Foundations in Microbiology 10th Edition Talaro Test Bank

Foundations in Microbiology 10th
Edition Talaro Test Bank

Visit to Download in Full: https://testbankdeal.com/download/foundations-in-microbiol
ogy-10th-edition-talaro-test-bank/
Chapter 09 Test Bank
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include
A. chromosomes.
B. plasmids.
C. mitochondrial DNA.
D. chloroplast DNA.
E. All of these choices are correct.
2. Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?
A. The genotype is inherited.

B. The genotype is made up of structural genes coding for proteins.
C. The genotype includes genes coding for RNA.
D. The genotype includes regulatory genes controlling gene expression.
E. The genotype includes the expressed traits governed by the genes.
3. Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
A. histone proteins.
B. chromosomes in a nucleus.
C. several to many chromosomes.
D. elongated linear, not circular, chromosomes.
4. The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
A. chromosome
B. plasmid
C. prophage
D. genome
E. proteome
5. A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the
A. nuclear membrane.
B. rRNA.
C. mRNA.
D. histone.
E. nucleolus.
6. Each _____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product.
A. intron
B. exon
C. gene
D. operator
E. triplet
7. The expression of genetic traits is the
A. genome.
B. genotype.
C. proteome.
D. phenotype.
E. proteotype.
8. The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called

A. histones.
B. amino acids.
C. nucleotides.
D. mRNA.
E. polymerases.
9. Which is incorrect about purines?
A. Purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA.

B. Purines are nitrogenous bases.
C. Purines are always paired with a specific pyrimidine.
D. Purines include adenine and guanine.
E. Purines are found within nucleotides.
10. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar.

B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine.
C. one helix strand that runs from the 5'to 3'direction and the other strand runs from the 3'to 5'direction.
D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.
11. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except
A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding.

B. guanine pairs with uracil.
C. adenine pairs with thymine.
D. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines.
E. they allow variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information.
12. Each nucleotide is composed of
A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar.

B. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars.
C. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar.
D. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars.
E. one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar.
13. Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
A. peptide
B. nonpolar covalent
C. polar covalent
D. hydrogen
E. sulfhydryl
14. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called
A. mitosis.
B. replication.
C. transcription.
D. translation.
E. mutation.
15. Structural genes code for
A. ribosomal RNA molecules.

B. transfer RNA molecules.
C. cellular proteins.
D. gene expression elements.
16. During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands.
A. copy point
B. template
C. comparison molecule
D. scaffold
E. reservoir
17. Semiconservative replication refers to

18. DNA polymerase III
A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis.

B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5'to 3'direction.
C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand.
D. synthesizes an RNA primer.
19. The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. DNA helicase.
D. DNA gyrase.
E. primase.
20. Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. DNA helicase.
D. DNA gyrase.
E. primase.
21. The enzyme that can proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them, and correctly replaces
them is
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. DNA helicase.
D. DNA gyrase.
E. primase.
22. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
A. primer.
B. Okazaki fragment.
C. template.
D. rolling circle.
E. replication fork.
23. DNA gyrase
A. unwinds DNA.
B. supercoils DNA.
C. cleaves DNA.
D. joins free DNA ends.
24. Helicase
A. unwinds DNA.
B. supercoils DNA.
C. unwinds RNA.
D. winds RNA.
25. DNA polymerase I
A. removes primers.
B. adds bases to new DNA chain.
C. seals DNA gaps.
D. proofreads DNA chain.
E. All of these choices are correct,
26. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n)
A. translation.
B. transcription.
C. mutation.
D. alteration.
E. regeneration.
A. synthesizes primer.
B. removes primer.
C. joins Okazaki fragments.
D. unzips the DNA helix.
E. proofreads new DNA.
28. Replication of DNA begins at a(n)
A. guanine-cytosine rich area.

B. uracil-adenine rich area.
C. adenine-thymine rich area.
D. adenine-cytosine rich area.
E. guanine-adenine rich area.
29. A primer of ____ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.
A. polymerase III
B. polymerase I
C. helicase
D. RNA
E. DNA
30. Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one
A. protein.
B. nucleotide.
C. amino acid.
D. purine.
31. The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a(n)
A. codon.
B. exon.
C. anticodon.
D. intron.
E. triplet.
32. The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the
A. promoter.
B. operator.
C. operon.
D. exon.
E. intron.
33. The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
A. ribosomal RNA.
B. messenger RNA.
C. transfer RNA.
D. primer RNA.
E. ribozymes.
34. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
A. has ribose.
B. has uracil.
C. is typically one strand of nucleotides.
D. does not have thymine.
35. All of the following pertain to transcription except
A. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

B. occurs before translation.
C. requires RNA polymerase.
D. requires a template DNA strand.
E. is a process of protein synthesis.
36. What molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene from the DNA template strand?
A. ribosomal RNA
B. messenger RNA
C. transfer RNA
D. primer RNA
E. ribozymes
37. RNA polymerase binds to the
A. start codon.
B. termination sequence.
C. regulation sequence.
D. promoter sequence.
38. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?
A. has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon

B. An anticodon is complementary to a codon.
C. contains a binding site for an amino acid
D. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC.
E. Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.
39. If a codon for alanine is GCA. What is the anticodon?
A. GCA
B. CGT
C. ACG
D. CGU
E. UGC
40. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except
A. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules.

B. ribosomes participate only in translation.
C. ribosomes bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit.
D. ribosomes use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding.
E. ribosomes shift toward the 3'end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.
41. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?
A. They are also called nonsense codons.

B. They occur where the bond between the final tRNA and the growing polypeptide is broken.
C. Termination codons include AUG.
D. Termination codons include UAA, UAG, UGA.
E. Termination codons do not have corresponding tRNA.
42. Which of the following is not true of the prokaryotic ribosome?
A. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

B. A prokaryotic ribosome has a peptide (P) site.
C. A prokaryotic ribosome has an exit (E) site.
D. The small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds.
E. The prokaryotic ribosome has an amino acyl (A) site.
43. A sequence of bases within a gene that will be transcribed, but removed from the transcript prior to translation is
a/ an
A. promoter.
B. operator.
C. operon.
D. exon.
E. intron.
44. Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
A. have genes turned off by a buildup of end product

B. often encode enzymes for catabolic pathways
C. are normally turned off
D. are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme
E. include the lac operon
45. Split genes
A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.
C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D. require spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
46. The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the
A. operator.
B. structural locus.
C. regulator.
D. promoter.
47. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires
A. repressor alone bound to operator.

B. substrate bound to repressor.
C. substrate bound to promoter.
D. corepressor and repressor binding to operator.
48. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by

49. Full induction of the lactose operon requires
A. that lactose be present.

B. that lactose and glucose both be present.
C. that lactose be present without glucose.
D. that lactose and arabinose both be present.
E. All of these choices induce the lactose operon.
50. Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription.
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase III
C. RNA polymerase
D. mRNA
E. rRNA
51. The lactose repressor
A. is transcribed with the structural lac genes.

B. is activated by binding lactose.
C. is inactivated by binding lactose.
D. requires lactose for its transcription.
52. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a
A. point mutation.
B. silent mutation.
C. back mutation.
D. missense mutation.
E. nonsense mutation.
53. Repressible operons require that _____ bind to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator.
A. the product
B. a cofactor
C. a coenzyme
D. the substrate
E. the reactant
54. The most damaging type of mutation is a
A. point mutation.
B. silent mutation.
C. frameshift mutation.
D. back mutation.
E. All the choices are equally damaging.
55. If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the
sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?
A. missense
B. nonsense
C. insertion
D. deletion
E. silent
sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT?
A. missense
B. nonsense
C. insertion
D. deletion
E. silent
sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?
A. Missense
B. Nonsense
C. Insertion
D. Deletion
E. Silent
58. A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations?
A. missense and insertion

B. missense and nonsense
C. nonsense and deletion
D. deletion and insertion
E. insertion and nonsense
59. What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for?
A. silent
B. back
C. point
D. nonsense
E. missense
60. A screening system called the _____ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.
A. Koch
B. Ames
C. mutation
D. cancer
E. Iowa
61. The process in which mutations are removed and replaced with the correct bases is called
A. transduction.
B. excision repair.
C. frameshift.
D. back mutation.
E. transformation.
62. Bacterial conjugation involves
A. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.

B. a donor cell that transfers a copy of a plasmid to a recipient cell through a pilus.
C. the take-up of naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell by a recipient cell.
D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.
63. Which cell can transfer the most DNA?
A. F+cell
B. F-cell
C. Hfr cell
D. R cell
E. B cell
64. Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
A. transformation
B. conjugation
C. mitosis
D. transduction
65. Which of the following is not true of conjugation?

A. involves direct contact between cells
B. transfers genes for drug resistance
C. transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules
D. transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule
E. The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes.
66. Hfr transfer involves all of the following except
A. gene integration into the bacterial chromosome.

B. plasmid gene transfer.
+
C. F factor is part of the F donor chromosome.
D. high frequency transfer.
+ -
E. a pilus connection between F and F cells.
67. The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a
changed recipient cell is
A. transduction.
B. conjugation.
C. transformation.
D. transmission.
E. mitosis.
68. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can
occur in
A. bacterial conjugation.
B. transformation.
C. generalized transduction.
D. specialized transduction.
69. A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of
A. conjugation.
B. generalized transduction.
C. specialized transduction.
D. creation of an Hfr cell.
70. Genes that jump from one location to another in the genome are
A. repressors.
B. transposons.
C. transformers.
D. plasmids.
E. operons.
71. Which of the following is not true of transposons?
A. can change pigmentation

B. can replace damaged DNA
C. can transfer drug resistance
D. can change the genome
E. are always part of plasmids
72. Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?
A. DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information.

B. Protein information can be converted into DNA information.
C. RNA can be used to regulate gene function.
D. DNA codes for proteins.
73. In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated Streptococci were converted
into smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated Streptococci.
What is the term that describes this process?
A. transduction
B. conjugation
C. transformation
D. cloning
74. Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis?
A. penicillin
B. tetracycline
C. chloramphenicol
D. ciprofloxacin
E. Both tetracycline and chloramphenicol are correct.
True / False Questions
75. The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.
True False
76. DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the old 3'DNA end.
True False
77. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
True False
78. Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid.
True False
79. In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
True False
80. Introns have no detectable functions.
True False
81. Excised introns form structures called lariats.
True False
82. Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon.
True False
83. Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
True False
84. Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication.
True False
85. DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation.
True False
86. All mutations are harmful to the cell.

True False
87. Folding of the 5'end of a mRNA, such that binding to the ribosome is altered, is most likely to affect
A. replication.
B. transcription.
C. translation.
D. transformation.
88. Riboswitches exert effects on ______________ whereas repressors and inducers exert effects on
________________.
A. replication; translation
B. translation; transcription
C. replication; translation
D. translation; transcription
89. Short interfering RNAs affect gene expression in eukaryotes by
A. blocking replication of certain genes.

B. blocking transcription of certain genes.
C. binding to mRNAs and preventing translation.
D. binding to ribosomes, preventing the two subunits from joining.
90. The analysis of the nitrogenous bases of the nucleic acid of a newly discovered virus showed 20% adenine,
40% guanine, 10% thymine, and 30% cytosine. The viral nucleic acid is most likely
A. double-stranded DNA.
B. double-stranded RNA.
C. single-stranded RNA.
D. single-stranded DNA.
91. The different types of nucleic acids found in viruses include all of the following except
B. single-stranded DNA.
C. double-stranded RNA.
D. single-stranded RNA.
E. There are no exceptions here. Each of these types may be found in viruses.
92. Some RNA viruses direct the synthesis of double-stranded DNA at some point in their life cycle.
True False
93. While studying the infection process and life cycle of a newly discovered virus, it was determined that the virus
never entered the nucleus of the host cell. This virus may have any of the following genomes except
A. DNA.
C. single (+) strand RNA.
D. single (-) strand RNA.
Chapter 09 Test Bank Key
1. Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include
A. chromosomes.
B. plasmids.
C. mitochondrial DNA.
D. chloroplast DNA.
ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early prokaryotic cells.
ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have selected for a huge diversity of
microorganisms.
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria,
many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function
Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand
Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define heredity, genetics, genome, gene, phenotype, and genotype.
Learning Outcome: 09.02 Compare the basic nature of genetic material in eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses.
Section: 09.01
Topic: Gene Regulation
Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function
2. Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?
A. The genotype is inherited.

B. The genotype is made up of structural genes coding for proteins.
C. The genotype includes genes coding for RNA.
D. The genotype includes regulatory genes controlling gene expression.
E. The genotype includes the expressed traits governed by the genes.
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translation differ in Bacteria,
Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow
Section: 09.01
3. Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
A. histone proteins.
B. chromosomes in a nucleus.
C. several to many chromosomes.
D. elongated linear, not circular, chromosomes.
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as
bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
Learning Outcome: 09.03 Explain how DNA is organized and packaged.
Section: 09.01
4. The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
A. chromosome
B. plasmid
C. prophage
D. genome
E. proteome
Learning Outcome: 09.21 Compare beneficial and detrimental effects of mutations.
Section: 09.01
5. A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the
A. nuclear membrane.
B. rRNA.
C. mRNA.
D. histone.
E. nucleolus.
ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including bright field,
phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as bacteria,
many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
Section: 09.01
6. Each _____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product.
A. intron
B. exon
C. gene
D. operator
E. triplet
Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember
Learning Outcome: 09.07 Present an overview of the main aspects of the flow of genetic information in cells.
Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins.
Section: 09.02
7. The expression of genetic traits is the
A. genome.
B. genotype.
C. proteome.
D. phenotype.
E. proteotype.
Section: 09.01
8. The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called
A. histones.
B. amino acids.
C. nucleotides.
D. mRNA.
E. polymerases.
Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance.
Learning Outcome: 09.05 List the nitrogen bases and explain their bonding patterns.
Section: 09.01
9. Which is incorrect about purines?
A. Purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA.

B. Purines are nitrogenous bases.
C. Purines are always paired with a specific pyrimidine.
D. Purines include adenine and guanine.
E. Purines are found within nucleotides.
Section: 09.01
10. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to

Section: 09.01
11. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except
A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding.

B. guanine pairs with uracil.
C. adenine pairs with thymine.
D. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines.
E. they allow variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information.
Section: 09.01
12. Each nucleotide is composed of
A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar.

B. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars.
C. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar.
D. two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars.
E. one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar.
Section: 09.01
13. Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
A. peptide
B. nonpolar covalent
C. polar covalent
D. hydrogen
E. sulfhydryl
Section: 09.01
14. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called
A. mitosis.
B. replication.
C. transcription.
D. translation.
E. mutation.
Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells.
Section: 09.01
15. Structural genes code for
A. ribosomal RNA molecules.

B. transfer RNA molecules.
C. cellular proteins.
D. gene expression elements.
Section: 09.02
16. During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands.
A. copy point
B. template
C. comparison molecule
D. scaffold
E. reservoir
Section: 09.01
Topic: DNA Replication
17. Semiconservative replication refers to

Section: 09.01
A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis.

B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5'to 3'direction.
C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand.
D. synthesizes an RNA primer.
Section: 09.01
19. The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. DNA helicase.
D. DNA gyrase.
E. primase.
Section: 09.01
20. Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. DNA helicase.
D. DNA gyrase.
E. primase.
Section: 09.01
21. The enzyme that can proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them, and correctly replaces
them is
A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. DNA helicase.
D. DNA gyrase.
E. primase.
Section: 09.01
22. The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
A. primer.
B. Okazaki fragment.
C. template.
D. rolling circle.
E. replication fork.
Section: 09.01
23. DNA gyrase
A. unwinds DNA.
B. supercoils DNA.
C. cleaves DNA.
D. joins free DNA ends.
Section: 09.01
24. Helicase
A. unwinds DNA.
B. supercoils DNA.
C. unwinds RNA.
D. winds RNA.
Section: 09.01
25. DNA polymerase I
A. removes primers.
B. adds bases to new DNA chain.
C. seals DNA gaps.
D. proofreads DNA chain.
E. All of these choices are correct,
Section: 09.01
26. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n)
A. translation.
B. transcription.
C. mutation.
D. alteration.
E. regeneration.
microorganisms.
ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and drug resistance).
Learning Outcome: 09.18 Define a mutation and explain how mutant forms are identified.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
A. synthesizes primer.
B. removes primer.
C. joins Okazaki fragments.
D. unzips the DNA helix.
E. proofreads new DNA.
Section: 09.01
28. Replication of DNA begins at a(n)
A. guanine-cytosine rich area.

B. uracil-adenine rich area.
C. adenine-thymine rich area.
D. adenine-cytosine rich area.
E. guanine-adenine rich area.
Section: 09.01
29. A primer of ____ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.
A. polymerase III
B. polymerase I
C. helicase
D. RNA
E. DNA
Section: 09.01
30. Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one
A. protein.
B. nucleotide.
C. amino acid.
D. purine.
Section: 09.02
31. The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a(n)
A. codon.
B. exon.
C. anticodon.
D. intron.
E. triplet.
Learning Outcome: 09.11 Describe the genetic code, codons, and anticodons, and how they relate to one another.
Section: 09.02
32. The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the
A. promoter.
B. operator.
C. operon.
D. exon.
E. intron.
Learning Outcome: 09.10 Explain what happens during transcription.
Section: 09.02
Topic: Protein Synthesis
33. The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
A. ribosomal RNA.
B. messenger RNA.
C. transfer RNA.
D. primer RNA.
E. ribozymes.
Learning Outcome: 09.09 Describe the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression.
Section: 09.02
34. RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
A. has ribose.
B. has uracil.
C. is typically one strand of nucleotides.
D. does not have thymine.
Section: 09.02
35. All of the following pertain to transcription except
A. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

B. occurs before translation.
C. requires RNA polymerase.
D. requires a template DNA strand.
E. is a process of protein synthesis.
Section: 09.02
36. What molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene from the DNA template strand?
A. ribosomal RNA
B. messenger RNA
C. transfer RNA
D. primer RNA
E. ribozymes
Section: 09.02
37. RNA polymerase binds to the
A. start codon.
B. termination sequence.
C. regulation sequence.
D. promoter sequence.
Section: 09.02
38. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?
A. has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon

B. An anticodon is complementary to a codon.
C. contains a binding site for an amino acid
D. The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC.
E. Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.
Learning Outcome: 09.12 Recount the participants and steps in translation (protein synthesis).
Section: 09.02
39. If a codon for alanine is GCA. What is the anticodon?
A. GCA
B. CGT
C. ACG
D. CGU
E. UGC
Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply
Section: 09.02
40. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except
A. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules.

B. ribosomes participate only in translation.
C. ribosomes bind to the 5'end of mRNA by their small subunit.
D. ribosomes use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding.
E. ribosomes shift toward the 3'end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.
Section: 09.02
41. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?
A. They are also called nonsense codons.

B. They occur where the bond between the final tRNA and the growing polypeptide is broken.
C. Termination codons include AUG.
D. Termination codons include UAA, UAG, UGA.
E. Termination codons do not have corresponding tRNA.
Section: 09.02
42. Which of the following is not true of the prokaryotic ribosome?
A. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

B. A prokaryotic ribosome has a peptide (P) site.
C. A prokaryotic ribosome has an exit (E) site.
D. The small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds.
E. The prokaryotic ribosome has an amino acyl (A) site.
Section: 09.02
43. A sequence of bases within a gene that will be transcribed, but removed from the transcript prior to translation
is a/an
A. promoter.
B. operator.
C. operon.
D. exon.
E. intron.
Learning Outcome: 09.13 Distinguish major points of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription and translation.
Section: 09.02
44. Which is incorrect about inducible operons?
A. have genes turned off by a buildup of end product

B. often encode enzymes for catabolic pathways
C. are normally turned off
D. are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme
E. include the lac operon
ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic
abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means.
ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/or signals.
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways
Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control.
Learning Outcome: 09.15 Describe the main features of the lactose operon and inducible operons.
Section: 09.03
45. Split genes
A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA.
C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region.
D. require spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same processes as
bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
Section: 09.03
46. The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the
A. operator.
B. structural locus.
C. regulator.
D. promoter.
Section: 09.03
47. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires

Section: 09.03
48. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by

Learning Outcome: 09.16 Describe the main features of repressible operons.
Section: 09.03
49. Full induction of the lactose operon requires
A. that lactose be present.

B. that lactose and glucose both be present.
C. that lactose be present without glucose.
D. that lactose and arabinose both be present.
E. All of these choices induce the lactose operon.
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other.
ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods.
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems
Section: 09.03
50. Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription.
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase III
C. RNA polymerase
D. mRNA
E. rRNA
Section: 09.03
51. The lactose repressor
A. is transcribed with the structural lac genes.

B. is activated by binding lactose.
C. is inactivated by binding lactose.
D. requires lactose for its transcription.
Section: 09.03
52. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a
A. point mutation.
B. silent mutation.
C. back mutation.
D. missense mutation.
E. nonsense mutation.
microorganisms.
Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
53. Repressible operons require that _____ bind to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator.
A. the product
B. a cofactor
C. a coenzyme
D. the substrate
E. the reactant
Section: 09.03
54. The most damaging type of mutation is a
A. point mutation.
B. silent mutation.
C. frameshift mutation.
D. back mutation.
E. All the choices are equally damaging.
microorganisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?
A. missense
B. nonsense
C. insertion
D. deletion
E. silent
microorganisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT?
A. missense
B. nonsense
C. insertion
D. deletion
E. silent
microorganisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?
A. Missense
B. Nonsense
C. Insertion
D. Deletion
E. Silent
microorganisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
58. A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations?
A. missense and insertion

B. missense and nonsense
C. nonsense and deletion
D. deletion and insertion
E. insertion and nonsense
microorganisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
59. What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for?
A. silent
B. back
C. point
D. nonsense
E. missense
microorganisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
60. A screening system called the _____ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.
A. Koch
B. Ames
C. mutation
D. cancer
E. Iowa
microorganisms.
ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological).
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
61. The process in which mutations are removed and replaced with the correct bases is called
A. transduction.
B. excision repair.
C. frameshift.
D. back mutation.
E. transformation.
microorganisms.
Learning Outcome: 09.20 Describe some mutation repair mechanisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
62. Bacterial conjugation involves
A. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.

B. a donor cell that transfers a copy of a plasmid to a recipient cell through a pilus.
C. the take-up of naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell by a recipient cell.
D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.
microorganisms.
ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critical capabilities.
ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their metabolic abilities
(e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
Learning Outcome: 09.22 Explain recombination in bacteria and what it involves.
Learning Outcome: 09.23 Describe the main features of conjugation and its outcomes.
Section: 09.05
Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria
63. Which cell can transfer the most DNA?
+
A. F cell
-
B. F cell
C. Hfr cell
D. R cell
E. B cell
microorganisms.
Section: 09.05
64. Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
A. transformation
B. conjugation
C. mitosis
D. transduction
microorganisms.
Section: 09.05
65. Which of the following is not true of conjugation?
A. involves direct contact between cells

B. transfers genes for drug resistance
C. transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules
D. transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule
E. The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes.
microorganisms.
Section: 09.05
66. Hfr transfer involves all of the following except
A. gene integration into the bacterial chromosome.

B. plasmid gene transfer.
+
C. F factor is part of the F donor chromosome.
D. high frequency transfer.
+ -
E. a pilus connection between F and F cells.
microorganisms.
Section: 09.05
67. The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed
recipient cell is
A. transduction.
B. conjugation.
C. transformation.
D. transmission.
E. mitosis.
microorganisms.
Learning Outcome: 09.24 Discuss what is required for bacterial transformation and its outcomes.
Section: 09.05
68. The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage
can occur in
A. bacterial conjugation.
B. transformation.
C. generalized transduction.
D. specialized transduction.
microorganisms.
Learning Outcome: 09.25 Identify the basic processes involved in transduction and the end results.
Section: 09.05
69. A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of
A. conjugation.
B. generalized transduction.
C. specialized transduction.
D. creation of an Hfr cell.
microorganisms.
Learning Outcome: 09.25 Identify the basic processes involved in transduction and the end results.
Section: 09.05
70. Genes that jump from one location to another in the genome are
A. repressors.
B. transposons.
C. transformers.
D. plasmids.
E. operons.
microorganisms.
Learning Outcome: 09.26 Discuss transposons and their importance to microorganisms.
Section: 09.05
71. Which of the following is not true of transposons?
A. can change pigmentation

B. can replace damaged DNA
C. can transfer drug resistance
D. can change the genome
E. are always part of plasmids
microorganisms.
Learning Outcome: 09.26 Discuss transposons and their importance to microorganisms.
Section: 09.05
72. Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?
A. DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information.

B. Protein information can be converted into DNA information.
C. RNA can be used to regulate gene function.
D. DNA codes for proteins.
Learning Outcome: 09.17 Summarize some aspects of genetic control by RNA.
Section: 09.02
Section: 09.03
73. In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated Streptococci were
converted into smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated
Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process?
A. transduction
B. conjugation
C. transformation
D. cloning
microorganisms.
Learning Outcome: 09.24 Discuss what is required for bacterial transformation and its outcomes.
Section: 09.05
74. Of the following list, which antibiotics affect protein synthesis?
A. penicillin
B. tetracycline
C. chloramphenicol
D. ciprofloxacin
E. Both tetracycline and chloramphenicol are correct.
Section: 09.02
75. The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.
FALSE
Section: 09.01
76. DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the old 3'DNA end.
TRUE
Section: 09.01
77. DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
FALSE
Section: 09.01
78. Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid.
TRUE
Section: 09.02
79. In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
TRUE
Section: 09.02
80. Introns have no detectable functions.
FALSE
Section: 09.02
81. Excised introns form structures called lariats.
TRUE
Section: 09.02
82. Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon.
FALSE
Section: 09.03
83. Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.
TRUE
Section: 09.03
84. Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication.
FALSE
microorganisms.
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
85. DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation.
TRUE
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteristics.
Learning Outcome: 09.20 Describe some mutation repair mechanisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
86. All mutations are harmful to the cell.
FALSE
microorganisms.
Section: 09.04
Topic: Mutations
87. Folding of the 5'end of a mRNA, such that binding to the ribosome is altered, is most likely to affect
A. replication.
B. transcription.
C. translation.
D. transformation.
Section: 09.02
Section: 09.03
88. Riboswitches exert effects on ______________ whereas repressors and inducers exert effects on
________________.
A. replication; translation
B. translation; transcription
C. replication; translation
D. translation; transcription
ASM Objective: 07.04 Ability to understand the relationship between science and society: Identify and discuss ethical issues in microbiology.
Section: 09.03
89. Short interfering RNAs affect gene expression in eukaryotes by
A. blocking replication of certain genes.

B. blocking transcription of certain genes.
C. binding to mRNAs and preventing translation.
D. binding to ribosomes, preventing the two subunits from joining.
Section: 09.03
90. The analysis of the nitrogenous bases of the nucleic acid of a newly discovered virus showed 20%
adenine, 40% guanine, 10% thymine, and 30% cytosine. The viral nucleic acid is most likely
C. single-stranded RNA.
D. single-stranded DNA.
ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells.
Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze
Learning Outcome: 09.27 Explain the major elements of viral genetics.
Section: 09.06
91. The different types of nucleic acids found in viruses include all of the following except
B. single-stranded DNA.
C. double-stranded RNA.
D. single-stranded RNA.
E. There are no exceptions here. Each of these types may be found in viruses.
ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and
genomes.
Learning Outcome: 09.27 Explain the major elements of viral genetics.
Section: 09.06
92. Some RNA viruses direct the synthesis of double-stranded DNA at some point in their life cycle.
TRUE
Learning Outcome: 09.28 Compare aspects of the genetics of DNA and RNA viruses, using examples.
Section: 09.06
93. While studying the infection process and life cycle of a newly discovered virus, it was determined that the virus
never entered the nucleus of the host cell. This virus may have any of the following genomes except
A. DNA.
C. single (+) strand RNA.
D. single (-) strand RNA.
ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their unique structures and
genomes.
Learning Outcome: 09.28 Compare aspects of the genetics of DNA and RNA viruses, using examples.
Section: 09.06
Chapter 09 Test Bank Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolv 1
ed from early prokaryotic cells.
ASM Objective: 01.02 Mutations and horizontal gene transfer, with the immense variety of microenvironments, have 24
selected for a huge diversity of microorganisms.
ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (in 5
cluding bright field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).
ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that ofte 1
n confer critical capabilities.
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the 4
same processes as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined 2
by their unique structures and genomes.
ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determi 2
ned by their metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metaboli 1
c characteristics.
ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biologic 5
al means.
ASM Objective: 04.01 Genetic variations can impact microbial functions (e.g., in biofilm formation, pathogenicity and 1
drug resistance).
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, 59
and translation differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
ASM Objective: 04.03 The regulation of gene expression is influenced by external and internal molecular cues and/ 14
or signals.
ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. 4
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. 1
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. 3
ASM Objective: 07.04 Ability to understand the relationship between science and society: Identify and discuss ethical 1
issues in microbiology.
ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media- 1
based, molecular and serological).
ASM Objective: 08.05 Use appropriate microbiological and molecular lab equipment and methods. 1
ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution 23
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 23
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 6
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 90
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems 3
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 1
Bloom’s Level: 01. Remember 32
Bloom’s Level: 02. Understand 50
Bloom’s Level: 03. Apply 10
Bloom’s Level: 04: Analyze 1
Learning Outcome: 09.01 Define heredity, genetics, genome, gene, phenotype, and genotype. 4
Learning Outcome: 09.02 Compare the basic nature of genetic material in eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses. 3
Learning Outcome: 09.03 Explain how DNA is organized and packaged. 4
Learning Outcome: 09.04 Describe the chemical structure of DNA and its significance. 7
Learning Outcome: 09.05 List the nitrogen bases and explain their bonding patterns. 5
Learning Outcome: 09.06 Describe the process of DNA replication as it occurs in prokaryotic cells. 14
Learning Outcome: 09.07 Present an overview of the main aspects of the flow of genetic information in cells. 5
Learning Outcome: 09.08 Explain the relationship between the structure of DNA and the structure of proteins. 8
Learning Outcome: 09.09 Describe the different types of RNA and their basic functions in genetic expression. 5
Learning Outcome: 09.10 Explain what happens during transcription. 5
Learning Outcome: 09.11 Describe the genetic code, codons, and anticodons, and how they relate to one another. 3
Learning Outcome: 09.12 Recount the participants and steps in translation (protein synthesis). 5
Learning Outcome: 09.13 Distinguish major points of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription and 5
translation.
Learning Outcome: 09.14 Explain the functions of operons in bacterial genetic control. 10
Learning Outcome: 09.15 Describe the main features of the lactose operon and inducible operons. 5
Learning Outcome: 09.16 Describe the main features of repressible operons. 4
Learning Outcome: 09.17 Summarize some aspects of genetic control by RNA. 4
Learning Outcome: 09.18 Define a mutation and explain how mutant forms are identified. 5
Learning Outcome: 09.19 Explain the causes and types of mutations and their effects. 8
Learning Outcome: 09.20 Describe some mutation repair mechanisms. 2
Learning Outcome: 09.21 Compare beneficial and detrimental effects of mutations. 3
Learning Outcome: 09.22 Explain recombination in bacteria and what it involves. 4
Learning Outcome: 09.23 Describe the main features of conjugation and its outcomes. 4
Learning Outcome: 09.24 Discuss what is required for bacterial transformation and its outcomes. 2
Learning Outcome: 09.25 Identify the basic processes involved in transduction and the end results. 2
Learning Outcome: 09.26 Discuss transposons and their importance to microorganisms. 2
Learning Outcome: 09.27 Explain the major elements of viral genetics. 2
Learning Outcome: 09.28 Compare aspects of the genetics of DNA and RNA viruses, using examples. 2
Section: 09.01 29
Section: 09.02 23
Section: 09.03 15
Section: 09.04 13
Section: 09.05 11
Section: 09.06 4
Topic: DNA Replication 14
Topic: Gene Regulation 15
Topic: Genetic Recombination in Bacteria 11
Topic: Mutations 13
Topic: Nucleic Acid Structure/Function 32
Topic: Protein Synthesis 18

Foundations in Microbiology 10th Edition Talaro Test Bank

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Foundations in Microbiology 10th Edition Talaro Test Bank

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Foundations in Microbiology 10th

Edition Talaro Test Bank

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include

2. Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?

A. The genotype is inherited.

4. The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.

5. A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the

7. The expression of genetic traits is the

8. The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called

9. Which is incorrect about purines?

A. Purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA.

10. The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to

A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar.

11. All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except

A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding.

12. Each nucleotide is composed of

A. one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar.

13. Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.

14. The duplication of a cell's DNA is called

15. Structural genes code for

A. ribosomal RNA molecules.

17. Semiconservative replication refers to

A. each base bonding at the 1'position of the sugar.

18. DNA polymerase III

A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis.

23. DNA gyrase

25. DNA polymerase I

26. A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n)

27. DNA polymerase III

28. Replication of DNA begins at a(n)

A. guanine-cytosine rich area.

29. A primer of ____ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.

35. All of the following pertain to transcription except

A. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

37. RNA polymerase binds to the

38. Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?

A. has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon

39. If a codon for alanine is GCA. What is the anticodon?

40. The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except

A. they contain codons within their rRNA molecules.

41. Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?

A. They are also called nonsense codons.

42. Which of the following is not true of the prokaryotic ribosome?

A. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

44. Which is incorrect about inducible operons?

A. have genes turned off by a buildup of end product

45. Split genes

A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

47. Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires

A. repressor alone bound to operator.

48. Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by

A. repressor alone bound to operator.

A. that lactose be present.

51. The lactose repressor

A. is transcribed with the structural lac genes.

52. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a

54. The most damaging type of mutation is a

58. A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations?

A. missense and insertion

62. Bacterial conjugation involves

A. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell.

63. Which cell can transfer the most DNA?