a clear indication
that teachers pay more attention to some topics than to others.
Q. no. Comment
21-22 Expectedly well answered with about 90% of candidates getting the right answer.
23 Surprisingly poorly answered with only less than 40% of candidates getting a correct answer. This is an indication
that the concept of average speed has not been mastered by many candidates.
24 Less than 50% of the candidates chose the correct answer.
25 Well answered with about 90% of candidates getting the right answers.
26-27 Fairly well answered.
28-29 Was poorly performed. Only about 30% got the correct answer. Candidates seemed to have a problem to
conceptualise the conservation of energy asked in Question 28.
30 This was one of the well-answered questions with the majority of candidates correctly indicating that convection
occurs in fluids only, while radiation also occurs in a vacuum.
31-32 Less than 50% of the candidates chose the correct answer.
34 Less than 50% of the candidates chose the correct answer.
35-37 Was poorly performed. Only about 30% got the correct answer.
38-39 These two questions were poorly answered, particularly Question 38 on calculation of effective resistance in the
circuit. It appeared as if most candidates were guessing instead of working out the answers.
40 Just a little more than 50% of the candidates chose the correct answer and realised that the ionising radiation in
the diagram was beta particles.

4323
Paper 2
General comments
The general standard of the paper in terms of difficulty compared to the previous years was almost the same. However,
there are some parts that teachers still do not emphasise on to ensure that candidates understand them. To mention
a few, teachers are urged to emphasise in their teaching correct spelling of scientific terminologies and elements.
Rounding off in stoichiometry calculations should be discouraged since in reality, rounded off answers in stoichiometry
do not give a correct amount of the substance produced or reacted. In Physics rounding off can be done, but candidates
must be guided. It is not only in Physical Science that candidates are taught not to round off, so teachers are urged to
motivate the candidates to integrate correctly what they learn in other subjects like Mathematics.
Apart from that, teachers are still urged to teach candidates the use of a decimal point and a comma. Most candidates
lost marks because they used the decimal point to separate thousands instead of a comma or space. The units of
measurement, correct formulae especially upper and lower case were also not emphasised properly in teaching, for
example, speed is not abbreviated with “s” but “v”, time taken “t”, not “T”, and so on. Teachers are urged to refer to the
correct abbreviation of quantities provided in the syllabus.
1 Most candidates scored full marks for Part (a)(i) by identifying the number of protons and neutrons even though
some did not follow the instructions of the question. Instead of using the mass number of 35 given in the question,
they used 35.5 in the periodic table. Teachers are urged to teach candidates to follow instructions. In (a)(ii), most
candidates managed to draw the electronic structure of a chloride ion, even though there were few who drew how
the chloride ion is formed. This led to some marks being lost. Apart from that, teachers should emphasise how to
draw an electronic structure, since some candidates only drew the outer shell.
Part (b) was well answered; most candidates could identify the type of bond and spell it correctly. Part (c) was only
fairly answered by most candidates because most of them could not differentiate between chloride and chlorine.
In Part (d), most candidates managed to score marks, but not full marks because they could not identify that
magnesium chloride has ions to carry charges and water has an absence of ions. Most candidates confused the
cause electrical conductivity of compounds with that of metals, by saying magnesium chloride has free electrons
and water has no electrons. They scored no marks. Teachers should make it clear to candidates so that they
differentiate between them.
Marks were awarded as per the following mark scheme.
1 (a) (i) 17 protons , 18 neutrons  Accept: 18.5n

(ii) first shell → 2e 
second shell → 8e 
third shell → 8e 
(b) Ionic/ electrovalent  Correct spelling for ionic
(c) Magnesium loss 2e 

each chlorine gains e 
(d) no ions in pure water 
ions present in magnesium chloride  Free ions 
carry charges  moving ions 

2 Most candidates managed to score marks for (a)(i), even though there were a few candidates who could not write
the correct formula for kinetic energy, k.e = ½ mv2. For Part (a)(i), a few candidates could score the mark by
indicating that P.e at B = k.e at A by ignoring the effect of friction.
For Part (b), most candidates could not calculate the height, as many struggled to make ‘’h’’ a subject of the
formula. Most candidates could only score one mark for the unit.
2 (a) (i) Ek = ½ mv2 

Ek = ½ x 25(8)2 ()
800 
(ii) 800  ecf from (a)(i)
(b) Ep = mgh () ecf from (a)(ii)
800 = 25 x 10 x h ()
= 800 ÷ 250 ()
= 3.2 m 
3 In (a)(i) and (a)(ii), few candidates could not identify the correct process of converting zinc oxide to zinc as reduction.
Most candidates could not explain the role of carbon in the extraction of zinc even though the question guided
them a bit on how to answer it by saying in terms of reactivity. Teachers are urged to emphasise how candidates
should answer questions asking them to explain. Candidates should state what had happened and why, in their
responses.
For Part (b)(i), most candidates could score the mark by calculating relative molecular mass of zinc oxide, but
there were some who, instead of calculating Mr of zinc oxide (mass of 1 mole of zinc oxide), calculated the mass
of 2 moles of zinc oxide by referring to the balanced chemical equation provided in the question. Teachers are
encouraged to emphasise the definition of relative molecular mass so that candidates understand it well.
Part (b)(ii). Most candidates could score full marks by calculating the number of moles of zinc oxide since they
could write the correct formula, n = m/Mr. Teachers should note that there are still some candidates who are not
aware of lower and upper case of symbols, for example, mass = m, number of moles, n and relative molecular
mass is M or Mm.
For Part (b)(iii), very few candidates could score marks as they could not use the correct mole ratio of ZnO and
CO2 from the balanced chemical equation. For Part (b)(iv), most candidates could not score full marks, they could
not use the correct formula of volume of any gas at r.t.p.
3 (a) (i) Reduction 

(ii) Carbon is more reactive than zinc.  Clear comparison
Carbon displaces zinc (from the oxide) / reducing agent  owtte
(b) (i) 81 (g) 
(ii) n = m/Mr () ecf from (b)(i)
= 25/81 ()
= 0.3(08641975) 
(iii) n = 0.5 x 0.31 () ecf from (b)(ii)
= 0.15 (4320987) 
(iv) V = n x 24 () ecf from (b)(iii)
0.16 x 24 ()
= 3.7(03703704) 

4 In (a)(i) and (ii), most candidates could answer these questions correctly by identifying methods as radiation and
conduction. Parts (b)(i) and (ii), most candidates managed to give the advantage of the silvery paint as a “silvery
surface” as a good reflector and black paint as a good absorber.
In Part (c)(i), most candidates showed knowledge on why the temperature increases as water particles gain kinetic
energy, even though there were some who could not score marks because they referred to the particles of the pot
instead of water.
Part (c)(ii) was poorly answered. Almost 80% of the candidates could not explain that the temperature remains
constant because of energy gain which breaks the forces between the particles. This showed that most candidates
had little knowledge of what happens during the change of state of a substance. Most candidates gave wrong
answers such as “the substance reached its boiling point”. Teachers are urged to emphasise the use of kinetic
particle theory to explain why temperature does not change when a substance is heated or cooled rather than
mentioning only the boiling point and others.
In Part (d,) most candidates could score one mark but there were some who could not give a correct answer by
referring to the lid as preventing/stopping convection or evaporation instead of reducing or minimising evaporation/
convection. Teachers should make candidates aware of the correct language to avoid losing marks.
4 (a) (i) radiation 

(ii) conduction 
(b) (i) a good reflector (of heat/light) 
(ii) a good absorber (of heat/light) 
(c) (i) water particles will gain kinetic energy/they will start to
move faster randomly 
(ii) energy is used to break/overcome attraction forces,  Two or nothing
(d) to reduce heat loss (by convection)/
to reduce evaporation 
5 In (a), most candidates showed knowledge on wave fronts, but some seemed not to have read the instructions as
they drew the wave front in the wrong position.
In Part (b), very few candidates could differentiate between longitudinal and transverse. It seemed that candidates
had little knowledge about the two types of waves. In Part (c)(i) and (ii), most candidates scored marks even
though some struggled to work out the scale on the graph to get the wavelength.
In Part (d)(i) and (ii), most candidates did not score marks since many of them could not work out the time for one
complete wave and frequency from the graph. In Part (e), most candidates answered correctly, however, some
could not write the correct formula. Most candidates wrote the symbol for speed as “s” instead of “v” or “c”.
5 (a) correctly drawn vertical lines  Accept gentle curves as well as

correctly labelled wavelength between any two lines  straight lines.
(b) Longitudinal - particles of the medium vibrate along the
direction of wave motion. 
Transverse - particles of the medium vibrate in a direction
perpendicular to the direction of wave motion. 
(c) (i) 0.8 
160
(ii) 80  accept
2
0.5
(d) (i) 0.25  accept
2
(ii) 4  ecf from (d)(i)

(e) λ λ distance ecf from (c)(ii) and (d)(i) or (d)(ii)
Speed (v or c) = f λ or or or ()
T t time
= 4 x 80 ()
= 320   m/s 
6 In (a)(i) and (ii), most candidates showed little knowledge of how to determine the speed of reaction from the
graph. Some candidates seemed to have guessed, as correct answers were identified as WX and YZ but were
changed round. Most candidates answered Part (b)(i) and (ii) poorly by repeating what was in the question. Many
candidates seemed not to have read the question in (b)(i) carefully as many answered by stating that zinc granules
have a faster reaction. In (b)(ii), most candidates could only score one mark for stating “same concentration and
volume of sulfuric acid” but could not score the other mark because they could not state “same mass of zinc was
reacted”.
In Part (c)(i), candidates showed little knowledge of writing a balanced chemical equation. Teachers are urged to
do more exercises on writing and balancing chemical equations. In (c)(ii), few candidates could write the correct
chemical test and result of water, as most of them could not write the correct test to get the mark for the results.
Teachers must take note that a result mark of any test is awarded if the test is correct. They should share this
information with their learners when giving any test. Apart from that, teachers should emphasise in their teaching
the difference between physical and chemical testing of water, as most candidates confused them.
In Part (d), most candidates could not score full marks as they could not state the oxidation number of zinc when
it was oxidised. Teachers are urged to emphasise oxidation and reduction in terms of electron transfer and should
clearly state what happened to oxidation number.
6 (a) (i) WX or XW 
(ii) YZ or ZY 
(b) (i) Larger surface area  Clear comparison
(ii) Same volume of the same concentration of acid 
Same mass of zinc reacted 
(c) (i) Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 correct reactants 
correct products 
(ii) Test: add drops to (white) anhydrous copper (II) sulfate or
to blue cobalt chloride 
Results: turns ((white) anhydrous copper (II) sulfate) blue
or (blue cobalt chloride) pink 
(d) Zn loses (2) electrons 
become Zn2+ 
7 In Part (a), most candidates could calculate the total resistance by total voltage/total current of the circuit. A few
candidates could not get the calculation correct as they could not use the correct formula of resistance.
In (b), most of the candidates answered this question correctly, which showed that the candidates knew that
identical resistors have the same resistance. Teachers are urged to emphasise the types of circuits for those who
could not answer this part.
A few candidates could not answer Part (c)(i) and (ii) as they could not identify the correct connection and showed
that they were not aware that resistors in parallel circuits have the same voltage.
Part (c)(iii) was poorly answered as most candidates could not use the correct formula of total resistance in
parallel. Teachers should emphasise two formulae of calculating the total resistance, that is for resistors in series
and parallel, so that candidates can differentiate between the two.

In Part (d), most candidates could not score marks because they did not realise that change means increase or
decrease. Many candidates answered this part by stating that current and resistance will change, which was not
awarded marks.
7 (a) V/I ()

= 18/2 ()
= 9 
(b) 4.5 ecf from (a)
(c) (i) first block
(ii) 18
1 1 1
(iii) = + () award 1 mark for
R 9 4.5
3 1 1 1 1
= () = +
9 3 R R1 + R2 R3
= 3  ecf from (a) and (b)
(d) reading increase, 
(because) total resistance decreased 
8 In Part (a), most candidates could score the mark by identifying same shells. Some candidates could not score any
mark because they answered this question by stating same electron arrangements which was wrong.
In Part (b)(i) and (iii), most candidates struggled as they only described the trend of the elements given and left
out the one in the middle. In (c), most of the candidates could classify the elements but could not score full marks
because they could not spell the elements correctly. Apart from that, most candidates wrongly identified silicon as
a metal. Teachers are urged to emphasise the zigzag line which separates the metal from non-metal elements.
In Part (c) the majority of the candidates answered fairly, as many could state the use of Argon but failed to explain
its use.
8 (a) Electron arrangement  Accept three shells or same number

of shells
(b) (i) Increased (from sodium to aluminium) 
(ii) Decreased (from sulfur to argon) 
(c) Metals: sodium, magnesium, aluminium  correct spelling*
Non metal: silicon, phosphorus, sulfur, chlorine, argon 
(d) In light bulbs/to provide an inert atmosphere. 
It is unreactive. 
9 In (a), most candidates showed knowledge of high voltage transmission, but some still used wrong language like
preventing or stopping the energy loss instead of reducing or minimising the energy loss. Teachers are once more
urged to make candidates aware of the meaning of preventing or stopping, to avoid candidates losing marks.
In (b), most candidates showed knowledge of the features used to identify the two types of transformers. Many
candidates could state that more voltage on a secondary coil or fewer turns on a primary coil shows that it is a step-
up transformer. Only a few candidates could not score these marks as they used a wrong formula.
9 (a) minimise heat/energy loss 

(b) the primary coil/voltage has fewer turns than the Clear comparison for two marks or
secondary coil  nothing

(c) Ns Vs
= ()
Np Vp
400 000
Ns = x 2 000 ()
25 000
= 32 000 
10 In Part (a), most candidates could state the name of the homologous series as alkene, even though there were
some who could not score this mark because of wrong spelling. In Part (b)(i), only a few candidates could answer
correctly by giving butene. Most candidates could not score this mark because they did not realise that the first
member of the alkene is ethene with two carbon atoms, not like other homologous series with one carbon atom for
the first member.
In Part (ii), a few candidates could draw the correct structure of butene, but many candidates could not draw the
correct number of hydrogen, carbon atoms and double bond.
10 (a) Alkene  correct spelling

(b) butene 
(c) - four carbon 
- one double bond 
- 8 hydrogen
11 In Part (a), most candidates could not score full marks because they stated the meaning of isotopes wrongly by
saying “atom” instead of “atoms”. Teachers should emphasise the definition of isotopes as atoms of the same
element with a different mass.
In Part (b), most candidates managed to score full marks by stating the correct safety precautions of miners, but
some struggled to score these marks because they stated the general safety precautions against radioactive
materials. This question was specifically on the safety precautions of miners, such as wearing protective clothes,
boots, goggles, etc.
Teachers are urged to teach candidates to answer questions of this kind, not just for them to memorise.
11 (a) atoms of the same element with the same number protons 
and different number of neutrons 
(b) - wear protective clothing
- wear face mask accept don’t eat and drink
- handle them with gloves/forceps/tongs
- work in a ventilated environment (any two)
12 In Part (a), most candidates could name the elements, but not all marks could be scored due to wrong spelling.
Teachers should emphasise this during their teaching as it ends up being costly to the candidates. Apart from that,
candidates should be taught very well about the command words like name, where candidates are expected to give
names but not symbols.
In Part (b), most candidates showed knowledge of the effects of fertilisers on rivers, but there were those who could
not score full marks as they struggled to indicate the change in the growth of algae.
In Part (c)(i), very few candidates could score this mark by stating the dangerous chemicals such as methane,
DDT, lead, etc. but some could not answer it correctly because they simply gave any substance found in the
dumping sites.

In Part (c)(ii), most candidates managed to score full marks by referring to the negative effects such as poisoning
humans and animals, fire risk, contaminating underground water, etc.
Marks were awarded as per the following mark scheme
12 (a) - nitrogen correct spelling*

- phosphorus (if phosphorus was misspelled and
- potassium penalised in 8 (c) already award here)
(b) - nutrients cause the overgrowth of algae
- blocking sunlight
- prevent photosynthesis
- the algae die and rot
- rotting involves bacteria which need oxygen
- bacteria use up the oxygen dissolved in water
- causing biological oxygen demand
- causes animals and plants to die
- eutrophication (any four)
(c) (i) - pesticides/lead/mercury/DDT
- methane (from decomposing waste)
(any other relevant answer) (any one)
(ii) - methane is a fire risk at dumping sites
- pesticide mixes with underground water which is
- poisonous to human and animals
(any other relevant answer)
• Candidates can only do better if teachers show their responsibilities to ensure that the content is well taught and
understood. Teachers are urged not to get discouraged if candidates do not perform well, but to try their best to
make sure that candidates are given enough and a variety of activities/exercises.
• Examiners’ reports should not only be filed but should rather be incorporated in the lesson preparation to make sure
that misconceptions identified are not repeated every year.
• Candidates should be informed about the mistakes that lead to marks being lost, e.g. the spelling of elements,
scientific terminologies, lower and upper case symbols, etc.
• Candidates should also be taught to answer questions with different command words, e.g. explain, where candidates
are expected to state and explain why.
• Lastly, the examiner’s report only serves a purpose if it is fully utilised by both teachers and candidates.
Good luck!!

4323
Paper 3
General comments
The paper was clear and covered most of the syllabus, and can be compared to papers from previous years. Overall
the candidates coped well compared to the previous years.
There were however certain questions that could have been misunderstood by some candidates.
1 In an exp eriment, Paul investigates how the length of a pendulum affects its period of oscillation.
(a) Use the ruler shown in Fig. 1.1 to measure the length of the pendulum in experiment 1, record your reading in
Table 1.2.
50
Question well answered.
(b) Calculate the period of oscillation of experiment 1 and experiment 5 and record your answer in Table 1.2.
Experiment 1, T = 1.5
Experiment 5, T = 0.5
Well answered by most candidates.
(c) On the grid in Fig. 1.3, use your values from Table 1.2 to plot a graph of period (T)/s (y-axis) against the length
of the pendulum/cm (x-axis). Draw the line of best fit.
Well answered by some candidates. Many candidates failed to draw a line of best fit and drew a curve. In
some cases candidates failed to choose a proper scale. Many did not start at the origin.
(d) Draw a conclusion for this experiment.
The period of the pendulum is directly proportional to its length.
Question poorly answered.
(e) Suggest any evidence from your graph that supports your conclusion.
The graph has a positive slope.
Question poorly answered. Because the majority of candidates did not draw a straight line in (c), they could
not produce a proper conclusion.
2 In an experiment, Helena is given a mixture of two salts, calcium carbonate powder and sodium chloride crystals
to separate.
To separate them, Helena adds water to the mixture and stirs the mixture for five minutes. She concluded that one
salt was soluble and the other one was insoluble in water.
(a) (i) State the observation that Helena made which led her to this conclusion.
Mixture of clear solution with white suspension.
The question was very poorly answered. An observation is what you would see, using senses. Most
candidates just repeated the instruction statements instead.

(ii) Identify the soluble salt.
Sodium chloride/NaCl
Most candidates were able to score this mark, although quite a number could not identify the salt and
gave calcium carbonate as the answer.
(b) She now has to separate the insoluble salt from the mixture.
(i) Draw a labelled diagram to show the appropriate apparatus she uses.
Filter paper
Filter funnel
Elernmyer flask
Many candidates were able to score these marks but many only drew the apparatus without labelling or
labelled wrongly.
(ii) Explain what she should do to obtain a pure residue of the insoluble salt.
Wash the residue and dry it.
This question was fairly answered. Many candidates explained crystalisation instead of purifying the
insoluble salt.
(c) Outline a chemical test to distinguish between calcium carbonate and calcium chloride.
• add acid and then silver nitrate
• with carbonate - effervescence
• with chloride - with precipitate
Candidates did not make use of the chemistry practical notes found on the last page of the question paper.
Many candidates scored the mark for adding the acid and producing effervescence, but did not add the silver
nitrate and thus lost the mark for the result of the chloride.
3 In an experiment, three Grade 12 students investigated whether or not the diameter of a conductor has an influence
on its resistance.
They were given three pieces of nichrome wire of the same length but of different diameters.
(a) On Fig.3.1 show how a voltmeter should be connected to measure the voltage across the nichrome wire.
12 V
rheostat
nichrome wire
V
The question was well answered by majority of the candidates.

(b) For each diameter of nichrome wire they recorded four sets of readings in Table 3.3.
The third reading for the nichrome wire with the diameter of 0.20 mm was shown in Fig 3.2
(i) Read the ammeter and the voltmeter readings and record these in Table 3.3.
voltmeter reading = 6.0

ammeter reading = 0.23
Question well answered, although some candidates lost a mark for consistency.
(c) The results of the three experiments are plotted in the grid in Fig. 3.4.
(i) On Fig. 3.4 plot the remaining points of the experiment with the nichrome wire of diameter 0.20 mm and
complete the graph by plotting the line of best fit.
Point correctly plotted and line of best fit.
Many candidates failed to plot the point correctly and did not draw a straight line. A line of best fit should
be drawn with a ruler regardless of whether it goes through all the points.
(ii) Use the three graphs to determine the resistance of 0.21mm and 0.19mm diameter nichrome wire.
Y – Y1
Clearly indicate on the graph how you worked out each value. gradient = 2 points chosen on the
lines, the answer was the reciprocal. X2 – X1
One mark given for indication on the graph.
Resistance of nichrome with diameter 0.19 mm = between 30 and 32 Ω

Resistance of nichrome with diameter 0.21 mm = 20 Ω
Many candidates chose points from the table which did not fall on the line and had the wrong gradient
worked out. Most candidates lost the mark for indicating on the graph.
(d) State why the lengths of the wires are kept the same.
For fair testing
Many candidates still confused fair testing with accuracy.
(e) Draw a conclusion for this experiment.
The smaller the diameter the greater the resistance.
Many candidates referred to the length of the wire which was not tested or to the relationship between voltage
and current.
4 In an experiment a Grade 12 student investigates the reaction of calcium carbonate. The steps she has taken in
the experiment are illustrated in Table 4.1
In Table 4.1 complete sections (a) to (e) to show the products, observations and conclusions made during the
experiment.
(a) procedure A lump of calcium carbonate is heated strongly for 10 minutes.

observation the lump crumbles slightly
conclusion a gas is produced which forces its way out of the solid and breaks the solid down
product(s) Calcium oxide/quick lime and Carbon dioxide [2]
Most candidates recognised the production of carbon dioxide but failed to mention calcium oxide.

(b) procedure 3 drops of water are added to the lump
observation More crumbling, steam given off, evidence that mixture has become hot
conclusion (i) Exothermic reaction [1]
product(s) (ii) calcium hydroxide [1]
Poorly answered. Candidates failed to recognise when heat is given off it must be exothermic and could not
determine the product.
(c) procedure An extra 10 cm3 of water is added

observation Some of the solid dissolves forming a white suspension
conclusion Reacts with water producing calcium hydroxide which is slightly soluble in water [1]
product(s)
Poorly answered. Many candidates did not know what a suspension was and mentioned that it was a ppt.
This question was cancelled as some information was missing. Marks were worked in with the other questions.
(e) procedure Universal Indicator is added to fresh portion, Y, of the clear solution
observation the colour changed to blue/purple [1]
conclusion the solution is alkaline
product(s)
Fairly answered although quite a number of candidates referred to litmus paper after universal indicator was
mentioned.
5 In an experiment, a student shines a single beam of light through a semicircular glass block through six different
angles. The beam is refracted at the surface as it enters the glass block.
She measures the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction of experiments 1, 2, 3 and 5 and records her
readings on Table 5.2.
(a) Fig 5.3 shows the angles from which the beam of light enters the glass block in experiment 4 and 6.
Using a protractor, measure the angles of incidence and angle of refraction of experiments 4 and 6 and write
your readings in Table 5.2.
experiment 4; incidence = 55°

Refraction = 33.0°
experiment 6; incidence = 70°
Refraction = 38.7°
The question was fairly answered. Quite a number of candidates measured the wrong angle or did not know
how to use a protractor.
(b) Calculate the sin of the angle of incidence (i°) and the sin of the angle of refraction (r°) for experiments 4 and
6 and record your answers in Table 5.2.
Sin 55° = 0.82, sin 33° = 0.54
Sin 70° = 0.94, sin 38.7° = 0.63
Not very well answered. Candidates must be tought how to use there calculators correctly because it seemed
as if many calculators were on rad or grad and not degrees.
(c) On the grid, in Fig.5.4, draw a graph of sin (i°) (x-axis) versus sinr°(y-axis).
Draw the line of best fit through the points.
all points correctly plotted
line of best fit
Fairly answered although some candidates were challenged by the scale and also failed to draw a straight line.

(d) Calculate the gradient of your graph. Show your working.
≈ 0.67 with working or indication on graph.
Poorly answered, as many candidates did not use points on the line to work out the gradient and did not show
working.
6 In the laboratory, Grade 12 students are given the task of testing for the reactivity of a few metals when reacted with
dilute hydrochloric acid of concentration 1.0 mol/dm3.
Each student is given four test tubes containing 2 to 3 cm3 of hydrochloric acid and four small pieces of metal
labelled A, B, C and D.
The metals given are aluminium, copper, magnesium and zinc.
The students put a different piece of metal into each test tube and observe what happens.
(a) On Fig. 6.1 draw bubbles to show how the reaction with metal C compares to the reaction of other metals.
Bubbles drawn should be more than those of metal B and less than those of metal D.
Fairly answered
Many candidates failed to draw bubbles between 6 and 19
(b) Using the list of metals given, identify the four metals.
A – copper
B – zinc
C – aluminium
D – magnesium
Well answered although the spelling of the element names must be correct.
(c) Metal D did not react immediately. Give an explanation for this finding.
Magnesium has an oxide layer that first has to react before magnesium will react
Poorly answered. Many candidates did not refer to the oxide layer but rather gave the answer in terms of
structure and bonding.
(d) It was observed that a gas was released for metals B, C and D. Give the gas test and result that the student
would use to verify that the gas given off is hydrogen.
Test; expose to a lighted splint

Result; explodes with “pop” sound
Quite well answered, although some candidates confused the test for hydrogen with the test for oxygen by
stating the use of a “glowing splint” instead of a “lighted splint”. The spelling of the word splint was also a
problem. Many candidates wrote sprint, split or spit.
• Teachers must expose learners to more hands-on practicals and drawing of proper graphs.
• Candidates must be made aware of using the CHEMICAL PRACTICAL NOTES for identification of ions and salts.
• The spelling of scientific terms and element names is marked wrong when spelled incorrectly.

SIGN LANGUAGE
4123
Paper 1,2&3
General comments
This is our 6th year of examining Namibian Sign Language on a national level. The examiners were Ms Beata Armas and
Ms Lizette Beukes. Both are currently employed by the Ministry of Education, stationed at the Centre for Communication
and Deaf Studies. They both formed part of the NSL research team currently researching the terminologies used in
subjects like Physical Science, Mathematics, Life Science, Biology and Home Economics.
NSL has no written form and all examinations are individually recorded. This year only one Grade 12 learner sat for the
NSSC – NSL examination at Mweshipandeka Secondary School. The examination took place during the week of 18 –
20 September 2013. The school took the responsibility of facilitating their own examination. According to the teacher,
Mr Onesmus, the examination process ran smoothly and they experienced no difficulties.
Paper 1
Observation and comprehension
Learners had to observe two signed passages and then answer four questions. Learners should plan what they will sign
in order to include all information and to follow a proper sequence.
Paper 2
Expressive communication
This part consists of nine topics of which the learner had to choose only one topic to sign about. The learner chose the
topic about a story he read. He signed with confidence, making use of most of the linguistic features. The story was a
little short.
Linguistic skills
The learner did not experience any difficulty understanding the task set to him.
Paper 3
Deaf literature and culture
The learner had to sign about the different services available for the deaf after 23 years of independence. The learner
answered the question partially. He should have been more specific on what the question required of him, and not given
a motivational speech.
Positive suggestions and recommendation
In general deaf learners should be encouraged to read more. The examiners should make sure that the learner
understands the questions and also understands what is expected of him.

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REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA

DIRECTORATE OF NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS AND ASSESSMENT

REPORT ON THE EXAMINATIONS

AFRIKAANS AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

ART & DESIGN

DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

FASHION AND FABRICS

FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS

NSSCO Examiners Report 2013 1

FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN

FIRST LANGUAGE KHOEKHOEGOWAB

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA

FIRST LANGUAGE OTJIHERERO

FIRST LANGUAGE RUMANYO

FIRST LANGUAGE SETSWANA

FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI

FIRST LANGUAGE THIMBUKUSHU

2 NSSCO Examiners Report 2013

FOREIGN LANGUAGE FRENCH

OFFICE ADMINISTRATION AND KEYBOARDING APPLICATIONS

NSSCO Examiners Report 2013 3

Paper 1 was much easier compared to the paper of 2012.

Comments on individual questions

1 (a) Well answered.

(b) Well answered – except spelling.

(d) Well answered.

(h) Well answered.

(a) Cost of sales [1]

(c) Bank [1]

(d) (i) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account [1]

(e) Straight-line/Cost price/Fixed instalment

NSSCO Examiners Report 2013 5

(h) Cash book

(k) (i) Creditors Journal [1]

(l) Computerised ledgers / bookkeeping / financial statements

To record small transactions paid for in cash/small cash payments [1]

(c) Very poorly answered.

6 NSSCO Examiners Report 2013

(1) 300 b/d 1 Balance

4 Toilet paper 11 (1) 15 15

(1) 12 13 Telephone R13

28 Arnu Schmid 17 (1) 70 Arnu Schmid 70

NSSCO Examiners Report 2013

(1) 300 b/d 1 Balance

Horizontal format is acceptable. [16]

(b) Poorly answered.

130 000 (1) O/F

= N$2,60 (1) O/F [3]

8 NSSCO Examiners Report 2013

(i) Otii Obed

(c) Poorly answered. did not know the formula.

120 000 (1) O/F

NSSCO Examiners Report 2013 9

(b) Very well answered. (But spelling!!)

(c)(i)-(iii) Very poorly answered

10 NSSCO Examiners Report 2013

Running balance format acceptable. [5]

(e) Fairly answered.

Positive suggestions to teachers

NSSCO Examiners Report 2013 11

Comments on indiviual questions