Air Law Q4

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PPL AIR LAW QUESTIONS

1. Electronic Logbooks may be used to record flight time, provided that:

a. it has been approved by the commissioner


b. the date is printed on paper at least every 90 days
c. the data is printed on paper at least every 30 days
d. the data is printed on paper once a week.

2. “Cloud ceiling” means:

a. the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud 20 000’
covering less than half the sky.
b. the height above sea level of the base of the lowest cloud below 20 000’
covering
c. the height above sea level of the base of the lowest cloud below 20 000’,
covering less than half the sky.
d. the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20
000’, covering more than half the sky.

3. Flight crew member licenses, or certified copies thereof, must be carried in the
aircraft:

a. on all flights
b. only when passengers are carried
c. international flights
d. commercial flights.

4. A certificate of release to service, or a copy thereof is required to be carried:

a.
b.
c.
d.

5. A pilot who has completed a type rating in a piston-engined aircraft with a mass
certified mass of less than 5700 kg:

a. fly solo and carry passengers therein without any endorsement if


authorized to do so by a flying instructor
b. Not fly solo and carry passengers until been endorsed in pilots log
book

6. The number of hours of microlight flight time, which may be counted towards the
initial issue of a PPL is:
a. 25 hrs
b. 50 hrs
c. 25 hrs
d. 50hrs.
0
7. Period of validity of a PPL for a person who is over age 40:

a. 12 months
b. 36 months
c. 24 months.

8. “Night” is the period:

a. 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes after sunrise


b. 15 minutes after sunset to 15 min before sunrise
c. 15 minutes before sunset to 15 min before sunrise.

9. In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must
be filed for:

a. a flight from an unmanned aerodrome to an ATZ, where no other


controlled or advisory airspace will be entered during the flight.
b. a flight crossing an international boundary even no landings will be
made0
c. a flight crossing on FIR boundary
d. all flights operated of controlled airspace.

10. An aircraft, for which an Air Traffic Service Flight plan has been filled:

a. may be given priority over aircraft for which FP have not been filed
b. will always be given priority over an aircraft for which one has not been
filed
c. will only be given priority over aircraft for which FP have not been filed.

11. An applicant for night rating must have undergone:

a. a dual night cross country of about 75 nautical miles


b. 10 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction
c. not less than 10 take-off and 10 landings at the pilot manipulating centres
d. 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.

12. Single pilot multi-engined aircraft rating is valid:

a. for a period of months


b. indefinitely
c. for a period of 24 months
d. for a period of 12 months.

13. A pilot in command special VFR operations subject to ATC approval within 9:

a. aerodrome traffic zone


b. terminal control area
c. control zone
d. aerodrome flight area.

14. An applicant for a night rating must have computed:

a. not less than 10 take-off and 10 landing as the pilot manipulating the
centres
b. 10 hours of instrument instruction of which not more than 5 hours
may have seen acquired in an approved F & TD.
c. 10 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction
d. a dual night cross-country of at least 75 nautical miles.

15. Included in the requirements for a night rating aeroplane is:

a. a dual cross-country by night of at least 100 nm


b. not less than 3 take-offs and 3 landings by night
c. not less than 10 take-offs and 10 landings by night
d. dual cross-country flight by night of at least 100 nautical miles.

16.

17. No aircraft shall be operated unless a child restraint device is provided for each
passenger who is:

a. less than 5 years of age


b. less than 4 years of age
c. less than 3 years of age
d. less than 2 years of age.

18. An aircraft is to maintain a track of 344°(T), drift 6°R, variation 20°W, high
ground 4300 ft above sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight level to be used is:

a. FL 075
b. FL 065
c. FL080
d. FL 070.

19. All pilots must retain their logbooks, from the date they no longer hold a valid
pilot license, for a period of:
a. 36 months
b. 24 months
c. 60 months
d. 12 months.

20. No flight crew member shall consume any alcohol:

a. less than 12 hours prior to a flight


b. less than 10 hours prior to a flight
c. less than 8 hours prior to a flight.

21. Unless otherwise directed by ATC, compliance with the semi-circular rule is
required for all flights operating above:

a. 1000 ft AGL
b. 1500 ft AGL
c. 3000 ft AGL
d. 2000 ft AGL.

22. No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off except:

a. when it can be used without hazard to persons or traffic and that the pilot
has visually inspected the surface from air
b. with the written permission of the commissioner
c. in an emergency.

23. A list of signals for use by intercepting aircraft must be carried:

a. only on international flights


b. only on domestic passenger carrying flights
c. only on flights which intend to enter military airspace
d. on all flights.

24. In terms of the civil aviation regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be
filed for:

a. a flight from an unmanned aerodrome to an ATZ, where no other


controlled or advisory airspace will be entered during the flight
b. a flight crossing an international boundary even no landings will be
made
c. a flight crossing a FIR boundary
d. all flights operated outside of controlled airspace.

25. An aircraft, for which an air traffic service flight plan has been filled:
a. may be given priority over aircraft for which one has not been filed
b. will always be given priority over the other aircraft if operating in
accordance with IFR
c. will not be given priority over other aircraft if operating in accordance
with IFR
d. will not be given priority over aircraft for which flight plans have not been
filed.

26. The applicant for a private pilot license must undergo the skill test within:

a. 6 months of the date of application


b. 6 months of passing the theoretical knowledge exams
c. 3 6months of passing the theoretical exams
d. 30 days of the date of application.

27. A record of each fuel and oil uplift must be kept in:

a. aircraft logbook
b. aircraft flight folio
c. the pilot’s navigation log.

28. The pilot in command of an aircraft on a domestic VFR cross country flight shall
not commence take-off unless:

a. an air traffic service flight plan has been filed


b. the aircraft carries sufficient fuel to fly to the destination, then to a suitable
alternate and thereafter back to the aerodrome of departure
c. a favourable meteorological forecast for the route to be flown has been
obtained
d. a passenger manifest has been completed.

29. Except with the written approval of the commissioner, no aircraft shall circle or
do repeated flights over an open air assembly of people, less than:

a. 2000 ft above the surface


b. 1000 ft above the surface
c. 3000 ft above the surface
d. 4000 ft above the surface.

30. An aircraft is maintaining a track of 340° (T), drift 6° Right, variation 21°W. The
flight levels available for selection includes:

a. FL045, FL065, FL085


b. FL025, FL-035, FL045
c. FL055, FL075, FL105
d. FL035, FL055, FL075.
31. A pilot may fly through a declared restricted area provided that:

a. written permission from the commissioner is obtained


b. permission from the appropriate authority is obtained
c. a good lookout is kept for other aircraft and traffic broadcasts are made on
the designated frequency
d. a copy of the signals for use by intercepting aircraft is carried on board.

32. No aircraft shall be operated at night unless:

a. it is equipped with one landing light with a single filament


b. it is equipped with a serviceable rotating beacon
c. in the event that the navigation lights are unserviceable, it is equipped with
a strobe light
d. in place of a serviceable landing light, it is equipped with wing strobe
lights.

33. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:

a. within 12 hours of consuming alcohol


b. within 8 hours of scuba dive
c. within 12 hours of scuba dive
d. within 72 hours of blood donation.

34. An applicant for the renewal of a private pilot license, without an instrument
rating and who is under the age of 40 years shall:

a. always undergo a flight test every 12 months


b. have completed not less than 3 hours of solo flight time in the previous
12 months
c. have completed not less than 10 hours of solo flight time in the previous
12 months
d. have completed not less than 100 hours of flight time, of which not more
than 4 hours may be dual instruction time, in the previous 12 months.

35. The flight visibility required for a VFR flight operating within an aerodrome
traffic area (ATA) is:

a. 1500m
b. 500m
c. 2000m
d. 5km.

36. Formation flights may only be conducted:


a. by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the
formation
b. subject to the authority of the commissioner
c. by commercial or higher rated pilots.

37. With reference to the maintenance of competency requirements, if a pilot fails a


proficiency check:

a. he must undergo corrective training and provide a letter of


recommendation for a retest
b. he or she may continue to exercise the privileges of their license until re-
tested
c. he or she may undergo another proficiency check.

38. In terms of the semi-circular rule the selection of flight levels shall be based on:

a. magnetic heading
b. true track
c. true heading
d. magnetic track.

39. To an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, a series of red flashes shall mean:

a. cleared to taxi
b. taxi clear of landing area in use
c. stop
d. return to starting point on the aerodrome.

40. For flights conducted in accordance with part 91, or flying training, operations the
relevant entries in a pilot’s logbook must be made within:

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 7 days
d. 36 hours.

41. To an aircraft in the air at an aerodrome a series of white flashes means:

a. give way to other aircraft and continue circling


b. taxi clear of landing area in use
c. land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron
d. aerodrome unsafe, do not land.

42. In order to change to another type of aeroplane, not previously flown, within one
class rating:
a. the new type may only be flown solo once it has been endorsed on the
pilot’s license
b. the pilot may fly the new aeroplane type without any training, because he
or she holds the applicable class rating
c. the pilot must undergo differences of familiarization training.

43. In the case of a radio failure, a flight for which a flight plan was filed and
activated may continue in controlled airspace provided that:

a. the aircraft is a VFR flight


b. the communication failure procedure are complied with
c. the aircraft is fitted with a serviceable transponder.

44. The flying requirements for the revalidation of a single-pilot, single-engine piston
aeroplane includes:

a. 6 hours pilot-in-command, 12 take-offs and 12 landings and a training


flight of at least one hour’s duration in the previous 12 months
b. 6 take-offs and 6 landings in the previous 12 months
c. 12 hours pilot-in-command in the previous 24 months.

45. Minimum height at which an aircraft may fly across an aerodrome without
conforming to the traffic pattern is:

a. 1000 ft
b. 1500 ft
c. 500 ft
d. 2000 ft.

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