Health Psychology A Biopsychosocial

Approach 5th Edition Straub Test Bank

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1. The fourth-leading risk factor for global mortality is:
A) physical inactivity.
B) cardiovascular disease.
C) cancer.
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

2. Light- to moderate-intensity exercise performed for an extended period of time is called:

A) anaerobic exercise.
B) aerobic exercise.
C) resistance training.
D) cross-fit training.

3. Strength training and sprinting short distances are examples of:

A) aerobic exercise.
B) sub-threshold exercise.
C) anaerobic exercise.
D) supra-threshold exercise.

4. The minimum number of calories the body needs to maintain bodily functions while at
rest is called:
A) aerobic threshold.
B) resting metabolism.
C) caloric baseline.
D) basal metabolic rate.

5. One calorie is equivalent to the amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of
______ of water ______ degree Celsius.
A) 1 gram; 1 degree
B) 1 ounce; 2 degrees
C) 5 grams; 5 degrees
D) 10 grams; 10 degrees

6. The closest thing we have to a fountain of youth is:

A) a healthy diet.
B) good sleep habits.
C) regular exercise.
D) state-of-the-art health care.

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 7. Physical fitness includes each component EXCEPT:
A) muscular strength.
B) low body weight.
C) endurance.
D) flexibility.

8. Which of these is a measure of cardiorespiratory endurance?

A) anaerobic capacity
B) BMR
C) VO2max
D) ambulatory blood pressure

9. Which of these reduces the risk of death and has a favorable influence on a person's
self-image, self-esteem, and depression?
A) anti-depressant medication
B) stopping all use of tobacco products
C) reducing the amount of trans fat in the diet
D) improving one's physical fitness

10. What proportion of people in the United States get the minimum recommended amount
of weekly physical activity?
A) one in four
B) one in five
C) one in ten
D) one in twenty

11. One research study (Broom and others, 2009) reported that levels of the hormone
______, high levels of which stimulate ______, were lower when participants exercised.
A) PYY; hunger
B) ghrelin; hunger
C) ghrelin; satiety
D) cortisol; satiety

12. The recommended amount of exercise for healthy adults between the ages of 18 and 65
years is:
A) moderate aerobic activity for at least 30 minutes, three days each week.
B) intense aerobic activity for at least 15 minutes, seven days each week.
C) moderate aerobic activity for at least 60 minutes, five days each week.
D) moderate aerobic activity for at least 30 minutes, five days each week.

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13. Anaerobic exercise has many beneficial health-related effects. Which health benefit is
attributed to anaerobic exercise as stated in the text?
A) decrease in menstrual cycle length
B) decrease in VO2max
C) reduction in HDL cholesterol
D) decrease in slow-wave sleep

14. Osteoporosis is a disorder characterized by:

A) declining bone density due to calcium loss.
B) elevated blood pressure.
C) a weakened immune system.
D) respiratory problems.

15. Regular exercise may reduce the risk of cancer by influencing:

A) T cell counts.
B) natural killer cells.
C) proinflammatory cytokines.
D) white blood cells.

16. Endurance-trained athletes preserve the length of ______ in their ______, which
otherwise systematically decrease with aging.
A) telomeres; chromosomes
B) telomeres; white blood cells
C) DNA segments; chromosomes
D) DNA methylation; body cells

17. Exercise increases ______ sensitivity, which is especially important for people living
with ______.
A) insulin; diabetes mellitus
B) glucose; metabolic syndrome
C) cortisol; cardiovascular disease
D) thyroxin; lymphoma

18. Brandon, a college sophomore, has highblood pressure, high blood-sugar, and high
triglycerides; excess body fat around his waist; and low HDL cholesterol. His doctor
would most likely say that Brandon:
A) will “mature out” of these attributes.
B) has metabolic syndrome.
C) is doing too much resistance training as part of his exercise regimen.
D) is too sensitive to insulin.

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19. The hormone that helps move sugar into cells where it's used for energy is:
A) glucagon.
B) thyroxin.
C) ghrelin.
D) insulin.

20. Neuroimaging data demonstrate that aerobic exercise is associated with increased
activity in the ______, which predicts better ______ functioning.
A) prefrontal cortex; cognitive
B) amygdala; emotional
C) temporal lobe; auditory
D) occipital lobe; visual

21. Animal studies show that aerobic exercise promotes learning and performance by
increasing ______ in the brain, which stimulates neurogenesis.
A) temperature
B) the number of telomeres
C) white blood cell counts
D) growth factors

22. Which of these is NOT a stated benefit of exercising for older adults aged 50–70 years
old?
A) reduction in the loss of bone density.
B) increased respiratory functioning.
C) increased muscle mass and strength.
D) reduced morbidity and mortality.

23. Self-efficacy refers to:

A) beliefs about one's ability to distinguish different subjective norms in different
situations.
B) beliefs about one's ability to perform a certain health behavior.
C) the ability to self-regulate one's emotions.
D) a patient's attitude about the importance of treatment compliance.

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24. Bill finds it very difficult to start an exercise program because he hates the unpleasant
feelings of stiffness and sore muscles that he is sure he will experience at the beginning
of each workout. Bill is evidently experiencing:
A) low exercise self-efficacy.
B) low self-esteem.
C) forecasting myopia.
D) aerobic anxiety.

25. Recent studies have suggested that neighborhood socioeconomic status influences
health, in part because of:
A) differences in physical activity.
B) health disparities.
C) the decline in physical education classes.
D) low exercise self-efficacy.

26. The theory of ______ has been used to explain how social norms and perceived
behavioral control guide our exercise behaviors.
A) health behavior
B) reasoned action
C) planned behavior
D) behavioral health

27. With the approach of night, a person's body temperature begins to drop. This illustrates
the dynamics of the:
A) dopamine reward system.
B) REM/NREM cycle.
C) basal metabolic rate.
D) circadian rhythm.

28. After a non-stop flight from California to Maine, Francine experienced a restless,
sleepless night. Her problem was probably caused by a disruption of her normal:
A) dopamine reward system.
B) circadian rhythm.
C) BMR.
D) delta waves.

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29. Adolescents today average ______ sleep each night than that averaged by their
grandparents as teenagers.
A) one hour less
B) one hour more
C) two hours less
D) three hours less

30. The most important factor in setting our internal 24-hour biological clock is bright light,
which signals the brain's ______ to decrease its production of ______.
A) prefrontal cortex; dopamine
B) hypothalamus; ghrelin
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus; melatonin
D) corpus callosum; PYY

31. Fast and jerky movements of the eyes are especially likely to be associated with:
A) NREM-1 sleep.
B) NREM-2 sleep.
C) REM sleep.
D) sleep spindles.

32. Carl has decided to go to bed early. Although his eyes are closed and he's very relaxed,
he has not yet fallen asleep. An EEG would most likely indicate the presence of:
A) delta waves.
B) alpha waves.
C) sleep spindles.
D) rapid eye movements.

33. The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during NREM-2 sleep are called:
A) alpha waves.
B) sleep spindles.
C) delta waves.
D) K-complex waves.

34. Large and very slow delta waves are especially likely to be associated with:
A) NREM-1 sleep.
B) NREM-2 sleep.
C) NREM-3 sleep.
D) REM sleep.

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35. The dozing, half-awake stage of sleep is:
A) NREM-1 sleep.
B) NREM-2 sleep.
C) NREM-3 sleep.
D) REM sleep.

36. During which stage of sleep is the brain's motor cortex active, while the muscles remain
relaxed?
A) NREM-1 sleep.
B) NREM-2 sleep.
C) NREM-3 sleep.
D) REM sleep.

37. The human sleep cycle repeats itself about every:

A) 30 minutes.
B) 60 minutes.
C) 90 minutes.
D) 120 minutes.

38. During the course of a full night's sleep, people are most likely to spend more time in:
A) NREM-4 sleep than in NREM-2 sleep.
B) REM sleep than in NREM-3 sleep.
C) NREM-3 sleep than in REM sleep.
D) NREM-1 sleep than in REM sleep.

39. About half of the sleep of full-term newborns is:

A) REM sleep.
B) NREM-1 sleep.
C) NREM-2 sleep.
D) NREM-3 sleep.

40. The phenomenon called social jet lag refers to the fact that people today:
A) need less sleep than their ancestors did.
B) need more sleep than their ancestors did.
C) sleep less than their counterparts did 100 years ago.
D) sleep more than their counterparts did 100 years ago.

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41. Adults who habitually sleep more than seven hours a night night after night:
A) have lower resting heart rates and higher levels of cardiorespiratory fitness.
B) are less likely to be obese or hypertensive.
C) have lower rates of cardiovascular disease.
D) are at risk for health problems such as obesity, diabetes, and high blood pressure.

42. Sleep loss can lead to exaggerated pain perception, perhaps by increasing blood levels
of:
A) ghrelin.
B) PYY.
C) cortisol.
D) interleukin-6.

43. A persistent problem in falling or staying asleep is called:

A) apnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) insomnia.
D) a sleep disparity.

44. A focus on improving lifestyle behaviors that influence sleep, such as getting regular
exercise and not consuming caffeine late in the day, is known as ______.
A) sleep relaxation training
B) sleep environment improvement
C) sleep restriction
D) sleep hygiene

45. Poor sleep promotes increased body weight by triggering:

A) an increase in the hormone ghrelin and a decrease in the hormone leptin.
B) a decrease in the hormone ghrelin and an increase in the hormone leptin.
C) an increase in both ghrelin and leptin.
D) a decrease in both ghrelin and leptin.

46. Sleep loss may contribute to the development of diabetes because it promotes:
A) insulin resistance.
B) insulin sensitivity.
C) chronic inflammation.
D) neurogenesis.

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47. Cardiometabolic disease is a complex of chronic conditions that include:
A) cancer, cardiovascular disease, and diabetes.
B) cancer, cardiovascular disease, and obesity.
C) cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and obesity.
D) diabetes, obesity, and immunodeficiency.

48. Neurogenesis refers to:

A) the damaging neural effects of chronic sleep loss.
B) the suppressed immunity that accompanies sleep loss.
C) the formation of new nerve cells during sleep.
D) the reorganization of memories during sleep.

49. Most deaths caused by falling are classified as ______ because ______.
A) unintentional injuries; the injured person didn't intend for it to happen
B) intentional injuries; they are, in fact, suicides
C) intentional injuries; they could have been prevented
D) unintentional injuries; they are predictable and preventable

50. The leading cause of death among people between ages 1 and 44 is:
A) cardiovascular disease.
B) cancer.
C) unintentional injury.
D) AIDS.

51. Among younger age groups, ______ are the leading cause of death; among older age
groups, ______ are the leading cause of death.
A) external causes; chronic conditions
B) external causes; external causes
C) chronic conditions; external causes
D) chronic conditions; chronic conditions

52. The terms injury control and harm reduction underscore the fact that most injuries are:
A) random events.
B) unavoidable events.
C) predictable and unavoidable.
D) predictable and preventable.

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53. The most prevalent type of injury resulting in death among adolescents and young
adults is due to:
A) homicide.
B) suicide.
C) motor vehicle accidents.
D) falling.

54. Fear, excitement, and other intense emotions originate in the ______, which is part of
the ______.
A) prefrontal cortex; limbic system
B) amygdala; limbic system
C) hypothalamus; endocrine system
D) cingulate gyrus; central nervous system

55. Emotional regulation, impulse control, and thoughtful analysis occur in the brain's:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) amygdala.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cingulate gyrus.

56. The ______ areas of the brain develop ahead of the ______ areas.
A) analytic; executive
B) executive; analytic
C) impulse control; emotional
D) emotional; executive

57. When compared with 18- to 23-year-olds, people 14 to 15 years of age display:
A) decreased arousal in the limbic system.
B) increased arousal in the limbic system.
C) increased arousal in the prefrontal cortex.
D) equivalent levels of arousal in the limbic system and prefrontal cortex.

58. A key factor in why adolescents and young adults are prone to unintentional injury is:
A) poor decision making on their part.
B) their slow reflexes.
C) immature visual acuity.
D) the slow pace at which the brain's limbic system matures.

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59. Which of these is NOT one of the preventive measures aimed at reducing motor vehicle
accidents that are caused by poor decision making in young drivers?
A) graduated driver licensing
B) restricted night driving
C) driver "buddy systems"
D) no teenage passengers

60. Between ages 55 and 64, ______ cause(s) the most injury-related fatalities.
A) poisoning
B) motor-vehicle crashes
C) suicides
D) homicides

61. Most unintentional deaths from poisoning are caused by ______, especially ______.
A) household chemicals; drain-cleaning products
B) recreational drugs; methamphetamine
C) drugs; prescription painkillers
D) food-borne agents; E. coli

62. The low rate of ______ between ages 18 and 25 is offset by a high rate of ______.
A) unintentional injury; chronic illness
B) chronic illness; violent deaths
C) violent deaths; chronic illness
D) chronic illness; acute illness

63. The most common method of suicide among males is by ______, and the most common
method among females is by_______.
A) firearms; firearms
B) firearms; poisoning
C) poisoning; poisoning
D) poisoning; firearms

64. Cutting, self-administered tattoos, and inserting objects under the skin are examples of:
A) nonsuicidal self-injury.
B) presuicidal self-destruction.
C) suicide gesturing.
D) unintentional self-injury.

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65. The second-leading cause of unintentional injury deaths worldwide is:
A) overexertion.
B) cutting or piercing.
C) poisoning.
D) falling.

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Answer Key
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. A
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. A
21. D
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. C
31. C
32. B
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. C
41. D
42. D
43. C
44. D

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45. A
46. A
47. C
48. C
49. A
50. C
51. A
52. D
53. C
54. B
55. A
56. D
57. B
58. A
59. C
60. B
61. C
62. B
63. B
64. A
65. D

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